Saint Marys University SCHOOL OF HEALTH SCIENCES Bayombong, Nueva Vizcaya (1st Term Examination) (Introduction to Oncology Nursing,

Breast Ca, Prostate Ca, Uterine Ca, Lung Ca, Leukemia, Hodgkins and Non Hodgkins) INTRODUCTION TO ONCOLOGY NURSING: 1. One theory of carcinogenesis is ONCOGENE. This theory suggests that carcinogenesis causes mutations in cellular DNA and that there are stages of carcinogenic process. These stages are: A. INITIATION, PROMOTION, PROGRESSION, METASTASIS B. POINT MUTATION, DELETION, INSERTION C. INVASION and METASTASIS D. G1 phase, SYNTHESIS phase, G2 phase, MITOTIC phase 2. Mr. Romy, a 42 year old patient complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his 1st week of radiation therapy. Which of the following responses by the nurse would best reassure him A. This symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies B. These symptoms are part of your disease and cant be helped C. This is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying D. Dont be concerned about these symptoms. Everybody feels this way after having radiation therapy 3. Which of the following statements about carcinogens is INCORRECT? A. Promoter substances do not cause cancer in the absence of previous cell damage and often require high level and long term contact with the altered cell B. Several viruses have been associated with development of cancer. They damage cells and induce hyperplastic cell growth C. Natural substances in the body may also be carcinogenic or promotional. For example, ineffectively eliminated bile acids from high fat diet D. None of the above 4. Which set of classification values indicates the most extensive and progressed cancer? A. T1 N0 M0 C. T1 N1 M0 B. Tis N0 M0 D. T4 N3 M1 5. For a patient who is receiving chemotherapy, which laboratory results are of particular importance? A. WBC C. Electrolytes B. PT and PTT D. BUN 6. Which of the following is an environmental factor that increases the risk of cancer? A. Gender C. Immunologic status B. Nutrition D. Age 7. A client is newly diagnosed with cancer and is beginning a treatment plan. Which of the following nursing interventions will be most effective in helping the client to cope? A. Assume decision making for the client B. Encourage strict compliance with all treatment regimens C. Inform the client for all possible adverse treatment effects D. Identify available resources 8. A clinical Instructor is lecturing about characteristics of malignant neoplasms and benign neoplasms. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Benign tumors are frequently encapsulated while malignant tumors are not B. Benign tumors grow slowly and often remain stable in size while malignant tumors are characterized by rapid cell division and growth C. Benign tumors can be destructive if they crowd surrounding tissues and obstruct the function of organs D. Malignant cancer cells can be highly undifferentiated such that undifferentiated cells try to mimic the specialized function of the parent tissue 9. This is one of the major treatment modalities for cancer. It uses high energy emitting isotopes to kill cancer cells. It causes the breakage of one or both strands of the DNA molecule inside the cells, thereby preventing their ability to grow and divide. A. Chemotherapy B. Cryotherapy C. Photodynamic therapy D. Radiation therapy 10. Which of the following needs further teaching in client receiving chemotherapy? A. Used of normal saline in buccal mucosa B. Using a manual razor C. Minimizing intrusive procedures D. Avoiding crowds and contact sports LUNG CANCER 11. The most common type of lung cancer in males, in females and non-smokers which account to 40% of all lung tumors is: A. Oat cell carcinoma

B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Large cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma 12. What is the most important risk factor for lung cancer? A. Exposure to environmental/ occupational carcinogens B. Family history of lung cancer C. Cigarette smoking D. Diet rich in fats 13. Which of the following statements made by the client with a new diagnosis of lung cancer would indicate that the nurses teaching has been effective? A. Well, since Im going to die anyway, I may as well go home, put my affairs in order and spend the rest of my time in my easy chair B. I understand that because the cancer has already spread, I will be undergoing aggressive treatment for the next several years to beat this thing C. Even though I cannot undo the damage caused by cigarette smoking, I will try to quit to prevent further damage to my lungs D. Having the big C is very scary, Im just glad it is one of the more curable forms of cancer. 14. Bronchogenic cancers are capable of producing paraneoplastic syndromes as a result of secretion of substances by the primary tumor or its metastases. A patient diagnosed with Small Lung Cell Carcinoma (SCLC) displays muscle weakness of the shoulders, arms, thighs and pelvis. She also complained of having dry mouth and double vision. You explain to the patient that: A. It is a result of ectopic secretion of ACTH by the malignant cells B. He is manifesting a paraneoplastic syndrome called SIADH C. He developed Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS), an autoimmune disease as result of his cancer. D. It is associated with periostitis of long bone and clubbing of fingers and toes, symptoms of Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoarthropathy. 15. A patient is scheduled for bronchoscopy and is asking about the procedure and how it is done. The correct response to the patient is: A. You will be conscious and awake during the procedure B. Fiber optic bronchoscopy requires 5-10 minutes to complete C. No food or beverage restrictions before and after the procedure D. Voice hoarseness and a sore throat are common following the procedure 16. Stage 4 Lung cancer can be described as: A. T4 N1 M0 C. T4 N3 M1 B. T4 N3 M0 D. T0 N0 M1 17. A patient is diagnosed with Stage 3B Non small cell lung carcinoma, which of the following management can be expected? A. Surgery + Radiation therapy + Chemotherapy B. Radiation therapy + Chemotherapy

C. Surgery + Chemotherapy D. Surgery + Radiation therapy 18. A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes included for the treatment of Non small cell Lung carcinoma. A pneumonectomy involves removal of: A. An entire lung field B. A small, wedge- shaped lung surface C. One lobe of a lung D. One or more segments of a lung lobe 19. The incidence and risk of lung cancer development increases when smoking is combined with what risk factor? A. Asbestos exposure and alcohol consumption B. Ultraviolet radiation exposure and alcohol consumption C. Asbestos exposure and ultraviolet radiation exposure D. Alcohol consumption and human papillomavirus infection 20. The client with Lung cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care? A. Ambulation 3 times a day B. Monitoring temperature C. Monitoring the platelet count D. Monitoring for pathological fractures 21. The nurse is caring for a client experiencing hematologic toxicity as a result of chemotherapy. The platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm3. Based on this laboratory value, the priority nursing assessment is which of the following? A. Assess level of consciousness B. Assess temperature C. Assess bowel sounds D. Assess skin turgor 22. A nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which of the following is an early sign of this oncological emergency? A. Peri - orbital edema C. Mental status changes B. Arm edema D. Cyanosis 23. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a tentative diagnosis of bronchogenic tumor in the left lung area. The physicians admission orders include sending the sputum specimen to the laboratory for cytology, scheduling a bronchoscopy and pulmonary function test. Cytologic examination of the patients sputum is done to the determine the presence of: A. Mucus casts C. Malignant cells B. Blood cells D. Pathogenic bacteria 24. A 62 year old male is dying from metastatic lung cancer, and all treatments have been discontinued. The clients breathing pattern is labored with gurgling sounds. The clients wife asks the nurse, Can you do something to help with his breathing? Which of the following is the nurses best response in this situation? A. Direct the unlicensed personnel to assess the clients vital signs and provide oral care

B. Suction the client so that the clients wife knows all interventions were performed C. Reposition the client, elevate the head of the bed and provide a cool compress D. Explain to the wife that dying clients do not need suctioning. 25. The nurse prepares instructions for a client who developed stomatitis following the administration of antineoplastic drugs. The nurse tells the client to: A. Rinse the mouth with baking soda or saline B. Avoid foods and fluids for the next 24 hours C. Swab the mouth daily with lemon and glycerin swab D. Brush the teeth and use waxed dental floss 3 times a day BREAST CANCER 26. What is the most common type of invasive breast cancer which accounts 75% of all cases? A. Infiltrating lobular Carcinoma B. Medullary Carcinoma C. Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma D. Tubular Ductal Carcinoma 27. The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with breast cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary if the client identifies which of the following as an associated risk factor? A. Nulliparity C. Multiple pregnancies B. Hormonal therapy D. Radiation exposure 28. The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client diagnosed with Pagets disease. The nurse asks the client about the characteristic symptom of this type of breast cancer? A. Peau d orange B. Lymphedema of the affected arm C. With a clear nipple discharge D. Scaly, erythematous, pruritic lesion of the nipple 29. The American Cancer Society recommends a baseline mammography for all women, what specific age does a woman should undergo such diagnostic procedure? A. 20-39 years old C. 60-65 years old B. 40-45 years old D. 70 years old and above 30. The client reports to the nurse that when performing breast self examination, she found a lump, the size and shape of a pea. The most appropriate response to the client is which of the following? A. Thats important to report even though it might not be serious B. That should be cancer, Ill ask the doctor to examine you C. Let me know if it gets bigger next month D. Lumps like that are normal, dont worry 31. The nurse is caring for a client with Stage 3b breast cancer. The client is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate nursing assessment of the clients pain would include which of the following? A. The clients pain rating B. The nurses impression of the clients pain C. Nonverbal cues from the client

D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention 32. What is the most common site of breast cancer? A. Lower outer quadrant B. Upper inner quadrant C. Lower inner quadrant D. Upper outer quadrant 33. The nurse is instructing a group of clients about breast self examination. The nurse would instruct the clients to perform the examination.. A. At the onset of menstruation B. 1 week after menstruation begins C. Every month during ovulation D. Weekly at the same time of the day 34. The nurse is caring for a client following a modified radical mastectomy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery? A. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain B. Pain at the incision site C. Complaints of decreased sensation on the operative site D. Arm edema on the operative side 35. The nurse is caring for a client following a radical mastectomy. Which of the following nursing interventions would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected arm? A. Placing cool compress on the affected arm B. Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level C. Maintaining an intravenous site below the antecubital area on the affected side D. Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate postoperative period 36. The nurse knows that early manifestations of breast cancer may include which of the following? A. Simple, painless, non-tender, hard, irregular mass B. Multiple lumps, tender, soft movable mass C. One large nodule, tender, soft movable mass D. Very small painless, multiple movable soft mass 37. The nurse knows that women most at risk to develop breast cancer are: A. Over 65 years of age, married, younger than 18 at first pregnancy B. Over 55 years of age, never married with a family history of cancer C. Over 65 years of age, married, multiple sex partners at a young age D. Over 40 years of age, never married with a family history of lung cancer 38. A female client with carcinoma of the breast is admitted to the hospital for treatment with intravenously administered Vincristine. The client tells the nurse that she has been told by her friends that she is going to lose all of her hair. The most appropriate nursing response is which of the following? A. You will not lose all you hair B. You friends are correct

C. Hair loss may occur, but it will grow back just as it is now D. Hair loss may occur, and it will grow back, but it may have different color or texture 39. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results on a client receiving an antineoplastic medication by the intravenous route. The nurse plans to initiate bleeding precautions if which laboratory result is noted? A. A WBC of 5,000 cells u/L B. Platelet count of 50,000 cell/ Ul C. Clotting time of 10 minutes D. An ammonia level of 20 mcg/dl 40. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse administering the medication understands that the primary action of this medication is to: A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis B. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response D. Promote biosynthesis of nucleic acids LYMPHOMAS, LEUKEMIAS 41. A positive diagnosis of hodgkins disease depends on: A. Enlarged, firm, and painful lymph node B. Histologic analysis of an enlarged lymph node C. Progressive anemia D. The presence of a generalized pruritus 42. Which of the following individuals is at high risk of developing Hodgkins disease A. A 20-year-old male who had mononucleosis B. A 55-year-old female who had herpes simplex infection C. A 50-year-old man who is taking cyclosphorin for an autoimmune disorder D. A 60 year-old farmer 43. Hodgkins lymphoma and non-Hodgkins lymphoma are most clearly distinguished from each other by: A. The initial presentation B. The specific cell type C. The Ann Arbor classification system D. The extra nodal site of involvement 44. A client diagnosed with stage 2 Hodgkins disease asks the nurse about his prognosis. The most appropriate response by the nurse is: A. Most people with HD eventually die from their disease. B. Chemotherapy is a sure cure for this illness. C. Most individuals with early Hodgkins disease survive. D. Lets wait and see. 45. A client with Hodgkins disease is staged at IIE1. The nurse knows this means there

A. Are two or more nodes on the same side of the diaphragm plus 1 extranodal involvement B. Is involvement of a single lymphoid structure plus 2 extranodal involvement C. Are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with portal involvement D. Are nodes on both sides with para-aorta involvement 46. Systemic symptoms that indicate aggressiveness of the lymphoma and are called B symptoms are: A. Fever, night sweets, pain, intentional weight loss B. Fever, chills, night sweats C. Bleeding, fatigue, respiratory infections D. Fever, night sweats, unintentional weight loss 47. A client diagnosed with stage 2 lymphoma is with hepatomegaly and edema on the lower extremities. This may indicate that a lymph node is putting pressure on the: A. Superior vena cava C. Subclavian vein B. Splanchnic nerves D. Billiary tree 48. Which of the following activities will increase the risk for infection to a patient with lymphoma? A. Going to church B. Taking a walk in the park C. Cleaning the house D. Watching television 49. A client is having difficulty coping with her new diagnosis of lymphoma. Which response by the nurse is most helpful A. Dont worry, youll be okey. B. The treatments you are receiving will make you feel better soon. C. Who do you usually go to when you are having problem? D. Have you made end-of life decisions? 50. A client who just had chemotherapy is complaining of painful spastic episodes of muscle contraction. Which electrolyte imbalance causes this occurrence? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypocalcemia with indolent type of nonHodgkins 51. Which of the following statement is true with indolent type of non-Hodgkins lymphoma? A. Clients have longer survival rates B. Clients are more responsive to chemotherapy C. T- lymphocytes are usually affected D. Combination of radiotherapy and chemotherapy are used to treat the client 52. Just like chemotherapy, systemic effect is expected in clients undergoing radiotherapy

A. True C. False 53. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is the least applicable to a patient with lymphoma A. Risk for infection related to altered immune response B. Pain related to enlarged lymph node C. Body image disturbance related to lymph adenopathy in the cervical area D. Fatigue related to hypermetaboloc state 54. A nurse caring for a client with HD must know the stage of the disease A. To be able to focus assessment on the compromised organ B. To be able to participate in the treatment and medical management C. To know the prognosis of the disease condition D. To be able to evaluate patients condition 55. When a client has acute leukemia, this means that: A. There are more blast cells than normal cells B. The number of WBCs is greatly increased C. The number of WBCs is decreased D. There is decreased number of RBCs 56. Nursing documentation of a client with neutropenia reads, there are several diffuse red, fluid-filled lesions on the lips, tongue, and buccal region. This finding may indicate the client has A. Candidiasis B. A normal response to chemotherapy C. infectious mononucleosis D. Herpes infection 57. A client receiving chemotherapy has a platelet count of 40,000. She is having pain and is prescribed Tylenol suppository per rectum. An appropriate action by the nurse is to: A. Administer the drug as prescribed B. Have the medication be changed to Demerol IM C. Request that she be placed on a morphine drip D. Have the medication prescription be changed to a PO route 58. Multiple drugs are primarily used in combinations to treat leukemia and lymphoma because A. There are fewer toxic and side effects B. The chance that one drug will be effective is increased C. They can interrupt cell growth at multiple points in the cell cycle D. They are more effective without having exacerbating effect 59. Nursing interventions for the client with bleeding tendency would include: A. Administering enteric-coated aspirin B. Observing for petechiae and ecchymoses C. Assessing jugular vein distention D. Administering ferrous sulfate daily

60. Which of the following would be an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a patient who is high risk for infection? A. Transfuse granulocytes to prevent infection B. Exclude raw fruits from the diet C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the clients room 61. Which of the following interventions should be implemented in caring for a patient whose CBC reveals: WBC 5000/mm3, Hgb 11.8 g/dl, thrombocytes 9000/mm3? A. Cough and deep breath every 4 hours to prevent infection B. Platelet transfusion to maintain platelet count above 20,000/mm3 C. Plan activities to conserve energy D. Stool softener as needed to prevent constipation For #62 66 select from the following: A. AML C. ALL B. CML, , D. CLL 62. Common in children? 63. There is a large number of immature granulocytes 64. There is a large number of well differentiated but small white blood cells 65. Most common type of leukemia after the age 50 66. It has a blastic phase 67. A definitive diagnostic/laboratory result for leukemia is: A. CBC and differential count B. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis C. Bone marrow biopsy D. Bone CT Scan 68. Which of the following is correct about the consolidation phase of chemotherapy? A. The combination of chemotherapeutic agents is changed B. Its goal is to shock the bone marrow to stop cancer cells from duplicating C. It is a series of treatment of low doses of chemotherapeutic agents D. It is a single dose of high doses of chemotherapeutic agents 69. Administration of G- CSF to leukemic patients is considered: A. Palliative C. Supportive B. Curative 70. The most common cause of death for leukemic patients is: A. Hemorrhage B. Infection C. Spread of leukemic cells D. The chemotherapeutic agents

Prostate Cancer 71. After a transurethral resection, the nurse notices that the clients urine is bright red, has numerous clots, and is viscous. The appropriate nursing action is to: A. Call the physician immediately B. Irrigate the catheter C. Force fluids D. Add fluid to the balloon end of the urinary catheter 72. A client developed retrograde ejaculation after prostate surgery. In responding to the clients questions regarding this complication, the nurse would be aware that: A. This condition is usually temporary B. The problem can be repaired surgically C. This condition is a risk of surgery D. The client will not be able to experience orgasm 73. The nurse caring for a neutropenic, 75 year old man undergoing treatment for prostate cancer assesses a temperature of 380C. The most appropriate interpretation of these findings is: A. The client is experiencing the expected increase in metabolism that often accompanies malignancy B. The client may have a urinary tract infection causing a low-grade fever C. A systemic chemotherapeutic effect is probably occurring D. A medical emergency may be occurring, and prompt further assessment is needed 74. The doctor inserts an indwelling urinary catheter to relieve urine retention for patient with prostate cancer. Which nursing action would maintain the system drainage potency? A. Restricting fluids to 500 ml per day B. Taping the catheter to the inner aspect of the thigh C. Positioning the tubing with dependent loops D. Keeping the drainage bag below the bladder level 75. The fourth day after undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate, the doctor removes the patients indwelling urinary catheter. Later that day, the patient complains of wetting himself. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? A. Advise the patient to contract his perineal muscles periodically B. Restrict the patients fluid intake C. Apply condom catheter D. Suggest that the patient should void as the void comes 76. Mr. Daryl is diagnosed with prostate cancer requiring surgical intervention (TURP). Which of the following

nursing actions would be most appropriate when preparing Mr. Daryl for surgery? A. Reassure the patient that the result of the surgery will probably positive B. Provide activities that distracts the patient from worrying about the surgery C. Encourage the patent and his family to express fears and concerns about the surgery D. Tell the patient not to worry about being apprehensive because all patients experience such feelings 77. A nurse has provided instructions to a client receiving external radiation therapy. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate a need for further instruction regarding self care related to the radiation therapy? A. I need to avoid exposure to sunlight B. I need to wash my skin with a mild soap and pat dry C. I need to apply pressure on the irritated area to prevent bleeding D. I need to eat a high protein diet 78. A cardinal symptom of prostrate cancer is: A. A soft movable mass B. Hard fixed nodules palpated on rectal examination C. Velvety red ulcerative lesion D. Painless enlargement of the testes 79. Chemotherapy is being used for cancer clients to intervene and interrupt the: A. Blood flow to the cell C. Cell cycle B. Effect of radiation D. Apoptosis 80. A client with a Prostate Specific Antigen of 3 ng/ml is considered to have: A. With risk of developing cancer B. Indicates presence of prostate cancer C. Prostate biopsy as prescribed by the physician D. No risk of prostate cancer 81. A client tells the nurse that on discharge following the clients transurethral resection, his wife is going to drive him to his daughters house 3 hours away. The nurses most appropriate response would be: A. Im glad you have someone to help you. B. During the drive, be sure to stop every hour to void. C. Try to limit fluid intake before the drive to avoid problems D. Long drives should be avoided for at least 2 weeks. Can an alternative plan be arranged? 82. For a client with radioactive iodine seeds implanted for local control of a prostate tumor, the nurse would address radiation precautions by: A. Treating all urine as radioactive B. Limiting time spent with the client C. Isolating the client while the implants are intact

D. Stating that no special precautions are necessary 83. Considering the potential long-term side effects of a radical prostectomy, the nurse would make the nursing diagnosis of: A. Risk for Sexual Dysfunction B. Social Isolation C. Impaired Urinary Elimination D. Deficient Fluid Volume 84. The patient wants to remove the indwelling catheter used for urinary bladder irrigation and ask the nurse when to remove the catheter. The nurse best response is which of the following? A. When there is lesser output B. Pain sensation is very important to consider before removing the catheter C. When the drainage appears clear t light pink D. When there is no sign of bladder distention 85. Which of the following nursing intervention is a priority to patient undergoing internal radiation therapy? A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake B. Providing bedside care regularly C. Instruct the client for bed rest and teach the client to avoid bearing especially during urination D. Limit visitors UTERINE CANCER 86. The nurse reminds a post hysterectomy client that until permitted by the physician, the patient should avoid: A. Abdominal strengthening exercise B. Early ambulation C. Riding a car D. Walking for short distances 87. Nursing care of the client with radioactive implants to treat endometrial cancer would include: A. Positioning the client to high fowlers position B. Daily enemas to clear colon of contents C. High protein, high fat diet to repair radiated tissues D. Bed rest 88. The nurse teaches skin care to the client receiving external radiation therapy. Which of the following statements, if made by the client, would indicate the need for further instruction? A. I will handle the area gently B. I will avoid the use of deodorant C. I will limit sun exposure to 1 hour daily D. I will wear loose-fitting clothing 89. Which of the following is classified as an alkylating agent? A. Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) B. Cytoxan (Cyclophospamide) C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) D. Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

90. A client with uterine cancer will undergo internal radiation of intracavitary cessium. Which of the following is important for the nurse to remember when utilizing radiation precautions? A. GSD guarding, shielding and timing B. STD shielding, timing and distance C. ABS assessment, blocking and shielding D. DDD drug, diet and diversional activities True or False: 91. The best treatment for uterine cancer is hysterectomy. A. True B. False 92. The most common site for uterine cancer metastasis is the adjacent organs such as the ovary and the cervix and the pelvic bone area. This is usually treated with TAHBSO and Chemotherapy. A. True B. False 93. One of the common causes of uterine cancer is a hormonal imbalance that causes abnormal hyperplasia of the uterine wall as a result of unopposed estrogen function. A. True B. False 94. Clinical findings of endometrial polyps mostly asymptomatic in nature but may presents intermenstrual bleeding (metrorrhagia). A. True B. False 95. Luteinizing hormone and estrogen are hormones responsible for ovulation and proliferation of uterine wall which is believed to cause abnormal hyperplasia of the uterus. A. True B. False 96. Papanicoulau test is used to screen patient with cervical cancer. A. True B. False 97. Regular palpation of the abdomen is contraindicated to patient suspected with uterine cancer. A. True B. False 98. Myomectomy/hysterectomy is only being done to clients with uterine cancer G1. A. True B. False 99. Clients undergone hysterectomy must take hormone supplements to ensure prevention of early menopausal signs and symptoms. A. True B. False 100. Hormone therapy for patients with uterine cancer is being given for advance case of uterine cancer. A. True B. False I have been impressed with the urgency of doing. Knowing is not enough; we must apply. Being willing is not enough; we must do. - Leonardo Da Vinci Prepared by: Mrs. Ruby F. de Guzman RN, MSN Mrs. Hazel M. Valmores RN, MSN Mr. Marvick F. Galima RN, MSN