CPL KDR

Ella Krohn

CSYA
2.2.4.1(a)(iii) Abnormal eng instruments indications Q) Describe or state the function of the following typical components mentioned in pilot operating handbooks:(iii) fuel pressure gauge A) The fuel pressure gauge is used to indicate the pressure that fuel is being delivered to the carburettor or fuel controller for injected engines. Low indication could indicate a failure of the engine driven fuel pump, in which case, you should switch on the boost pump. Fluctuating fuel pressure when all other engine instruments indications remain normal is a likely indication of fuel vaporization.

2.2.4.1(a)(iv) Fuel flow gauge Q) Describe or state the function of the following typical components mentioned in pilot operating handbooks: (iv) fuel flow gauge A) Fuel flow gauge is more commonly used in fuel injected systems than carburetted systems. Its a measure of fuel pressure calibrated to a flow rate as it assumes a given pressure will produce a given flow rate. Errors: A partial blockage of the fuel line will cause an incorrect reading. The pressure will rise, making the fuel flow read higher, while the fuel flow will drop or stop completely. Fluctuations of the gauge could indicate fuel vapourisation.

1.2.2.3(c)Voltmeter Q) State the purpose of the following gauges: voltmeter. Note: Purpose means the importance in relation to monitoring the powerplant and systems. A) The voltmeter monitors the systems voltage. Prior to start with the master switch on - the voltmeter will read the batterys volatage. After start, the voltmeter will read the alternators output voltage. The reading should remain constant during flight. A drop in voltage indicates too high a load on the system or a faulty alternator.

2.2.5.1 (b) ASI calibration explain the relationship between: IAS CAS EAS TAS. IAS -> Corrected for position and instrument error = CAS -> Corrected for compressibility errors = EAS -> Corrected with air density = TAS. IAS and CAS are assumed to be the same in many smaller aircraft. EAS is CAS corrected for compressibility errors that occur at high altitudes and airspeeds. Usually negligible below 200 kts and 10,000 ft. Since air density is less at high altitudes, this factor must be taken into consideration to find the TAS.

2.2.4.1(h)(iii) Aircraft fire extinguisher Q) Describe or state the function of the following typical components mentioned in pilot operating handbook: Types of fire extinguisher and usage. A) Portable Extinguishers usually filled with Halon 1211 (or BCF). This is a chemical extinguisher that is not conductive, so its safe to use on electrical fires and its effective on solid material fires. Hold fire extinguishing systems (with automatic detection) Manually operated by the flight crew, they create an initial burst of extinguishing agent to extinguish the fire and then deploy the remainder gradually to prevent re-ignition or slow the spread of the fire if it wasnt extinguished in the initial burst to allow the time for an aircraft to divert to the nearest airport and land. Engine fire bottle extinguishing systems (with automatic detection) Engine and APU fire extinguishing systems can be automatic or manually operated. They usually operate by a squib firing and releasing the contents of the bottle, which is Halon 1301.

1.2.5.2(b) Carburettor icing Q) State the atmospheric conditions and engine control settings conducive to the formation of: (b) fuel evaporation ice The student should be aware of the probability and severity of icing under different OAT, relative humidity and power conditions. A) Higher humidity = higher risk of icing. Most likely to form at temperatures below 20 deg C with a relative humidity of over 80 % Power settings Low power settings = increased risk of icing due to adiabatic cooling with a pressure drop across a partially closed throttle butterfly. 2.2.4.1 (a) (i) Boost pump operation Q) Describe or state the function of the following typical components mentioned in pilot operating handbooks: (i) auxiliary/booster pump. A) The booster pump is used to assist the engine driven fuel pump at time where the risk of fuel vaporisation is high (i.e during take off). It is also used to deliver fuel to the engine in case of a failure of the engine driven fuel pump.

2.1.1 (a)(iv) Mixture control Q) Describe the principle of operation of a simple carburettor in terms of mixture control. A) The mixture control of a carburettor is controlled by a lever in the cockpit which moves a needle to control the fuel flow through the main jet. The cockpit lever in rich position means the needle is lifted up, allowing a lot of fuel to flow through. For ICO the needle completely blocks the fuel flow.

1.2.4.1(b) Magneto Malfunction With respect to a malfunction or a failure of the magneto: identify cockpit indications which may suggest a malfunction During run-ups, state pilot actions (if any) to rectify the problem Take to maintenance describe the consequences if the malfunction cannot be rectified. Large loss of power of power. One mag being inop could be enough to prevent an aircraft from safely taking off.

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2.8.10.3 Damage and defect reporting State the responsibilities of a pilot in command with regard to: (a) daily inspections A daily inspection must be carried out on the aircraft before the aircrafts first flight each day on which the aircraft is flown. The checks are detailed in Schedule 5 of the CAR and include things such as checking that the propeller is free from cracks and bends, checking there is no ice on the wings, checking that the fuel tank sump is free of water, checking the seatbelts arent frayed. (b) recording/reporting aircraft defects A flight crew member of an Australian aircraft must endorse the maintenance release of the aircraft and sign it if the aircraft has suffered major damage or if there is a defect in the aircraft (CAR50)

2.8.10.2 Required aircraft equipment Q) Given a typical scenario, extract from CASA regulations/orders/instructions the communication and normal and emergency equipment required to be on board an aircraft. A) CAO 20.18 Appendix 1. VFR instruments for private. 1) a) Airspeed b) Altimeter with adjustable pressure in millibars c) Direct reading magnetic compass d) An accurate timepiece 2) In addition to 1, aerial or charter also need a) Turn and slip indicator b) OAT indicator AIP ENR Section 4. VHF radio is required in class A, C, D, E. Also required in Class G above 5,000 ft AMSL, also at aerodromes where carriage and use of radio is required, and in operations in reduced VMC. CAO 20.11 1 lifejacket for each occupant where the aircraft is overwater and a distance from land that in the case of a single engine aircraft, is greater than glide distance. Or in the case of a twin, greater than 50 miles. Life rafts must be carried for single or twin piston engines, when flying a distance of 30 minutes cruising speed or 100 miles, whichever is less. (CAR 252A) All Australian aircraft must be fitted with an approved ELT/ELB unless:1. Less than 50 NM from an aerodrome (provided a/c is fitted with HF radio) 2. Agricultural ops 3. CASA has given permission 4. New a/c and the flight is a test flight or ferry flight 5. In process of flying the a/c to a place to have ELT/ELB fitted or to have the fitted ELT/ELB repaired/overhauled 6. Temporarily removal for inspection, repair, mod, or replacement; and an entry has been made int he log book stating the make, model and s/n, and the date of removal and the reason for removal. In addition, a placard stating " ELT not installed or carried " in the a/c that can be seen by the pilot; and that not more than 90 days since the removal.

2.3.1.3 Extract operational information from ERSA. Extract/decode information contained in ERS(A), NOTAMS and AIP supplements.

1.3.3.1 (e) VMC/VFR operations Recall/apply the following rules/requirements: (e) visual flight rules and visual meteorology conditions (aeroplanes) for operations below 10,000ft AIP ENR 1.2. Class C 5 KM VIS - 1500M horizontally and 1000 ft vertically of cloud. Class D 5KM VIC - 600M horizontally and 1000 ft vertically above or 500 ft below cloud Class E 5KM VIS - 1500 M horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from cloud Class G 5KM VIS - 1500 M horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from cloud Class G At or below 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 ft AGL (whatever is higher) - 5 KM VIS - Clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water.

1.3.3.1 (b) Operations at non-controlled aerodrome Recall/apply the following rules/requirements:(b) the requirements relating to the operation of aircraft on & in the vicinity of an aerodrome & the conditions relating to turns after take-off CAR166A 4.4.1 should depart by extending one of the standard circuit legs. However, an aircraft should not execute a turn opposite to the circuit direction unless the aircraft is well outside the circuit area and no traffic conflict exists. This will normally be at least 3 NM from the departure end of the runway. The distance may be less for aircraft with high climb performance. During initial climbout, the turn onto crosswind should be made appropriate to the performance of the aircraft, but in any case not less than 500 FT above terrain [CAR 166A(2)(f)] so as to be at circuit height when turning onto downwind

CNAV
2.7.2.4 Factors affecting daylight duration Q) List factors which may cause daylight to end earlier than the time extracted from AIP darkness graphs. A) Terrain surrounding a location, cloud cover, dust and smoke.

2.7.1.1 (e) Great and small circles, rhumb lines Q) In order to apply this knowledge a student should have an understanding of great circles, small circles, rhumb lines, and, if applicable, their effect on: position on the earth time differences distance and direction A) Great Circles a circle that forms along the earths surface in any plane that passes through the centre of the earth. All meridians of longitude are great circles. The equator is also a great circle. The shortest distance between any two points on a sphere is an arc of a great circle. Small Circles Any circle on the surface of a sphere that is not a great circle. Parallels of latitude (except the equator) are all small circles. Rhumb Lines A line that crosses all meridians of longitude at a constant angle. Curved line on the surface of the earth that is concave to the nearest pole.

2.7.1.1 (h) Lat and Long, distance In order to apply this knowledge a student should have an understanding of distance on the earth i.e. relationship between a minute of latitude and a nautical mile. And, if applicable, its effect on: position on the earth time differences distance and direction

1 nautical mile = 1 minute of latitude anywhere or 1 minute of longitude at the equator. So 1 degree of latitude = 60 nm Longitude uses the Greenwich Meridian as a reference line. Latitude uses the equator as a reference line.

2.7.1.1 (f) True/magnetic north Q) In order to apply this knowledge a student should have an understanding of the difference between true and magnetic north. And, if applicable, its effect on: position on the earth time differences distance and direction A) True north is constant. Its the north that the earth rotates around and the point that the lines of longitude all converge. Magnetic north shifts. Its currently in the Arctic Ocean somewhere. Shifts about 55 km per year.

2.7.3.1 Select appropriate radio frequencies Q) From AIP "Visual Charts" and ERS(A), select the chart(s) document(s) which contain information about a given item of operational significance. A) Radio frequencies specific to the airport are written under the airports entry in the ERSA. Includes nav aids and area frequencies.

2.7.5.3 (b) Calculate drift With reference to a planned or given track and given appropriate data: calculate drift Notes: PPL - Whilst the use of a map plotter is acceptable, students should be taught to employ mental dead reckoning and proportional techniques to solve in-flight navigational problems. CPL - A CPL student is also required to: mentally apply the one in sixty rule mentally revise estimates/ETA's estimate TR & ETI to a selected diversion point. Flight planned track before takeoff was calculated to be 300 degrees magnetic. After flying for 20 nm at a constant heading and TAS the pilots determines that she is 4nm to the right of track. If the heading is changed to regain track by 40 nm calculate

Track Error:

d x 60 / D : 4 x 60 / 20 = 12 degrees

Closing Angle: d x 60 / D : 4 x 60 / 40 = 6 degrees Track Made Good: FPT + TE 300 + 12 312 Track to Intercept: TMG (TE + CA) 312 (12 + 6) 294 deg mag

2.7.4.1 (e) Calculate ROC for required clearance Review computations and conversions and solve problems relating to rates/gradients of climb and descent Q) Question from Bob Tait: Fig 82 below represents a section of a VTC showing the layout of the controlled airspace about 1 particular aerodrome. An aircraft is at the position marked A in the gure below. The pilot wishes to commence a continuous climb OCTA to 6500 ft. If the rate of climb is 500 ft per minute and the ground speed during the climb is 100 kts, what is the earliest distance at which the climb may be commenced?

A)

2.7.4.1 (e) Calculate ROD for an arrival Review computations and conversions and: (e) solve problems relating to rates/gradients of climb and descent

Q)

A pilot wishes to descend at 500 ft/min from his cruising level of 8500 it so as to arrive at the destination aerodrome at 1500 ft AGL. If the elevation of the destination aerodrome is 1000 ft and the ground speed during descent is 120kts how far front the destinunon aerodrome should the descent be commenced?
8500 (1500+1000) = 6000 ft 6000 ft @ 500 fpm = 12 mins. 120 kts = 2 nm/m 2 * 12 = 24 nm from the aerodrome.

A)

CMET
2.9.8.1 (k) Airframe icing conditions With respect to hoar frost, rime, and clear airframe ice listed below: State the conditions favourable to their development and where applicable, their dispersal Hoar Cruising at altitude in dry cold air, then descending into warmer humid air Rime - -10 deg c to -30 deg c. Thin altostratus or altocumulus or near the tops of large cumulus. Clear 0 deg c to 15 deg c. Thick altostratus and altocumulus. Above freezing level in cumulus, cumulonimbus and nimbostratus. Recognise signs which may indicate their presence Hoar Thin layer of frost covering entire aircraft, loss of forward visibility. Rime Increasing AOA needed to maintain straight and level. - Blocked pitot tube. Symptoms if front is blocked but drainage hole isnt: Airspeed reducing to zero. Symptoms of a complete blockage: Airspeed would overread on climb and underread on descent. Clear - Increasing AOA needed to maintain straight and level flight. Describe their effect on flight characteristics Hoar - Little affect on lift / drag. Loss of visibility if it builds up on windshield. Rime and Clear Build up on airfoil surfaces results in increased drag and reduced lift. - Build up on prop, severe prop vibrations.

Where applicable, state the pilot actions required to minimise their effect on an aircraft in flight: Hoar - Operate window heating element if necessary. Rime and Clear Pitot heat on to prevent airspeed errors from pitot tube blockage Descend to an altitude below freezing level. Get out of clouds and visible moisture. - Operate de-icing features such as boots

2.9.4.3 Cloud type and weather Describe the weather associated with each cloud type. Cirrocumulus - High level base. Sheet with ripples or puffs. Made of ice crystals, no sig weather. Cirrostratus - High level base. Sheet, producing halo effect around sun. Made of ice crystals. No sig weather. Cirrus High level base. Wispy. Made of ice crystals, no sig weather. Altocumulus - Mid Level Base (8,000 ft in AUS). Light rime ice. Slight rain or snow, possible virga. Altostratus - Mid Level Base (8,000 ft in AUS). Moderate rime ice. Possible clear ice in lower cloud levels. Continuous rain or snow when thick, possible Virga. Cumulus - Low base. Nil icing. Showers of rain or snow. Stratus - Low base. Nil icing. Drizzle. Stratocumulus - Low base. Occasional rime ice. Light rain or drizzle. Nimbostratus - Low base. Moderate rime ice. Clear ice in lower levels of the cloud. Moderate to heavy continuous rain and snow. Cumulonimbus - Low base. Clear ice risk. Heavy showers of rain, hail, snow. Turbulence and lightening.

2.9.8.1 (g) Fog causes With respect to fog: State the conditions favourable to its development and where applicable, its dispersal Radiation fog Usually appears in the morning. Clear skies at night, light wind, humid air. Dissipates after an increase in solar heating or an increase in wind strength. Advection fog Occurs anytime of the day. Caused by a warm humid air mass flowing across a cold surface. A high pressure system over the Tasman may produce advection fog in the Bass straight if conditions are right.. Recognise signs which may indicate their presence. Fog is visible. On a forecast it may occur when the temperature at aerodrome surface level is below the dew point temperature. Itll be forecast with the word FOG. Describe their effect on flight characteristics Reduced visibility, especially on approach, where the line of sight to the ground is slanted. Where applicable, state the pilot actions required to minimise their effect on an aircraft in flight: Fog generally shuts down an airport. Theres no way around it for a pilot.

2.9.9.2 Identify wind direction on synoptic charts Given a Mean Sea Level analysis chart, identify: (e) approximate wind direction.

Around Melbourne, it would be a south / south westerly wind at high altitudes. Because the airflow around a high pressure system is anti clockwise. Closer to the surface it would take on a more westerly wind, as surface friction slows wind down and the coriolis effect becomes more noticeable, causing the wind to veer. Over land, Surface wind speed drops by 2/3 rds and veers by 30 deg. The winds would be light, which I can tell from the far spacing of the isobars.

2.9.8.1 (f) land breeze With respect to land breezes: state the conditions favourable to their development and where applicable, their dispersal During the night the land looses heat quicker than the ocean does, so the warmer, less dense air over the land creates a pressure gradient which causes the cooler air over the ocean to flow in to replace rising air. Cloudless nights after a hot day would cause a larger temperature difference between the land and the sea, causing the breeze to be stronger. recognise signs which may indicate their presence An onshore breeze. describe their effect on flight characteristics Localised winds may cause an unexpected drift that is unforecast. where applicable, state the pilot actions required to minimise their effect on an aircraft in flight. Be aware of the conditions favourable to their development and account for the drift.

2.9.11.1 Thunderstorm formation Thunderstorms can be formed by a frontal or squall line where instability at the boundary of two air masses creates a thunderstorm Thunderstroms can also be grouped as an airmass thunderstorm. Airmass thunderstorms may be created by the orographic uplift of a moist unstable air stream, or by a stream of cold air flowing over a warm surface, generating instability in the lower layers due to heating from below. Describe typical seasonal weather conditions in different regions of Australia with reference to: (a) visibility (good/poor) Poor visibility in the cloud or in heavy rain. Other weather associated with the clouds include hail and snow (b) prevailing winds Strong up draughts during developing stage, updraughts and downdraughts duing the mature stage, and mainly downdrafts during the dissipating stage. These winds are both inside the cloud and within its vicinity. Also with possible mircobursts. (c) typical cloud patterns and precipitation Towering cumulus, turning to cumulonimbus with an anvil shape during maturity. (d) seasonal pressure and frontal systems including the ITCZ and equatorial trough The ITCZ is a region where a lot of thunderstorms form due to the hot moist air rising as a side effect of the northern hempishere and southern hemisphere winds meeting. (e) tropical cyclones. Thunderstorms are common in the rain bands of tropical cyclones, which also occur in the ITCZ.

2.9.10.3 Interpret TAF / Interpret ARFOR With reference to CASA documents, extract, decode and apply information contained in an ARFOR, TAF, TTF, METAR, SPECI, AIRMET, SIGMET. Note: Decode means the ability to: decide whether a particular forecast is valid for a flight interpret any coded information into plain language. Example TAF: TAF YMMB 240453Z 2406/2418 29015G25KT 9999 -SHRA SCT030 SCT040 BECMG 2408/2410 32014KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 INTER 2406/2408 5000 SHRA BKN015 RMK FM240600 MOD TURB BLW 5000FT T 13 12 11 11 Q 1027 1028 1028 1027 Into plain language. Its a TAF for Moorabbin. It was released on the 24 th of the month at 14:53 local. Its validity is from 4pm local to 4am on the 25th (local). From the beginning of the TAF until around 6pm/10pm the wind is coming from 290 degrees, and is 15 knots with occasional gusts to 25 knots. The vis is greater than 10 km, light showers of rain, scattered cloud base at 3000 ft (scattered = 3-4 octas) and another layer of scattered cloud with a base of 4000 ft. Between 4pm and 6pm there are periods not exceeding 30 minutes where the visibility will drop to 5km, the showers of rain will no longer be light, and the cloud base will drop to 1500 ft and be broken (5-7 octas.) VFR is allowed at all times for the period of this TAF. An alternate or 30 mins holding would be required during the inter since the vis is less than 8km.

CFPA
2.8.3.1 Determine Density Height Determine density height: (a) given OAT & pressure height (b) using cockpit temp. & an altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa (c) density altitude charts. Notes: The following methods should be taught for (a) and (b): a manual computer flight manual charts or mathematics. Q) Pressure height = 5000 ft Temperature = 15 deg C A) A) Density height = Pressure height + (120 x ISA deviation) = 5000 + (120 x 10) = 5000 + 1200 = 6200 ft. B) Setting 1013.2 on the subscale of an altimeter gives pressure height. You can then use the OAT to find the ISA deviation C) The Density altitude charts in the CAO based on the Lat and Long of the aerodrome and the season and add the ERSA elevation to the figure on the chart to get aerodrome density height.

2.8.9 PNR Calculation Q) Calculate time and distance to a PNR between two points, using planned or given data. Bob Tait example question. An aircraft cruises at a TAS of 185 kts, and has a fuel flow during cruise of 28 gph. The tailwind component on the flight planned track is 25 kts and start up is with 120 gal. If 3 gal is allowed for start up and taxi, and 15 gal is allowed for the fixed reserve, find the time to the PNR. A) 120 (3+15) = 112 102 / 1.15 = 89 89 gal @ 28 gph = 190 mins safe endurance Time to PNR = Safe Endurance x GS Home 2 x TAS = 190 x (185 25) 185 x 2 = 82 mins to PNR Distance to PNR = 185 + 25 = 210 kts. = 82 mins at 210 kts = 287 nm.

2.8.6.3 Given aircraft load, determine minimum ballast to balance Q) Given appropriate data use a typical loading system or a load sheet to distribute load to maintain CG within limits throughout a flight Question from Bob Tait. An Echo aeroplane is loaded for a freight flight as follows Row 1 Pilot Row 2 160 kg Row 3 160 kg Wing Compartments 80 kg Rear Compartment 140 kg Empty Weight and Moment 1980 kg and 469 IU Hard ballast in the form of 5kg bags is available No limitations imposed by runway lengths If this loading configuration is unaltered, find the minimum amount of ballast required in the main tanks Weight (kg) Arm Moment BEW 1980 469 R1 77 2290 17.6 R2 160 3300 52.8 R3 160 4300 68.8 Wing 80 3550 28.4 REAR 140 5000 70.0 TOTAL 2597 2721 706.6 Aft limit for Centre of gravity is 2680 for all weights. MZFW = 2630. 2630 2597 = 33kg. Add sand bags to front baggage compartment Front baggage Total Still too far aft. 30 2627 500 2695 15 708.1

CHUF
11.1.1 (a) / (b) Diet and exercise Q) Know the effect and importance on pilot performance of diet and exercise. A) Diet and exercise reduce the risk of developing serious disease such as heart disease and diabetes. During everyday operations, they also allow the pilot to be less stressed and less likely to suffer from anxiety, and have more energy, which will decrease reaction time.

11.3.2 Effects of alcohol (a) Explain how alcohol is absorbed and excreted. Alcohol is absorbed directly into the bloodstream from the walls of the stomach and small intestine. 10% of alcohol is excreted via sweat, expiration and the kidneys as urine. The rest is metabolized through the liver at a rate of approx 1 standard drink per hour for a man and less for a woman. (b) State and explain what a hangover is. Hangovers are caused due to dehydration, as alcohol has a diuretic (makes you pee heaps). Symptoms include nausea, headache, vomiting, thirst, etc. (c) Explain the effect a hangover may have on flying performance. Fatigue, lack of co-ordination (due to destabilizing of the balance mechanism in the inner ear), decreased attention. (d) Explain the relationship between a hangover and level of blood alcohol in a person. Even when the blood alcohol level of a person has returned to zero a hangover can still be present. (e) Explain the relationship between the level of blood alcohol and the recovery period from a hangover . The drunker you get the longer a hangover will last. (f) State the factors that affect the elimination of alcohol from the body and describe the effects of illicit drugs and alcohol on proficiency eg: judgement, comprehension, attention to detail alcohol reduces all these the senses, co-ordination and reaction times. alcohol reduces all these. Hangover makes you sensitive to light and noise.

11.7.4 Limitations to vision Q) Know the limitations of the eye with respect to: the ability to discern objects during flight eg. A) Its easier if the object is moving across your field of vision. Aircraft that have the greatest risk of collision will appear stationary in each others windscreen, making it difficult to see. The eye can only focus on an area of 10 to 15 degrees, and the eye has to be stationary to focus. Q) A) Know the limitations of the eye with respect to empty field myopia. When there is no discernable horizon the muscles in the eye relax and focus at a range of 1 2 metres from the eyeball. This means an aircraft on the horizon may not be seen by the affected pilot. Know the limitations of the eye with respect to glare. Exposure to significant glare (eg the beach or snow) can affect night vision for up to one week. Glare from the sun while flying is also an issue, eg, lining up to land on a westward facing runway during the late afternoon could cause a lot of glare for a pilot, making it difficult or impossible to land. Know the limitations of the eye with respect to colour vision in aviation. Colour is detected by the cones. The ability to determine the difference between red, green and white is important for runway and taxiway lights, ATC light signals, and PAPI and TVASIS systems. Know the limitations of the eye with respect to common visual problems: Myopia short sighted (things far away are blurry) hyperopia Long sightedness (things close are blurry) astigmatism If the cornea is an irregular shape it will not form a sharp image presbyopia happens with aging. The lens becomes more rigid and is unable to focus on close objects.

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11.13.3 (b) Physiological stress Q) Know the symptoms, causes and effects of environmental stress A) Causes working in an excessively hot, cold, vibrating or noisy environment. Effects Working in any of these environments increases stress and fatigue, which degrades pilot performance. Symptoms Frequently suffering from mental blocks Forgetfulness, including once familiar names and places Inability to concentrate on one particular task Reluctance to make decisions

11.13.4 (a) Effects of fatigue Q) Identify causes of fatigue and describe its effects on pilot performance. A) Causes Significant changes in longitude (jet lag or transmeridian dyschronism), causing circadian rhythm to be out of sync. Sleep deficit caused by being awake for too long following a period of little sleep. Sleep disorders such as sleep apnea. Effects Montonous and complex tasks are the most affected by fatigue. Reaction times are slowed Descision making capability is slowed

11.13. 6 (a) Crew decision making Q) discuss factors which influence verbal and non-verbal communication between flight deck crew A) barriers to communication o Environmental factors such as noise making it difficult to hear o High workload, leaving little time to converse. listening skills o Short attention span leading to the mind wandering and not paying attention o Intellectual arm wrestling, trying to get the last word in or dominating the other person assertion skills o The Cockpit authority gradient. It its too steep it could inhibit discourage crew input.

11.15 (d) TEM use of checklist & SOP Q) Explain how the use of checklists and standard operating procedures can prevent errors. A) Use of written checklists help avoid potential errors or forgetfulness associated with memorizing them SOPs reduce errors in an emergency because they are pre-planned on the ground, when there is no time stress or physiological stress.

11.15 (f) TEM managing undesired aircraft state Q) Explain what resources a pilot could identify and use to avoid or manage an undesired aircraft state such as being lost or entering adverse weather. A) Thorough pre flight planning Communication with radar / centre Decision making in flight (e.g call to divert) Use available resources eg autopilot and gps

11.15 (g) TEM managing undesired aircraft state Q) Explain the importance of ensuring that tasks are prioritized to manage an undesired aircraft state. A) In order to prevent the undesired aircraft state from going from bad to worse prioritizing is important. Example is of an aircraft on short final who is using a hand help mic. If the mic is dropped, that could be considered an undesired aircraft state, but what it even more undesirable is digging around on the floor to find it, having diverted attention from landing and possibly crashing.

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2.6.2.1 Wing design features / Effect of spoilers Q) State the purpose of the following design features/controls: anhedral Anhedral wings decrease stability dihedral Dihedral wings increases lateral stability. When a wing drops, the aircraft goes into a side slip and the relative windflow approaches from the direction of the slip. The dihedral angle on the wings means that the angle of attack on the lower wing is greater than on the higher wing, meaning the lower wing has more lift and produces a roll towards wings level. aspect ratio. Aircraft with a high aspect ratio have a slower roll rate. They also have a better glide performance and smaller wingtip vortices sweepback Has the effect of increasing lateral stability. In a turn, the lower wing has a span that is longer, and thus the camber is effectively increased, creating more lift, and thus more stability. wash-out Angle of attack is less at the wingtips than at the base, to make the inboard section of the wing stall first, reducing aircraft tendency to spin during stall. wing spoilers dumps lift from the wing. Useful to stick aircraft to the runway after landing, or used differentially to provide roll control. flaps Increase drag to slow aircraft down for descent. Increase lift to allow the aircraft to cruise at a slower speed. vortex generators Delay when flow separation on a wing occurs, making it less easy to stall. trim tabs to make minor adjustments to primary control surfaces to make the aircraft fly level and in a straight line.

2.6.5.1 (c) Lift and Drag formulae Q) State the meaning of the following terms used in the lift and drag formulae A) S - defines surface area of the wing in square feet.

2.6.6.1 (d) Forces in a turn Q) Draw/identify the forces of lift, weight, thrust and drag acting on an aeroplane in a balanced level turn.

2.6.6.4 (b) Factors affecting turn performance Q) State why an aeroplane tends to overbank in level and climbing turns and not in descending turns. A) In a level turn, the outside wing has to travel faster than the inside wing, as it is on a longer radius than the inside wing and thus a larger circumference and greater distance to travel. This means the outer wing is producing slightly more lift, creating a tendency to overbank. In a climbing turn, if no roll occurs the angle of bank elative to the horizon increases at the top of the turn, so a constant roll out is required to maintain the angle of bank relative to the horizon during the turn.

2.6.6.5 (b) Factors affecting turn performance State: (a) the effect of aileron drag on turn performance at low airspeed In a turn, the wing whose aileron is deflected down to increase the lift on the wing to produce the turn suffers from a greater amount of drag than the other wing, whose aileron is deflected up. This causes the plane to yaw towards the raised wing, out of the turn, requiring rudder input to balance the turn. (b) how the following design features offset this drag: (i) frise ailerons pivots at about its 25 to 30% chord line and near its bottom surface. When the aileron is deflected up (to make its wing go down), the leading edge of the aileron dips into the airflow beneath the wing. The moment of the leading edge in the airflow helps to move up the trailing edge, decreasing the stick force. The down-moving aileron also adds energy to the boundary layer by the airflow from the under-side of the wing that scoops air by the edge of the aileron that follows the upper surface of the aileron and creates a lifting force on the upper surface of the aileron aiding the lift of the wing. That reduces the needed deflection angle of the aileron. (ii) differential ailerons. The up aileron deflects further into the airflow than the down aileron, evening out the drag and reducing yaw created during a turn.

2.6.7.3 Interpreting power required / available graphs From (theoretical) power required and power available graphs identify: (a) stall speed (power on) (b) best still air range speed (c) best endurance speed (d) maximum level flight speed (e) the region of reverse command.

2.6.7.4 Aerodynamic load limitations Q) Revise the terms "load factor", "g" and "wing loading" and cite situations that may result in an aeroplane exceeding load factor and wing loading limits. Load factor = lift / weight. In straight and level flight in smooth conditions the load factor is 1 G. In a 60 degree turn the load factor is 2 Gs. This can be exceeded by abrupt flight control movements such as aerobatic maneuvers in a plane not approved to conduct them. Wing loading = weight / area of wing. Strong gusts of wind or an overloaded aircraft can cause this to be exceeded. G = the force applied by gravity.

A)

2.6.7.5 (a) (ii) Flying for endurance Q) Given that certain flight conditions remain constant, state the effect of changes in weight and altitude on level flight range and endurance A) Heavier aircraft A heavier aircraft requires more lift to fly at a constant altitude. To produce more lift the aircraft must fly at a higher angle of attack, which creates more drag. More drag means that more power is required, fuel flow is greater and thus endurance is reduced. Also range is reduced, because the increase in fuel flow is greater than the increase in speed.

2.6.8.1 (a) Factors affecting stability and control State the effect of the factors listed below on the stability and control of an aeroplane for longitudinal stability: (i) position of CG If outside rear limits could cause the aircraft to uncontrollably pitch up. A forward centre of gravity increases stability since it increases the moment of the tailplane, which provides a stabilizing force. (ii) movement of centre of pressure The centre of pressure is assumed to be behind the centre of gravity, so that there is a down pitching moment. (iii) changes in thrust increasing thrust will cause the nose to pitch up, due to increased airflow over the wings, resulting in more lift being created (iv) tailplane moment. The tailplane is designed as a stabilizing force, the longer the moment, the more stabilizing it will be.