AP Review Chapters 7-12 Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement

or answers the question. 1. The former Soviet Union adopted _______________ as its official religious policy. a. Orthodox Christianity b. secular separation of church and state c. atheism d. official state Protestant church e. Roman Catholic 2. Religion persists in regions of the former Soviet Union with Azerbaijan seeing the continuation today of a. Orthodox Christianity. b. Roman Catholicism. c. Shiite Islam. d. Sunni Islam. e. none of the above. 3. Ethnic strife in former Soviet regions reflects the legacy of the Soviet policy of a. atheism. b. divide-and-diminish. c. multiculturalism. d. secular neglect of religion. e. ethno-centrism. 4. Persuasion will not lead people to change the language they speak, but it can induce them to a. profess adherence to a new faith. b. abandon their culture. c. abandon their economic activities. d. move to a new region. e. discard their linguistic features. 5. In the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the government in 1991 proclaimed that a condition for a judge to be appointed to the countrys Islamic courts would be to wear a. a turban. b. a beard. c. sandals. d. a veil. e. a hat. 6. The belief that inanimate objects (e.g. trees, mountains, boulders) contain spirits is a. atheism. b. agnosticism. c. agrarianism. d. animism. e. monotheism. 7. Zoroastrianism is similar to Islam and Christianity in that it is a. a world religion. b. monotheistic. c. a missionary religion. d. polytheistic. e. theocratic. 8. Which of the following is not generally a characteristic of an ethnic religion? a. found in a particular culture

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b. always polytheistic c. spatially concentrated d. does not seek outside converts e. may be monotheistic The faith that is most widely dispersed over the world is a. Christianity. b. Islam. c. Judaism. d. Buddhism. e. Hinduism. The Hindu religion is one of the oldest of the great religions and may have begun ______ years ago. a. 6,000 b. 4,000 c. 3,000 d. 1,500 e. 10,000 Hinduism arose in the _____________ River valley. a. Indus b. Ganges c. Brahmaputra d. Krishna e. Nile One of the unique characteristics of Hinduism is that it a. is so young. b. is a very simple religion. c. emerged without a prophet, book of scriptures, and without evolving a bureaucratic structure comparable to those of the Christian religions. d. has so few followers. e. polytheistic. The fundamental doctrine of the Hindu faith is a. karma. b. monotheism. c. a detailed book of scripture. d. a violent ideology. e. belief in one god. Sikhism is a small compromise religion that arose from the confrontation between Hinduism and a. Buddhism. b. Islam. c. Christianity. d. British colonial officials. e. Confucianism The Indonesian island of Bali became a refuge for Hindu holy men, nobles and intellectuals during the sixteenth century because a. volcanic eruptions drove them out of neighboring islands. b. droughts and famines swept India. c. Buddhism engulfed neighboring Sumatra. d. Islam engulfed neighboring Java. e. Alexander the Great conquered the area.

16. Hinduism has not spread by expansion diffusion in modern times, but at one time it did spread by relocation diffusion as a result of a. the transportation of Indian workers abroad during the colonial period. b. conquest by military groups. c. forced relocation by Islamic invaders. d. missionary activities overseas. e. migration to the United States. 17. Buddhism has its source in a. India. b. Japan. c. China. d. Thailand. e. Europe. 18. The founder of Buddhism, Siddhartha Gautama, who came to be known as the Buddha (enlightened one) was perhaps the first prominent Indian religious leader to a. reject the eating of meat. b. acknowledge sacred animals, such as cattle. c. speak out against the Hindu caste system. d. accept Karma. e. practice non-violent resistance. 19. Buddhism thrives in all of the areas listed below except a. Sri Lanka. b. Nepal. c. Korea. d. India. e. Tibet. 20. Tibetan Buddhism is of the ___________ type. a. Mahayana b. Lamaism c. Theravada d. Zen e. Monkish 21. Geomancers, those who know the desires of the spirits of ancestors, dragons and tigers occupying the natural world are associated with a. karma. b. feng-shui. c. Lamaism. d. monotheism. e. Shintoism. 22. The Confucian Classics were the 13 texts that were the focus of education for 2,000 years in a. Japan. b. Afghanistan. c. China. d. India. e. Mongoilia. 23. Under Chinese communist rule (1949-present), Confucianism has a. been returned to after the colonial period. b. been used as the basis of an egalitarian Marxist civil service.

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c. been banned and suppressed. d. been limited to areas with non-Han minority populations. e. been diffused over the Asian continent. The Jews of Central Europe are known as a. Ashkenazim. b. Sephardim. c. Zionists. d. Orthodox. e. Hasidic. The diaspora of the Jews resulted from a. Moses decision to leave Egypt. b. the Arab-Israeli conflict. c. the European holocaust of the Nazis. d. ethnic conflict in Europe. e. the Roman destruction of Jerusalem. The ideology of Zionism has as its goal a. the merger of Judaism with other religions. b. the merger of the three modern divisions of Judaism. c. a homeland for the Jewish people. d. the elimination of the Orthodox division within the faith. e. the return of Jerusalem to the Palestinians. The largest constituency of Christianity is a. Protestant. b. Eastern Orthodox. c. Coptic. d. Roman Catholicism. e. Baptist. The African country where a major cluster of Eastern Orthodox churches survive is a. Nigeria. b. Ethiopia. c. Algeria. d. Angola. e. Egypt. Roman Catholic Christianity was spread to Middle and South America by a. England. b. Spain. c. Portugal. d. Italy. e. Belgium. The youngest major religion is a. Hinduism. b. Judaism. c. Islam. d. Christianity. e. Buddhism. Modern-day Shiah Islam dominates a region centered on a. Pakistan. b. Arabia. c. Iran. d. Indonesia. e. Saudi Arabia.

32. The Hajj, one of the pillars of Islam, is a. charitable giving. b. fasting during the holy month. c. the veil worn by Muslim women. d. the pilgrimage to Mecca. e. repetition of the Islamic creed. 33. The worlds largest dominantly Islamic state is a. Iran. b. Pakistan. c. Egypt. d. Indonesia. e. Saudi Arabia. 34. Shamanism is a traditional religion, and an intimate part of local culture and society. But not all traditional religions are shamanist. In which of the following regions have both Christianity and Islam failed to convert most of the people practicing a traditional religion? a. Southwest Asia b. Asia c. Africa d. South America e. Indonesia 35. The rise of secularism and decline of religious membership are found in a. Europe. b. Africa. c. Southwest Asia. d. Southeast Asia. e. South Asia. 36. The Church of the Holy Sepulcher in Jerusalem marks the site of Christs a. birth. b. first miracle. c. last supper. d. tomb. e. crucifixion. 37. Jerusalem is a sacred place for a. Jews. b. Muslims. c. Christians. d. all of the above e. none of the above. 38. Buddhist pilgrimages to Bodh Gaya is focused on a. the birthplace of Sidharta Gautama. b. a Bhodi tree under which the Buddha taught. c. a Shrine to Krishna. d. the grave of the Buddha. e. the largest stupa. 39. The pagoda is the style of building most often associated with a. the Buddhist faith. b. the Jain faith. c. early Islam, prior to the mosque. d. the Parsee faith. e. Tibetan monks.

40. Which of the following U.S. regional association is incorrect? a. New EnglandCatholic b. SouthBaptist c. Upper MidwestLutheran d. UtahMormon e. NorthwestMethodist 41. Which is not a feature of Islamic sacred architecture? a. Minarets b. adoption of Roman models of design c. Frescoes depicting the life of the prophet d. geometric and calligraphic ornamentation e. the dome of the mosque 42. Which is an example of an intrafaith (boundary) conflict? a. IsraelPalestine b. Former Yugoslavia c. Northern Ireland d. Nigeria e. Kenya 43. The vote to partition Palestine was taken by a. Israel. b. the United Nations. c. Britain. d. the Ottoman Empire. e. the European Union. 44. The revolution that destroyed the old order in Ethiopia created a new state on the African map called _____________, dominantly Muslim and culturally distinct from the old empire of which it had been a part. a. Eritrea b. Botswana c. Sudan d. Uganda e. Chad 45. Which of the following Balkan association is incorrect? a. SlovenianCatholic c. SerbianCyrilic alphabet b. CroatOrthodox d. MontenegransOrthodox 46. Northern Ireland, scene of CatholicProtestant conflict, was partitioned by a. the United Nations. b. mutual agreement of the two conflicting parties. c. the Catholic Church through a Papal Nuncio. d. Britain. e. the Orthodox church 47. Mel Gibson is a member of a movement which rejects a. developments in Catholicism resulting from the Second Vatican Council. b. the notion of the resurrection of Christ. c. the use of Latin in the Mass. d. movie-going as a sinful activity. e. birth control. 48. Rabbi Kahane and his followers are examples of a. Christian converts. b. peace activists.

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c. Jewish extremists. d. followers of the peaceful, syncretic Bahai faith. e. Hinduist practitioners. At the global scale, political geographers study the spatial manifestations of political processes expressed in the organization of territories with permanent population, defined territory and a government. These spatial units are called a. countries. c. nations. b. states. d. regions. The present number of countries and territories in the world is around a. 400. c. 300. b. 350. d. 200. In The Territorial Imperative, Robert Ardery argued that humans are concerned with a. collecting and securing territory. b. concerned only with the securing of food. c. avoiding confrontation with different groups. d. unconcerned with securing territory. Robert Sacks view of human territorial behavior implies an expression of control over space and time. This control is closely related to the concept of a. nationhood. c. sovereignty. b. colonialism. d. warfare. The Peace of Westphalia is the seminal moment in the emergence of the European state. This marked the end of a. WW I. c. the Napoleonic Wars. b. the Thirty Years War. d. the War of the Roses. The promotion of the acquisition of wealth through plunder, colonization, and the protection of home industries and foreign markets during Europes rebirth was called a. imperialism. c. mercantilism. b. neo-imperialism. d. new colonialism. What ultimately proved to be the undoing of monarchical absolutism and its system of patronage during Europes rebirth? a. the re-emergence of church c. an increasing population power b. growing economic power of d. colonization merchants The rise of the modern state idea, where territory defined society rather than society defining territory, swept through Europe in the a. Middle Ages. c. 1800s. b. 1600s. d. Twentieth Century. When not all people within a state identify with the dominant sense of nationality, movements for separation of nation and territory may arise. For example the ______in ___________. a. English, Great Britain c. Waloons, Belgium b. Basques, Spain d. Irish, Ireland Yugoslavia was a prime example of a a. multi-state nation. c. stateless nation. b. nation-state. d. multi-nation state. Which is an example of a stateless-nation? a. Korea c. Hungary b. Kurds d. Switzerland

60. The European state idea spread throughout the world through a. European colonialism. c. League of Nations planning. b. economic development. d. contagious diffusion. 61. One of the most powerful impacts of colonialism was the construction of global order characterized by great differences in a. population. c. economic and political power. b. military and political power. d. military and economic power. 62. The highly uneven distribution of economic and political power that developed from colonialism was due to the concentration of wealth brought to a. North America. c. Asia. b. Europe. d. Europe and North America. 63. Wallersteins views expressed in world systems theory hold that the global integrating force has been a. capitalism. c. socialism. b. the rise of the U.N. d. colonial independence movements. 64. The emergence of a global capitalistic economy began to develop about a. 1350. c. 1550. b. 1450. d. 1650. 65. __________ is an example of a core country which was never a classical colonial power. a. Singapore c. Belgium b. Netherlands d. Germany 66. The boundaries of independent African states were drawn at the Berlin Conference and were essentially drawn a. arbitrarily. c. along religious lines. b. along ethnic lines. d. along ecological lines. 67. Which is not characteristic of unitary state governments? a. highly centralized b. capital city functions as core of power c. suppression of regional subcultures d. concerned with fostering diversity of regional cultural expression 68. Nigeria is a state with a federal system of government. This fact is reflected in the adoption of _________ law in the states of the Muslim North. a. British Common c. Sharia b. Nigerian Federal d. local tribal 69. The movement of power from the central government regional governments is referred to as a. revolution. c. supranationalism. b. pluralism. d. devolution. 70. Which country has experienced violent devolution? a. Yugoslavia c. Czechoslovakia b. Ukraine d. Lithuania 71. In 1997 Scotland took a major devolutionary step with the establishment of a. Independence from Britain. c. the Scottish Parliament. b. its own currency and d. the Scottish National Party. passports. 72. In Italy, the Northern Leagues desire for independence was based on the economic difference between the northern Po region and the southern Mezzogiorno. These differences are attributed to a. regional ethnic differences.

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b. religious differences between north and south. c. core-periphery processes. d. ecological differences. Distance, remoteness and marginal location enhance the potential for devolution. This form of devolution is referred to as a. ethnic devolution. c. economic devolution. b. spatial devolution. d. economic marginalization. The process of adjustment of the number of representatives in the U.S. House of Representatives to reflect shifts in population patterns is known as a. gerrymandering. c. electoral geography. b. territorial representation. d. reapportionment. A series of concrete pillars _________ the northern boundary of Kuwait with Iraq. a. defines c. demarcates b. delimits d. determines A boundary between countries is a a. line on the ground only. b. line shown only on maps. c. point of separation on and below the surface only. d. vertical plane that cuts through the rocks below and air above. The boundary between the United States and Canada west of the Great Lakes is an example of a(n) a. physical-political boundary. c. mountain crest boundary. b. geometric boundary. d. administrative boundary. Which is an example of an allocational boundary dispute? a. dispute over the interpretation of boundary treaty terminology b. dispute over boundaries not covered by a treaty (e.g. YemenSaudi Arabia) c. dispute over the function of a boundary with regard to migration d. dispute over rights to resources (e.g. oil, water) crossed by international boundaries Geometric boundaries, totally unrelated to any aspects of the cultural or physical landscape, were made considerable use of by the colonial powers in a. Asia. c. Central America. b. South America. d. Africa. The first political geographer who studied the state in detail was Friedrich Ratzel who postulated that the state resembles a biological organism. His organic theory identified ______________ as a states essential life giving force. a. population c. space b. a strong military d. mobility Ratzels organic theory was converted into a subfield of political geography called geopolitics which was subsequently translated into practical national policies by some of his students. What country used geopolitics as a philosophy of expansion? a). Japan a. Nazi Germany c. France b. Britain

82. Sir Halford Mackinder developed what would become known as the heartland theory which suggested that interior Eurasia contained a critical pivot area that would generate a state capable of challenging for world domination. The key to the area according to Mackinder was

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a. natural protection. c. natural resources. b. distance. d. Eastern Europe. In 1943 Mackinder wrote about his concerns over the potential of Stalins control of the countries of Eastern Europe. His views led to the development of the United Statess containment policy and to the establishment of a. friendly relationships with c. N.A.T.O. China. b. the United Nations. d. the Berlin Wall. Recent geopolitical theory emphasizes the deconstruction of spatial assumptions and territorial perspectives of leading western politicians and analysis of the way their ideas are used to manipulate public opinion. This field of research is called a. Heartland theory. c. Critical geopolitics. b. Marxian geopolitical theory. d. British/American school of geopolitics. Following the disintegration of the former Soviet Union the only surviving superpower was a. China. c. Great Britain. b. the United States. d. France. Technically supranationalism refers to efforts by ______ or more states to forge associations for common advantage and in pursuit of common goals. a. 2 c. 5 b. 4 d. 3 The League of Nations was created in 1919 as the first international organization that would include all nations of the world. Its success was dealt a serious blow by the failure of what country to join? a. Britain c. the United States b. Russia d. Canada One move by the old League of Nations that would have a critical impact in the second half of the twentieth century involved a. maritime boundaries. b. refugee questions. c. atmospheric boundaries. d. mineral resources underlying two or more countries. Participation in the United Nations serves the useful purpose of committing states to a. loan money to poorer ones. b. agreeing to world laws. c. international standards of behavior. d. respect and accept present political boundaries. The United Nations is not a world government, but in recent years individual states have asked the United Nations to do a number of different things, the most expensive of which is a. peacekeeping. c. providing for refugees. b. monitoring elections. d. setting maritime boundaries. The first major experiment in regional supranationalism was undertaken in Europe before World War II and involved the three countries a. the Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg. b. Belgium, Germany, and France. c. Britain, Belgium, and Norway. d. France, Poland, and Germany.

92. The Marshall Plan was a post-WW II endeavor by the United States to economically revive a. Europe. c. sub-Saharan Africa. b. Japan. d. South America. 93. What country do members of the European community worry will dominate the entire group? a. France c. the United Kingdom b. Germany d. Turkey 94. As of 2005, which major European Union nation has not entered the Euro Monetary Zone? a. Great Britain c. Italy b. Germany d. France 95. The European Unions future expansion into the Muslim realm by the inclusion of __________ is highly controversial and strongly opposed by Greece. a. Saudi Arabia c. Algeria b. Bosnia d. Turkey 96. According to Alexander Murphy, attachment to region and to the European Union is greater than attachment to the state in a. Britain. b. Benelux (Belgium, Netherlands, Luxembourg). c. Switzerland. d. Yugoslavia. 97. Listed among the challenges to the state in the twenty-first century are all the following except a. nuclear weapons. c. increased cultural communication. b. economic globalization. d. the United Nations. 98. Which of the following is either believed to have or to be actively developing nuclear weapons? a. Israel c. North Korea, Iran b. India, Pakistan d. all of the above 99. The layout of a city, the physical form and structure, is referred to as a. urban morphology. b. urban grid. c. city plan. d. urban street pattern. e. urban landscape 100. Which of the following countries is least urbanized? a. the United States b. Australia c. Japan d. China e. Canada 101. Human communities have existed for 100,000 years, but some did not start to grow into larger places until about _______ years ago. a. 5,000 b. 8,000 c. 10,000 d. 15,000 e. 20,000 102. The very early developing agricultural societies were

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a. divided according to amount of land possessed. b. ruled by the elite. c. egalitarian. d. dominated by larger urban centers. e. mostly ruled by the military. Where did the first urban development originate? a. Southeast Asia b. Southwest Asia c. North Africa d. Western Europe e. Central America Which is not among the components which enabled the formation of the first cities? a. agricultural surplus b. social stratification c. invention of the wheel d. none of the above e. all of the above Ancient towns and cites owed much of their success and growth to certain site advantages. Which of the following was not one of these advantages? a. proximity to productive farmlands b. good supplies of coal and iron c. availability of water supplies d. good defensibility e. trade locations What structures dominated the urban landscape of the ancient Mesopotamian cities? a. temples b. multiple dwellings c. business buildings d. educational institutions e. thick walls In which of the following regions did urbanization develop first? a. Mesopotamia b. Nile River Valley c. Indus River Valley d. China e. Meso-America Which feature typical of ancient urbanization was not present in the Nile River Valley hearth? a. system of writing b. defensive walls c. urban elite d. religious structures e. agricultural surplus Ancient cities were not large by modern standards. The cities of Mesopotamian and the Nile Valley probably had populations of a. 5,000 to 7,000. b. 7,000 to 9,000. c. 10,000 to 15,000. d. 20,000 to 30,000.

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e. 50,000+ Urban places in the ancient world were a. numerous and hierarchical. b. exceptions in an overwhelmingly rural society. c. part of a generally urban society. d. more common than today. e. large in comparison to todays cities. Athens may have been the largest city in the world at the time of its existence, with a population estimated at a. 250,000. b. 100,000. c. 500,000. d. 750,000. e. 1,000,000. The Parthenon of Athens is a structure typical of ancient Greek cities. It is a(n) a. aqueduct. b. protective wall. c. drainage/sewer system. d. acropolis. e. agora. Rome created a huge urban system. The integration of the Roman Empire was greatly facilitated by a a. transportation system. b. lack of different languages. c. good postal system. d. lack of foreign enemies. e. large armies. Expanding on the Greek citys theater, the Romans built the worlds first a. opera house. b. stadium. c. amphitheater. d. acropolis. e. public houses The relative location of a city refers to its a. site. b. situation. c. genealogy of development. d. approximate latitude and longitude. e. urban morphology. The manufacturing city (post Industrial Revolution) first emerged in a. the British Midlands. b. central Italy. c. the French coastal region. d. the Ruhr. e. the Northeastern United States. Which is not related to urbanization processes of the second urban revolution? a. urbanization of society b. second agricultural revolution c. energy resources (water power, coal) as a site feature d. cities as theocratic centers e. mushrooming populations

118. In a model urban hierarchy, the population of a city, town or village is inversely proportional to its rank in the system (i.e. if the largest city is 4 million the second will be 2 million or 1/2 , the third will be 1/3 and so on). This is known as a. central place theory. b. rank-size rule. c. trade area ordering. d. a statistical coincidence. e. urban hierarchy 119. A hinterland reveals the _________ of each settlement. a. total population b. working population c. economic reach d. aggregate purchasing power e. site 120. Paris and Mexico City are many times larger than the second-ranked city in their respective countries. Their disproportionate size illustrates a. the concept of the primate city. b. the fact that capital cities are always very large. c. the rank-size rule. d. the effects of suburbanization. e. urban hierarchy. 121. The response of the urban system of the American South and Southwest to the influx of migrants over the past three decades conforms with predictions of central place theory. This is called the ________ phenomenon. a. hexagonal b. rank-size reordering c. Sunbelt d. central place e. hinterland 122. In Burgess concentric zone model, the zone of transition became a. a suburb. b. deteriorated with more CBD encroachment. c. a working class area. d. a gentrified upscale new urban neighborhood. e. a commuter zone 123. Peter Mullers analysis of suburbanization indicated that suburbs were a. losing their appeal to home buyers. b. primarily bedroom suburbs with only a residential function. c. evolving into a self sufficient urban entity with its own economic and cultural components. d. becoming a smaller proportion of the total American population. e. losing population due to urbanization. 124. The multiple nuclei model of urban structure developed by Harris and Ullman arose from the idea that _______ was losing its dominant position in the metropolitan city. a. the CBD b. the inner city c. public transportation d. the suburb e. the automobile 125. The core of a city is called the a. central city.

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b. exurb. c. urban zone. d. central business district (CBD). e. middle city What term came into use to describe the spatial components of the metropolis of the late twentieth century? a. exurb b. urban realms c. central city d. conurbation e. megalopolis After 1970, new suburban downtowns (edge cities) were spawned in the outer city of Los Angeles, with their leading concentrations a. near key freeway intersections. b. along the coast. c. near hubs of public transportation. d. at the approaches to key bridges. e. in high tech corridors Mexico City and Sao Paolo are examples of a. South American cities. b. capital cities. c. mega cities. d. colonial cities. e. gateway cities. In Latin America, which of the following does not accurately describe the typical CBD? a. the primary business focus b. principal entertainment center c. main area of employment d. an area of out-migration to suburbs e. divided into a traditional market sector and more modern high rise sector In the Latin American city, where are the homes of the most impoverished and unskilled residents? a. in the city center b. immediately surrounding the city center c. on the outermost zone or peripheral fringe d. along the major access highways e. in the zone of maturity A structural element of many Latin American cities, the disamenity sector, is illustrated by the a. mall. b. barrios or favelas. c. commercial spine. d. industrial park. e. the metes. Which of the following is both the least urbanized and the most rapidly urbanizing realm of the world? a. Middle America b. Africa south of the Sahara c. East Asia

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d. South Asia e. Saharan Africa Most African central cities actually have how many CBDs? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five The focal point of the Southeast Asian city is the a. old colonial port zone. b. CBD. c. alien commercial zone. d. suburbs. e. squatter settlements In Southeast Asian cities the alien commercial zone is dominated by a. American corporations. b. Europeans. c. Chinese. d. Lebanese traders. e. Saudi Arabian oil princes Comparing Luanda, Angola to a suburb of Tokyo one is struck by the fact that the urban morphology reflects the fact that Angola lacks a __________ class. a. working b. middle c. leadership d. lower e. upper The huge influx of population from rural to urban areas in peripheral or semiperipheral areas find housing in a. public housing. b. edge cities. c. deteriorating CBDs. d. shantytowns. e. tenements If cities in the poorer parts of the world share a common characteristic, it may result from a. an absence of enforced zoning regulations. b. a total lack of industry. c. acute water shortages. d. poor public transportation. e. abundance of affordable housing Segregation in the United States was reinforced by the financial practice known as a. redlining. b. community block grants. c. land use zoning. d. tax increment financing. e. blockbusting In core area cities the practice of buying up and rehabilitating deteriorating housing which resulted in the raising of housing values and a social change in neighborhoods is called a. public housing.

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b. gentrification. c. white flight. d. urban renewal. e. invasion and succession The core area suburbs are experiencing a process of the tearing down of existing suburban homes and the building of very large, standardized looking homes known as a. McMansions. b. upper class housing. c. gentrified housing. d. suburban palaces. e. gated communities. The decline in density and the spread of cities associated with the building of freeways in the second half of the twentieth century has been pejoratively referred to as a. suburbanization. b. urban sprawl. c. exurbanization. d. new urbanism. e. urban realms. Marxist geographer David Harvey is one of the strongest critics of _____________, the privatization of public space and loss of character of neighborhoods. a. gentrification b. new urbanism c. urban sprawl d. affordable housing e. McMansions Gated communities have __________ as their chief objective. a. moderately priced housing b. ample open space c. social integration d. safety e. privacy Ethnic neighborhoods in European cities reflect migrants from a. Eastern Europe. b. poor Mediterranean Europe. c. former colonies. d. Latin America. e. Asian countries. The growth of ethnic neighborhoods in _________ is less than in other European countries. a. the Netherlands b. Belgium c. Germany d. France e. England Housing in the slum area, Kiberia in Nairobi, Kenya is occupied by Luo and Luhya peoples of western and northwester Kenya and is owned by a. British landlords. b. Indian merchants. c. Nairobis public housing agency.

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d. Nubians of Sudanese descent. e. Kenyan businessmen. New Yorks Times Square and Berlins Potzdammer Platz are examples of giant media reshaping cities into a. theme parks. b. entertainment districts. c. planned communities. d. spaces of consumption. e. urban megalopolis. Quarry workers, quarry owners, stone cutters, exporters, designers and architects, builders, tile and stone distributors, etc. represent an example of the links connecting producers and consumers in a world market. This is an example of a. an export-import model. b. a commodity chain. c. globalization theory. d. a core-periphery model. e. commodification. ________________ processes in the commodity chain involve technology, education, research and development, and high wages. a. Core b. Value-added c. Neo-colonial d. Periphery e. Semi-Periphery Which of the following is not associated with core production processes? a. technology b. low-wage labor c. education d. research and development e. institutions of higher learning The word development implies a. progress. b. colonialism. c. lowering of wages through mechanization. d. technology. e. primary activities. Modern ideas of development are related to a. the Industrial Revolution. b. the Agricultural Revolution. c. gross domestic product. d. religious views of equity. e. the Green Revolution. Gross national product (GNP) measures the total value of goods and services produced by a countrys corporations and individuals. It is standardized by a. being calculated in Euros. b. by measuring the informal as well as informal economy. c. by being calculated on a per capita basis. d. by adjusting for differences in attitude toward progress. e. by adding in the informal economy of a country. Gross domestic product measures only a. home-based output.

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b. the informal economy. c. the productivity of individuals. d. production only within a country. e. the total production of a countrys economy. Which of the following has the highest per capita GNP? a. Japan b. United States c. European Union d. Canada e. Mexico Which does not make up a portion of Colombias GNP? a. professional sports franchises b. tourism c. coffee production d. drug trafficking e. banking and finance Which Asian nation listed below has a per capita GNP above the world average? a. Vietnam b. China c. South Korea d. North Korea e. Malaysia A large component of survival in countries with low per capita GNP is a. foreign aid. b. the sale of resources. c. the informal economy. d. tourism. e. transnational corporations. High levels of development can be determined by measurement of access to railways, roads, airline connections, telephones, radio and television, etc. These are collectively referred to as a. infrastructure. b. dependency measures. c. formal economy. d. commodity connections. e. technology. Dependency ratio measures: a. family size b. percent of the population dependent on welfare c. the number of young plus the number of elderly per 100 workers d. average number of hours of work to feed a family of four e. the amount of trade between colonies and colonizers Which is not among the five stages of Rostows development model? a. traditional b. take-off c. high-mass consumption d. collapse-decline e. drive to maturity Rostows model, developed in the early 1960s, was based upon the experience of a. financial economists. b. Latin American countries.

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c. China. d. Western modernization. e. the demographic transition model. Even if the Gross National Product (GNP) index is used to measure the well-being of a country, it will fail to show a. growth in secondary industries (manufacturing). b. the distribution of wealth. c. growth within tertiary industries (services). d. growth within primary industries (mining, forestry, agriculture, fishing). e. the total values of goods and services produced by an economy. The principal structuralist alternative to Rostows model of economic development is known as a. the takeoff model. b. the liberal model. c. the modernization model. d. dependency theory. e. neocolonialism. The continuation of economic dependence even after political independence is referred to as a. precondition to take-off. b. modernization model. c. neocolonialism. d. independence movement. e. post-colonialism. Theories which hold that economic disparities are built into the global economic system are referred to as a. structuralist theories. b. modernization theories. c. liberal theories. d. neo-capitalist theories. e. dependency theories. El Salvador abandoned its currency, the Colon, in favor of the U.S. dollar. This process is referred to as a. re-structuration. b. re-colonization. c. international monetizing. d. dollarization. e. purchasing power parity. Wallersteins three-tier regionalization of the world includes all of the following except a. core. b. semi-core. c. periphery. d. semi-periphery. e. outside periphery. Countries in which tier of the world economy (region) have high birth and death rates and low life expectancy at birth? a. post-industrial b. core c. semi-periphery

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d. periphery e. semi-core Young girls trafficked from the periphery to wealthier regions most often work as a. domestic workers/street vendors. b. industrial labor. c. agricultural labor. d. prostitutes. e. nannies. Which organization is headed by a U.S. citizen, is headquartered in Washington, D.C. and is charged with combating poverty in peripheral countries? a. IMF b. World Bank c. Washington Federal Savings and Loan d. United Nations e. Red-Cross Argentinas severe economic crisis in 2001 was triggered by economic decisions made a. in Brazil b. in Washington, D.C. c. by the United Nations d. Spain e. in Europe Economic development in some African states (e.g. Malawi and Zimbabwe) is hampered by a. drought. b. religions intolerance. c. corrupt governments. d. drop in the price of oil. e. neo-colonialism. Most victims of malaria are a. agricultural workers. b. women in childbearing years. c. the elderly. d. children under 5. e. teenage boys. Mexico has established export processing zones with special tax, trade and regulatory arrangements for foreign firms. This phenomena is referred to as a. maquiladoras. b. haciendas. c. border cities. d. NAFTA zones. e. Mercosur zones, Subsistence forms of agriculture in peripheral areas produce little in the way of a. protein. b. grain crops. c. root crops. d. foodstuffs. e. seed crops. Desertification in Africa is a particular problem as ____ of the continent is arid or semiarid. a. 2/3

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b. 1/2 c. 1/3 d. 1/4 e. 1/8 In peripheral countries it is not unusual for hotels in tourist areas to be owned by a. workers cooperatives. b. local governments. c. local owner operators. d. multinational corporations. e. regional governments. Many tourist areas in peripheral regions are beach resorts. In 2004 Thailands beach resort areas were ravaged by a. cockroach infestations. b. a tsunami. c. prolonged drought. d. terror attacks. e. labor strike. The Pine Ridge Indian Reservation in the United States with 80% unemployment and per capita income around $6,000 illustrates __________________________ within a core area country. a. cultural choices b. peripheral processes c. core processes d. preconditions for takeoff stage e. mass consumption Core area agriculture is characterized by a. mechanization. b. high levels of farmer education. c. scientific agronomy. d. high levels of technology. e. all of the above Establishment of government quotas on imports (e.g. cotton shirts or steel) to the U.S. has led to a. a decrease in Chinese shirt production. b. an increase in Chinese wages. c. a collapse of the U.S. market for shirts. d. a shifting of production from country to country in the periphery and semi-periphery. e. an increase in the price of shirts in the U.S. markets. Governments in both core and periphery often create wealth by focusing well paid government jobs a. in the capital city. b. in underdeveloped areas. c. in port cities. d. offshore in third world countries. e. in rural areas. A look at the maps of Nigeria, Pakistan and Brazil would show that when governments established new post-colonial capitals, they moved away from a. swamps. b. deserts. c. areas of ethnic discord.

186.

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d. coastal port areas. e. rural areas. Port Gentile, Gabon was built by a. an ancient Gabonese civilization. b. British colonizers. c. European oil companies. d. migrants fleeing the Congo. e. NGOs. Twenty thousand nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) in Bangladesh constitute what can be called a. a parallel state. b. colonial enclaves. c. development islands. d. subversive zones. e. zones of opportunity. Microcredit programs have been successful in many places with the exception of a. tropical regions. b. places with high AIDS mortality rates. c. areas with male dominance. d. desert regions. e. areas with a percentage of female entrepreneurs. Bio-genetically engineering now allows the growing of new strains in more arid regions of the Plains States to meet the demand of the ___________ industry. a. cattle feed c. tofu/organic food b. bio-diesel fuel d. grain export Organic food in the United States now constitutes _____ percent of the total food production. a. 50 c. 10 b. 25 d. 2 Organic food is found in _____ areas. a. core c. periphery b. semi-periphery d. all Demand for organic foods is greatest in a. core regions. c. periphery regions. b. semi-periphery regions. d. spread equally among all regions. Which is not an example of a primary economic activity? a. corn flake production c. lobster fishing b. iron ore production d. forestry Guatemalas agricultural sector produces 22.7% of the countrys GDP and employs _____% of the labor force. a. 10 c. 25 b. 22.7 d. 50 The ratio of percent of labor force to percent of GDP in the agricultural sector of Canada (3% of labor force : 2.3% of GDP) indicates that Canadas agricultural sector is ______________ intensive. a. labor c. subsistence b. machine d. small scale Hunter-gatherers living in the vicinity of the Pacific Ocean specialized in a. salmon fishing. c. deer hunting. b. bison hunting. d. acorn collection.

197. According to Carl Sauer, the earliest plant domestication was a. prompted by scarcity. c. associated with seed crops. b. probably involved planting root d. occurred in tropical middle crops. America. 198. Most scholars believe that seed cultivation (First Agricultural Revolution) occurred in a. Asia. c. tropical Africa. b. the Fertile Crescent. d. the Nile Valley. 199. According to Spencer and Thomas, each agricultural hearth was associated with a local grouping of plants. For example, taro. yams, and bananas are associated with the _______________ hearth. a. Meso-American c. Southwest Asian b. Southeast Asian d. Ethiopia-East African 200. Often crops are associated with regions other than the one in which they were developed. For example, the Irish or Idaho potato originated in the Andean Highlands. Corn of the American Corn Belt originated in a. West Africa. c. Central America. b. the Fertile Crescent. d. Southeast Asia. 201. Goats were domesticated 10,000 years ago in the Zagros Mountain region of a. Southeast Asia. c. the Fertile Crescent. b. North Africa. d. Greece. 202. Cattle were domesticated in and came to be an important cultural feature of a. Southeast Asia. c. South Asia. b. Central Asia. d. North Africa. 203. Of the 148 species of large herbivore (over 100 lbs.) _______ have been domesticated and all of these were domesticated over 4,500 years ago. a. 75 c. 26 b. 52 d. 14 204. Which of the following is not an example of a hunting and gathering group that still existed in the early 2000s? a. the San of Southern Africa c. aboriginal people of interior Australia b. the Bantu of Southern Africa d. Native Americans of Brazil 205. A form of tropical subsistence agriculture in which fields are rotated after short periods of crop production is a. subsistence rice cultivation. c. shifting cultivation. b. subsistence wheat cultivation. d. nomadic herding. 206. Milpa agriculture involves the _________ method of clearing fields. a. use of natural herbicides c. burning b. intensive hoeing d. use of bulldozers 207. About how many people practice shifting cultivation in the world today? a. between 50 million and 100 c. between 150 million and 200 million million b. between 100 million and 150 d. over 300 million million 208. In areas of shifting cultivation the population a. increases significantly. b. cannot have a high density. c. must be large enough to provide surplus labor. d. never lives in permanent settlements. 209. Colonial powers would make subsistence farmers

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219. 220.

a. grow cash crops only. b. farm on plantations in addition to farming their own land. c. grow cash crops in addition to food crops the farmer needed to survive. d. buy commercial fertilizer at fixed prices. Before the intervention of Europeans, the societies practicing subsistence framing were quite equal because a. populations were small. b. the farmers did not live in villages or other settlements. c. land was held in communal ownership. d. money was equally divided. The Second Agricultural Revolution can generally be traced to Europe within what time frame? a. nineteenth and twentieth c. fourteenth and fifteenth century century b. twelfth and thirteenth century d. seventeenth and eighteenth century Which commodity would be found closest to the market town in von Thunens model? a. beef c. wheat b. firewood d. milk In von Thunens model there was a concentric circle of forest around the city because a. it would provide lumber and c. it provided a recreation area. firewood. b. it would filter out pollution. d. it would contain the growth of the city. Geographer Lee Liu studying the spatial patterns of agriculture in parts of China, found soils in intensively used fields near villages were a. polluted. c. fertile and productive. b. overused and of poor fertility. d. not used. By 1992, the most widely grown crop variety on Earth was a product of the Green Revolution called IR36, which was a variety of a. rice. c. maize. b. wheat. d. potatoes. In the 1940s, American philanthropists funded research on this crop. By 1960, Mexico no longer depended on imports as production had risen dramatically. The crop is: a. coffee. c. wheat. b. corn (maize). d. tomatoes. The average size of a family farm in China is ________ acres. a. 75 c. 5 b. 10 d. .5 The rectangular land division scheme in the United States adopted after the American Revolution is quite unique. Its correct name is: a. long-lot system. c. township-and-range system. b. metes and bounds system. d. Franklins system. The basic unit of the township-and-range system, the section, has an area of a. 1 acre. c. 1 square mile. b. 160 acres. d. 36 square miles. The most prevalent rural residential pattern in the worlds agricultural areas is

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a. dispersed. c. spaced. b. nucleated. d. hierarchical. The form of villages still existing in many rural landscapes that are reminders of a of a turbulent past is a. walled. c. round. b. linear. d. grid. The Spanish invaders of Middle America, centuries ago, laid out villages and towns in what form? a. round c. linear b. grid d. oval In villages everywhere, social stratification is reflected by a. the dress of the population. c. the range and quality of village houses. b. the street pattern. d. commercial buildings. The functional differentiation of farm villages world-wide are to a. traditional cultures. c. African cultures. b. Asian cultures. d. Western cultures. Poorer countries, producing such cash crops as sugar, a. set the market price themselves. b. are at the mercy of the purchasing countries that set the prices. c. plant less in order to drive up the prices. d. cooperate with each other to determine global prices and demand. Twenty-five percent of world sugar production takes place outside of the tropical plantation region (U.S.A. Western Europe, Russia) and is produced from a. genetically-modified, cold-tolerant sugar cane. b. sugar beets. c. wood cellulose. d. artificial food chemical processes. Much of the cotton purchased by the United Kingdom, Western Europe, and Japan is grown in a. Egypt. c. India. b. the United States. d. Sudan. Rubber trees were first tapped in a. eastern Venezuela. c. Malaya. b. northern South Americas d. Indonesia. Amazon Basin. The colonial powers transplanted rubber trees to _________ from Brazil. a. Southeast Asia c. East Africa b. West Africa d. East Asia Coffee was domesticated in Ethiopia. Today, 70% of production is in a. Southeast Asia. b) South Asia. b. East Africa. c. Middle and South America. Fair trade coffee buyers certify that ____ % of the retail price of their coffee goes to the coffee growers. a. 80 c. 40 b. 100 d. 5 Which of the following agricultural activities is widespread in the northeastern U.S. and northwestern Europe?

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a. dairying c. citrus production b. cotton growing d. sugar beet production Which of the following are fairly small areas of wheat production still have major export trade? a. Canada and United States c. Russian and Canada b. Ukraine and Kazakhstan d. Argentina and Australia The worlds leading exporter of rice is a. China. c. the United States. b. Vietnam. d. Thailand. Rice cultivation in Southeast Asia is largely a ________________ activity. a. part-time c. subsistence b. commercial d. mechanized The form of agriculture that refers to a particular climate is a. dairying. c. shifting cultivation. b. Mediterranean. d. livestock ranching. Which of the following areas does not have a Mediterranean-type climate? a. central Chile c. southern Florida b. southern Australia d. South Africas Cape In recent years, many wooded areas in ___________ have been deforested to provide beef for hamburgers for fast-food chains in the United States. a. East and South Asia c. East Africa b. West Africa d. Central and South America Nike, headquartered in Oregon, employs 20,000 people in that state. What percentage are employed in shoe manufacture/assembly? a. 90 b. 5 c. 25 d. 0 e. 20 In 1925, one area of Boston had sales offices for over _____ shoe factories. a. 300 b. 100 c. 25 d. 3 e. 0 In the early eighteenth century, British textiles were manufactured a. in India. b. early rural factories. c. in large urban factories. d. in homes on hand looms. e. in America Who actually laid the groundwork for the colonial expansion of Europe? a. the British Government b. the French Government c. Europes commercial companies d. Europes military forces e. European farmers The first power source of the Industrial Revolution was a. foot pedals. b. steam engines. c. electricity.

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d. windmills. e. running water. Burning coal in a near vacuum produced a much hotter burning, pure carbon fuel called a. super coal. b. coke. c. charcoal. d. Bessemer fuel. e. brickettes. The first railroad in England was opened in a. 1790. b. 1810. c. 1820. d. 1825. e. 1830. England not only held a monopoly over products that were in world demand at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, but also a monopoly on a. international transportation. b. the sources of raw materials. c. the skill necessary to make the machines that manufactured the products. d. the high seas. e. all available labor. In Britain, the proximity of what three things gave an unsurpassed advantage to the development of early industry? a. forests for charcoal, domestic markets, and iron ores b. coal fields, iron ores, and coastal ports c. an internal railroad system, cotton for textiles, and domestic markets d. good highways, coal fields, and coastal ports e. cotton fields, international markets, rivers Industry diffusing to Western Europe involved, as in Britain, the locational criteria: coalfields, water communication, and ____________. a. iron ore b. markets c. labor d. ports e. capital The Ruhr industrial area is connected to its port by a. railroads. b. cart roads. c. Rhine River. d. North Sea. e. Rhone River. Some industrial regions emerge because of their raw materials combinations. Which of the following is not an example of such a region? a. the Ruhr b. Saxony c. the Donbas d. London e. Netherlands

AP Review Chapters 7-12Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. C 46. D 91. A 136. B 2. C 47. A 92. A 137. D 3. B 48. C 93. B 138. A 4. A 49. B 94. A 139. A 5. B 50. D 95. D 140. B 6. C 51. A 96. B 141. A 7. B 52. C 97. D 142. B 8. B 53. B 98. D 143. B 9. A 54. C 99. A 144. D 10. B 55. B 100. D 145. C 11. A 56. B 101. B 146. A 12. C 57. B 102. C 147. D 13. A 58. D 103. B 148. D 14. B 59. B 104. C 149. B 15. D 60. A 105. B 150. A 16. A 61. C 106. A 151. B 17. A 62. B 107. A 152. A 18. C 63. A 108. B 153. A 19. D 64. B 109. C 154. C 20. B 65. A 110. B 155. D 21. B 66. A 111. A 156. A 22. C 67. D 112. D 157. D 23. C 68. C 113. A 158. C 24. A 69. D 114. B 159. C 25. E 70. A 115. B 160. A 26. C 71. C 116. A 161. C 27. D 72. C 117. D 162. D 28. B 73. B 118. B 163. D 29. B 74. D 119. C 164. B 30. C 75. C 120. A 165. D 31. C 76. D 121. C 166. C 32. D 77. B 122. B 167. A 33. D 78. D 123. C 168. D 34. C 79. D 124. A 169. C 35. A 80. C 125. D 170. D 36. D 81. A 126. B 171. A 37. D 82. D 127. A 172. B 38. B 83. C 128. C 173. A 39. A 84. C 129. D 174. C 40. E 85. B 130. C 175. D 41. C 86. D 131. B 176. A 42. C 87. C 132. B 177. A 43. B 88. A 133. C 178. A 44. A 89. C 134. A 179. D 45. B 90. A 135. C

180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224.

B B D D A D C A B B D D A A D B A B B B C C C D B C C C B C C D D A C A B D C C B A B C D

225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230. 231. 232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248. 249. 250.

B B B B A C C A D C C B C D D A D C A B D C B D C D