You are on page 1of 0

Printing Guide

Use this printing guide as a reference to print selected sections of this practice test.

To print, click the PRINTER icon located along the top of the window and enter one of the
following options in the PRINT RANGE section of the print dialog window:

To Print Enter Print Range Options
Complete Practice Test

Click ALL radio button

Physical Sciences Section

Click PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 3 to 24

Verbal Reasoning Section

Click PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 25 to 45

Writing Sample Section

Click PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 46 to 48

Biological Sciences Section

Click PAGES FROM radio button and
enter pages 49 to 75

Periodic Table

Click PAGES FROM radio button and
enter page 50 to 50

Answer Sheet

Click PAGES FROM radio button and
enter page 76 to 76






This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).








MCAT
Practice Test 7














Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.



























This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).




1
H
1.0

Periodic Table of the Elements

2
He
4.0
3
Li
6.9
4
Be
9.0

5
B
10.8
6
C
12.0
7
N
14.0
8
O
16.0
9
F
19.0
10
Ne
20.2

11
Na
23.0
12
Mg
24.3



13
Al
27.0
14
Si
28.1
15
P
31.0
16
S
32.1
17
Cl
35.5
18
Ar
39.9
19
K
39.1
20
Ca
40.1
21
Sc
45.0
22
Ti
47.9
23
V
50.9
24
Cr
52.0
25
Mn
54.9
26
Fe
55.8
27
Co
58.9
28
Ni
58.7
29
Cu
63.5
30
Zn
65.4
31
Ga
69.7
32
Ge
72.6
33
As
74.9
34
Se
79.0
35
Br
79.9
36
Kr
83.8
37
Rb
85.5
38
Sr
87.6
39
Y
88.9
40
Zr
91.2
41
Nb
92.9
42
Mo
95.9
43
Tc
(98)
44
Ru
101.1
45
Rh
102.9
46
Pd
106.4
47
Ag
107.9
48
Cd
112.4
49
In
114.8
50
Sn
118.7
51
Sb
121.8
52
Te
127.6
53
I
126.9
54
Xe
131.3
55
Cs
132.9
56
Ba
137.3
57
La*
138.9
72
Hf
178.5
73
Ta
180.9
74
W
183.9
75
Re
186.2
76
Os
190.2
77
Ir
192.2
78
Pt
195.1
79
Au
197.0
80
Hg
200.6
81
Tl
204.4
82
Pb
207.2
83
Bi
209.0
84
Po
(209)
85
At
(210)
86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223)
88
Ra
(226)
89
Ac
(227)
104
Unq
(261)
105
Unp
(262)
106
Unh
(263)
107
Uns
(262)
108
Uno
(265)
109
Une
(267)

*
58
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm
(145)
62
Sm
150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0

90
Th
232.0
91
Pa
(231)
92
U
238.0
93
Np
(237)
94
Pu
(244)
95
Am
(243)
96
Cm
(247)
97
Bk
(247)
98
Cf
(251)
99
Es
(252)
100
Fm
(257)
101
Md
(258)
102
No
(259)
103
Lr
(260)

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 5
Passage I

Thousands of tons of hydrazine (N
2
H
4
) are
produced each year for commercial uses, including
the production of agricultural chemicals. At room
temperature, hydrazine is a volatile liquid that exists
in hydrogen-bonded networks similar to those found
in liquid water. Hydrazine may be prepared by the
Raschig process, the reaction of ammonia with
sodium hypochlorite, as shown in Equation 1.

2NH
3
(g) + NaOCl(aq) N
2
H
4
(aq) + NaCl(aq) +
H
2
O()

Equation 1

Hydrazine usually is shipped as the hydrate (N
2
H
4

H
2
O) because it is easier to handle and can be easily
dehydrated to form the anhydrous compound.

Hydrazine and its chemical derivatives are good
rocket propellants. For example, hydrazine reacts
with dinitrogen tetroxide (N
2
O
4
) to produce gaseous
nitrogen and water. Equation 2 shows the reaction
and the enthalpy change.

2 N
2
H
4
() + N
2
O
4
() 3 N
2
(g) + 4 H
2
O(g)
H = -1040 kJ mol
-1


Equation 2

Some thermochemical data for hydrazine and
dinitrogen tetroxide are given in Table 1.

Table 1 Properties of Hydrazine and Dinitrogen
Tetroxide at 298 K
Property N
2
H
4
() N
2
O
4
(g)
H
f
(kJ mol
-1
) 50.6 9.2
G
f
(kJ mol
-1
) 149.2 97.9
S (J K
-1
mol
-1
) 121.2 304.3

Like ammonia, hydrazine is a base in aqueous
solution. Figure 1 shows the equilibria reactions of
ammonia and hydrazine in aqueous solution.

NH
3
(aq) + H
2
O() NH
4
+
(aq) + OH
-
(aq)
K
eq
= 1.8 10
-5


N
2
H
4
(aq) + H
2
O() N
2
H
5
+
+ OH
-
(aq)
K
eq
= 8.5 10
-7


N
2
H
5
+
+ H
2
O N
2
H
6
2+
+ OH
-
(aq)
K
eq
= 8.9 10
-16


Figure 1 Equilibria (K
eq
= equilibrium constant)

1. Which of the following Lewis structures best
represents hydrazine?
A)

B)

C)

D)


2. How many grams of ammonia are required to
make one mole of hydrazine by the Raschig
process?
A) 8.5 g
B) 17.0 g
C) 32.0 g
D) 34.0 g


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 6
3. What is the percent by weight of hydrazine in
hydrazine hydrate?
A ) 6.0/50.0 x 100%
B ) 18.0/32.0 x 100%
C ) 18.0/50.0 x 100%
D ) 32.0/50.0 x 100%

4.

What is the enthalpy change (H
o
) for the
reaction shown above?
A ) 50.6 kJ mol
-1

B ) 149.2 kJ mol
-1
C ) (149.2 + 298 x 121.2) kJ mol
-1

D ) (149.2 - 50.6) kJ mol
-1


5. As a result of being a weaker base than
ammonia, hydrazine:
A ) has a smaller acidity constant (K
a
) than does
ammonia.
B ) has a smaller basicity constant (K
b
) than does
ammonia.
C ) can be protonated twice to form N
2
H
6
2+
.
D ) forms hydrogen bonds in aqueous solution.
6. The formation of hydrazine from its elements is
NOT a spontaneous process at 25
o
C and 1 atm
because:
A) S
o
for the reaction is > 0.
B) H
o
for the reaction is < 0.
C) G
o
for the reaction is > 0.
D) S
o
for hydrazine is > 0.

7. The entropy change (S
o
) for the reaction shown
in Equation 2 is:
A) < 0 because the moles of gaseous products > the
moles of gaseous reactants.
B) < 0 because water is a product of the reaction.
C) > 0 because the moles of gaseous products > the
moles of gaseous reactants.
D) > 0 because water is a product of the reaction.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 7
Passage II

A gas of electrically charged and neutral particles is
called a plasma. Plasma physics is a broad term
applicable to such diverse areas as space physics,
gas lasers, gaseous electronics, and controlled
thermonuclear fusion.

A plasma has the ability to oscillate and propagate
waves. These waves can be excited by applying an
oscillating electric field to the plasma. The simplest
oscillation is a high-frequency oscillation of the
plasma electrons. Consider a plasma that is
electrically neutral, consisting of positive ions
immersed in a sea of electrons. If the electron
sea is slightly displaced from the ionic background,
electric fields act to restore the electrons to their
original equilibrium positions. The electron sea
subsequently moves toward the equilibrium
position, overshoots, and oscillates back and forth.
These oscillations are so rapid that the positive ions
seem to be fixed in the background (see Figure 1).
The frequency f at which these oscillations occur for
a given number density, n (electrons per cubic
meter), is

f = [kne
2
/(m)]
1/2
9.0n
1/2


where e and m are the elementary charge and
electron mass, 1.6 x 10
-19
C and 9 x 10
-31
kg,
respectively. The constant k = 9 x 10
9
Nm
2
/C
2

occurs in Coulombs law. The approximation on
the right side of the equation gives the frequency in
Hz, when n is expressed in m
-3
.



Figure 1 Positive ions surrounded by a sea of
mobile electrons (gray denotes the electron sea).
A and C denote the oscillation extremes.

8. Why can the positive ions be considered to be
fixed during the electrons oscillations?
A) The ions are bound together with strong nuclear
forces.
B) An ion is much more massive than an electron.
C) The ions experience no force when the electron
sea is displaced.
D) Coulombs law prohibits the motion of the ions.

9. In Figure 1, the maximum electrical potential
energy occurs at:
A) A only.
B) B only.
C) C only.
D) A and C only.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 8
10. The density of a typical laboratory plasma is
10
18
m
-3
. This value leads to plasma
oscillations at:
A ) 9 x 10
18
Hz.
B ) 9 x 10
12
Hz.
C ) 9 x 10
9
Hz.
D ) 9 x 10
6
Hz.

11. A plasma wave moving through a plasma has a
frequency of 10
9
Hz and a speed of 3.0 x 10
7

m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave?
A ) 3.0 cm
B ) 3.0 m
C ) 3.3 cm
D ) 3.3 m

12. As the Figure 1 electrons oscillate through
equilibrium point B, they move on to C because
of:
A) the momentum gathered as they moved from
point A.
B) Coulomb forces pulling on the electron sea.
C) magnetic forces of attraction between the
positive ions and the electron sea.
D) the large potential energy they have at point B.

13. What best describes changes that occur as the
electron sea moves from position A to position
B in Figure 1?
A) Kinetic energy is transformed into potential
energy.
B) Potential energy is transformed into kinetic
energy.
C) Power is dissipated as heat.
D) Turbulence brings the electron sea to rest.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 9
Passage III

Silicon, the second most abundant element in the
earths crust, is found combined with oxygen in a
variety of silicate minerals. The most common is
silica (SiO
2
), which is a network solid.

Silicon cannot be purified by electrolytic
techniques. When elemental potassium became
available in the nineteenth century, it was used in a
silicon purification procedure. Today, silicon is
produced commercially by the reaction of silica
with carbon or calcium carbide in an electric
furnace at 2000C (Equation 1). The product is
about 98% pure, with impurities of iron, oxygen,
aluminum, and other elements. Further purification
is achieved by halogenating the silicon, purifying
the resulting gas by fractional distillation, and then
reducing the halogenated silicon compound
(Equations 2-3).

SiO
2
(s) + 2 C(s) Si() + 2 CO(g)

Equation 1

Si(s) + 3 HCl(g) SiCl
3
H(g) + H
2
(g)

Equation 2

SiCl
3
H(g) + H
2
(g) Si(s) + 3 HCl(g)

Equation 3

Pure silicon is a hard, brittle, nonreactive substance
with a metallic luster.

14. The purification of elemental silicon was
difficult to achieve because it:
A ) is a rare element.
B ) is too reactive to isolate easily.
C ) exists in minerals that do not decompose easily.
D ) does not crystallize.

15. What is the electron configuration for a ground-
state silicon atom?
A)
[Ne] 3s 3p __
B)
[Ne] 3s 3p _
C)
[Ne] 3s 3p __ _
D)
[Ne] 3s 3p

16. According to valence shell electron pair
repulsion (VSEPR) theory, what is the
geometry around silicon in SiCl
3
H?
A) Linear
B) Tetrahedral
C) Trigonal bipyramidal
D) Octahedral

17. Which of the following elements could best
substitute for potassium in the purification of
silicon?
A) H
2
B) Na
C) Mg
D) Ca

18. SiCl
3
H has a normal boiling point of 33
o
C.
What are the predominant forces between
SiCl
3
H molecules?
A) Ionic forces
B) Covalent bonds
C) Hydrogen bonds
D) van der Waals forces

19. SiCl
3
H is purified by fractional distillation.
Why does this procedure effect a purification?
A) SiCl
3
H is not water soluble.
B) SiCl
3
H is decomposed by water.
C) SiCl
3
H has a lower boiling point than the solid
impurities.
D) SiCl
3
H has a lower melting point than the
impurities.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 10
Passage IV

The production of electrical power via nuclear
fission reactions often provokes heated discussions
about nuclear waste disposal. In a typical uranium
fission, a uranium nucleus absorbs a neutron and
undergoes fission, as illustrated in the reaction

.

The superscript denotes the atomic mass and the
subscript the atomic number. The nucleus U-236
(i.e.,
236
U) decays immediately into two fission
fragments X and Y, along with the release of two or
three neutrons. Energy is produced in the fission
process by the conversion of nuclear mass into
energy. This conversion is described by Einsteins
famous relation E = mc
2
, where c is the speed of
light 3 x10
8
m/s, m is the mass that is converted,
and E the resulting energy released. An analysis of
the reaction shown reveals that about 1/1000 of the
original starting mass of U-235 is missing after the
reaction. This missing mass accounts for the energy
produced in the reaction. The fission fragments X
and Y constitute the radioactive waste from
uranium fission. These fragments then undergo
beta and/or gamma decay. The resulting fragments
themselves may be radioactive, resulting in further
decays until a stable isotope is reached. Hundreds
of years must pass before these radioactive
fragments decay to nonradioactive nuclei.


20. If three neutrons are produced in the U-235
fission reaction discussed in the passage, what
relation must the atomic masses A1 and A2
obey?
A ) A1 + A2 = 92
B ) A1 + A2 = 232
C ) A1 + A2 = 233
D ) A1 + A2 = 236

21. If fission fragment X undergoes beta decay,
then one neutron in the nucleus is converted
into a proton, an electron and a neutrino (the
electron and neutrino vexit the atom). If the
new fission fragment is called X , the beta-
decay reaction would be written as:
A)

B)

C)

D)


22. Half-lives are useful indicators of how
dangerous a radioactive substance is. The half-
lives of Pu-239 and Ra-226 are 24,000 yrs and
1600 yrs, respectively. In comparison to atoms
of Pu-239, atoms of Ra-226 will decay at a
rate:
A) 8 times faster.
B) 15 times faster.
C) 8 times slower.
D) 15 times slower.

23. A standard coal-burning power plant produces
about 10
6
kg of fly-ash every week. Assuming
that the density of fly-ash is 1000 kg/m
3
, what
would be the length of the side of a fly-ash
cube made from this waste?
A) 1 m
B) 10 m
C) 100 m
D) 1000 m


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 11




















These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

24. Consider the following electrode potentials.

Cu
2+
+ 2 e
-
Cu(s) E
o
= +0.34 V

2 H
2
O O
2
+ 4 H
+
+ 4 e
-
E
o
= -1.23 V

What is E
o
cell
for the reaction shown in the
following equation?

2 Cu
2+
+ 2 H
2
O 2 Cu(s) + O
2
+ 4 H
+

A) -0.89 V
B) +0.55 V
C) +1.57 V
D) +1.91 V

25. A gas that occupies 10 L at 1 atm and 25
o
C will
occupy what volume at 500 atm and 25
o
C?
A) Exactly 0.020 L
B) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
space occupied by the individual gas molecules
C) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
repulsions between the individual gas molecules
D) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
increased number of collisions with the sides of
the container

26. If there is no air resistance, how far will a 2-kg
object fall from rest in 10 sec? (Note: Use g =
10 m/s
2
.)
A) 100 m
B) 250 m
C) 300 m
D) 500 m

27. When a light wave and a sound wave pass from
air to glass, what changes occur in their speeds?
A) Both speed up.
B) Both slow down.
C) Light speeds up; sound slows down.
D) Light slows down; sound speeds up.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 12
Passage V

When aqueous solutions of bromine and acetone are
mixed, the reaction shown by Equation 1 occurs.



Equation 1

When the pH of the solution is between 4 and 7, the
reaction occurs very slowly. However, at pH values
less than 3, the reaction occurs rapidly.

If the bromination of acetone (molar mass = 58.0 g
mol
1
and density = 0.791 g mL
1
) follows simple
kinetics, the rate law can be expressed by
Equation 2.

Rate = [Br
2
]/t = k[acetone]
a
[Br
2
]
b
[H
+
]
c

Equation 2

Bromine is a redbrown liquid that absorbs light
very strongly at a wavelength of 395 nm, and it is
the only compound that absorbs visible light during
this reaction. Thus, a researcher can use a
spectrophotometer to follow the decrease in the
concentration of bromine. The amount of 395-nm
light absorbed by bromine is directly proportional to
the concentration of bromine. Equation 3 is Beers
law, which shows the relationship between the
absorbance A and the concentration c of the
absorbing species when light passes through a
cuvette of path length l. The molar absorbtivity is
a constant for a given wavelength, and the path
length is normally 1.00 cm.

= cl

Equation 3

Table 1 gives rate data for this reaction. In the
experimentally determined rate law, the reaction is
zero order with respect to bromine.

Table 1 Rate Data at 25C and 395 nm

Exprmnt
Number
[acetone]
M
[H
+
]
M
[Br
2
]
M
[Br
2
]/t
M s
1

rate
constant
k 10
5

1 1.60 0.403 4.14 10
3
28.0 10
6
4.35
2 0.80 0.101 3.96 10
3
2.85 10
6
3.52
3 0.40 0.202 3.69 10
3
2.94 10
6
3.65
4 0.80 0.403 4.26 10
3
12.9 10
6
4.00
5 1.60 0.202 4.38 10
3
12.7 10
6
3.93
6 0.80 0.202 4.28 10
3
5.99 10
6
3.70
k
ave
= 3.86 0.2 10
5
M
1
s
1



28. The molar absorptivity of bromine at 395 nm is
198 M
1
cm
1
. What is the absorbance at 395
nm in Experiment 1?
A) 0.00825
B) 0.820
C) 1.22
D) 20.9

29. What is the value of c in Equation 2 as
determined from the data in Table 1?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

30. If the reaction is first order with respect to both
acetone and hydronium ion, which of the
following equations gives the rate law?
A) Rate = k[acetone][H
+
]
B) Rate = k[acetone][Br
2
]
2
[H
+
]
C) Rate = k[acetone][Br
2
][H
+
]
D) Rate = k[acetone]
2
[H
+
]



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 13
31. What is the molarity of pure acetone?
A ) 1.36 M
B ) 13.6 M
C ) 45.9 M
D ) 73.4 M

32. Though 395-nm light is in the visible region of
the electromagnetic spectrum, it is very near:
A) the radio wave region.
B) the microwave region.
C) the infrared region.
D) the ultraviolet region.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 14
Passage VI

Cellular phones are commonly used by people who
are traveling away from home or on business. The
development of these phones combines many recent
innovations in technology. Simply described,
cellular phones behave like two-way radios with the
incoming voice data transmitted at one carrier
frequency and the outgoing voice data transmitted
at another frequency. This capability to send and
receive voice data on these two separate frequency
channels allows the person to hear and speak on the
phone at the same time. The information in these
channels is transmitted on radio-frequency
electromagnetic carrier waves, which travel well
through the air.

Cell-phone channels operate at frequencies ranging
between 824 MHz and 894 MHz. Each channel
requires a finite amount of frequency space, called
the bandwidth of the channel, and is set at 30 kHz.
Most cellular phones can transmit their signal with
between 0.6 watts and 3 watts of power. The cell
phone scans all of its channels when it is on to find
the channel with the highest signal intensity. The
phone communicates with a base station, which
typically covers an area of 10 square miles, called a
cell. A cellular city has many cells within it,
which have phone base stations to transmit and
receive cell-phone data. Because the size of a cell
is relatively small, it allows efficient
communication with relatively low power phones.
When a phone moves from cell to cell, its calls are
handled by a central switching office.

33. What is the total frequency range available for
cellular phone communications?
A ) 30 kHz
B ) 894 MHz
C ) 70 MHz
D ) 894.03 MHz

34. If a cellular phone is powered by a 12-volt
battery and is transmitting at its maximum
power, what current is being used?
A) 3 W
B) 3 A
C) 0.25 A
D) 0.05 A

35. If two people were talking on their cellular
phones within the same "cell" in a city, why
wouldn't their transmissions interfere?
A) The power transmitted from each phone is not
high enough to interfere.
B) The signals are transmitted at the speed of light,
and do not have time to interfere.
C) The physical distance between any two base
stations limits interference.
D) The frequencies used by each phone are chosen
to be different.

36. The intensity of a cellular phone transmission
received at the switching station is proportional
to the power used by the phone and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance
between phone and station. Which combination
of power and distance will provide the highest
signal to be picked up by the switching station?
A) 0.6 watts, 2 miles
B) 0.6 watts, 3 miles
C) 3 watts, 5 miles
D) 3 watts, 4 miles

37. The 846 MHz carrier wave is an
electromagnetic signal, whereas sounds waves
are typically at much lower frequency and are
carried through the air as pressure waves.
Which statement describes the two waves
accurately?
A) Electromagnetic waves are transverse; pressure
waves are longitudinal.
B) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal;
pressure waves are transverse.
C) Waves are always longitudinal and transverse.
D) Electromagnetic wavelengths are longer than
acoustic sound wavelengths.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 15
Passage VII

A capacitor is a device that stores charge. The
voltage V across a capacitor and the charge q on the
capacitor are related by q = CV, where C is the
capacitance measured in farads, F (1.0 F = 1.0
coulomb per volt).

A student sets out to measure the capacitance using
the circuit of Figure 1.



Figure 1 Circuit for measuring capacitance

In this circuit, the capacitor will be fully charged
soon after switch S is closed to the left, as current
passes through the small fixed resistor r in series
with the capacitor C. Then, when S is switched to
the right, the capacitor discharges through the
variable resistor R. R is adjusted so that the
discharge current, as measured by the ammeter, is
constant during the discharge time.



Figure 2 The discharge current versus time


Figure 2 shows the current-versus-time plot during
the discharge. The voltage of the battery used in the
measurement was 12.0 V. The total charge q
transferred to the capacitor can be estimated from
the constant current value during the discharge time.

38. When switch S is closed to the left, charge
begins to accumulate on the capacitor. Charge
cannot accumulate indefinitely because:
A) the variable resistor inhibits the current flow.
B) the battery continually loses charge.
C) successive charges brought to the plates are
repelled by charges accumulated earlier.
D) the fixed resistor loses energy to heat.

39. To keep the current constant during the
discharge cycle:
A) the resistance R must be continually increased.
B) the resistance R must be continually decreased.
C) the resistance r must be continually increased.
D) the resistance r must equal R.

40. As the capacitor is charged, the electrical
potential energy that it gains:
A) equals the work done by the battery throughout
the charging process.
B) is less than the work done by the battery
throughout the charging process.
C) is greater than the work done by the battery
throughout the charging process.
D) equals the potential energy stored in resistor r.

41. Which circuit elements store energy?
I. Capacitors
II. Resistors
III. Batteries

A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only

42. The resistance of the variable resistor, R, at the
beginning of the discharge process is:
A) 2000 .
B) 3000 .
C) 4000 .
D) 6000 .


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 16
Passage VIII

Many reactions of oxyanions (negative ions that
contain oxygen) involve the transfer of oxygen
atoms from one ion or molecule to another.

Reaction 1 shows an oxygen atom transfer that is
typical of an oxyanion reaction.

NO
2
-
+ OCl
-
NO
3
-
+ Cl
-
K
eq
= 10
68


Reaction 1

Despite the favorable equilibrium constant, this
reaction is extremely slow. The reaction rate can be
increased by adding acid to the reaction solution.
When added, acid reacts with OCl
-
, forming HOCl.
HOCl allows the oxygen transfer to take place more
quickly because the hydrogen atom reduces the
charge on the oxygen atom, facilitating the breaking
of the O-Cl bond. The rate of this reaction,
Reaction 2, is first order in both NO
2
-
and HOCl.

NO
2
-
+ HOCl NO
3
-
+ Cl
-
+ H
+
K
eq
= 10
43


Reaction 2

Other oxyanion reactions also take place more
quickly in acidic solutions. For example, no
observable reaction occurs between ClO
3
-
and Br
-
in
basic solution, but when an acidic solution is used,
Reaction 3 occurs rapidly.

ClO
3
-
+ 6 Br
-
+ 6 H
+
Cl
-
+ 3 Br
2
+ 3 H
2
O

Reaction 3

The rate law for Reaction 3 is k[ClO
3
-
][Br
-
][H
+
]
2
,
and the initial sequences of the reaction mechanism
are shown below.

Sequence I
2 H
+
+ ClO
3
-
H
2
OClO
2
+

(fast)
Sequence II
Br
-
+ H
2
OClO
2
+
BrClO
2
+ H
2
O
(slow)
Sequence III
Br
-
+ BrClO
2
Br
2
+ ClO
2
-

(fast)

The exchange of oxygen-18 between H
2
18
O and
SO
4
2-
is also more rapid in acid than in neutral
solutions of SO
4
2-
. A proposed reaction mechanism
for the exchange is shown below.

Sequence I
2 H
+
+ SO
4
2-
H
2
SO
4
(fast)
Sequence II
H
2
SO
4
SO
3
+ H
2
O (slow)
Sequence III
SO
3
+ H
2
18
O 2 H
+
+ SO
3
18
O
2-
(fast)

43. If the rate of formation of Cl
-
in Reaction 3
were 1.0 x 10
-2
M/sec at a pH of 1, what would
it be at a pH of 2? (Note: Assume that other
conditions are identical.)
A) 1 x 10
-1
M/s
B) 1 x 10
-2
M/s
C) 2 x 10
-2
M/s
D) 1 x 10
-4
M/s

44. Compared to the rate of Reaction 1, the rate of
Reaction 2:
A) is 10
25
times less.
B) is 10
25
times greater.
C) is 1.58 times greater.
D) cannot be evaluated without additional
information.

45. In addition to the explanation in the passage,
the rate of Reaction 2 is different from the rate
of Reaction 1 because the formation of HOCl
by the protonation of the oxygen:
A) reduces the electronic repulsion forces between
the reactants.
B) increases the electronic repulsion forces between
the reactants.
C) increases the electronic repulsion forces between
the nitrogen atom and the oxygen atom that is
being transferred.
D) reduces the electronic attraction forces between
the chlorine atom and the oxygen atom that is
being transferred.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 17
46. Which of the following methods would produce
SO
3
18
O
2-
at the fastest rate?
A ) Bubbling SO
3
(g) through H
2
18
O
B ) Bubbling S
18
O
3
(g) through H
2
18
O
C ) Bubbling S
18
O
3
(g) through H
2
O
D ) Reacting SO
2
18
O(l) with H
2
18
O

47. Which of the following figures represents a
likely transition state for Reaction 2?
A )

B )

C )

D )


48. Which of the following graphs best shows the
energy diagram for the Reaction 3 mechanism
in the passage?
A)

B)

C)

D)



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 18
These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

49. Phosphorus appears directly below nitrogen in
the periodic table. The boiling point of
ammonia, NH
3
, is higher than the boiling point
of phosphine, PH
3
, under standard conditions.
Which of the following statements best
explains the difference in the boiling points of
these two compounds?
A ) Ammonia is a weaker base than phosphine.
B ) The N-H bond is weaker than the P-H bond.
C ) High molecular weight compounds generally
have lower boiling points.
D ) Ammonia forms stronger intermolecular
hydrogen bonds than phosphine.

50. A student measures the mass and volume of
four objects.

Object Mass(g) Volume(cm
3
)
A 1.5 0.50
B 3.0 0.75
C 4.5 1.00
D 6.0 1.50

Which object has the highest density?
A ) A
B ) B
C ) C
D ) D

51. Which of the following elements gains one
electron most readily?
A) Be
B) Cl
C) K
D) Ca

52. Which of the following substances is NOT a
base?
A) NH
3
B) SO
4
2-
C) NH
4
+
D) Fe(OH)
2

53. A ray of light in air is incident upon a glass
plate at an angle of 45
o
. The angle of refraction
of the ray in the glass is 30
o
. What is the index
of refraction of the glass?
(Data: sin 30
o
= 0.500, sin 45
o
= 0.707,
sin 60
o
= 0.866, tan 30
o
= 0.577,
tan 45
o
= 1.000)

A) 1.22
B) 1.41
C) 1.57
D) 1.65


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 19
Passage IX

Generalizations such as like dissolves like and
the solubility of a solute doubles for every ten-
degree rise in temperature are useful in certain
situations but are not universally applicable to
solution chemistry. Instead, several different
relationships describe solution dynamics. Thus,
depending on the problem, a chemist must use
various concentration units.

For example, molarity (M) is best for most
stoichiometry problems, molality (m) for freezing-
point depression problems, mole fraction for
Raoult-law problems, and osmolality for osmotic
pressure problems.

Table 1 gives data for two water soluble solutes,
ethylene glycol [C
2
H
6
O
2
()] and lead nitrate
[Pb(NO
3
)
2
(s)].

Table 1 Data for Ethylene Glycol and Lead Nitrate

Property C
2
H
6
O
2
Pb(NO
3
)
2

Formula weight 62.1 g/mol 331 g/mol
Specific gravity 1.116 4.53
Solubility in
water at 0C at
20C




37.7 g/100mL
56.5 g/100mL

Equation 1 shows how osmotic pressure (II)
depends on concentration (M) and Kelvin
temperature (T).

II = MRT

Equation 1

Note: R = 0.082 L atm K
-1
mol
-1
, and the molal
freezing-point depression and boiling-point
elevation constants for water are K
f
= -1.86C/m
and K
b
= 0.52C/m, respectively.








54. What is the molality of a saturated solution of
Pb(NO
3
)
2
(aq) at 0
o
C?
A) 0.114 m
B) 0.251 m
C) 1.14 m
D) 3.41 m

55. To what temperature does a 10.75 m solution of
ethylene glycol protect an engine from
freezing?
A) -5.78
o
C
B) -12.0
o
C
C) -20.0
o
C
D) -45.0
o
C

56. Which aqueous solution, 0.1 M lead nitrate or
0.1 M ethylene glycol, lowers the freezing point
of water to a greater extent?
A) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(aq) by threefold
B) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(aq) by twofold
C) C
2
H
6
O
2
(aq) by twofold
D) C
2
H
6
O
2
(aq) by threefold

57. Does either generalization in the passage apply
to aqueous solutions of ethylene glycol?
A) Yes; both generalizations apply.
B) No; neither generalization applies.
C) Yes; like dissolves like only applies.
D) Yes; the solubility of a solute doubles for every
ten-degree rise in temperature only applies.

58. If a cell wall separates a hypertonic, interstitial
fluid from cellular fluid, will there be an
osmotic effect?
A) Yes; the cell fluid will become less
concentrated.
B) Yes; the cell fluid will become more
concentrated.
C) No; osmosis does not apply to biological fluids.
D) No; the concentrations are the same on both
sides of the wall.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 20
59. What kind of solution results if a chemist
equilibrates 39.0 g of lead nitrate in 100 mL of
H
2
O at 0
o
C over several days?
A ) A saturated solution with 3.9 g of undissolved
salt
B ) A saturated solution with 1.3 g of undissolved
salt
C ) An unsaturated solution
D ) A supersaturated solution
60. What is the mole fraction of lead nitrate in a
10% (wt-wt) aqueous solution?
A) 0.006
B) 0.03
C) 0.1
D) 0.6


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 21
Passage X

Cars are subjected to many forces as they move: air
drag, tire-road friction, engine motive force, gravity,
and other factors. Unfortunately, collisions
occasionally occur. During such accidents, a
(potentially large) fraction of the kinetic energy is
rapidly and irreversibly converted to thermal energy
and deformation of the car structure. Test crashes
with dummy drivers and passengers and other
experiments help designers develop safer vehicles.

In one test, two 1000-kg cars, A and B, are initially
100 m apart. They are traveling on a highway in the
same direction: car A at 30 m/s, car B at 20 m/s
with car B ahead of car A. Eventually they collide.
In one case the collision is cushioned by a spring
(with constant k = 10
5
N/m) on the front of car A.
In a second case there is no spring and the body
deformation of the two cars absorbs the collision
energy. (Assume g = 10 m/s
2
when needed.)

61. Consider the difference in crash deceleration on
a test dummy in two test cases.

Case I: The dummy hits the steering wheel at
20 m/s and stops in 0.1 s.
Case II: The dummy hits an air bag at 20 m/s
and stops in 0.25 s.

What is the ratio of the average acceleration in
Case II to that in Case I?
A ) 0.25
B ) 0.40
C ) 2.5
D ) 4.0

62. Two cars, each of mass 1000 kg traveling at 20
m/s in opposite directions, have a head-on
inelastic collision. How much heat and
deformation energy is produced?
A) 2 x 10
5
J
B) 4 x 10
5
J
C) 8 x 10
5
J
D) 16 x 10
5
J

63. When tires are made of hard rubber, the
coefficients of rolling, sliding, and static
friction with the road are reduced compared
with softer rubber. Which of the following
predictions would NOT hold if hard rubber
replaced soft rubber in tire manufacture?
A) Stopping distances would increase.
B) Fuel efficiency would be unchanged.
C) Slippage on curves would be more likely.
D) Higher tire air pressure would be required.

64. A spring between colliding cars reduces the
average force on the cars because it:
A) lengthens collision time.
B) absorbs kinetic energy loss.
C) absorbs momentum change.
D) causes no permanent deformation.

65. How long before test car A overtakes car B?
A) 2 s
B) 3.33 s
C) 5 s
D) 10 s

66. What is the post-collision speed of cars A and
B after the no-spring inelastic collision?
A) 0 m/s
B) 20 m/s
C) 25 m/s
D) 50 m/s


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 22
Passage XI

Worldwide, about 20 damaging earthquakes occur
daily. A major quake in the Mojave Desert (near
Landers) in 1992 demonstrated that large quakes
sometimes trigger distant smaller ones. Of the
many seismographs installed throughout the West in
the 1980s, 14 recorded local quakes after the
Landers event, making coincidence an unlikely
explanation.

The Landers quake produced measurable lasting
deformations over a length L = 74 km. L is called
the source length of the initiating quake. Allied
quakes, aftershocks, occur within a distance of 2L
from the primary event. However, triggered quakes
were as far away as 17L.

The mechanism of the triggering is a puzzle. It is
useful to categorize seismic waves into two kinds:
deeply propagating body waves, which dissipate
rapidly with distance, and surface waves, which
dissipate at a lesser rate. Lasting deformations from
a quake are produced by the body waves, with
deformation size falling off as (L/d)
3
, where d is
distance from the quake center. At d = 4L these
deformations are generally reduced to less than the
daily periodic distortions due to tidal forces. On the
other hand, surface waves are associated with
elastic oscillations in the crust of about 10-s
periodicity and cause little lasting deformation.
Some of the time delays between the Landers quake
and those it triggered were too great to be ascribed
to seismic wave-transit times.

One explanation of the aftershock trigger
mechanism involves underground fluids, water or
molten rock. Fluid seals between isolated volumes
of rock at different pressures may leak, thus
increasing transverse frictional forces. Also, fluid
may flow into rock fractures, thus lubricating them.

67. Before the Landers quake, coincidence was
argued as a sufficient explanation for what is
now believed to be triggered-quake events. For
these earlier events, which of the following
does NOT support the coincidence hypothesis?
A) The timing of subsequent quakes provided
ambiguous evidence.
B) Generally, the distances to the subsequent
quakes was excessive.
C) Too few of the subsequent quakes were recorded
to establish a clear connection.
D) Generally, the subsequent quakes were scattered
in all directions.

68. What is the ratio of lasting deformations
produced by a quake at 16 L from its center to
those produced at 4 L from its center?
A) 1/16
B) 1/32
C) 1/64
D) 1/128

69. Because earthquakes were triggered by what
ultimately must have been comparatively minor
energy transfers from the distant Landers
quake, the triggered quakes probably occurred
where:
A) significant local stress forces in the earths crust
were already in precarious equilibrium.
B) the earths crust was subjected to reinforcing
resonant effects that cumulatively built up local
stresses.
C) the earths crust locally sustained standing wave
nodes for a short but significant period.
D) destructive interference effects in the incoming
seismic waves were approximately maximum
for an extended period.

70. The wavelength of surface waves is about 20
km. The propagation speed of these waves is
estimated as:
A) hundreds of m/s.
B) thousands of m/s.
C) tens of thousands of m/s.
D) hundreds of thousands of m/s.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 23
71. The primary rupture in the Landers quake
moved from south to north as it progressed to
its full 74-km length. How would the Doppler
effect influence this?
A ) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves
propagating eastward and westward
B ) By increasing the wavelength of seismic waves
propagating eastward and westward
C ) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves
moving northward and increasing the
wavelength of waves moving southward
D ) By increasing the wavelength of seismic waves
moving northward and decreasing the
wavelength of waves moving southward



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 24
These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.


72. What is the difference in pressure between two
points that are separated by a vertical distance
of 0.25 m in a tank of water? (Note: The
density of water is 1,000 kg/m
3
, and g = 10
m/s
2
.)
A ) 250 N/m
2

B ) 400 N/m
2
C ) 2,500 N/m
2
D ) 4,000 N/m
2


73. The following reaction occurs spontaneously.

Cd(s) + 2 H
+
(aq) Cd
2+
(aq) + H
2
(g)
Which of the following has the highest electron
affinity?

A ) Cd(s)
B ) H
+
(aq)
C ) Cd
2+
(aq)
D ) H
2
(g)

74. The energy, E, of a hydrogen atom with its
electron in the nth shell of a hydrogen atom is
given by E = -C/n
2
where n = 1,2,3, . . . and C
is a positive constant. If an electron goes from
the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell:
A ) a photon is emitted.
B ) an electron is emitted.
C ) an electron is absorbed.
D ) the energy of the atom is increased.

75. A ray of light in air strikes the flat surface of a
liquid, resulting in a reflected ray and a
refracted ray. If the angle of reflection is
known, what additional information is needed
in order to determine the relative refractive
index of the liquid compared to air?
A) Angle of incidence
B) Angle of refraction
C) Refractive index of air
D) Wavelength of the light

76. Approximately how many moles of Al
3+
are
reduced when 0.1 faraday of charge passes
through a cell during the production of Al?
(Note: Assume there is excess Al
3+
available
and that Al
3+
is reduced to Al metal only.)
A) 0.033 mol
B) 0.050 mol
C) 0.067 mol
D) 0.10 mol

77. When a weak acid (HA) is titrated with sodium
hydroxide in the presence of an indicator (HIn),
the pH at which a color change is observed
depends on the:
A) final concentration of HA.
B) final concentration of HIn.
C) initial concentration of HA.
D) pK
a
of HIn.







Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several questions.
After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.































This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690)

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 26
Passage I

Students of evolution have shown that species
death, or extinction, is going on all the time and that
it is an essential feature of life history. What alarms
so many life historians is not that extinctions are
occurring but that they appear to be occurring at a
greater rate than they have at all but a few times in
the past, raising the specter of the sort of wholesale
die-offs that ended the reign of the dinosaurs. A
new word has been coined to define the value most
threatened by these overheated rates: biodiversity.

Since extinction is a particularly final and
comprehensive form of death, species preservation
and its corollary, habitat protection, are now seen as
the most important means available to stem the
erosion of biodiversity, but I wonder if these ideas,
which emphasize diversity at the species level, give
an adequate picture of recent biological history. If
we believe that all life shares a certain quality of
sensitivity, or self-awareness, then Homo sapiens
was an astonishing and wholly unpredictable leap
forward in this respect, because human beings
manifested an idea of personhood never before
achieved.

Consciousness. Mind. Insight. Here are qualities
that, if not exclusively human, seem appallingly
rudimentary elsewhere. Plainly, our planet
contained vast opportunities for creatures willing to
shape it consciously toward their ends. The way
was clear; we know of no other species that has
divined what weve been up to or has a mind to
object. What seems simple to us is far beyond
them; its almost as if we move so fast that we are
invisible, and they are still trying to pretend that the
world is the same as it was before we arrived.


This speed on the uptake appears to be the chief
advantage that cultural adaptation has over genetic.
When human beings encounter new circumstances,
adaptation rarely depends on which individuals are
genetically best suited to adjust, passing on their
abilities more successfully than others and
producing subsequent generations better adapted to
the new order. No, human beings tend to cut the
loop short by noticing the new, puzzling over it,
telling their friends, and attempting to find out
immediately whether it is edible, combustible,
domesticable, or whatever.

I am concerned with an image of our species as a
vast, featureless mob of Yahoos mindlessly
trampling this planets most ancient and delicate
harmonies. This image is not a completely
inaccurate description of present conditions in some
parts of the world, but it portrays the human
presence as a sort of monolithic disaster, when in
fact Homo sapiens is the crown of creation. Change
is one of the most reliable constants of this story.
To say that the changes we have brought, and will
continue to bring, are somehow alien to the world
and are within a half inch of making its natural
continuance impossible displays some contempt for
the forces at work.

Today, many believe that these changes are often
for the worse. We look back with longing to a time
at which the human presence barely dimpled the
landscape. Im not persuaded by this picture. I can
easily imagine arguments that would have required
the interior of North America to remain empty of
citiesand yet I dont think this continent is a
poorer place now than it was twenty thousand years
ago. The more convinced we are that our species is
a plague, the more we are obliged to yearn for
disasters.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
T. Palmer, The case for human beings. 1992 by T. Palmer.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 27
78. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the central thesis of the passage?
A ) Biodiversity is essential for human survival.
B ) Cultural adaptation and genetic adaptation are
separate forms of evolution.
C ) Changes brought on by human judgment are
natural.
D ) Extinction is inevitable.

79. Assume that a new species is discovered and
found to have a capacity for reasoned judgment
greater than that of human beings. The author
would be most likely to argue that:
A ) the new species will be highly adaptable.
B ) adaptation is taking place at a faster rate than
scientists had previously thought.
C ) biological classifications should be altered.
D ) decreasing biodiversity will destroy the
environment.

80. The author apparently believes that the
increasing rate of extinction:
A ) will decrease naturally.
B ) should be halted.
C ) has nothing to do with human activity.
D ) is not a reason for panic.

81. Suppose that a conference is held on issues
relevant to the transformation of Mars into a
habitable planet. Which of the following topics
is the author most likely to present?
A ) The importance of preserving native habitats on
Mars
B ) The importance of farming species likely to
survive on Mars
C ) The role of human inventiveness in ensuring
survival on Mars
D ) Reasons that biodiversity is irrelevant on Mars

82. According to the author, how do many life
historians support their contention that we risk
destroying species?
A) They assert that extinctions are occurring at a
rapidly accelerated rate.
B) They maintain that extinctions are brought about
only by human intervention.
C) They cite examples of extinct species.
D) They point to similarities between humans and
dinosaurs.

83. Which of the following processes would the
author be most likely to characterize as
cultural adaptation?
A) Getting to know people from different cultures
B) Moving around to many different regions of the
world
C) Reasoning and problem solving to change a
situation
D) Moving to a culture that one finds suitable

84. The author is concerned that a failure to
recognize the value of human potential to bring
about change will cause:
A) inattention to the selfish motives underlying
human behavior.
B) an overly optimistic picture of the fate of the
universe.
C) an underestimation of the value of other species.
D) a self-fulfilling prophecy that guarantees
disaster.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 28
Passage II

There is no doubt that what we call the modern
movement in art begins with the single-minded
determination of a French painter to see the world
objectively. There need be no mystery about this
word: what Czanne wished to see was the world,
or that part of it he was contemplating, as an object,
without any intervention either of the tidy mind or
the untidy emotions. His immediate predecessors,
the Impressionists, had seen the world
subjectivelythat is to say, as it presented itself to
their senses in various lights, or from various points
of view. Each occasion made a different and
distinct impression on their senses, and for each
occasion there must necessarily be a separate work
of art. But Czanne wished to exclude this
shimmering and ambiguous surface of things and
penetrate to the reality that did not change, that was
present beneath the bright but deceptive picture
presented by the kaleidoscope of the senses.

Great revolutionary leaders are people with a single
and a simple idea, and it is the very persistency with
which they pursue this idea that endows it with
power. But let us ask why, in the long history of
art, it had never previously happened that an artist
should wish to see the world objectively. We know,
for example, that at various stages in the history of
art there have been attempts to make art imitative;
and not only Greek and Roman art, but the
Renaissance of Classical art in Europe, were periods
of art possessed by a desire to represent the world
as it really is. But there always intervened
between the visual event and the act of realizing the
vision an activity which we can only call
interpretative. This intervention seemed to be made
necessary by the very nature of perception, which
does not present to the senses a flat two-
dimensional picture with precise boundaries but a
central focus with a periphery of vaguely
apprehended and seemingly distorted objects. The
artist might focus on a single object, say a human
figure or even a human face; but even then there
were problems such as that of representing the
solidity of the object, its place in space.


In every instance before Czanne, in order to solve
such problems the artist brought in extra-visual
facultiesimagination, which enabled the artist to
transform the objects of the visible world and thus
to create an ideal space occupied by ideal forms; or
intellect, which enabled the artist to construct a
scientific chart, a perspective, in which the object
could be given an exact situation. But a system of
perspective is no more an accurate representation of
what the eye sees than a Mercators projection is
what the world looks like from Sirius. Like the
map, it serves to guide the intellect; perspective
does not give us any glimpse of the reality.

One might conclude from the history of art that
reality in this sense is a will-o-the-wisp, an
actuality we can see but never grasp. Nature, as we
say, is one thing, art quite another. But Czanne,
though he was familiar with the art of the
museums and respected the attempts of his
predecessors to come to terms with nature, did not
despair of succeeding where they had failedthat is
to say, in realizing his sensations in the presence
of nature.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
H. Read, A Concise History of Modern Painting. 1968 by
The Herbert Read Discretionary Trust.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 29

85. Information in the passage suggests that the
author probably believes that the act of
interpretation:
A ) allows the artist to view the world more
objectively.
B ) is an almost unavoidable component of the act of
seeing.
C ) was first popularized by Czanne.
D ) became the dominant force in art many years
after Czanne.

86. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the central thesis of the passage?
A ) For the Impressionists, each sensory occasion
required a separate work of art.
B ) The use of perspective prevents artists from
effectively interpreting reality.
C ) Czanne tried to solve the problem of
interpretation by attempting to view the world
objectively.
D ) Before Czanne, many periods of art reflected a
desire to represent the world as it really is.

87. According to the passage, a revolutionary, at
least in part, is a person who:
A ) promotes a single, simple idea.
B ) pursues interpretation in art.
C ) pursues realism in art.
D ) observes the distinction between nature and art.

88. In the context of the passage, to view an object
subjectively is to view it:
A ) without intervention by the intellect or the
emotions.
B ) differently depending on when and how it is
viewed.
C ) within the framework of an ideal space.
D ) in the presence of nature.


89. The authors suggestion that reality in art
before Czanne had been a will-o-the-wisp
can most reasonably be interpreted to mean that
artists before Czanne had not:
A) attempted to imitate reality faithfully.
B) agreed about the value of Impressionism.
C) been able to perceive reality.
D) found a way to depict reality effectively.

90. The authors assertion that Greek, Roman, and
Renaissance art tried to represent the world
accurately is:
A) illustrated in the passage by examples of specific
works of art.
B) not supported by evidence in the passage.
C) supported in the passage by a discussion of the
nature of perception.
D) contradicted by evidence later in the passage.

91. It can most reasonably be concluded from the
passage that Czannes work exerted a
powerful influence because Czanne:
A) pursued the concept of objectivity with
persistence.
B) brought extra-visual faculties into his work.
C) expanded the concept of interpretation.
D) painted scenes as they were presented to his
senses.

92. If it were discovered that Czanne learned the
concept of objective painting from another
artist, this finding would challenge the
contention that Czanne:
A) pursued goals similar to those of Greek and
Roman art.
B) was the founder of the modern movement in art.
C) respected the attempts of his predecessors to
come to terms with nature.
D) was familiar with the art of the museums.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 30
93. The authors opinion that artists before
Czanne could not avoid interpretation is
supported in the passage by:
A ) an analysis of some famous Renaissance
paintings.
B ) a discussion of Czannes rejection of
interpretation.
C ) a description of extra-visual faculties used by
artists.
D ) an explanation of Czannes working methods.

94. The authors comparison of a system of
perspective to a map is most likely intended to
show that:
A) maps are more accurate than even the most
realistic artistic depictions of the world.
B) systems of perspective have grown more
sophisticated over the years, while mapmaking
has not.
C) both afford a clearer view of the reality beneath
everyday objects.
D) both are intellectual methods of perceiving the
world.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 31
Passage III

When I saw it first, it was a green and sleeping bud,
raising itself toward the sun. Ants gathered aphids
and sap around the unopened bloom. A few days
later, it was a tender young flower with a pale green
center, a troop of silver-gray insects climbing up
and down its stalk. Over the summer this sunflower
became incredibly beautiful, subtly turning its face
daily, always toward the sun, its black center alive
with a deep blue light, as if flint had sparked an
elemental fire there, in community with rain,
mineral, mountain air, and sand.

As summer changed from green to yellow, new
visitors came daily: lace-winged flies, bees with
legs fat with pollen, grasshoppers with clattering
wings and desperate hunger, and other lives too
small or hidden for me to see. This plant was a
society undergoing constant change, great and
diverse, depending on light and moisture.

Changes also occurred in the greater world of the
plant. One day, rounding a bend in the road, I
encountered the disturbing sight of a dead horse,
black against a hillside, eyes rolled back. Another
day I was nearly lifted by a sandstorm so fierce and
hot that I had to wait for it to pass before I could
return home. It swept away the faded dried petals
of the sunflower. Then the birds arrived to carry the
seeds to the future.

In one plant in one season a drama of need and
survival was enacted. Hungers were filled; insects
coupled; there was escape, exhaustion, and death.
An outsider, I never learned the sunflowers golden
language. An old voice from gene or cell taught the
plant to oppose the pull of gravity and find its way
upward, to open. A certain knowinginstinct,
intuition, necessitydirected the seed-bearing birds
to ancestral homelands they had never seen.


There are other summons, some even more
mysterious than the survival journeys of birds and
insects. Once a century, among their canopy of
sunlit green, all bamboo plants of a certain kind
flower on the same day. Not the plants location, in
a steamy Malaysian jungle or a suburban garden in
Pennsylvania, their age, nor their size matter. Some
current we cannot explain passes through this
primitive life. Each with a share of communal
knowledge, all are somehow one plant.

Sometimes you can hear the language of the
earthin water, trees, emanating from mosses,
seeping through the soil. Once, in the redwood
forest, I felt something like a heartbeat, a hardly
perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing
in me, a dream barely remembered. Once, on a
calm beach, I heard an ocean storm booming from
afar, revealing the disturbance at its center, telling
about the rough water that would arrive.

Tonight I watch the sky, thinking of the people who
came before me and their knowledge of the
placement of stars, people who watched the sun
long and carefully enough to witness the angle of
light that touched a stone just once a year. Without
written records, they registered the passage of the
gods of night, noting fine details of the world
around them and the immensity above them.
Whichever road I follow, I walk in the land of many
gods. Behind me, my ancestors say Be still.
Watch and listen. You are the result of the love of
thousands.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
L. Hogan, Dwellings: A Spiritual History of the Living World.
1995 by L. Hogan.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 32
95. The author seems to be trying to understand:
A ) the beliefs of primitive peoples from the
perspective of an anthropologist.
B ) the interactive balance among species from the
perspective of an ecologist.
C ) the orderly recurrence of natural forces from the
perspective of a poet.
D ) the genetic regulation of behavior from the
perspective of a biologist.

96. According to the authors account, the
regularity of biological cycles indicates:
A ) a response to the competition for resources
among similar species.
B ) a special mode of communication among the
members of each species.
C ) the adaptation of each species to a unique niche
in its habitat.
D ) an inherent sensitivity to particular
environmental changes.

97. One can infer from the passage that for the
author, the horse and the sandstorm both:
A ) present mysteries beyond human
comprehension.
B ) are aspects of the world that mar its beauty.
C ) indicate the cruel indifference of nature.
D ) have necessary roles in a perpetual drama.

98. Which of the following ideas about humans is
clearly NOT assumed in the passage?
A) Humans lack the sensory means to detect some
intraspecies messages.
B) Humans have always attempted to understand
natural occurrences.
C) Humans are capable of existing in harmony with
other species.
D) Humans will eventually satisfy their curiosity
about nature.

99. The passage account suggests that the
environmental effect of human land use is that
native plants and animals:
A) become dependent for survival on human
intervention.
B) continue to thrive in their symbiotic interaction.
C) suffer from disruption of the ecological balance.
D) are replaced by artificially introduced species.

100. The discussion suggests that the author
considers the appropriate relationship of
humans to other animals to be that of:
A) benefactor to recipient.
B) scientist to subject.
C) student to teacher.
D) parent to child.

101. What is meant by a hardly perceptible
current?
A) A sense of unity with the forces that produce life
B) A low-frequency sound wave transmitted
underground
C) A personal message from a supernatural source
D) An urge to contact others of ones species


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 33
Passage IV

Atonality originates in an attempt to liberate the
twelve notes of the chromatic scale from the
diatonic functional associations they still retain in
chromatic musicto dissociate, so to speak, the
chromatic scale from chromaticism. The
expanded harmonic vocabulary of late nineteenth-
century music had extended the range of tonal
relationships to the point at which the traditional
articulative procedures were no longer adequate.
The final step in this development was taken by
Arnold Schenberg in a radical stylistic departure
based upon a rejection of any general principles
regulating simultaneity and progression. In the
compositions Schenberg wrote between 1908 and
1923, the period of free atonality, he disclosed
that this ultimate expansion of possible relations to
include the whole range of combinations contained
in the semitonal scale demands a revaluation of
every aspect of the musical language.

The composer working within the diatonic tonal
system may take for granted the existence of
specific properties of that system: a seven-tone
scale, triadic harmonic structure, a key center, and
so forth. The atonal composer, however, can take
for granted nothing except the existence of a given
limiting sound world, the semitonal scale. Aside
from this assumption, it is impossible to state the
fundamental conditions of atonality in general,
except in a negative way, merely stipulating the
absence of a priori functional connections among
the twelve notes of the semitonal scale. Musical
coherence requires additional limiting factors, but
these are not reducible to a set of foundational
assumptions in terms of which the compositions
that are collectively designated by the expression
atonal music can be said to represent a system
of composition.

In 1923, Schenberg published his first composition
employing the method of composing with twelve
notes. This method soon proved to have some
general relevance to the special problems of atonal
composition. It is consistent with both the positive
and negative premises of atonality, affirming the
availability of twelve notes while denying a priori
functional precedence to any one of them.

In Schenbergs twelve-tone system, all the tone
relations that govern a given musical context are
referable to a specific linear ordering of the twelve
notes of the semitonal scale. Neither register,
duration, timbre, or intensityin other words, no
attribute other than that represented by the pitch-
class name of what is informally called a noteis
defined by this referential permutation of the
semitonal scale, a permutation denoted by the term
row, series, or set. An unambiguous ordering is
assumed; but the degree to which this ordering
actually determines the general musical procedures
varies greatly from one work to another, even
though they may be by the same composer. The
total musical texture inevitably entails intervallic
relations not directly specified by the set, and even
on a purely linear plane deviations occur. Yet the
premise of an ordered arrangement of the twelve
notes, if it is to have any meaning, must somehow
govern the essential musical events in a consistent
and logical manner, in spite of ambiguities and
licenses.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
G. Perle, Serial Composition and Atonality: An Introduction
to the Music of Schenberg, Berg, and Webern. 1962 by the
Regents of the University of California.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 34
102. That Schenberg rejected general principles
regulating simultaneity and progression
means that he rejected:
A ) chaotic chord progressions.
B ) a broadened range of tonal relationships.
C ) the chromatic scale.
D ) the standard system of movement from certain
tonalities to other prescribed tonalities.

103. The comparison of the diatonic system of
composition to atonal composition in the
second paragraph suggests that:
A ) there are fixed rules for atonal composition.
B ) the properties of the diatonic system change
from composition to composition.
C ) diatonic pieces follow certain guidelines
adhering to preconceived concepts of musical
organization.
D ) atonal composition is based on a seven-tone
scale.

104. According to the passage, the twelve-tone
scale rejects systems based largely on
traditional relationships between notes. One
can most reasonably conclude from this that:
A ) diatonic musical scales are conventions that
composers may accept or reject.
B ) the traditional scale is needlessly repetitive.
C ) traditional and twelve-tone systems are more
similar than different.
D ) twelve-tone composers have not been able to
equal the quality of traditional compositions.
105. The second paragraph of the passage suggests
that atonal compositions:
A) sound as harmonious as traditional
compositions.
B) have structures that may not be readily apparent
to listeners.
C) are based on the seven-tone scale.
D) assign functional precedence to certain notes.

106. It can most reasonably be inferred from the
last paragraph that:
A) the ordering principles of atonal compositions
are determined by composers, not by any
fundamental relationship between notes.
B) there is no logic to the way that notes in atonal
compositions are ordered.
C) the working methods of twelve-tone composers
are usually consistent from one composition to
the next.
D) atonal compositions contain strict guidelines
about the duration and intensity of each note.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 35
Passage V

Both employers and workers are challenged by
technological innovations, international trade,
deregulation, and changes in the nature and
structure of work. Their responses to these
challenges indicate their choice of three roads to the
new economy. The low road follows the historic
path of mass production, emphasizing downsizing,
outsourcing, and low-skill employees as ways to cut
labor costs. Eventually, this approach, if the norm,
must limit a nation's economic competitiveness,
living standard, and income equity.

The high road acknowledges the growing value of
investment in highly skilled employees who can
react quickly to changing technologies and markets.
It presupposes shared power and long-term goals.
Only dominant firms can afford to commit
resources to training and keeping employees by
providing full benefits with high wages. Such firms
tend to be protected from domestic or international
competitors by technological advantages, large-
scale production, or government regulations.
Currently, high-road firms account for perhaps 20
percent of employees in the United States.

About 40 percent of U.S. workers receive no formal
training beyond a high-school education. They must
submit to the contingencies of low-road
employment, remaining at the periphery of the new
economy. The remaining 40 percent of the
workforce slog along the muddy middle road,
getting some advanced education or job-related
training but unlikely to enter the dynamic high-road
labor market and attract employers who would train
them thoroughly to join their core workers.

The high road is not an easy course for employers to
take. Today's global customers and suppliers are
linked by a web of standards that affect not only
prices but extend to the quality and variety of
products, company organization, customer service
and its timeliness, and constant innovations.
Employers who meet these complex requirements
use computer-based methods, which raise the level
of skill needed by nonsupervisory personnel. For
example, instead of checking the quality of the final
product, high-road firms integrate quality standards
in their automated production process, encouraging
workers at all stages of their operation to
demonstrate expertise and responsibility.

High-performance work systems are most
successful when training and work reforms are
bundled. Similarly, workers find that their general
education, occupational preparation, and access to
training on the job are complementary in their effect
on earnings. Workers who receive formal company
training command higher wages than do similar
workers who attend only vocational school or
receive informal on-the-job instruction. Workers
who use computers on the job also earn more than
do those of the same education level who do not use
computers at work. Moreover, the earning
difference increases with the level of technological
competence.

For the United States to compete in an eventual
global economy based on skilled workers and
quality products, additional employer investment in
training is needed now. Policies at all levels should
encourage the coordination of employer-provided
training and broader schooling. Such policies will
realize the highest returns in terms of personal
income, adaptation to an increasingly volatile labor
market, and efficiency in the transmission of
changing skill requirements from workplaces to
schools. Although for a particular job, employer-
based training or vocational preparation can
substitute for generalized schooling, specific
training degrades rapidly, and narrow skills seldom
transfer well to new job requirements.

But although high-wage, high-skill jobs create a
demand for education and training, training does not
create high-wage jobs. Ultimately, a strategy of
investment in human capital succeeds or flounders
according to the availability of high-wage, high-
skill jobs. If investment in workers outpaces the
number of good jobs, many very competent workers
will face an employment market of many very
undemanding jobs.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
F. Fitzgerald, Cities on a Hill. 1986 by F. Fitzgerald.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 36
107. The author is apparently concerned that
adherence to a policy referred to as "the low
road" will reduce the competitiveness of:
A ) firms involved in international trade.
B ) the United States in particular.
C ) technology-based economies.
D ) the less-developed nations.

108. A recently founded small firm that follows the
high road described in the passage is
considering selling stock shares to the public.
The author would probably advise against this
step because:
A ) investors have no reason to care about the
quality of the firm's products.
B ) investors are likely to doubt the wisdom of the
firm's personnel policies.
C ) the firm is unlikely to produce the quick profits
that investors want.
D ) the firm is unlikely to attain a competitive status
in the market.

109. Which of the following findings is most
clearly contrary to the reported influence of
the use of computers in the workplace?
A ) Office workers can follow computer-generated
schedules with less training than they need to
devise their own schedules.
B ) Executives who correspond with customers by
letter generate more business than those who
rely on E-mail alone.
C ) Workers using nonautomated production
processes are more efficient than workers on
automated assembly lines.
D ) Mechanics who use computerized diagnostic
methods earn less than mechanics who use
traditional methods.

110. The author can best be viewed as an advocate
of:
A) the repeal of regulations that protect dominant
firms.
B) an increase in spending on the training of
employees.
C) an emphasis on high school vocational
education.
D) the use of computers in industrial production.

111. Which of the following situations is most
likely to constitute a muddy road, as the
author uses the term?
A) Being trained in a skill that qualifies one for
only a particular job
B) Switching to unfamiliar procedures because of
technological changes
C) Returning to college to upgrade one's
professional qualifications
D) Being chronically unemployed because of an
inadequate education

112. An employer reasons: "If I train my workers,
competitors who save money by not providing
training will be able to attract my trained
workers with higher salaries than I can pay."
What possible solution for this employer
would most accord with the author's high
road?
A) Support regulatory policies that penalize firms
for failing to train workers.
B) Train workers who agree to repay the tuition if
they leave within a set time.
C) Concentrate on recruiting workers who have
been trained by other firms.
D) Cut costs elsewhere to match the higher wages
paid by competitors.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 37
113. Which of the following practices is most apt
to promote the outcome attributed to increased
worker involvement in the production
process?
A ) The workers' use of a computer bulletin board to
share tips on quality control
B ) Close monitoring of the productivity of workers
by their immediate supervisors
C ) The democratic participation of workers in the
hiring of potential co-workers
D ) A profit-sharing program that rewards workers
for company successes

114. Former low-level employees who secure
managerial positions in their company get
more sophisticated equipment and more work-
related training than they had before. What
relationship to information provided in the
passage does this fact most plausibly suggest?
A ) It supports the conclusion that occupational
preparation and access to training are
complementary.
B ) It opposes the assertion that power is shared in
firms committed to the training of employees.
C ) It exemplifies the inequities that exist in firms
that are unable to follow the high road.
D ) It helps to explain the increasing disparity in
earnings between management and workers.

115. The author asserts that to compete later,
employers should invest in training now and
also that training does not create high-wage
jobs. Together, these assertions imply that:
A) investment in training keeps costs low by
providing a large pool of skilled workers.
B) in highly paid work, on-the-job training
compensates for educational deficiencies.
C) training is not effective unless it is supplemented
by a comprehensive education.
D) some highly trained workers may not benefit
financially from their training.

116. The author sets the proportion of the U.S.
work force in the high-, middle-, and low-road
sectors at 20, 40, and 40 percent, respectively.
Another authority states that more than 50
percent of U.S. firms use the low-road
strategy. What is the most reasonable
conclusion from these figures?
A) Low-road firms are especially likely to fail.
B) Low-road firms are especially likely to hire
workers.
C) Businesses with few workers are especially
likely to be low-road firms.
D) Businesses with branches outside the U.S. are
unlikely to be low-road firms.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 38
Passage VI

The residents of Sun City, Leisure World, and
retirement communities across the United States
live on a frontiernot a geographical but a
chronological frontier. Old age is hardly new, but
for an entire generation to reach old age with its
membership almost intact is new. Until relatively
recently, death had no more relation to old age than
to any other period of lifein fact, it had less.

A quarter of the people born in seventeenth-century
France died during their first year, another quarter
died before the age of twenty, and a third quarter
died by age forty-five; only 10 percent reached
sixty. From the seventeenth century to the
nineteenth, the percentage of the French population
over sixty remained constant at 8.8 percent.

In the last hundred years, the demographics of
mortality have changed more than in the six
previous centuries. In 1900, the average life
expectancy for U.S. children was 47.3 years. In
1980, it was 73.6 years. This startling increase was
due mainly to success in reducing infant, childhood,
and maternal mortality. In additionalso because
of medical advanceslongevity increased. In
1900, white males of sixty could expect 14.4 more
years of life. In 1978, they could expect to live 17.2
more years. As a result of these and other changes,
the number of Americans over sixty-five increased
both absolutely and relative to the entire
population. In 1900, 4 percent of the population
was over sixty-five. In 1980, 25.5 million
Americans, or 11.3 percent, were in this age group.

Before World War II, there were no age-segregated
communities and there was no such concept as
retirement living. In the early 60s, when credit
and housing materials were relatively cheap,
developers began to construct complete towns for
the retired. Lured by glossy advertisements
depicting a life of warm friendships and endless
pleasures, many retirees welcomed these complexes
as a new adventure. In the mid-70s, while housing
costs doubled and trebled, the developers grew leery
of such grand schemes, but by that time there were,
according to one estimate, sixty-nine retirement
villages, many with over ten thousand inhabitants.
Mobile-home parks for the elderly also proliferated
during this period along with other forms of age-
dedicated housing, from retirement hotels to luxury
condominiums. The most original of these
innovations was the life-care facility, which
offered small private living quarters, maid service,
nursing care, and meals, as well as nursing-home
care when necessary.

Gerontologists struggling to create a taxonomy for
these new forms of housing estimate that 5 percent
of Americans over sixty-five now live in explicitly
age-segregated facilities and another unknown but
significant percentage live in neighborhoods that are
more or less age segregated. These locales are not
just places in which the elderly happen to find each
other, as they do in certain rural enclaves and inner-
city neighborhoods after everyone else has left.
They are not only deliberate creationsplaces to
which retired persons have moved by choicebut
most of them have now evolved from mere
developers tracts into communities with traditions
of their own.

The construction of retirement villages initiated a
great debate among gerontologists. In the 60s,
opinion was generally against this innovation. City
planners and journalists joined the professionals in
attacking communities for retirees as ghettos for
marginalized, alienated people or as playgrounds
that trivialized the aged. But after visiting the
residents of these villages with scientific sampling
methods and attitudinal charts, many gerontologists
concluded that the elderly found in their segregated
lives the advantages overtly and subliminally
advertised in the real-estate brochures.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
R. Barthes, The death of the author, 1972 by Basic Books.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 39
117. A resident of seventeenth-century France who
died at age forty began having children at age
twenty. What percentage of the children
would be expected to die before this parent?
A ) 10 percent
B ) 25 percent
C ) 50 percent
D ) 75 percent

118. The assertion that death had less relation to
old age than to other periods of life most
clearly suggests that:
A ) the increase in life expectancy has more to do
with health in early life than in late life.
B ) people in pre-industrial cultures felt less
attachment to their infants than people do now.
C ) people today are more concerned with long-term
planning than were earlier generations.
D ) the elderly are less respected than in the past
because longevity is commonplace.

119. New arrivals at one retirement community
were told by its director: You are like
pilgrims crossing the ocean to take up a new
life. This simile implicitly supports the
authors assumption that those moving to
retirement communities feel:
A ) ambivalence about the wisdom of breaking with
the past.
B ) satisfaction at becoming independent of their
families.
C ) relief at leaving situations that had become
difficult.
D ) optimism about being among those with similar
goals.

120. What is the authors probable reason for
prefacing the discussion of a twentieth-century
U.S. phenomenon with information about the
demographics of seventeenth-century France?
A) To clarify the relationship between life
expectancy and the decision to change
residences in old age
B) To counter the prevalent belief that demographic
changes have been unique to the U.S. culture
C) To support the argument that the current rate of
survival into old age is unprecedented
D) To show the historical antecedents of the
ongoing trend toward increased longevity

121. According to the passage, an American born
in 1980 could expect to live 26.3 years longer
than one born in 1900. Yet a white male of
sixty could expect to live only 2.8 years longer
in 1978 than in 1900. The difference in these
expectancies can be explained as:
A) the cumulative effect of the growing number of
elderly.
B) evidence that geriatric care has improved since
1978.
C) a result of the longer lifespan of women than of
men.
D) the difference between longevity and life
expectancy.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 40
Passage VII

No matter how noble the effort, the burden of proof
always lies with the reformer. Many empirically
sound proposals to increase the effectiveness of
elementary schools in the United States have been
dismissed with the response, If it is so necessary,
why has the need not been recognized before? To
counter this response, a reformer should make clear
that a problem has been identified.

If the condition addressed has not been completely
and clearly established as a problem, those
concerned should ensure that it is accurately
measured. The appropriate instrument for
measuring educational effectiveness is a test noted
for its reliability and validity. If the researchers
believe that no existing test is adequate, they should
develop their own test. Since the burden of proof
for their methods is then focused on their
instrument, sincere reformers will be very serious
about establishing its credentials.

When a proposed intervention is not justified in the
most minimal fashion, the public has to wonder
why not. It is thus reasonable to be suspicious of
the promoters of the Generalized School Readiness
Program. What is their motivation? Are they
agents of an unfriendly power bent on dumbing
down U.S. education? Are educational
entrepreneurs trying cynically to profit from the
general dissatisfaction with the nations schools?

Such speculations may appear to border on the
absurd; however, stranger motivations have been
discovered. It is more useful, however, to assume
that the promoters, wishing to keep their business
financially solvent, have opted not to address
school-based problems from the viewpoint of
children, or parents, or even teachers. They are
merely following the usual practice at the
professional level of education of treating learning
as an abstraction that has little to do with the
learner. This outlook is one that Jean Piaget, John
Dewey, and A. L. Geselltheoreticians with
empirical evidence about childrens intellectual
developmentall worked to counter.


Piaget and Gesell, although from different schools
of thought, also had direct experience with children
in an educational setting, and both contributed
profoundly useful principles to the field of
education. Yet the conclusions of both about the
need to consider developmental level are opposed
by advocates of Generalized School Readiness.

One must wonder about the experience these self-
proclaimed experts have had with children. Their
description of a child learning to draw, for example,
assumes a struggle from stage to stage. Most
modern observers of children think that if a task is
developmentally appropriate and has personal
meaning for a child, it is approached as a pleasing
challenge, not a struggle.

In the literature promoting their approach, the
advocates of generalized readiness are clearly
directing their appeal to school administrators.
Parents who do not understand their readiness
concept are dismissed as uncaring. Teachers who
question it are described as uninitiated, in the
sense that someday they will accept it. Yet this
literature expresses no doubt that the administrators
will cooperate with them in ensuring that their
viewpoint prevails. An administrator wise enough
to adopt the readiness program is promised higher
percentages on standardized tests and more content
teachers.

With comparative data on the results of alternative
approaches as ambiguous as they are in the U.S., the
odds favor acceptance by a school system of a
poorly researched but slickly presented program.
Readiness, although a confused approach, is easily
implemented because its promoters are positioned
to move immediately. Developmentally
appropriate instruction, which parents are likely to
judge the more reasonable approach, appears to be
hard to sell to decision makers concerned with
uniformity. In the long run, however, it is the
forgotten parents and the children themselves who
will pay for the short-sighted ambition of this
policy.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
R. Brogan, Generalized school readiness. 1962 by
Psychological Foundations of Education.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 41
122. The author apparently considers a theory of
education that has little to do with the
learner:
A ) practical but unethical.
B ) ethical but not generally accepted.
C ) generally accepted but ineffective.
D ) effective but impractical.

123. The author argues that the reason for the
approach taken by promoters of the
Generalized School Readiness Program is
their wish:
A ) to control the education of U.S. consumers.
B ) to defraud the schools of a great deal of money.
C ) to promote the success of a corporate sponsor.
D ) to win the support of school administrators.

124. The most reasonable inference from passage
statements is that administrators are relatively
reluctant to institute developmentally
appropriate instruction because:
A ) it is favored by parents and therefore represents
the views of those with little understanding of
learning.
B ) it is based on untested theories and therefore
requires extensive research to demonstrate its
effectiveness.
C ) it is individualized and therefore involves an
inconvenient process of changing traditional
methods.
D ) it is promoted in slick presentations and
therefore justifies skepticism about its cost
effectiveness.

125. One can infer from the passage that teaching
in the Generalized School Readiness Program
is to developmentally appropriate teaching as:
A) breaking farmland with a hand plow is to
preparing the fields by riding on a mechanized
cultivator.
B) sending a yearly form letter to ones
acquaintances is to sending personal notes to
ones friends.
C) casting a line into a lake with a fishing rod is to
fishing with a net behind a boat.
D) preparing a variety of dishes in a restaurant is to
cooking a family meal at home.

126. The performance of high-school students on
an examination noted for its reliability and
validity is used to predict their success in
college. The authors views on such tests
suggests that its scores could also be used to
evaluate:
A) the usefulness of high-school curricula.
B) the honesty of the grading in high schools.
C) the appropriateness of the testing principles.
D) the probable income of the students in later life.

127. Suppose that the author reads a newspaper
article announcing that participation in the
Generalized School Readiness Program has
been shown to promote the language skills of
first-grade children. What is the authors most
likely immediate reaction?
A) To argue that the program is placing
unreasonable demands on children of that age
B) To resolve to be less negative than before in
discussing the program
C) To doubt the accuracy of the report and the
quality of the research
D) To dismiss the findings as irrelevant to the goals
of education


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 42
Passage VIII

In a fundamental sense, every person is morally
responsible for deciding what is right and what is
wrong and acting accordingly. This responsibility
is often an uncomfortable burden, and you may
wish to be rid of it, to pass it on to someone else.

But responsibility for your actions is not
transferable. To say I hereby promise to obey
Fred, no matter what he commands, right or wrong
is an immoral attempt to forfeit your autonomy.
After all, to say that you had, in fact, made someone
else responsible for your actions would mean that
you had, somehow, enslaved your will to someone
elses will, had made yourself figuratively a
puppet. Fortunately, it is not possible. Having
made a promise to obey, one is still in fact free to
obey or disobey, to keep or break that promise.

Now although it may seem rather bizarre to talk
about obeying Fred no matter what, it does follow
that for exactly the same reasons, you may not say,
I will obey the government even if it tells me to do
the wrong thing. You cannot hand over your
autonomy willy-nilly to Fred or the government or
anyone else. If you are told to do something, you
must examine it to see if it is right or wrong before
deciding whether to obey it or not.

Therefore, if the government requires a moral
person to act in a particular fashion and that person
complies, it is because the person believes it to be
the right thing to do, not simply because the
government requires it. That the government does
require a particular behavior may be an important
factor to be taken into account, but the final arbiter
is the individual.

No government, no body of people, no position, no
individual can have moral authority over any other
individual.


Of course, the responsible individual will often have
to take into account what other individuals are
doing when that individual is calculating the
consequences of her or his action. The fact that the
government has decreed Everyone shall drive on
the left may result in people so arranging
themselves, and conformity with the traffic flow is a
desirable thing. However, it is the fact that people
are driving on the left, or the fact that frequently in
social situations order is beneficial, that makes
conformity commendable, not the fact that a
government requires it.

But I will say a little about one peculiar
objectionthe distrust of individual conscience.
Imagine someone throwing up his or her hands in
horror and crying But you cannot let people decide
for themselves what is right and wrong. They could
decide anything. But if I surrender my decision-
making responsibility to anyone, that person could
come up with anything, too. Since someone has to
decide what is the right thing for me to do, it may as
well be me. In fact, morally, it has to be.

A government is made up of individuals who are
fundamentally similar to me, and to err is human
applies to us all. Sometimes a government member
may claim to have access to more information or
expertise in a particular matter, in which case I will
listen to that person and may very well go along
with him or her because I believe that to be a
strategy more likely to achieve a satisfactory result.
Certainly, if you are ignorant, consult an expert, but
when to consult, whom to consult, and how to
decide between conflicting experts is still the
individuals problem. And so is the final decision.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
P.D. Jewell, By What Authority? Anarchism, the State and the
Individual. 1983 by Amanda.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 43
128. In response to the objection that if individuals
obeyed their consciences, they could decide
anything, the author argues that the designated
decision makers could decide anything, too.
This response is:
A ) irrelevant, because the objector does not imply
that people should be forced to disobey their
consciences.
B ) irrelevant, because the author states that
responsibility is often an uncomfortable burden.
C ) relevant, because the objector does not state that
politicians are better decision makers than are
other individuals.
D ) relevant, because the author implies that
politician ought to obey their consciences, too.

129. Suppose that there are some people who are
psychologically incapable of breaking their
promises. This new information:
A ) supports the authors assertion that it is
impossible to surrender responsibility.
B ) supports the authors assertion that in decision
making, other people matter.
C ) challenges the authors assertion that it is
impossible to surrender responsibility.
D ) challenges the authors assertion that in decision
making, other people matter.

130. Which of the following beliefs would be most
in agreement with the theme of the passage?
A ) Laws have no legitimacy except insofar as they
accord with the will of the governed.
B ) Laws are necessary to prevent people from
deciding moral issues for themselves.
C ) Laws should be obeyed because obedience
promotes order and so is generally beneficial.
D ) Lawmakers should consult experts rather than
rely on their own fallible judgment.

131. Suppose it has been demonstrated that
government officials are ten thousand times
more likely than private citizens to reach a
correct decision on moral issues. This new
information:
A) supports the assertion that deciding between
conflicting experts is the problem of the
individual.
B) supports the assertion that when told to do
something, the individual must examine it to see
if it is right or wrong.
C) challenges the assertion that since someone has
to decide the right thing for the individual to do,
it might as well be that individual.
D) challenges the assertion that responsibility is
often an uncomfortable burden that the
individual may wish to abandon.

132. In countries in which the law says to drive on
the left, people generally find it beneficial to
drive on the left, and in countries in which the
law says to drive on the right, people generally
find it beneficial to drive on the right. This
fact:
A) supports the central thesis of the passage.
B) neither supports nor weakens the central thesis
of the passage.
C) is contrary to the central thesis of the passage.
D) indicates that the central thesis of the passage
requires modification.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 44
Passage IX

Edward Gibbons Decline and Fall of the Roman
Empire (1776-1781) instructs us that human nature
never changes and that humanitys predilection for
factionalism, augmented by environmental and
cultural differences, is the determinant of history.
In this belief, Gibbon was influenced by the Baron
de Montesquieu, who saw history not as mere
politics and ideas but as a complex of cultural,
social, and climatic forces.

The brilliance of the Decline and Fall lies more in
Gibbons ability to construct a coherent narrative
from the particular agents and surprises of history
than in an attempt to dramatize his material. For
example, in the story of the Empires restoration in
the third century under the able rule of Claudius,
Aurelian, Probus, and Diocletian, the sheer
accumulation and repetition of events over centuries
ultimately robs many effective emperors, each with
a distinct personality early in the story, of identity in
the readers mind. And as the initially successful
restoration flows into the larger movement of
decline, only patterns, rather than individuals,
endure at the end of the three volumes.

For Gibbon, the real changes were not so much the
newsworthy events as the insidious
transformations: Rome moving from democracy, to
the trappings of democracy, to military rule; Milan
in Italy and Nicomedia in Asia Minor functioning as
capital cities decades before the formal division of
the Empire into western and eastern halves and
almost two centuries before Rome officially ceased
to be the imperial capital; the fact that the first
fifteen Christian bishops of Jerusalem were
circumcised Jews subscribing to a not yet
formalized religion.


The similarities between Gibbons Rome and the
United States are obvious to any reader: They are
two multi-ethnic polities founded on patriotic
virtue, unified by gigantic highway systems, their
middle classes occupying crassly uniform
dwellings, and so forth. But the Decline and Fall
evokes other contemporary realities. It was the
peripatetic Emperor Caracalla, in the early third
century, Gibbon tells us not Hitler or Stalin or
even Attila the Hun who was the first worldwide
tyrant. And Gibbons account of the Crimean
Chersonites, who, helped by the Romans, attacked
the Goths in 335 A.D., captures well events of the
nearby Caucasus, where the Russians were later to
pit one assemblage of clans against another.

The Decline and Fall teaches us that the tragedy for
much of the world is that, despite technological
advancement, many societies are still in a political
sense ancient and that, despite the Enlightenment,
many governments including the U.S. remain
corrupt because of the influence of money. Rather
than the embodiment of amoral despair, however,
Gibbon reveals himself as the very flower of
Enlightenment rationalism. He was a conservative
along the lines of his contemporary, Edmund Burke,
who saw humankinds best hope in moderate
politics and flexible institutions that would not
become overbearing.

Only rarely did imperial Rome or early Christianity
display the necessary traits. Gibbon, like Burke,
was shocked by the French Revolution. His Rome
had also known violent mobs screaming noble
platitudes in order to remove a tyrannical ruler, only
to see another take his place. Gibbons certainty
that the tendency toward strife is a consequence of
the human condition of its variety of racial,
cultural, and economic experiences, which no belief
system, religious or otherwise, can overcome is
also reminiscent of the ideas of James Madison in
The Federalist. Madison, too, was convinced that a
state or an empire can endure only if it generally
limits itself to adjudicating disputes among its
citizens.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
R. D. Kaplan, And now for the news: The disturbing
freshness of Gibbons Decline and Fall. 1997 by The
Atlantic Monthly.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 45
133. Which of the following assertions from the
passage most clearly follows from the view of
human nature attributed to Gibbon?
A ) Rome was multi-ethnic, founded on patriotic
virtue, unified by highways, with uniform
middle-class dwellings.
B ) A government can endure only if it generally
limits itself to adjudicating disputes.
C ) History is seen as a complex of cultural, social,
and climatic forces.
D ) It was a peripatetic Roman emperor who was the
first worldwide tyrant.

134. If the passage author is correct, which of the
following late twentieth-century events best
supports Gibbons views about history?
A ) The widely supported movement for civil rights
in the U.S. South
B ) The ethnic conflict that pitted neighbors against
each other in Bosnia
C ) The attack on Iraq by U.N. forces in response to
its invasion of Kuwait
D ) The dismantling of the wall dividing East and
West Berlin by its citizens

135. The U.S. has not experienced internal warfare
since the nineteenth century. Information in
the passage suggests that Gibbon would
attribute this long period of domestic peace to:
A ) the basic patriotism of U.S. citizens.
B ) the geographical vastness of the country.
C ) a series of threats from external enemies.
D ) the principles of the U.S. Constitution.

136. Which of the following statements most
seriously challenges Gibbons presumed view
of history?
A) Historians express the biases of a privileged
class.
B) Some leaders have strongly influenced world
history.
C) Numerous empires lasted for many hundreds of
years.
D) Many stable societies have been ethnically
diverse.

137. Which of the following passage topics could
most reasonably be cited as evidence that
major historical changes usually occur
gradually?
A) The failure of the Enlightenment to influence
politics
B) The functional role of Milan and Nicomedia as
capitals
C) The alliance of Romans and Crimeans against
the Goths
D) The lack of distinction among the Roman
middle class






Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each

This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.






























This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 47
138. Consider this statement:

Businesses succeed by taking advantage of consumers weaknesses.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which businesses succeed without taking advantage of
the consumers weaknesses. Discuss what you think determines whether or not businesses take advantage
of consumers weaknesses in order to succeed.

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 48
139. Consider this statement:

Education makes everyone equal.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which education does not make everyone equal. Discuss
what you think determines whether or not education makes everyone equal.





Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 140 - 216

Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.






























This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).



1
H
1.0

Periodic Table of the Elements

2
He
4.0
3
Li
6.9
4
Be
9.0

5
B
10.8
6
C
12.0
7
N
14.0
8
O
16.0
9
F
19.0
10
Ne
20.2

11
Na
23.0
12
Mg
24.3



13
Al
27.0
14
Si
28.1
15
P
31.0
16
S
32.1
17
Cl
35.5
18
Ar
39.9
19
K
39.1
20
Ca
40.1
21
Sc
45.0
22
Ti
47.9
23
V
50.9
24
Cr
52.0
25
Mn
54.9
26
Fe
55.8
27
Co
58.9
28
Ni
58.7
29
Cu
63.5
30
Zn
65.4
31
Ga
69.7
32
Ge
72.6
33
As
74.9
34
Se
79.0
35
Br
79.9
36
Kr
83.8
37
Rb
85.5
38
Sr
87.6
39
Y
88.9
40
Zr
91.2
41
Nb
92.9
42
Mo
95.9
43
Tc
(98)
44
Ru
101.1
45
Rh
102.9
46
Pd
106.4
47
Ag
107.9
48
Cd
112.4
49
In
114.8
50
Sn
118.7
51
Sb
121.8
52
Te
127.6
53
I
126.9
54
Xe
131.3
55
Cs
132.9
56
Ba
137.3
57
La*
138.9
72
Hf
178.5
73
Ta
180.9
74
W
183.9
75
Re
186.2
76
Os
190.2
77
Ir
192.2
78
Pt
195.1
79
Au
197.0
80
Hg
200.6
81
Tl
204.4
82
Pb
207.2
83
Bi
209.0
84
Po
(209)
85
At
(210)
86
Rn
(222)
87
Fr
(223)
88
Ra
(226)
89
Ac
(227)
104
Unq
(261)
105
Unp
(262)
106
Unh
(263)
107
Uns
(262)
108
Uno
(265)
109
Une
(267)

*
58
Ce
140.1
59
Pr
140.9
60
Nd
144.2
61
Pm
(145)
62
Sm
150.4
63
Eu
152.0
64
Gd
157.3
65
Tb
158.9
66
Dy
162.5
67
Ho
164.9
68
Er
167.3
69
Tm
168.9
70
Yb
173.0
71
Lu
175.0

90
Th
232.0
91
Pa
(231)
92
U
238.0
93
Np
(237)
94
Pu
(244)
95
Am
(243)
96
Cm
(247)
97
Bk
(247)
98
Cf
(251)
99
Es
(252)
100
Fm
(257)
101
Md
(258)
102
No
(259)
103
Lr
(260)

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 51
Passage I

Two major theories have been advanced to explain
why organisms age and die.

Theory I

The Genetic or Programmed Theory of Aging states
that aging is triggered by hormones and is an
orderly consequence of the genetically programmed
processes of growth, development, and
differentiation. Life spans of individuals in each
species are finite, species-specific, and vary little.
Aging is thought to improve the ability of the
species to adapt to its environment.

Evidence for Theory I: The difference in longevity
between fraternal twins is much greater than the
difference between identical twins. Also, cultured
cells of human embryonic connective tissue
normally double approximately 50 times before
they die. For example, when frozen at the 10th
doubling and thawed years later, the cells undergo
40 more doublings before death.

Theory II

The Damage-Accumulation Theory of Aging states
that aging is nonadaptive and not genetically
programmed. Instead, aging results from random,
accumulated damage (to DNA, RNA, and proteins)
that is caused by free radical production within the
cells. This damage in turn leads to cellular changes
resulting in aging and death.

Evidence for Theory II: Metabolic rates of
mammals are directly proportional to the rate of
generation of free radicals. Dietary restriction,
which decreases metabolic rate, also increases the
maximum life span of rats from 125 to 185 weeks.
The addition of vitamins E and C (which react with
free radicals and render them harmless) to the feed
of mice increases the mices average life span.
140. Specific metabolic rates are 25 cal/g/day for
humans, 150 cal/g/day for rats, and 180
cal/g/day for mice. When urinary output of a
free-radical-induced DNA damage product is
plotted as a function of metabolic rate in these
3 species, which of the following graphs is
most consistent with Theory II, and best
depicts the urine levels of the damage
product?

A)

B)

C)

D)



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 52
141. Vitamin E is added to human connective
tissue cells in culture at the 30th doubling, and
the number of additional doublings before
death is counted. Theory II will be best
supported if the cells double an additional:
A ) 5 times.
B ) 10 times.
C ) 20 times.
D ) 40 times.

142. The female octopus broods her eggs but eats
less than normal while caring for them, and
then dies after the eggs hatch. Surgical
removal of an endocrine gland eliminates
brooding behavior; feeding then resumes and
the mothers life span is extended. Does this
evidence appear to favor Theory I, Theory II,
or neither theory?
A ) Theory I, because brooding and feeding
behavior are hormonally controlled
B ) Theory II, because extension of the life span
cannot occur in a genetically programmed
organism
C ) Theory II, because the life span of the octopus is
related to dietary restriction
D ) Neither theory, because the octopus does not
undergo aging

143. Aging due to the production of free radicals
can occur by all of the following processes
EXCEPT:
A ) absorption of ultraviolet radiation.
B ) production of partially reduced oxygen species
during normal metabolism.
C ) metabolic conversion of toxic chemicals such as
carbon tetrachloride (CCl
4
).
D ) consumption of excess quantities of vitamins E
and C.

144. To examine the effects on life span of
undernutrition without malnutrition, one group
of just-weaned rats was fed every day, and a
second group was fed every other day. Which
of the following survival curves for the 2
groups is consistent with the evidence for
Theory II?
A)

B)

C)

D)



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 53
Passage II

Sarah, a scientist from New Orleans, takes two-
week vacations to different locations every year to
experience new sports.

One year she went to the Caribbean Sea to learn
skin diving. Although she was in excellent physical
condition from daily swimming in the ocean, she
noticed that the first time she went diving, she
experienced an elevated pulse and ventilation rate.
By the third time she went diving, her heart and
breathing rate were no longer elevated. By the end
of the two weeks, her skin had become darker.

Another year she went skiing on snow in the
mountains of Colorado. Again, she noticed that the
first time she went skiing, her heart and ventilation
rate were faster than usual. Although it was not as
elevated by the end of the first week, her heart and
breathing rates were still higher than usual. She
also noticed that her appetite and caloric intake
were considerably greater during her skiing
vacation compared with her diving vacation.
However, she noticed that her body weight did not
change significantly.

Sarah calculated the actual work that she performed
skiing and diving. There was not enough difference
in the work performed to account for the observed
difference in appetite; although the physical work of
diving and skiing was approximately equal and she
ate more calories during the skiing trip, she did not
gain any weight.

On a third vacation, Sarah had a serious accident
while playing sports.

145. The initial increase in heart and breathing
rates during the skin diving trip was probably
a result of:
A) activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous
system by the new experience.
B) activation of the parasympathetic autonomic
nervous system by the new experience.
C) hypoxia caused by the inability of her blood
hemoglobin concentration to supply sufficient
oxygen for the strenuous exercise of swimming
at sea level.
D) elevated core body temperature caused by
swimming in warm tropical waters.

146. The prolonged increase in heart and breathing
rates during the snow skiing trip was probably
a result of:
A) activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous
system by the new experience.
B) activation of the parasympathetic autonomic
nervous system by the new experience.
C) hypoxia caused by insufficient blood
hemoglobin concentration to supply oxygen for
exercise at the low oxygen pressure found at
high altitudes.
D) depressed core body temperature (hypothermia)
caused by exposure to cold temperatures at high
altitudes.

147. During the initial skin diving session, when
her heart and breathing rates were increased,
Sarah noticed that she produced more urine
than usual. This was most probably a result
of:
A) increased blood pressure caused by her
excitement or anxiety.
B) reduced blood pressure caused by her excitement
or anxiety.
C) absorption of water from the ocean.
D) inability to cool the skin through evaporative
water loss.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 54
148. After Sarahs accident, her attending
physician detected the protein myoglobin in
her urine. What type of injury is consistent
with this observation?
I. Broken bone
II. Damaged muscle
III. Damaged kidney

A ) I only
B ) III only
C ) I and III only
D ) II and III only

149. Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and
appetite is maintained by the:
A ) hypothalamus, cerebrum, and brain stem,
respectively.
B ) brain stem, hypothalamus, and cerebrum,
respectively.
C ) cerebellum, hypothalamus, and brain stem,
respectively.
D ) brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus,
respectively.

150. Sarah noted that her skin blood vessels were
usually constricted to conserve body heat in
the cold environment of the mountains.
However, her skin blood vessels would
occasionally dilate for short periods of time.
What would be the most probable
physiological purpose for this periodic
vasodilation?
A) Maintain normal skin tone
B) Maintain sufficient oxygenation of cells
C) Reduce excessive blood pressure
D) Maintain normal muscle tone


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 55
Passage III

The axanes are a family of compounds that contain
a perhydroindan ring system; Figure 1 shows the
structures of two axanes, compounds 1 and 2.


Figure 1 Axanes

A multistep synthesis leading to the axanes begins
with the conversion of Compound 3 into Compound
8, which can be further functionalized to the target
axanes. Figure 2 shows the synthesis of Compound
8.


Figure 2 Synthesis of Compound 8
(Et = ethyl; Ph = phenyl)

Step 1 involves a 1,4-addition (Michael addition) of
3-butenylmagnesium bromide to Compound 3,
yielding an adduct that reforms the endocyclic
double bond with the loss of ethoxide during the
acidic workup. Step 2 involves the treatment of
Compound 4 with lithium dimethylcuprate to form
a Michael adduct that hydrolyzes in acid to
Compund 5. The ozonolysis of Compound 5 in
Step 3 and a reductive workup produces Compound
6, which undergoes a Wittig reaction with
Ph
3
P=CHCO
2
Et in Step 4 to yield Compound 7.
Compound 7 undergoes a base-catalyzed
intramolecular cyclization in Step 5 to yield
Compound 8 in 30% overall yield from Compound
3.

151. According to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog priority
rules, which group bonded to the chiral carbon
atom (x) in Figure 1 has the highest priority?
A) The H atom
B) The ring system
C) The NHCHO group
D) The isopropyl group

152. What reagent yields the double bond in
Compound 1 when it reacts with an analog of
Compound 8?
A) Ph
3
P=CH
2
B) O=CH
2
C) (CH
3
)
2
CuLi
D) CH
3
MgBr

153. What is the maximum possible number of
stereoisomers of Compound 1?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 56

154. The base in Step 5 of the synthesis abstracts a
proton from which of the labeled (a-d) carbon
atoms of Compound 7 (Figure 2)?
A ) a
B ) b
C ) c
D ) d

155. On the basis of the bonding and functionality
present in Compound 7, a student can classify
the compound as:
A) a saturated keto ether.
B) a saturated keto ester.
C) an unsaturated keto ether.
D) an unsaturated keto ester.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 57
Passgage IV

An AIDS infection is especially dangerous because
the AIDS virus attacks the cells of the immune
system. A primary target of the virus is the CD4
lymphocyte (helper T cell). Helper T cells produce
substances that trigger the maturation of B
lymphocytes and CD8 lymphocytes (killer T cells).

During the infection of a helper T cell, gp120
proteins of the viral coat first bind to the CD4
antigens on the cell membrane. The viral coat then
fuses with the cell membrane, and the RNA-
containing core of the virus is dumped into the cell.
Viral RNA is used as a template to produce DNA
with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase,
several copies of which are also contained in the
viral core. The viral DNA is then incorporated into
the chromosomes of the helper T cell. At a later
time, the viral DNA will be activated and used to
make new viral particles, resulting in the destruction
of the helper T cell.

One approach to the treatment of AIDS infections is
to interfere with the binding of the virus to the
helper T cell. This can be done by producing
antibodies that bind to the gp120 protein on the
viral surface. However, there are several
difficulties with this approach. First, because of the
high mutation rate of the gp120 protein, the most
antigenic region of the protein is extremely variable
in structure. Second, the binding region of gp120
does not readily stimulate antibody production
because the region is well shielded by sugar
molecules. Third, the gp120 protein has a very
strong affinity for the CD4 antigen that must be
overcome by any antibody produced against gp120.


A second approach to AIDS treatment is to interfere
with the function of reverse transcriptase by
producing nucleotides that lack the hydroxyl group
on the 3 carbon. These nucleotides will be
preferentially incorporated into a growing DNA
chain by reverse transcriptase, but not by the DNA
polymerase of the host cell, which is much more
specific than the viral enzyme. Because no
subsequent nucleotides can be added to the viral
DNA chain, the chain will be terminated. The drug
AZT, which has an azide (N
3
) group at the 3 carbon,
has been shown to interfere with reverse
transcriptase function and to prolong the lives of
AIDS patients.

156. The direction of information flow in the
process catalyzed by the enzyme reverse
transcriptase is the reverse of:
A) DNA replication.
B) RNA synthesis.
C) protein synthesis.
D) carbohydrate synthesis.

157. The variability of the antibody-evoking region
of the gp120 protein makes it difficult for B
cells to produce antibodies that neutralize all
of the AIDS viruses in the host because
antibodies:
A) are large and complex.
B) are very specific.
C) are uniform in structure.
D) have only 1 binding site for antigens.

158. AZT is effective for treating AIDS because it
is missing a hydroxyl group on the 3 carbon,
a normal site for binding between:
A) a phosphate and a sugar.
B) a sugar and a nitrogenous base.
C) a phosphate and a nitrogenous base.
D) 2 complementary nitrogenous bases.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 58
159. Some antibiotics work by interfering with the
function of bacterial (but not eukaryotic)
ribosomes. Such antibiotics are NOT
effective in fighting viruses because:
A ) viral ribosomes are too similar to eukaryotic
ribosomes.
B ) viral ribosomes are protected by the viral coat.
C ) viral ribosomes are too small to bind to any
drug.
D ) viruses ordinarily lack ribosomes.

160. When an AIDS virus has been incorporated
into a CD4 cell, but has NOT yet been
replicated, the viral genetic information is
located in the CD4 cells:
A ) mitochondria.
B ) endoplasmic reticulum.
C ) nucleus.
D ) ribosomes.

161. Which of the following evolutionary
mechanisms most likely explains the presence
in humans of CD4 receptors on the helper T
cells that bind to the gp120 proteins of the
AIDS virus?
A) Coevolution (development of a series of
reciprocal adaptations that benefited both virus
and host)
B) Convergent evolution (development of
resemblances between virus and host after they
entered the same environment)
C) Natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of
the virus
D) Natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of
the host

162. A virus, similar to the AIDS virus, infects
only B lymphocytes. This virus would be
expected to have its greatest effect on which
of the following immune-system functions?
A) Recognizing foreign antigens
B) Engulfing and lysing foreign antigens
C) Binding antibodies to antigenic sites
D) Producing antibodies


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 59
These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.


163. A student uses thin layer chromatography on
silica plates to monitor the progress of the
reaction below. Does the product have a
higher or lower R
f
than the starting material?


A ) Higher, because the product is more polar than
the starting material
B ) Higher, because the product is less polar than the
starting material
C ) Lower, because the product is less polar than the
starting material
D ) Lower, because the product is more polar than
the starting material

164. Which of the following alkyl halides is most
readily prepared by a reaction between the
corresponding alcohol and concentrated
hydrochloric acid?
A ) Isopropyl chloride
B ) Methyl chloride
C ) sec-Butyl chloride
D ) tert-Butyl chloride

165. The concentration of the protein cyclin rises and falls
during the cell cycle as shown in Figure 1.


Figure 1 Changes in the concentration of cyclin
during phases of the cell cycle.

What mechanism could account for this oscillation of
cyclin protein concentration?

A) Replication of the cyclin gene during S phase of
interphase
B) Segregation of chromosomes carrying the cyclin genes
during mitosis
C) Translation of cyclin mRNA in interphase and
proteolysis of cyclin protein in mitosis
D) Translation of cyclin mRNA in mitosis and proteolysis
of cyclin protein in interphase

166. Embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours
at 37
o
C. How many cells would be produced
from an egg after three days?
A) Fewer than 50
B) Between 50 and 500
C) Between 500 and 5000
D) More than 5000

167. What are the configurations at C-5 and C-7,
respectively, in Taxol?
A) R and R
B) S and S
C) S and R
D) R and S


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 60
Passage V

Taxol (1) is a naturally occurring compound that
has been adopted as a drug for the treatment of a
variety of cancers. A need exists for an efficient
synthesis of taxol because it is found only in small
quantities in a rare tree.



Taxol (1)

Figure 1 shows a synthetic approach to ring A.
Compound 2 undergoes a Grignard reaction with
CH
3
MgBr, followed by dehydration to produce
Compound 3. The carboethyoxy group in
Compound 3 is converted into the primary alcohol 4
by diisobutylaluminum hydride. Compound 4 is
converted into its acetate 5, which undergoes a
regiospecific DielsAlder reaction with 6 to
produce 7. The reaction of Compound 7 with
alcoholic KOH yields Compound 8, which can
serve as a key intermediate for the formation of the
B ring in Taxol.




Figure 1 Synthetic scheme

Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 61
168. Which of the following compounds is formed
by the Grignard reaction shown in Figure 1?
A )


B )

C )

D )


169. The preparation of the Grignard reagent
involves stirring which of the following
reagents in diethyl ether (Et
2
O)?
A ) CH
3
Br and Mg
B ) CH
4
and MgBr
2
C ) CH
3
Mg and Br
2
D ) CH
2
Br
2
, Mg, and Br
2


170. Compound 7 is a mixture of two isomers that
are shown by which pair of structures below?
A)

B)

C)

D)


171. The IR spectrum of Compound 8 shows
hydroxyl and carbonyl absorptions,
respectively, at approximately:
A) 1700 and 2250 cm
1
.
B) 1700 and 3400 cm
1
.
C) 3400 and 2250 cm
1
.
D) 3400 and 1700 cm
1
.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 62
Passage VI

Crohns disease and ulcerative colitis are two forms
of inflammatory bowel disease, which differ in
several respects. Crohns disease may occur in any
part of the gastrointestinal tract while ulcerative
colitis is confined to the colon (large intestine).
Crohns disease may involve all layers of the tract
while ulcerative colitis affects only the mucosa, the
inner lining of the colon. Abdominal pain and
diarrhea following a meal are signs of Crohns
disease, but a progressive loosening of a bloody
stool is the first symptom of ulcerative colitis.

Management of inflammatory bowel disease is
achieved by drug therapy to suppress the
inflammation which leads to diarrhea, but there is
no known cure. The cause of inflammatory bowel
disease is controversial. Genetic, pathogenic, and
immunogenic theories have all been advanced.

Inflammatory bowel disease tends to run in
families, with 20% of patients having a relative with
the disorder. But if inflammatory bowel disease is
genetic, it is not inherited in a simple Mendelian
way.

Some research suggests that inflammatory bowel
disease is an autoimmune disease. An antigen in the
body, perhaps in the digestive tract, is recognized as
foreign by the immune system. This antigen may
then stimulate the bodys defenses to produce an
inflammatory response that continues without
control.

There is also a lingering suspicion that the
inflammation is triggered by some bacterium or
other organism that takes up residence in the
gastrointestinal system. This theory has had a
resurgence since the discovery that the bacterium
Helicobacter pylori may play a causal role in
gastric ulcers.

172. What process would be most disrupted by an
inflammation of the colon?
A ) Digestion
B ) Absorption of nutrients
C ) Absorption of water
D ) Secretion of digestive enzymes

173. Normally the immune system avoids attacking
the tissues of its own body because:
A) a special intracellular process recognizes only
foreign antigens.
B) the body does not make any antigens that the
immune system could recognize.
C) it changes its antibodies to be specific only to
foreign antigens.
D) it suppresses cells specific to the body's own
antigens.

174. An ulcer that penetrated the wall of the
intestine would allow the contents of the
gastrointestinal tract to enter:
A) the perineum.
B) the peritoneal cavity.
C) the pleural cavity.
D) the lumen of the intestine.

175. If the genetic and autoimmune theories of
inflammatory bowel disease are true, then the
gastrointestinal antigen being targeted by the
immune system is probably on:
A) the chromosomes carrying the genes for the
disease.
B) part of the DNA segments constituting the genes
for the disease.
C) stretches of the mRNA's coded for by the genes
for the disease.
D) the surface of the proteins encoded by the genes
for the disease.

176. The fact that there appears to be a genetic
component to inflammatory bowel disease,
but that it does not show clear Mendelian
inheritance ratios suggests any of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) the gene for the disease has incomplete
penetrance.
B) the gene for the disease has limited expressivity.
C) the disease is polygenic.
D) the gene for the disease is recessive.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 63
Passage VII

Fats are known to affect blood flow. Research was
conducted to examine the effects of a 20-carbon
polyunsaturated fatty acid on blood flow through
the skin. Skin was chosen because blood flow
could be measured easily and without discomfort to
the subjects.

Male college students ranging from 18-28 years of
age were randomly divided into 4 treatment groups
of 10 subjects each. Prior to participation in the
study, subjects were screened for health conditions,
medications, and/or dietary practices that would
bias the collected data. Subjects were instructed not
to alter their habits or lifestyles during the
experiment.

Each treatment group was given 1 of 4 dietary
supplements (Table 1).

Table 1 Dietary Supplements

placebo
placebo + vitamin E
fatty acid
fatty acid + vitamin E

Vitamin E, an effective anti-oxidant, was given to 2
groups to reduce in vivo oxidation of the ingested
fatty acids. Both the fatty acid and the placebo
were given at 2 g/10 kg body weight/day; vitamin E
was given at 100 mg/10 kg body weight/day. The
supplements were packaged in identical gelatin
capsules and taken before meals. Subjects were
unaware of which supplement they were ingesting.

Blood flow through the skin of each subjects arm
was measured twice; immediately before and
immediately after 60 days of dietary
supplementation. Each blood-flow measurement
was taken at the same time of day and at a skin
temperature of 32
o
C. Subjects were required to fast
for 12 hours and rest quietly in the laboratory for 30
minutes before skin blood flow was measured. The
results are shown in Figure 1.



Figure 1 Effect of dietary supplements on skin
blood flow

177. The most likely explanation for the difference
in skin blood flow between the fatty acid
group and the fatty acid + vitamin E group in
Figure 1 is that:
A) vitamin E alone reduces skin blood flow more
than fatty acids alone.
B) vitamin E alone increases skin blood flow more
than fatty acids alone.
C) the products of fatty acid oxidation reduce skin
blood flow.
D) unoxidized fatty acids reduce skin blood flow.

178. It was hypothesized that the decrease in blood
flow to the skin resulted from a change in the
activity of the sympathetic nerves to the skin.
Which of the following observations would
support this hypothesis?
A) A change in the norepinephrine content of blood
draining from the skin
B) In vitro contraction of the smooth muscle in skin
blood vessels in response to acetylcholine
C) A lack of epinephrine receptors in skin blood
vessels
D) In vivo dilation of the skin blood vessels


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 64
179. An alternative method for examining the
effects of fatty acids on blood flow would be
to measure changes in blood pressure. If
blood pressure were measured, one would
predict that it would be lowest in which of the
following?
A ) Heart
B ) Arteries
C ) Arterioles
D ) Capillaries

180. To interpret the results, the researchers must
assume that:
A ) fatty acids have no effect on skin blood flow.
B ) vitamin E reduces skin blood flow.
C ) the subjects did not alter their habits during the
study.
D ) blood pressure differed between the 2
measurements.

181. A 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid was
used in this study. Unsaturated fatty acids
differ from saturated fatty acids in that
saturated fatty acids contain:
A) more carbon atoms.
B) fewer hydrogen atoms.
C) no carbon-hydrogen bonds.
D) no carbon-carbon double bonds.

182. In the design of the experiment, all of the
following factors were controlled EXCEPT:
A) skin temperature.
B) age of the subjects.
C) diurnal rhythms in physiological responses.
D) skin blood flow.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 65
Passage VIII

Organic carbocations may be generated from
alcohols in the presence of strong acids or from
alkenes by the addition of a proton. Carbocations
are stabilized through the inductive effect and
through resonance. Alkyl groups bonded to the
cation center also may add stability through the
partial overlap of filled orbitals with an empty
orbital, a concept often referred to as
hyperconjugation. Such alkyl groups have one
filled orbital aligned with the empty orbital of the
cation. The overlap of these orbitals allows the pair
of electrons in the filled orbital to reduce the
electron deficiency of the cation center.

In an early research study designed to examine the
properties of carbocations, an ethyl carbocation was
produced from the reaction of ethyl fluoride with
SbF
5
, as shown in Reaction I (unbalanced).



Reaction I

The products of Reaction I were quenched with
water, then separated by gas chromatography, and
identified by
1
H NMR. The resulting mixture of
products consisted primarily of molecules with four
carbon atoms. The proton NMR spectrum of the
major product is shown below in Figure 1.


Figure 1

The next most abundant product was an optically
inactive sample, later determined to be sec-butyl
alcohol.

The 4-carbon molecules were hypothesized to arise
from the following steps:
The ethylcarbocation loses a proton to form
ethene.
Another CH
3
CH
2
+
carbocation reacts with
the ethene to form a 4-carbon carbocation.
Rearrangements contribute to the formation
of the final products.

183. Which of the following concepts may be used
to explain why the stability of carbocations
increases as the number of alkyl groups
attached to the carbocation increases?
A) Resonance
B) Steric interference
C) Hyperconjugation
D) Ion pairing

184. Which of the following compounds is the
major compound isolated from Reaction 1?
A)

B)

C)

D)


185. The ethyl carbocation may be formed when
ethanol is heated with sulfuric acid. The first
step of this reaction is:
A) the elimination of water from ethyl alcohol.
B) the protonation of the hydroxyl oxygen of ethyl
alcohol.
C) the loss of a proton by ethyl alcohol.
D) the loss of the hydroxyl group of ethyl alcohol.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 66
186. The gas chromatograph trace from the workup
of Reaction 1 is shown below with the
integrated areas indicated.
What percentage of sec-butyl alcohol was
isolated?

A ) 1.5%
B ) 3%
C ) 5%
D ) 6%
187. All the products that were isolated from the
quenching of Reaction 1 should contain an
absorption in the infrared spectrum near:
A) 1600 cm
-1
.
B) 1700 cm
-1
.
C) 2250 cm
-1
.
D) 3500 cm
-1
.



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 67
These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

188. An organism that causes a human disease is
isolated and studied. Researchers conclude
that the organism is a bacterium rather than a
virus because the organism:
A ) undergoes mutation.
B ) lacks a nuclear membrane.
C ) contains protein in its outermost covering.
D ) reproduces in a culture medium lacking host
tissue.

189. Which of the following organelles most
resembles the Golgi apparatus when an intact
eukaryotic cell is viewed under the electron
microscope?
A ) Nucleolus
B ) Mitochondrion
C ) Plasma membrane
D ) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

190. If 1 mol of a pure triglyceride is hydrolyzed to
give 2 mol of RCOOH, 1 mol of R'COOH,
and 1 mol of glycerol, which of the following
compounds might be the triglyceride?
A ) CH
2
OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R
|
CH
2
OC(O)R
B ) CH
2
OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R
|
CH
2
OC(O)R
C ) CH
2
OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R
|
CH
2
OC(O)R
D ) CH
2
OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R
|
CH
2
OC(O)R

191. The lipases catalyze the hydrolysis of fats and
other carboxylic acid esters. The lipases
illustrate the fact that:
A) some enzymes are molecules other than
proteins.
B) most enzymes interact with only one specific
substrate molecule.
C) some enzymes interact with several different
substrate molecules that have similar chemical
linkages.
D) some enzymes interact with many biologically
active substrate molecules of dissimilar
structures and linkages.

192. In horses, the genes for red coat color and for
white coat color are codominant.
Heterozygous horses have roan-colored coats.
Consider a roan-colored colt that has a white
mother. What could be said about the coat
color of the colts father?
A) It must be red.
B) It must be roan.
C) It could be either red or roan.
D) It could be either red or white.



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 68
Passage IX

Until recently, conventional medical wisdom
attributed stomach ulcers to an excess of acid, and
the treatment for ulcers consisted primarily of
antacids and dietary modification. However, a
pathogenic bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, is now
implicated in most cases of stomach ulcers. Current
treatment employs antibiotics directed against these
bacteria and often is successful in eradicating
persistent infections.

Several important questions about H. pylori remain
unanswered. It is unclear why this bacterium
causes chronic infections in some individuals but
not in others; many infected persons do not develop
ulcers. The mode of transmission is also unknown,
although people in developing countries are more
frequently infected with H. pylori than are people in
developed countries with good sanitation.

There is a relationship between H. pylori infection
and cancer. Infected individuals have a two-fold
increased risk of gastric cancer, although >75% of
patients with active infections do not develop
cancer. Genetic studies of H. pylori have identified
genes that are expressed in different strains of this
bacterium. One gene, vacA, encodes a toxin.
Expression of another gene, cagA, leads to
inflammation and may be related to the genesis of
gastric cancer. Although many individuals develop
antibodies against H. pylori antigens, these
antibodies rarely eradicate the infection; evidently,
this pathogen has developed effective ways to elude
host defenses.

193. H. pylori infection may cause increased
proliferation of mucosal cells in the stomach.
This may lead to gastric cancer if:
A ) genetic mutations occur in proliferating germ
cells.
B ) genetic mutations occur in proliferating somatic
cells.
C ) the immune system fails to recognize bacterial
antigens.
D ) crowded mucosal cells are likely to remain in
interphase.

194. Which of the following statements explains
most plausibly why host antibodies are
ineffective against H. pylori?
A) Antibody proteins may be denatured in the harsh
environment of the stomach.
B) Antibodies are not generally effective against
bacteria.
C) H. pylori infection may suppress the activity of
the immune system.
D) Antibodies are not secreted from host tissues
into extracellular spaces.

195. One difference between different strains of H.
pylori is that they:
A) attack different hosts.
B) express different genes.
C) exhibit different degrees of resistance to
antibiotics.
D) exist in either developed or developing
countries.

196. According to the passage, the cagA gene
product will cause:
A) the disruption of host cell enzymatic activity.
B) the disruption of host cell protein synthesis.
C) the movement of leukocytes into mucosal tissue.
D) the vasoconstriction of arterioles in the mucosal
layer.

197. Most people infected with H. pylori do not
develop gastric cancer because they:
A) do not incorporate bacterial genes in their
chromosomes.
B) have robust immune systems that defeat early
cancers.
C) eradicate the infection before any tumors
develop.
D) tolerate the infection without developing tumors.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 69
198. To be most effective, a gene therapy for
gastric cancer should be directed against:
A ) the stomach epithelial cells that give rise to
tumors.
B ) the antibody producing cells of the immune
system.
C ) all the cells in the hosts body.
D ) all known genes in the H. pylori genome.

199. Enzymatic activity in the stomach initiates the
digestion of:
A) lipids.
B) ethanol.
C) polysaccharides.
D) proteins.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 70
Passage X

Nematode development has been used as a model
system to investigate the differentiation of cells
from their neighbors (see Figure 1). Three
experiments are described here.

Experiment 1

To investigate the role of cell-to-cell
communication, researchers separated the cells of a
two-cell embryo and cultured them independently.
The cultured AB cells produced neurons and skin,
but no muscle, whereas the cultured P1 cells gave
rise to all of the tissues produced by P1 cells of an
intact embryo.

Experiment 2

Two-cell embryos were incubated in the presence of
either cycloheximide, an inhibitor of translation, or
actinomycin D, an inhibitor of transcription. The
AB cells were then isolated, washed to remove the
inhibitors, and grown in culture. AB cells from
embryos treated with cycloheximide produced only
neurons and skin, whereas those from embryos
treated with actinomycin D produced neurons, skin,
and muscle.

Experiment 3

To investigate specification of the gut, which was
thought to result from the segregation of
cytoplasmic contents during early cell divisions,
cells were isolated at various intervals (as indicated
on the time lines of Figure 2) during the 15-minute
four-cell stage, cultured individually or recombined
in pairs, and allowed to develop. If gut
differentiation occurred, proteases were released
into the culture medium. The results are shown in
Figure 2.



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 71



Figure 1 Early development, showing one-, two-, and four-cell stages (left), and segregation of fate (right) in
the nematode. The blastomeres and tissues formed by the founder cells are shown.



Figure 2 Results of Experiment 3. At right center are shown the cell recombinations, and the time lines at far
right indicate when the cells were separated and recombined, as well as the results.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 72


200. Which result of Experiment 1 supports the
hypothesis that cell-to-cell communication is
involved in the determination of cell fate?
A ) The fate of an isolated AB cell differs from that
of an AB cell in an intact embryo.
B ) The fate of an isolated P1 cell is
indistinguishable from that of a P1 cell in an
intact embryo.
C ) At the two-cell stage, isolated blastomeres can
divide and differentiate.
D ) Several different blastomeres can produce both
neurons and muscle tissue.

201. The results of Experiment 1 indicate that the
direction of signaling between the blastomeres
of a two-cell embryo is:
A )
AB P1.
B )
P1 AB.
C )
P1 P2.
D )
zygote AB.

202. The results of Experiment 2 indicate that the
signaling interaction at the two-cell stage
probably most involves which class of
macromolecules?
A ) DNA
B ) Messenger RNA
C ) Ribosomal RNA
D ) Protein

203. The results of Experiment 3 indicate that gut
specification during the four-cell stage
requires cell-to-cell communication between:
A) P2 and EMS.
B) AB1 and EMS.
C) P1 and AB1.
D) AB1 and AB2.

204. If the zygote contains unique cell contents that
are necessary for gut differentiation,
segregation of these substances during cell
divisions would occur in the sequence of
zygote to P1 to:
A) AB.
B) EMS to E.
C) P2 to EMS to E.
D) both P2 and EMS.

205. The only somatic or visceral cell-type tissue
that derives from a single blastomere is:
A) neuronal.
B) muscle.
C) gut.
D) germ cell.

206. These experiments indicate that nematode
cells adopt fates different from those of their
neighbors during development by:
A) mechanisms that do not involve transcription.
B) cell separation followed by independent
development of the blastomeres.
C) both cell-to-cell signaling and segregation of the
cytoplasmic contents during division.
D) the separation of their three primary tissue
layers.


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 73
Passage XI

An example of the Claisen rearrangement is shown
in Equation 1. Heating Compound 1 yields
Compound 2. Two chemists propose alternative
mechanisms for this reaction.



Equation 1

Chemist 1

The rearrangement proceeds through a concerted,
cyclic transition state in which a new carbon-carbon
bond is formed between carbon-3 of the side chain
and the ortho-carbon of the aromatic ring, while the
oxygenC-1 bond is broken. The intermediate
ketone enolizes to the observed product, as shown
in Equation 2.



Equation 2

Chemist 2

The oxygenC-1 bond undergoes a heterolytic
cleavage to form a resonance-stabilized
intermediate carbocation and a phenolate anion.
The intermediate carbocation attacks the ortho-
carbon of the aromatic ring, to give a ketone which
enolizes to the observed product as shown in
Equation 3.



Equation 3

Independent experiments reveal that no cross
products are obtained when a mixture of Compound
1 and an analog with a different aryl group and a
substituted side chain undergo rearrangement in the
same solution.

Chemist 3 performs the Claisen rearrangement on
Compound 1 in which C-1 is labeled with
radioactive carbon-14. The rearranged product
containing the label is degraded by treatment with
osmium tetroxide (OsO
4
), followed by oxidation
with periodic (HIO
4
) acid. The degradation
products are monitored for radioactivity.

207. Which of the following compounds will be
produced from heating the compound shown
below if it reacts in the same way as
Compound 1?

CH
2
=CH-O-CH
2
CH=CH
2


A) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CHO
B) CH
2
= CHCH
2
CH
2
CHO
C) CH
2
= CHCH
2
OCH
2
CH
3
D)
O
||
CH
2
= CHCCH
2
CH
3



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 74
208. The entropy change between a reactant and its
activated complex is called the entropy of
activation (S

). Which chemists mechanism


is supported if S

< 0 for the reaction shown


in Equation 1?
A ) Chemist 1s because a negative S

indicates a
transition state that is more ordered than the
reactant.
B ) Chemist 1s because a negative S

indicates a
transition state that is less ordered than the
reactant.
C ) Chemist 2s because a negative S

indicates a
transition state that is more ordered than the
reactant.
D ) Chemist 2s because a negative S

indicates a
transition state that is less ordered than the
reactant.
209. The absence of cross products supports the
mechanism of:
A) both chemists.
B) Chemist 1 only.
C) Chemist 2 only.
D) neither chemist.

210. The IR spectrum of Compound 2 displays a
band for the -OH group near:
A) 1000 cm
-1
B) 1500 cm
-1
C) 2500 cm
-1
D) 3500 cm
-1



Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 75
These questions are not based on a descriptive
passage and are independent of each other.

211. The following pedigree shows the occurrence of
a very rare disease that is expressed in fewer than
1 in 100,000 individuals.

Which of the following is the most likely pattern
of inheritance for this disease in these
individuals?
A ) The mother carried a sex-linked dominant allele for
the disease.
B ) The mother carried a sex-linked recessive allele for
the disease.
C ) Each father carried an autosomal recessive allele for
the disease.
D ) Each father carried a sex-linked recessive allele for
the disease.

212. After the gall bladder is removed from a
patient, the patient will most likely have
reduced ability to digest:
A ) protein.
B ) starch.
C ) sugar.
D ) fat.

213. The liver is different from many other organs
in that it can at least partially regenerate
following illness or damage. This
regeneration is accomplished primarily
through:
A ) fission.
B ) meiosis.
C ) mitosis.
D ) cell growth.

214. Which of the compounds shown below is
more soluble in water?

(CH
3
CH
2
)
2
NH (CH
3
CH
2
)
2
CH
2

Compound I Compound II

A) Compound I
B) Compound II
C) They are about equally soluble.
D) Neither has appreciable water solubility.

215. In humans, cholesterol is a precursor to:
A) insulin.
B) glycogen.
C) testosterone.
D) DNA.

216. In an experiment on the phases of the cell
cycle, cultures of actively dividing,
synchronized cells were exposed to
radioactively labeled 2-deoxythymidine for 30
minutes, then rinsed to remove the unabsorbed
label. At various times thereafter, groups of
cells were removed from the cultures and the
nuclei examined to determine their content of
radioactive material. Results are shown in the
figure below.


Based on the figure, what process was
occurring during hours 3-13 after treatment
with radioactive 2-deoxythymidine?
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) DNA synthesis
D) RNA synthesis


Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright. 76
MCAT Practice Test 7 Answer Sheet

Physical Sciences
1 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D)
21 (A) (B) (C) (D)
22 (A) (B) (C) (D)
23 (A) (B) (C) (D)
24 (A) (B) (C) (D)
25 (A) (B) (C) (D)
26 (A) (B) (C) (D)
27 (A) (B) (C) (D)
28 (A) (B) (C) (D)
29 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D)
31 (A) (B) (C) (D)
32 (A) (B) (C) (D)
33 (A) (B) (C) (D)
34 (A) (B) (C) (D)
35 (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D)
39 (A) (B) (C) (D)
40 (A) (B) (C) (D)
41 (A) (B) (C) (D)
42 (A) (B) (C) (D)
43 (A) (B) (C) (D)
44 (A) (B) (C) (D)
45 (A) (B) (C) (D)
46 (A) (B) (C) (D)
47 (A) (B) (C) (D)
48 (A) (B) (C) (D)
49 (A) (B) (C) (D)
50 (A) (B) (C) (D)
51 (A) (B) (C) (D)
52 (A) (B) (C) (D)
53 (A) (B) (C) (D)
54 (A) (B) (C) (D)
55 (A) (B) (C) (D)
56 (A) (B) (C) (D)
57 (A) (B) (C) (D)
58 (A) (B) (C) (D)
59 (A) (B) (C) (D)
60 (A) (B) (C) (D)
61 (A) (B) (C) (D)
62 (A) (B) (C) (D)
63 (A) (B) (C) (D)
64 (A) (B) (C) (D)
65 (A) (B) (C) (D)
66 (A) (B) (C) (D)
67 (A) (B) (C) (D)
68 (A) (B) (C) (D)
69 (A) (B) (C) (D)
70 (A) (B) (C) (D)
71 (A) (B) (C) (D)
72 (A) (B) (C) (D)
73 (A) (B) (C) (D)
74 (A) (B) (C) (D)
75 (A) (B) (C) (D)
76 (A) (B) (C) (D)
77 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Verbal Reasoning
78 (A) (B) (C) (D)
79 (A) (B) (C) (D)
80 (A) (B) (C) (D)
81 (A) (B) (C) (D)
82 (A) (B) (C) (D)
83 (A) (B) (C) (D)
84 (A) (B) (C) (D)
85 (A) (B) (C) (D)
86 (A) (B) (C) (D)
87 (A) (B) (C) (D)
88 (A) (B) (C) (D)
89 (A) (B) (C) (D)
90 (A) (B) (C) (D)
91 (A) (B) (C) (D)
92 (A) (B) (C) (D)
93 (A) (B) (C) (D)
94 (A) (B) (C) (D)
95 (A) (B) (C) (D)
96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
97 (A) (B) (C) (D)
98 (A) (B) (C) (D)
99 (A) (B) (C) (D)
100 (A) (B) (C) (D)
101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
105 (A) (B) (C) (D)
106 (A) (B) (C) (D)
107 (A) (B) (C) (D)
108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
110 (A) (B) (C) (D)
111 (A) (B) (C) (D)
112 (A) (B) (C) (D)
113 (A) (B) (C) (D)
114 (A) (B) (C) (D)
115 (A) (B) (C) (D)
116 (A) (B) (C) (D)
117 (A) (B) (C) (D)
118 (A) (B) (C) (D)
119 (A) (B) (C) (D)
120 (A) (B) (C) (D)
121 (A) (B) (C) (D)
122 (A) (B) (C) (D)
123 (A) (B) (C) (D)
124 (A) (B) (C) (D)
125 (A) (B) (C) (D)
126 (A) (B) (C) (D)
127 (A) (B) (C) (D)
128 (A) (B) (C) (D)
129 (A) (B) (C) (D)
130 (A) (B) (C) (D)
131 (A) (B) (C) (D)
132 (A) (B) (C) (D)
133 (A) (B) (C) (D)
134 (A) (B) (C) (D)
135 (A) (B) (C) (D)
136 (A) (B) (C) (D)
137 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Writing Sample
138
139

Biological Sciences
140 (A) (B) (C) (D)
141 (A) (B) (C) (D)
142 (A) (B) (C) (D)
143 (A) (B) (C) (D)
144 (A) (B) (C) (D)
145 (A) (B) (C) (D)
146 (A) (B) (C) (D)
147 (A) (B) (C) (D)
148 (A) (B) (C) (D)
149 (A) (B) (C) (D)
150 (A) (B) (C) (D)
151 (A) (B) (C) (D)
152 (A) (B) (C) (D)
153 (A) (B) (C) (D)
154 (A) (B) (C) (D)
155 (A) (B) (C) (D)
156 (A) (B) (C) (D)
157 (A) (B) (C) (D)
158 (A) (B) (C) (D)
159 (A) (B) (C) (D)
160 (A) (B) (C) (D)
161 (A) (B) (C) (D)
162 (A) (B) (C) (D)
163 (A) (B) (C) (D)
164 (A) (B) (C) (D)
165 (A) (B) (C) (D)
166 (A) (B) (C) (D)
167 (A) (B) (C) (D)
168 (A) (B) (C) (D)
169 (A) (B) (C) (D)
170 (A) (B) (C) (D)
171 (A) (B) (C) (D)
172 (A) (B) (C) (D)
173 (A) (B) (C) (D)
174 (A) (B) (C) (D)
175 (A) (B) (C) (D)
176 (A) (B) (C) (D)
177 (A) (B) (C) (D)
178 (A) (B) (C) (D)
179 (A) (B) (C) (D)
180 (A) (B) (C) (D)
181 (A) (B) (C) (D)
182 (A) (B) (C) (D)
183 (A) (B) (C) (D)
184 (A) (B) (C) (D)
185 (A) (B) (C) (D)
186 (A) (B) (C) (D)
187 (A) (B) (C) (D)
188 (A) (B) (C) (D)
189 (A) (B) (C) (D)
190 (A) (B) (C) (D)
191 (A) (B) (C) (D)
192 (A) (B) (C) (D)
193 (A) (B) (C) (D)
194 (A) (B) (C) (D)
195 (A) (B) (C) (D)
196 (A) (B) (C) (D)
197 (A) (B) (C) (D)
198 (A) (B) (C) (D)
199 (A) (B) (C) (D)
200 (A) (B) (C) (D)
201 (A) (B) (C) (D)
202 (A) (B) (C) (D)
203 (A) (B) (C) (D)
204 (A) (B) (C) (D)
205 (A) (B) (C) (D)
206 (A) (B) (C) (D)
207 (A) (B) (C) (D)
208 (A) (B) (C) (D)
209 (A) (B) (C) (D)
210 (A) (B) (C) (D)
211 (A) (B) (C) (D)
212 (A) (B) (C) (D)
213 (A) (B) (C) (D)
214 (A) (B) (C) (D)
215 (A) (B) (C) (D)
216 (A) (B) (C) (D)

You might also like