Concrete Technology Section 1 1. For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is A. B. C. D.

setting time soundness tensile strength consistency

E. all the above. Answer: Option E 2. If 1500 g of water is required to have a cement paste 1875 g of normal consistency, the percentage of water is, A. C. 20% 30% B. D. 25% 35%

E. 40% Answer: Option B Weight of water = 1500g. Weight of cement paste = 1875g. Weight of cement = 1875-1500. = 375g. % of water = wt.of cement/wt.of water. = (375/1500)*100. = 25%. 3. Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the period of removal of the form work, is : A. B. C. D. 7 days for beam soffits 14 days for bottom slabs of spans 4.6 m and more 21 days for bottom beams over 6 m spans 2 days for vertical sides of columns

E. all the above. Answer: Option E

4. Wp and Wf are the weights of a cylinder containing partially compacted and fully compacted concrete. If the compaction factor A. B. C. D. extremely low very low low high is 0.95, the workability of concrete is

E. none of these. Answer: Option D Extremely low - 0.65 to 0.68. Very low - 0.75. low - 0.83 to 0.85. Medium - 0.90 to 0.92. High - 0.95. 5. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of A. B. C. D. thin particles flat particles elongated particles flaky paticles

E. all the above. Answer: Option E All are the particles have insufficient capability to increase workability. 6. M10 grade of concrete approximates A. B. C. D. 1 : 3 : 6 mix 1 : 1 : 2 mix 1 : 2 : 4 mix 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix

E. none of these. Answer: Option A The sum of all digits of ratio should make it 10, here 1+3+6 =10.

For M5 1:4:8. M10 1:3:6. M15 1:2:4. M20 1:1.5:3. 7. For ensuring quality of concrete, use A. B. C. single sized aggegates two sized aggregate graded aggregates

D. coarse aggregates. Answer: Option C Because if the different size and shape of agg are mixed with each other. The bonding is become strong. 8. According to I.S. : 456, the number of grades of concrete mixes, is A. C. 3 5 B. D. 4 6

E. 7 Answer: Option E According IS 456-2000. The number of grades of concrete mixes: M10, M15, M20, M25, M30, M35, M40. 9. The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at A. C. 1000C 1400C B. D. 1200C 1600C

E. 1800C Answer: Option C Cement is burnt 1400-1500 C. 10. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. Gypsum in cement decreases the setting time The first compound of cement which reacts with water, is C2S Bulking of sand is less when its particles are fine

D. All the above. Answer: Option A

Gypsum not decreases the setting time but it increases (lengthen, retard or slowdown setting time) suppose cement setting time is 30 min, when we can add gypsum to the cement at the time of grinding of clinkers then gypsum can slowdown the setting, setting increases from 30 min to 60 min it means it cannot decreases the setting time decrease means cement setting is 30 min decrease means 30 min to 20 min but this is wrong. Right answer is gypsum increases, lengthen, slowdown setting time of cement. 11. The risk of segregation is more for A. B. C. wetter mix larger proportion of maximum size aggregate coarser grading

D. all the above. Answer: Option D Segregation can be defined as the separation of the constituent materials of concrete. 12. After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying A. B. C. expands mix shrinks

D. none of these. Answer: Option C I guess its because water is evaporated and the concrete becomes compact. 13. Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with A. B. C. Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferrite

D. All the above. Answer: Option D 14. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a temperature between A. B. C. D. E. 1100 and 1200C 1200 and 1300C 1300 and 1400C 1400 and 1500C 1500 and 1600C

Answer: Option D If we burnt cement with anything, To burnt 1400-1500. Because cement burnt temp 1400-1500c. 15. Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade is A. B. C. D. 100 kg/cm2 150 kg/cm2 200 kg/cm2 250 kg/cm2

E. 300 kg/cm2 Answer: Option E The grade represents the compressive strength. We know that in M20, M stand to mix and 20 is the characteristic compressive strength of concrete, so as in this Q. 300 is the right answer. 16. The standard sand now a days used in India, is obtained from A. B. C. D. Jaipur (Rajasthan) Jullundur (Punjab) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh) Ennore (Madras)

E. Cuttuck (Orissa). Answer: Option D 17. The maximum amount of dust which may be permitted in aggregates is A. B. C. 5% of the total aggregates for low workability with a coarse grading 10% of the total aggregates for low workability with a fine grading 20% of the total aggregates for a mix having high workability with fine grading

D. all the above. Answer: Option D 18. Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures A. B. C. D. desired strength and workability desired durability water tightness of the structure resistance to water

E. all the above. Answer: Option E

19. The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon : A. B. C. D. size and shape of aggregates specific gravity of aggregates grading of aggregates size and shape of the container

E. none of these. Answer: Option D 20. Curing A. B. C. reduces the shrinkage of concrete preserves the properties of concrete prevents the loss of water by evaporation

D. all of the above. Answer: Option D 21. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed A. B. C. D. 2.5 cm 5.0 cm 7.5 cm 10 cm

E. 15 cm Answer: Option B 22. Construction joints are provided A. B. C. D. where B.M. and S.F. are small where the member is supported by other member at 18 m apart in huge structures in concrete wall at sill level of windows

E. all the above. Answer: Option E 23. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than A. B. 1/5th of mean dimension 2/5th of mean dimension

C. D.

3/5th of mean dimension 4/5th of mean dimension

E. none of these. Answer: Option C And For Elongated Particles, their Maximum dimension should be larger than 1.8 times of mean size. 24. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary method of proportioning A. B. C. D. 1:1:2 1:2:4 1:3:6 1:2:8

E. 1 : 4 : 10 Answer: Option E Because we did not seen any where 1:4:10 in our code books. 25. The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it A. B. C. D. less liable to segregation more liable to segregation more liable to bleeding more liable for surface scaling in frosty weather

E. none of these. Answer: Option A When the cohesive property of concrete increases, then there will be chance of generation of bonding between each particle in concrete, so there will be no chance of segregation (Separation of particles). 26. The ratio of the length to breadth of a wooden float, is A. C. 4.5 6.5 B. D. 5.5 7.5

E. 8.5 Answer: Option D 27. To ensure constant moisture content in aggregates A. B. area of each aggregate pile should be large height of each aggregate pile should not exceed 1.50 m

C. D.

aggregate pile should be left for 24 hours before aggregates are used conical heaps of aggregates should be avoided to prevent moisture variation

E. all the above. Answer: Option E 28. Workability improved by adding A. B. C. D. air-entraining agent foaming agent oily-agent aluminium compound

E. all the above. Answer: Option E 29. The commonly used material in the manufacture of cement is A. B. C. sand stone slate lime stone

D. graphite. Answer: Option C 30. If 20 kg of coarse aggregate is sieved through 80 mm, 40 mm, 20 mm, 10 mm, 4.75 mm, 2.36 mm, 1.18 mm, 600 micron, 300 micron and 150 micron standard sieves and the weights retained are 0 kg, 2 kg, 8 kg, 6 kg, 4 kg respectively, the fineness modulus of the aggregate, is A. B. C. D. 7.30 7.35 7.40 7.45

E. none of these. Answer: Option B % RETAINED 80 40 20 10 MM 2 8 6

CUMULATIVE 0 10 40 30

% 0

RETAINED 0 10 50 80

4.75 2.36 1.18 600 300 150 TOTAL

4 0 0 0 0 0

20 0 0 0 0 0

100 100 100 100 100 100 740.

FINENESS MODULUS = 740/100 = 7.4. 2 out of 20 kg retained in that particular sieve, so for 100 how much is retained give % retained hence. (2/20) * 100 = 10 (8/20) * 100 = 40 (6/20)* 100 = 30 (4/20)*100 = 20. And so on, if u have to find cumulative % retained u have to add the presently available value with all previous values hence first value is 10. Second value is 10 + 40 = 50. Third value is 10+ 40 +30 = 80. Fourth value is 10+40+30+20 = 100 and so on. 31. Curing a concrete for long period ensures better A. B. C. D. volume stability strength water resistance water tightness and durability

E. all the above. Answer: Option E 32. For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is A. B. C. D. 4 mm 6 mm 8 mm 10 mm

E. 12 mm Answer: Option D

33. The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of proportion, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. grading curing mixing batching none of these.

Answer: Option D Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. D. Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated Excess quantity of water causes bleeding in concrete

E. All the above. Answer: Option E 35. The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of compressive strength of three test specimens, exceeds A. B. C. D. 5 kg/cm2 8 kg/cm2 10 kg/cm2 12 kg/cm2

E. 15 kg/cm2 Answer: Option E 36. Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement A. B. C. Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3

D. Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 Answer: Option A 37. Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of

A. B. C. D.

100 m 200 m 300 m 400 m

E. none of these. Answer: Option D 38. If X, Y and Z are the fineness modulli of course, fine and combined aggregates, the percentage (P) of fine aggregates to combined aggregates, is A.

B.

C.

D.

E. Answer: Option B 39. Slump test is done for A. clay B. sand

C. lime D. concrete. Answer: Option D Slump test is for work ability of concrete. 40. The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is due to its A. B. C. finer grinding burning at high temperature increased lime cement

D. higher content of tricalcium. Answer: Option C 41. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. B. C. D.

The weight of ingredients of concrete mix, is taken in kilograms Water and aggregates are measured in litres The finished concrete is measured in cubic metres 20 bags of cement make one tonne

E. All the above. Answer: Option E Aggregate & water are measured in litre But other ingredient ? 42. Concrete mainly consists of A. B. C. D. cement aggregates admixture water

E. all the above. Answer: Option E 43. Vicat's apparatus is used for A. B. C. D. fineness test consistency test setting time test soundness test

E. compressive strength test. Answer: Option B 44. M 150 grade of concrete approximates A. B. C. D. 1 : 3 : 6 mix 1 : 1 :2 mix 1 : 2 : 4 mix 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix

E. none of these. Answer: Option B 45. Workability of concrete is measured by A. Vicat apparatus test

B. C.

Slump test Minimum void method

D. Talbot Richard test. Answer: Option B 46. The rock which is not calcareous, is : A. B. C. D. lime stone macl chalk laterite

E. none of these. Answer: Option D 47. Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using A. B. C. D. less water fine aggregates rich mix more water and coarse aggregates

E. none of these. Answer: Option D 48. For road pavements, the cement generally used, is A. B. C. D. ordinary Portland cement rapid hardening cement low heat cement blast furnace slag cement

E. none of these. Answer: Option B 49. Construction joints are generally provided in concrete A. B. C. roads retaining walls lining of canals

D.

lining of tunnels

E. all the above. Answer: Option E Section 2 1. Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation, is known A. B. C. D. E. bleeding creeping segregation shrinkage none of these.

Answer: Option E 2. According to the recommendations of IS : 456-1978, the expansion joints A. B. C. D. E. are provided where plane changes abruptly are provided to ensure minimum resistance are supported on separate columns do not carry reinforcement across them all the above.

Answer: Option E 3. Grading of sand causes great variation in A. B. C. D. E. workability of concrete strength of concrete durability of concrete handing and placing of concrete all the above.

Answer: Option E

4. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using A. B. C. D. E. low water cement ratio less cement in the concrete proper concrete mix presaturated aggregates all the above.

Answer: Option E 5. Ordinary concrete is not used for concrete grade A. B. C. D. E. M 100 M 150 M 200 M 250 M 400

Answer: Option E 6. 1.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are geneally used for grading of A. B. C. D. E. coarse aggregates fine aggregates neither (a) nor (b) both (a) and (b) none of these.

Answer: Option D 7. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. D. The free water is the amount of water added while mixing and the amount of water held on the surface of the aggregates prior to mixing The total water is the free water and the amount actually absorbed by the aggregates Neither (a) nor (b) Both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D

8. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes A. B. C. D. E. decrease in early strength reduction in chemical action with sulphates increase in shrinkage reduction bleeding all the above.

Answer: Option E 9. Too wet concrete may cause A. B. C. D. E. weakness of concrete excessive laitance segregation lower density all the above.

Answer: Option E 10. Addition of pozzolana to cement causes A. B. C. D. E. reduction in permeability loss of heat of hydration reduction in bleeding increase in curing time all the above.

Answer: Option E 11. Hardening of cement occurs at A. rapid rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a decreased rate slow rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a rapid rate uniform rate throughout its age none of these.

B. C. D.

Answer: Option D 12. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. D. E. Lime in excess, causes the cement to expand and disintegrate Silica in excess, causes the cement to set slowly Alumina in excess, reduces the strength of the cement Magnesium oxide in excess, remains in free state and makes the cement unsound All the above.

Answer: Option E 13. Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of A. B. C. D. aggregates cement water all the above.

Answer: Option D 14. Pick up the correct statement from the following i. A. B. C. D. E. Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero Concrete mix having zero slump, is unsuitable for high strength. All the above.

Answer: Option E 15. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, is A. B. C. D. E. ordinary Portland cement rapid hardening cement low heat cement blast furnace slag cement white cement.

Answer: Option C

Dam construction will involve mass concreting where heat of hydration is the major concern which if not monitored will cause crack in the bulk of the dam which is undesirable, hence low heat cement is preferable in this type of concreting. 16. The produce impermeable concrete A. B. C. D. E. thorough mixing of concrete is required proper compaction of concrete is required proper curing of concrete is required properly graded and non-porous aggregates are requied all the above.

Answer: Option E 17. Water required per bag of cement, is A. B. C. D. E. 7 kg 14 kg 21 kg 28 kg 35 kg

Answer: Option E 18. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: A. B. C. D. E. The bottom and top ends of slump mould are parallel to each other The axis of the mould is perpendicular to the end faces The internal surface of the mould is kept clean and free from set cement The mould is in the form of a frustum of hexagonal pyramid None of these.

Answer: Option D 19. ISI has specified full strength of concrete after A. B. C. 7 days 14 days 21 days

D. E.

28 days none of these.

Answer: Option E ISI doesn't specified any strength. That is the IS 456 which specified the strength of concrete. 20. For construction of structures in sea water, the cement generally preferred to, is A. B. C. D. E. Portland-pozzolana cement quick setting cement low heat Portland cement rapid hardening cement none of these.

Answer: Option A 21. Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement, is A. C. E. 30% 50% 70% B. D. 40% 60%

Answer: Option A 22. For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, the ingredients required per bag of 50 kg cement, are: A. B. C. D. E. 70 litres of sand and 120 litres of aggregates 70 kg of sand and 140 litres of aggregates 105 litres of sand and 140 litres of aggregates 105 litres of sand and 210 litres of aggregates none of these.

Answer: Option D Volume of one beg cement = 0.035 cum. Hence sand = 0.035*3 = 0.105 cum. 1 cum = 1000 lt. So sand = 0.105*1000 = 105 lt.

& Aggregates = 105*2 = 210 lt. 23. The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its surface moist is known A. B. C. D. E. placing wetting curing compacting none of these.

Answer: Option C 24. The grade of concrete not recommended by I.S. : 456, is A. B. C. D. E. M 100 M 200 M 300 M 400 M 500

Answer: Option E 25. C.R.R.I. charts are used to obtain a relatioship between strength of concrete and A. B. C. D. E. water cement ratio workability grading of aggregate fineness modulus none of these.

Answer: Option A 26. Proper batching ensures A. B. C. D. economy durability workability strength

E.

all the above.

Answer: Option E 27. Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates, are A. B. C. D. rounded aggregate irregular aggregate angular aggregate flaky aggregates.

Answer: Option A If the round aggregates are used the gap will be form. So, we are using Angular aggregates. 28. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. D. E. Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand With 10% moisture content by weight, the bulking of sand is increased by 50%. The volume of fully saturated sand, is equal to the volume of dry and loose sand All the above.

Answer: Option E 29. For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use A. B. C. D. internal vibrator screed vibrator form vibrator none of these.

Answer: Option B 29. For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use A. B. C. D. internal vibrator screed vibrator form vibrator none of these.

Answer: Option B 30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. B. C. D. E.

Construction joints are necessarily planned for their locations Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks Expansion joints need not be provided in foundation concrete All the above.

Answer: Option E 31. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. D. E. Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete If the slump increases, workability decreases If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is maximum None of these.

Answer: Option E 32. Specified compressive strengh of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of A. B. C. D. E. 3 days 7 days 14 days 21 days 28 days.

Answer: Option E 32. Specified compressive strengh of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of A. B. C. D. E. 3 days 7 days 14 days 21 days 28 days.

Answer: Option E 33. An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less than A. B. C. D. E. 2/3 mean dimension 3/4 mean dimension 3/5 mean dimension 5/8 mean dimension none of these.

Answer: Option C 34. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: A. B. C. D. E. A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability with excessive equantity of water The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases If the water cement ratio is less than 0.45, the concrete is not workable and causes honey-combed structure Good compaction by mechanical vibrtions, increases the strength of concrete None of these.

Answer: Option A 35. The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of F.M. 6.8 for obtaining the aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is A. C. 30% 50% B. D. 40% 60%.

Answer: Option C 36. The final operation of finishing floors, is known as A. B. C. D. E. screeding floating trowelling finishing all the above.

Answer: Option C

37. The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m x 5.6 m, and the maximum height of piles is 2.70 m, the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles, are A. B. C. D. E. 1500 bags 2000 bags 2500 bags 3000 bags 4000 bags

Answer: Option D 38. For an ordinary Portland cement A. B. C. D. E. residual does not exceed 10% when sieved through IS Sieve No. 9 soundness varies from 5 to 10 mm initial setting time is not less than 30 minutes compressive stress after 7 days, is not less than 175 kg/cm 2 all the above.

Answer: Option C 39. The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement warehouse, is A. B. C. D. E. 10 cm 15 cm 20 cm 25 cm 30 cm

Answer: Option D 40. A construction joint is provided where A. B. C. D. bending moment is small shear force is small the member is supported by other member all the above.

Answer: Option D

41. The compaction of concrete, improves A. B. C. D. density strength durability all the above.

Answer: Option D 42. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. B. C. D. Water cement paste hardens due to hydration During hardening cement binds the aggregates together Cement provides strength, durability and water tightness to the concrete All the above.

Answer: Option D 43. The light weight aggregates are obtained from A. B. C. D. sedimentary rocks metamorphic rocks igneous rocks volcanic source.

Answer: Option D 44. If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the depth of the sand when fully inundated with water is 12 cm, the bulking of the moist sand, is A. C. E. 10% 15% 25%. B. D. 12% 20%

Answer: Option E 45. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A. According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates are classified as heavy weight, normal weight and light weight According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are classified as rounded irregular, angular and flaky

B.

C. D.

According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates are classified as glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed and porous All the above.

Answer: Option D Segregation is responsible for A. B. C. D. E. honey-combed concrete porous layers in concrete surface scaling in concrete sand streaks in concrete all the above.

Answer: Option E 47. Addition of pozzolana to cement A. B. C. D. E. decreases workability increases strength increases heat of hydration decreases curing time none of these.

Answer: Option E 48. The datum temperature for maturity by Plowman, is A. B. C. D. 23C 0 - 5.6C - 11.7C

Answer: Option D 49. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: A. B. C. The degree of grinding of cement, is called fineness The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as setting of cement The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission of sound, is

known as soundness of cement D. E. The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water, is known as heat of hydration None of these.

Answer: Option C

Section 3 1. Permissible compressive strength of M 150 concrete grade is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 100 kg/cm2 150 kg/cm2 200 kg/cm2 250 kg/cm2 300 kg/cm2

Answer: Option C 2. Slump test of concrete is a measure ofits [A]. [B]. 2. [C]. [D]. tensile strength impact value. consistency compressive strength

Answer: Option A 3. Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for construction of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. dams massive foundations abutments R.C.C. structures all the above.

Answer: Option E 4. Water cement ratio is [A]. [B]. [C]. volume of water to that of cement weight of water to that of cement weight of concrete to that of water

[D]. [E].

volume of concrete to that of water both (a) and (b) of the above.

Answer: Option E Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of [A]. [B]. 5. [C]. [D]. [E]. alumina iron oxide silica alkalis magnesium oxide.

Answer: Option D 6. If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be used for the work test of concrete provided maximum nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10 cm 15 cm 20 cm 25 cm 30 cm

Answer: Option C 7. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies from [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 20 mm to 30 mm 30 mm to 40 mm 40 mm to 50 mm 50 mm to 60 mm none of these.

Answer: Option C 8. The shrinkage of concrete [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. is proportional to water content is the mix is proportional to cement concrete increases with age of concrete all the above.

Answer: Option D 9. The ratio of various ingredients (cement, sand, aggregates) in concrete of grade M 200, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1:2:4 1:3:6

1: 1:1:2 4:2:1

:2

Answer: Option E 10. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. bleeding creeping segregation flooding none of these.

Answer: Option A 11. Slump test of concrete is a meausre ofits

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

consistency compressive strength tensile strength impact value.

Answer: Option A 12. Tricalcium aluminate (C3A) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. reacts fast with water generates less heat of hydration causes initial setting and early strength of cement does not contribute to develop ultimate strength none of these.

Answer: Option B 13. According to Water-Cement Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. depends upon the amount of water used in the mix does not depend upon the quality of cement mixed with aggregates does not depend upon the quanity of cement mixed with aggregates all the above.

Answer: Option D 14. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more In single size aggregates, bulk density is least In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum None of these.

Answer: Option C 15. Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in water containing ferrous [A]. sulphate [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. potassium chloride ammonia nitric acid sulphuric acid.

Answer: Option A 16. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S cause rapid hardening High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S make the cement less resistive to chemical attack Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S contribute to slow hardening Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S provide greater resistance to chemical attack All the above.

Answer: Option E 17. The factor which affects workability, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. water content and its temperature shape and size of the aggregates grading and surface textures of the aggregates air entraining agents all the above.

Answer: Option E 18. The cement whose strength is a little lower than the ordinary cement during the first three months but attains afterwards the same strength, is known as low-heat Portland [A]. cement [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. rapid hardening Portland cement Portland blast slag cement Portland pozzolana cement none of these.

Answer: Option A 19. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Sand stones may be divided into calcareous, siliceous and ferrugineous sand stones Concrete using sand stones, cracks due to excessive shrinkage Very hard and close grained crystallined lime stones are suitable aggregates but provide low strength Broken bricks produce a concrete having good fire resisting qualities All the above.

Answer: Option E 20. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Water enables chemical reaction to take place with cement Water lubricates the mixture of gravel, sand and cement Only a small quantity of water is required for hydration of cement Strength of concrete structure largely depends upon its workability All the above.

Answer: Option E 21. Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement. [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. When one thrusts one's hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm The colour of the cement is bluish A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water should sink immediately By rubbing cement in between fingers, one should feed rough All the above.

Answer: Option E 22. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Calcium chloride acts as a retarder Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as an accelerator Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder Calcium chloride acts as an accelerator Both (c) and (d).

Answer: Option E 23. Joints in concrete structures, are provided [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. to reduce the tensile stresses likely to be developed due to evaporation of water to minimise the change in the dimensions of the slab to minimise the necessary cracking all the above.

Answer: Option D 24. If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a concrete mixer of 150 litre capacity, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

15, 900 litres 16, 900 litres 17, 900 litres 18, 900 litres

Answer: Option D 25. The condition not applicable to water cement ratio law, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. internal moisture conditions on hydration continue till complete strength is gained concrete specimens may be tested at any temperature concrete specimens need be of same age concrete specimens need be of same size none of these.

Answer: Option B 26. High temperature [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. increases the strength of concrete decreases the strength of concrete has no effect on the strength of concrete none of these.

Answer: Option B 27. The bulk density of aggregates, is generally expressed as [A]. [B]. [C]. tonnes/cubic metre kg/cubic metre kg/litre

[D]. [E].

g/cm3 none of these.

Answer: Option C 28. The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 100 kg/cm2 150 kg/cm2 200 kg/cm2 250 kg/cm2 300 kg/cm2

Answer: Option B 29. Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shear strength tensile strength compressive strength none of these.

Answer: Option A 30. The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. smooth granular glassy honey combed and porous.

Answer: Option C

31. To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine grained [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Granite Magnetite Barite Volcanic scoria.

Answer: Option A 32. Concrete containing [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. silicious aggregates, has higher co-efficient of expansion igneous aggregates, has intermediate coefficient of expansion lime stones, has lowest co-efficient of expansion All the above.

Answer: Option D 33. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S. seive No. 9, more than [A]. [C]. [E]. 5% 15% 25% [B]. [D]. 10% 20%

Answer: Option B 34. The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are : 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 [A]. cm [B]. [C]. [D]. 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm

[E].

30 cm, 20 cm, 10 cm

Answer: Option A 35. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. tensile strength test slump test compaction factor test flexural strength test none of these.

Answer: Option C 36. While designing an air entrained concrete [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. water cement ratio is reduced proportion of aggregates is reduced an allowance for the entrained air is made strength of the concrete, is reduced all the above.

Answer: Option E 37. Pick up the incorrect statemnt from the following. For performing compressive strength test of cement cement and standard sand mortar are used in the [A]. ratio of 1 : 3

[B].

water is added at the rate of + 3.0 percentage of water where P is the percentage of water for standard consistency A cube mould of 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm is used The perpared moulds are kept in a atmosphere of 50% relative humidity

[C]. [D].

[E].

The temperature of water in the submerged tank for curing moulds, should be 27 2C.

Answer: Option A 38. For concreting tunnel linings, tran-portation of concrete is done by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. pans wheel borrows containers pumps belt conveyors.

Answer: Option D 39. The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform concrete surface, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. floating screeding trowelling finishing none of these.

Answer: Option B 40. The void ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. single size coarse aggregate is roughly 0.45. graded coarse aggregate is roughly 0.040 fine aggregate is roughly 0.45 all the above.

Answer: Option D

41. The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength concrete and for pavements subjected to tension, is rounded [A]. aggregate [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. irregular aggregate angular aggregate flaky aggregate none of these.

Answer: Option A 42. For the construction of R.C.C. slabs, columns, beams, walls, etc. the grade of concrete mix used, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1:3:6

1: 1:2:4 1:1:2 1 : 4 : 8.

:3

Answer: Option C 43. The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which contain less voids when compacted, are rounded [A]. spherical [B]. [C]. [D]. irregular flaky none of these.

Answer: Option A 44. For the construction of cement con-certe dams, the maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

40 mm 50 mm 60 mm 70 mm 80 mm

Answer: Option A 45. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 100 kg/cm2 150 kg/cm2 200 kg/cm2 250 kg/cm2 300 kg/cm2

Answer: Option D 46. For preparing a test-specimen, it is necessary [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. to mix cement and fine aggregate by dry hand to mix coarse aggregates to mix water to the cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates to oil inner surface of the mould and the base plate, before placing concrete all the above.

Answer: Option E 47. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its suface dry, is known as [A]. [B]. moist aggregates very dry aggregates

[C]. [D]. [E].

dry aggregates saturated surface dry aggregate none of these.

Answer: Option D 48. The commercial name of white and coloured cement in India, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. colocrete rainbow cement silvicrete snowcem all the above.

Answer: Option E 49. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. An increase in water content must be accompanied by an increase in cement content Angular and rough aggregates reduce the workability of the concrete Large size aggregates increase the workability due to lesser surface area The slump of the concrete mix decreases due to an increase in temperature All the above.

Answer: Option E 50. To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is [A]. [B]. [C]. 100 kg 110 kg 120 kg

[D]. [E].

130 kg 140 kg

Answer: Option D Section 4 1. Concrete gains strength due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates evaporation of water from concrete hydration of cement All the above.

Answer: Option C 2. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 20.5 mm 30.5 mm 40.5 mm 50.5 mm none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 60+75 = 135. 135/2 = 67.5. 3/5*67.5 = 40.5. 3. Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete [A]. porous

[B]. [C]. [D].

non-homogeneous reduced strength all the above.

Answer: Option D 4. Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. crushing strength impact value abrasion resistance water absorption none of these.

Answer: Option C 5. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. very fine sand fine sand medium sand coarse sand very coarse sand.

Answer: Option B 6. Pozzolanic properties exist in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shales fly ash pumicite diatomaceous clay

[E].

all the above.

Answer: Option E 7. An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve and is retained on 20 mm sieve, is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 22.5 mm 18.5 mm 16.5 mm 15.5 mm 13.5 mm.

Answer: Option E 8. Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10 m 15 m 15 m 35 m 45 m

Answer: Option E 9. Workability improved by adding [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. fly ash hydrated lime calcium chloride bentonite all the above.

Answer: Option E

Explanation: Bentonite reduces the workability. 10. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. very low low medium high none of these.

Answer: Option C 11. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Sand obtained from pits, is washed to remove clay and silt Sand obtained from flooded pits, need not be washed before use Sea shore sand contains chlorides which cause effloresance The chloride in sea shore sand and shingle may cause corrosion of reinforcement if the concrete is porous All the above.

Answer: Option E 12. The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. grading of aggregates surface area of aggregates shape of aggregates surface texture of aggregates all the above.

Answer: Option E

13. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land Cement should not take more than 30 [A]. minutes [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 40 minutes 60 minutes 75 minutes 90 minutes.

Answer: Option A 14. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. While performing preliminary test on concrete [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. proportions of the material and water should be the same as to be used at the work site cement should be mixed by hand in order to maintain uniformity concrete mix should be stored in air-tight containers concrete ingredients should be kept at a temperature of 37 2C none of these.

Answer: Option D 15. Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Zone I Zone II Zone III Zone IV.

Answer: Option A 16. Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

lime stone and clay gypsum and lime pozzolana lime, pozzolana and clay.

Answer: Option B Explanation: Option B may be correct but one should also bear in the mind that for ordinary cement concrete there are two important ingredients 1) argillaceous. 2) calcareous. 17. A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. equal to the mean size twice the mean size thrice the mean size four times the mean size five times the mean size.

Answer: Option B 18. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is 100 [A]. cm [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 125 cm 150 cm 200 cm 250 cm

Answer: Option A

19. If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the grade of concrete, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. M 100 M 150 M 200 M 250 M 300

Answer: Option A 20. Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of water required per [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10 kg 20 kg 30 kg 40 kg 50 kg

Answer: Option E 21. For a good concrete [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. aggregates should be hard and durable cement should be sufficient to produce the required strength water should be free from organic materials mixing of ingredients should be done thoroughly so as to produce homogeneity All the above.

Answer: Option E 22. If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted is 270 cm, the number of cement bags to be stored, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

2000 bags 2200 bags 2400 bags 2700 bags 3000 bags

Answer: Option D 23. Gypsum is added for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. colour strength controlling setting time none of these.

Answer: Option C 24. A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. dry earth moist semi-plastic plastic none of these.

Answer: Option D 25. Strength of concrete with passage of time [A]. [B]. [C]. increases decreases fluctuates

[D].

remains constant.

Answer: Option A 26. Cement used for normal concrete construction, is obtained by burning a mixture of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. silicious and argillaceous materials argilaceous and calcareous materials silicious and catcareous materials silicious, argillaceous and calcareous materials none of these.

Answer: Option D 27. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement The concrete cured at a temperature below 23C, gains strength up to 28 days The concrete does not set at freezing point The strength of concrete increases with its age All the above.

Answer: Option E 28. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Admixtures accelerate [A]. hydration [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Admixtures make concrete water proof Admixtures make concrete acid proof Admixtures give high strength None of these.

Answer: Option A 29. Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. made with cement concrete thick and reinfored thin and heavily reinforced thick and heavily reinfored.

Answer: Option D 30. Setting time of cement decreases by adding [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. gypsum hydrogen peroxide calcium chloride sodium oxide none of these.

Answer: Option A 31. The dimensions of a 35 litre forma for measuring aggregates by volume, are : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. length 30 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 30 cm length 39 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 32 cm length 27 cm, breadth 27 cm, height 48 cm length 220 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 40 cm none of these.

Answer: Option C 32. The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be removed after [A]. 5 days

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

7 days 10 days 14 days 21 days

Answer: Option B 33. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. There should not be any loss of cement from the charged drum of the mixer Cement should be mixed for at least one minute 10% of water is placed in the rotating drum before adding dry material 10% of water is added after placing the other ingredients in the drum All the above.

Answer: Option E 34. If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse agregates are mixed in a concrete whose water cement ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 8 kg 10 kg 12 kg 14 kg 15 kg.

Answer: Option C 35. The entrained air in concrete increases [A]. workability [B]. decreases workability

[C]. [D]. [E].

decreases resistance to weathering increases strength neither affects workability nor strength.

Answer: Option A 36. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) hydrates rapidly Tricalcium silicate (C3S) generates more heat of hydration Tricalcium silicate (C3S) develops early strength Tricalcium silicate (C3S) has more resistance to sulphate attack None of these.

Answer: Option D 37. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 100 kg/cm2 150 kg/cm2 200 kg/cm2 250 kg/cm2 300 kg/cm2

Answer: Option B 38. In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm diameter for [A]. [B]. [C]. 20 times 25 times 30 times

[D]. [E].

40 times 50 times

Answer: Option B 39. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The diameter of the pipe line used for transportation of concrete by pumps does not exceed 30 cm The slump of the concrete to be pumped, should not be less that 5 cm and more than 8 cm The water cement ratio of concrete to be pumped is kept between 0.5 to 0.65 Number of bends provided in the pipe line should be minimum (e) All the above.

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option E 40. If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the coefficient of variation is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10% 12.5% 15% 18.5 % 20%

Answer: Option B Explanation: Co-efficient of variation: 500/4000 =0 .125*100 = 12.5. 41. For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used, is [A]. [B]. 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement

[C]. [D]. [E].

5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement none of these.

Answer: Option C 42. Setting time of cement increases by adding [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. gypsum calcium chloride sodium oxide calcium sulphate none of these

Answer: Option B 43. According to IS : 382-1963, a good aggregate should be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. chemically inert sufficiently strong hard and durable all the above.

Answer: Option D 44. The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for gravity dams should be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. between 150 to 300 kg/cm2 between 350 to 600 kg/cm2 between 150 to 500 kg/cm2 below 200 kg/cm2

[E].

none of these.

Answer: Option D 45. If P, Y and Z are the weights of cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates respetively and W/C is the water cement ratio, the minimum quantity of water to be added to first batch, is obtained by the equation [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.1P + 0.3Y + 0.1Z = W/C x P 0.3P + 0.1Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P 0.4P + 0.2Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P 0.5P + 0.3Y + 0.01Z = W/C x P 0.2P + 0.5Y + 0.1Z = W/C x P

Answer: Option B 46. For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of cement to be avoided, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. ordinary Portland cement rapid hardening cement low heat cement blast furnace slag cement sulphate resisting cement.

Answer: Option D 47. Vicat apparatus is used for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. fineness test consistency test test for setting time test for tensile strength none of these.

Answer: Option B 48. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Space between the exterior walls of a warechouse and bag piles should be 30 cm Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of the adjacent layer Width and height of the pile should not exceed 3 m and 2.70 m respectively None of these.

Answer: Option E 49. For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1:3:6 1 : 2 :4 1: 1:l:2 1 : 4 : 8. :3

Answer: Option C 50. An ideal ware house, is provided [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. water proof masonry walls water proof roof few windows which remain generally closed 15 cm thick concrete floor laid on a dry course of soling all the above.

Answer: Option E

Section 5 1. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by a vibrator if it is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. dry earth moist semi-plastic plastic none of these.

Answer: Option D 2. Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. water cement aggregate none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: The aggregates chosen for mix should be inert (not reacting with any other substances). However it is the skeleton form of the Concrete. It plays crucial role in strength of concrete. 3. Sands of zone I are [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. coarse medium medium to fine fine.

Answer: Option A

The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. smaller creep and shrinkage greater density and smaller permeability improved frost resistance greater wear resistance and improved bond strength all the above.

Answer: Option E 5. The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds [A]. [C]. [E]. 1% 3% 5% [B]. [D]. 2% 4%

Answer: Option E 6. A concrete using an air entrained cement [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. has strength less than 10% to 15% has more resistance to weathering is more plastic and workable is free from segregation and bleeding all the above.

Answer: Option C 7. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The maximum size of a coarse aggregate, is 75 mm and minimum 4.75 mm The maximum size of the fine aggregate, is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.075 mm The material having particles of size varying from

[B]. [C].

0.06 mm to 0.002 mm, is known as silt [D]. [E]. The material having particles of size less than 0.002 mm, is known as clay All the above.

Answer: Option E 8. Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a temperature of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0C 10C 20C 23C 27 2C

Answer: Option E 9. The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. building concrete is less than 45 road pavement concrete is less than 30 runway concrete is less than 30 all the above.

Answer: Option D 10. The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. magnesium oxide iron oxide aluminium lime

[E].

silica.

Answer: Option D 11. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains Concrete mix 1 : 6 : 12, is used for mass concrete in piers. All the above.

Answer: Option E 12. Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. nala beds river beds sea beds all the above none of these.

Answer: Option C 13. The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time and strength of concrete, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. sodium sulphates sodium chlorides sodium carbonates and bicarbonates calcium chorides calcium bicarbonates

Answer: Option C

14. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. Continuous grading is not necessary for obtaining a minimum of air voids The omission of a certain size of aggregate is shown by a straight horizontal line on the grading curve The omission of a certain size of aggregate in concrete increases the workability but also increases the liability to segregation All the above.

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 15. Di-calcium silicate (C2S) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. hydrates rapidly generates less heat of hydration hardens rapidly provides less ultimate strength to cement has less resistance to sulphate attack.

Answer: Option B 16. On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. a horizontal line a vertical line N.W. inclined line N.E. inclined line none of these.

Answer: Option A 17. Bulking of sand is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

mixing of different sizes of sand particles mixing of lime with sand maximum water with sand swelling of sand when wetted.

Answer: Option D 18. Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. membrane method ponding method covering surface with bags sprinkling water method shading concrete method.

Answer: Option B 19. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: With passage of time, the strength of [A]. cement increases [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50% The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement, gains strength with time None of these.

Answer: Option A 20. The surface where two successive placements of concrete meet, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. Contraction joint Expansion joint Construction

joint [D]. [E]. both (a) and (b) both (6) and (c).

Answer: Option C 21. An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. decreases the workability increases the quantity of water and sand affects the durability of concrete more than 15% are not desirable all the above.

Answer: Option E 22. 1.S.I. has specified the full strength of concrete after [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 7 days 14 days 21 days 28 days 35 days

Answer: Option D 23. For given workability the grading requiring the least amount of water is one that gives greatest surface area for the given cement and [A]. aggregates [B]. [C]. [D]. least surface area for the given cement and aggregates least weight for the given cement and aggregates greatest weight for the given cement and aggregates

[E].

none of these.

Answer: Option A 24. The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of magnesium [A]. oxide [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. iron oxide alumina lime silica.

Answer: Option A 25. The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. weight 50 kg height 18 cm plan area 3000 sq. cm volume 35 litres all the above.

Answer: Option E 26. The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shape grading compaction all the above.

Answer: Option D 27. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

[A].

The bulk density of fine aggregate is usually about 10 per cent more than that of coarse aggregate of similar composition The specific gravity of aggregate is important for the determination of the moisture content The absorption and porosity of an aggregate influence the property of the concrete A highly absorptive aggregate reduces the workability of concrete considerably All the above.

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 28. Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. soffit level window sill level floor level all the above.

Answer: Option D 29. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom haunching Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middel third Constructionjoints are generally provided in positions subjected to least shear force All the above.

Answer: Option E 30. For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, the quantity of water required per bag, is [A]. [B]. 10 kg 12 kg

[C]. [D]. [E].

14 kg 16 kg 20 kg

Answer: Option C 31. The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish, possess [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. segregation internal friction hardness bleeding none of these.

Answer: Option C 32. Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. soundness of cement hardness of cement strength of cement durability of cement.

Answer: Option A 33. 'Ware house pack' of cement means [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. full capacity of the ware house pressure exertion of the bags of upper layers pressure compaction of the bags on lower layers packing the ware house none of these.

Answer: Option C 34. In the method of voids for determination of the quantity of cement paste, it is assumed that [A]. [B]. [C]. Voids in coarse aggregates are filled by fine aggregates Voids in fine aggregates are filled by the cement paste Volume of fine aggregates is equal to total voids in coarse aggregates plus 10% extra Volume of cement paste required is equal to total volume of voids in fine aggregates plus 15% extra All the above.

[D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 35. If a grading curve is horizontal bet-wen the portions of 20 mm I.S. Sieve and 4.75 mm I.S. Sieve, the graded aggregates do not contain [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 20 mm particles 10 mm particles 4.75 mm particles all the above.

Answer: Option D 36. The size of fine aggregates does not exceed [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 2.75 mm 3.00 mm 3.75 mm 4.75 mm 5.75 mm

Answer: Option D

37. An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is more than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 4.75 mm 30 mm 60 mm 75 mm 90 mm.

Answer: Option D 38. The main object of compaction of concrete, is: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. to eliminate air holes to achieve maximum density to provide initimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials all the above.

Answer: Option D 39. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The quality of water governs the strength of concrete The quantity of water required for concreting, depends upon the grading of aggregate amd method of compaction 10% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 15% 30% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 50% All the above.

Answer: Option E 40. Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of [A]. [B]. clay sand

[C]. [D].

gravel none of these.

Answer: Option A

Hydraulics SECTION 1 1. A pitot tube is used to measure [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pressure difference in pressure velocity of flow none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: Pitot tube is used for to find out the velocity of the flow pipes or soil etc. 2. The thickness of a sharp crested weir is kept less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. one-third of the height of water on the sill one-half of the height of water on the sill one-fourth of the height of water on the sill two-third of the height of water on the sill none of these.

Answer: Option B 3. The property of steam function is : [A]. is constant everwhere on any stream line

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

the flow around any path in the fluid is zero for continuous flow the rate of change of with distance in an arbitrary direction, is proportional to the component of velocity normal to that direction the velocity vector may be found by differentiating the stream function all the above.

Answer: Option E 4. The maximum vacuum created at the summit of a syphon is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2.7 m of water 7.4 m of water 5.5 m of water none.

Answer: Option B 5. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.1 kg/cm 2, the pressure at a depth of 2.5 m, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1 metre of water 2 metres of water 3 metres of water 3.5 metres of water 4.0 metres of water.

Answer: Option C 6. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at its centroid, if

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

area is horizontal area is vertical area is inclined all the above.

Answer: Option D 7. If the volume of a liquid weighing 3000 kg is 4 cubic metres, 0.75 is its [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. specific weight specific mass specific gravity none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: Density of liquid = m/v = 3000/4 = 750kg/m3 Density of liquid/density of water = 750/1000 = 0.75 = specific gravity.

8. Bernoulli's equation assumes that [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. fluid is non-viscous fluid is homogeneous flow is steady flow is along the stream line all the above.

Answer: Option E

9. The time required to close a valve gradually is (where L is the length of pipe and C = velocity of pressure wave) [A].

[B]. [C]. [D].

> <

Answer: Option C 10. A syphon is used to connect water reservoirs at different levels [A]. intervened by a hill [B]. [C]. [D]. to supply water to a town from higher level to lower level to fill up a tank with water at higher level from a lower level none of these.

Answer: Option A 11. Most economical section of a circular channel for maximum discharge [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. depth of water = 0.95 diameter of circular section hydraulic mean depth = 0.286 diameter of circular section wetted perimeter = 2.6 diameter of circular section wetted perimeter = 2.83 depth of water all the above.

Answer: Option E 12. Unit of kinematic viscosity is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

m2/sec Newton sec/m2 Newton sec/m3 Kg sec/m2.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Unit of dynamic viscosity = Ns/m2. Unit of density = kg/m3. Now, kinetic viscosity = dynamic viscosity/density. = (N sec/m2)/(kg/m3). = (mass x gravity x sec/m2)/(kg/m3). = (kg x m/sec2) x (sec/m2)/(kg/m3). = m2/sec. 13. The moment of inertia of a floating body along its longitudinal axis and the volume of water displaced by it are I and V respectively. The height of the metacentre above centre of buoyancy of the body, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

[E].

Answer: Option C 14. Time of emptying liquid from a hemispherical vessel through an orifice at its bottom, is

[A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. Answer: Option D 15. Critical depth (h) of a channel, is [A]. [B].

[C]. [D]. Answer: Option A 16. The ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity of viscous fluid through a circular pipe is [A]. [C]. 0.5 1.25 [B]. [D]. 0.75 2.00

Answer: Option D 17. The shear stress distribution in viscous fluid through a circular pipe is : [A]. [B]. maximum at the centre maximum at the inside of surface

[C]. [D].

same throughout the section none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. The expression is given as: Tau = del(p)/del(x) * r/2. where r = distance from the central axis. So the answer should be B. 2. Shear stress is maximum at the pipe faces and will be minimum at the center. Velocity will be max at the center and minimum at the face of pipe. 3. The answer is correct; the velocity is maximum @ the centre hence the shear stress being proportional to the velocity gradient is also maximum.

18. Product of Renold number, Froud's number and Mach number is : [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 19. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. For tranquil flow h > 2g or v <

[B]. [C]. [D].

For critical flow For torrential flow h > None of these. or v < gh

Answer: Option B 20. The side slope of Cipolletti weir is generally kept [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1 to 4 1 to 3 1 to 2 1:5

Answer: Option A 21. A cylinder 3 m in diameter and 4 m long retains water one side as shown in the below figure. If the weight of the cylinder is 2000 kgf, the horizontal reaction at B is

[A]. [B]. [C].

10,000 kgf 15,000 kgf 20,000 kgf

[D].

18,000 kgf.

Answer: Option D 22. Inside pressure in a hollow soap bubble in the air is : (where d is the diameter of the bubble) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option D 23. The momentum correction factor () for the viscous flow through a circular pipe is [A]. [C]. [E]. 1.25 1.50 2.00 [B]. [D]. 1.33 1.66

Answer: Option B 24. A piezometer opening in pipes measures [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. velocity head static pressure total pressure negative static pressure.

Answer: Option B 25. An independent mass of a fluid does not posses

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

elevation energy kinetic energy pressure energy none of these.

Answer: Option C 26. While applying the Bernoulli's equation any section done on the flow system, if any [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. is added on the right side of the equation is added on the left side of the equation is ignored none of these. = total head, the work

Answer: Option B Explanation: I think the answer to this question is wrong, because, Bernoulli's equation represents conservation of energy. When a fluid does work, it is usually accompanied with some loss of energy which should be added to the right side of the equation. 27. Discharge Q over a rectangular weir of length L and height H, is given by the equation [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. all the above. Q = 2/3 Cd2g LH3/2 Q = 2/3 CdL H2gH

Answer: Option D

28. A short tube mouthpiece will not run full at its outlet if the head under which the orifice works, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. less than 12.2 m of the water more than 12.2 m of the water equal of 12.2 m of water none of these.

Answer: Option B 29. Hydrostatic pressure on a dam depends upon its [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. length depth shape material both (b) and (c).

Answer: Option E 30. When two layers of a fluid separated by dy move over the other with a difference of velocity dv, causes a shearing stress [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. coefficient of viscosity absolute viscosity dynamic viscosity viscosity all the above. , where is known as

Answer: Option E 31. A pipe of 0.1 m2 cross sectional area suddenly enlarges to 0.3 m2 cross-sectional area. If the

discharge of the pipe is 0.3 m3 /sec, the head loss is 2g m of [A]. water [B]. [C]. [D]. g/2 m of water 1g m of water g m of water.

Answer: Option A 32. Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through a pipe, is [A]. [C]. 25% 50% [B]. [D]. 33.3% 66.67%.

Answer: Option D 33. An ideal flow of a liquid obeys Continuity [A]. equation [B]. [C]. [D]. Newton's law of viscosity Newton's second law of motion dynamic viscosity law,

Answer: Option A 34. Euler's equation for motion of liquids, is given by [A].

[B]. [C].

[D].

dp + gdz + vdv = 0

Answer: Option C 35. Reynold number is the ratio of initial force and [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. viscosity elasticity gravitational force surface tension.

Answer: Option A 36. When a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it is buoyed up by a force equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. weight of the body weight of the fluid displaced by the body weight of the body and fluild displaced by the body difference of weights of the fluid displaced and that of the body none of these.

Answer: Option B 37. If D is the diameter of a pipe of length L and f is the coefficient of friction of pipe then diameter of the nozzle d is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option A 38. If the total head of the nozzle of a pipe is 37.5 m and discharge is 1 cumec, the power generated is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 400 H.P. 450 H.P. 500 H.P. 550 H.P.

Answer: Option C 39. The phenomenon occuring in an open channel when a rapidly flowing stream abruptly changes to a slowly flowing stream causing a distinct rise of liquid surface, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. water hammer hydraulic jump critical discharge none of these.

Answer: Option B 40. In a circular pipe of length L and diameter d, a viscous liquid is flowing with a velocityv. The loss in head, is [A]. [B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option A 41. The horizontal component of the force on a curved surface is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. weight of liquid vertically below the curved surface force on a vetical projection of the curved surface product of pressure at its centroid and the area weight of liquid retained by the curved area.

Answer: Option D 42. The radius of gyration of the water line of a floating ship is 4 m and its metacentric height is 72.5 cm. The period of oscillation of the ship, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 3 /2 [B]. [D]. 2 4

Answer: Option C 43. A pipe consisting of several pipes of varying diameters and lengths, may be replaced by an equivalent pipe of diameter D of length [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 44. The Empirical formula weirs, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Francis formula Bazin formula Rehbook formula Kutter's formula. for discharge over large rectangular

Answer: Option B 45. The diameter (d) of a nozzle fixed at the end of a pipe (diameter D, length L) for maximum energy, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 46. Pick up the correct statement regarding Borda's mouth piece running full from the following : [A]. Actual velocity at the out let is gH

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Theoretical velocity at the outlet is 2gH Coefficient of velocity is 1/2 Coefficient of contraction is 1 All the above.

Answer: Option E 47. Differential manometers are used to measure [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pressure in water channels, pipes, etc. difference in pressure at two points atmospheric pressure very low pressure.

Answer: Option B 48. A tank 4m x 3m x 2m containing an oil of specific gravity 0.83 is moved with an acceleration g/2 m sec2. The ratio of the pressures at its bottom when it is moving vertically up and down, is [A]. [C]. 2 1/2 [B]. [D]. 3 1/3

Answer: Option B 49. The most familiar form of Bernoulli's equation, is [A].

[B].

[C]. head [D]. none of these.

= constant

Answer: Option C 50. Highest dam in India, is Bhakra [A]. dam [B]. [C]. [D]. Hirakund dam Nagarjuna Sagar dam Iddiki dam.

Answer: Option A Section - 2 1. Liquids [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. cannot be compressed do not occupy definite shape are not affected by change in pressure and temperature none of these.

Answer: Option B 2. The ratio of the percentagge error in the discharge and percentage error in the measurement of head over a triangular notch, is [A]. [C]. 2/3 2/5 [B]. [D]. 3/2 5/2

Answer: Option D 3. The ratio of the inertia and gravitational force acting in any flow, ignoring other forces, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Euler number Frode number Reynold number Weber number.

Answer: Option B 4. A rectangular channel 6 m wide and 3 m deep and having a bed slope as 1 in 2000 is running full. If Chezy's constant C = 54.8, pick up the correct specification of the channel from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. hydraulic mean depth = 1.5 m Velocity of flow = 1.5 m/sec Rate of flow = 27 m3/sec All the above.

Answer: Option D 5. Non-over flow double curvature concrete arch, is provided in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Bhakra dam Hirakund dam Nagarjuna Sagar dam Iddiki dam.

Answer: Option D 6. For the most economical trapezoidal open channel,

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

half of the top width must be equal to one of the sloping sides the hydraulic mean depth must be equal to half the depth of flow the semicircle drawn with top width as diameter must touch the three sides of the channel All of these.

Answer: Option D 7. Hydraulic ram is a device for lifting water without an [A]. electric motor [B]. [C]. [D]. for accelerating water flow for lifting heavy loads none of these.

Answer: Option A 8. Gauge pressure is absolute pressure - atmospheric [A]. pressure [B]. [C]. [D]. absolute pressure + atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure - absolute pressure none of these.

Answer: Option A 9. The mouth piece shown in the below figure is generally known as

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Internal mouth piece Re-entrant mouth piece Borda's mouth piece All the above.

Answer: Option D 10. If S is the length of the crest, H is the height of water source of a weir whose length is L and discharge is Q m3/sec, the velocity of approach Vd is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. none of these. 2gH

Answer: Option C 11. If jet of water coming out from a nozzle with a velocity 9.81 m/s, the angle of elevation being 30, the time to reach the highest point is [A]. 0.25 s

[B]. [C]. [D].

0.50 s 1.0 s 1.5 s.

Answer: Option B 12. The discharge through a 100 mm diameter external mouth piece fitted to the side of a large vessel is 0.05948 m3/s. The head over the mouth piece is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2m 2.5 m 3.0 m 4.0 m.

Answer: Option D 13. If cohesion between the molecules of a fluid is more than adhesion between the fluid and glass, the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. higher than the surface of liquid same as the surface of liquid lower than the surface of liquid none of these.

Answer: Option C 14. The continuity equation [A]. [B]. [C]. expresses the relationship between work and energy relates the momentum per unit volume between two points on a stream line relates mass rate of flow along a stream line

[D].

requires that Newton's second law of motion be satisfied at every point in fluid.

Answer: Option C 15. Water displaced by a floating wooden block of density 0.75, 5 m long, 2 m wide and 3 m high, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 17.5 m3 20.0 m3 22.5 m3 25 km3.

Answer: Option C 16. In pipe lines, a surge tank is provided to relieve the pressure due to water [A]. hammer [B]. [C]. [D]. to provide additional water head to overflow the pipe line when suddenly closed to remove the frictional loss in pipe.

Answer: Option A 17. Total head of a liquid particle in motion is the sum of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. potential head and kinetic head kinetic head and pressure head potential head and pressure head potential head, kinetic head and pressure head.

Answer: Option D

18. The velocity distribution of viscous fluid through a circular/pipe is : [A]. [C]. hyperbolic parabolic [B]. [D]. circular elliptical.

Answer: Option C 19. If u, v, w are the components of the velocity v of a moving particle, the equation [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. one diamensional flow two dimensional flow three dimensional flow none of these. represents

Answer: Option C 20. Mercury is generally used in barometers because [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. its vaour pressure is practically zero the height of the barometer will be less it is a best liquid both (a) and (b) above both (b) and (c) above.

Answer: Option D 21. Flow in pipes is laminar if Reynold number is less than [A]. 2100 [B]. more than 3000

[C]. [D].

between 2100 and 3000 none of these.

Answer: Option A 22. The terminal velocity (v) of a sphere of radius r and specific weight W, which travels vertically downwards in a liquid of viscosity and specific weight W, is [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 23. In flow, the liquid particles may possess [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. potential energy kinetic energy pressure energy all the above.

Answer: Option D 24. Euler's equation for the motion of liquids assumes that [A]. [B]. [C]. fluid is viscous fluid is homogeneous and incompressible velocity of flow is non-uniform over the section

[D].

flow is unsteady along the stream line.

Answer: Option B 25. The height of water level in a tank above the centre of a circular hole 2.5 cm in diameter is 50 m. The velocity of water flowing through the hole, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 31.1 m/sec 31.2 m/sec 31.3 m/sec 31.4 m/sec.

Answer: Option C 26. A steady uniform flow is through [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. a long pipe at decreasing rate a long pipe at constant rate an expanding tube at constant rate an expanding tube at increasing rate a long pipe at increasing rate.

Answer: Option B 27. Cavitation is caused by Low [A]. pressure [B]. [C]. [D]. High pressure Low velocity High velocity

[E].

None of these.

Answer: Option A 28. Mach number is the ratio of inertia force to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. viscosity surface tension gravitational force elasticity.

Answer: Option D 29. Hydraulic gradient is equal to difference in water surfaces [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 30. The main assumption of Bernoulli's equation is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The velocity of energy of liquid particle, across any cross-section of a pipe is uniform No external force except the gravity acts on the liquid There is no loss of energy of the liquid while flowing All the above.

Answer: Option D 31. The valve closure is said to be sudden if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option B 32. If Re is the Renold's number, the coefficient of friction for laminar flow is [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. Answer: Option D 33. The length of pipe is L, velocity of flow of a liquid in the pipe is V. If t is the time in second required to close the valve, the head of pressure [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option A 34. For critical depth of flow of water in open channels, fc the specific energy must be : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. minimum maximum average of maximum and minimum None of these.

Answer: Option A 35. Kinematic viscosity of liquids by equation is determined by : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Redwood viscometer Engler viscometer Saybolt universal viscometer None of these.

Answer: Option C 36. If the forces are due to inertia and gravity, and frictional resistance plays only a minor role, the design of the channels is made by comparing [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Reynold number Froude number Weber number Mach number.

Answer: Option B

37. The discharge over a Cipolletti weir of length 2.185 m when the head over the weir is 1 m, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2.0 m3 2.5 m3 3.0 m3 4.0 m3.

Answer: Option D 38. The velocity of the fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. minimum maximum equal throughout none of these.

Answer: Option B 39. Due to decrease of diameter of the droplet, inside pressure intensity [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. increases decreases remains unaffected None of these.

Answer: Option A 40. In order to avoid capillary correction, the minimum diameter of a manometer used for measuring pressure, should be [A]. [B]. 2 mm 4 mm

[C]. [D]. [E].

6 mm 8 mm 10 mm.

Answer: Option C 41. When water flows over a rectangular suppressed weir, the negative pressure created beneath the nappe increases the [A]. discharge [B]. [C]. [D]. decreases the discharge does not effect the discharge none of these.

Answer: Option A 42. Barometres are used to measure [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. pressure in water channels, pipes etc. difference in pressure at two points atmospheric pressure very low pressure very high pressure.

Answer: Option C 43. For most economical rectangular section of a channel, the depth is kept [A]. [B]. [C]. one-fourth of the width three times the hydraulic radius half the

width [D]. [E]. hydraulic mean depth none of these.

Answer: Option C 44. In a centrifugual pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. rectilinear flow radial flow free vortex motion forced vertex.

Answer: Option C 45. In fluids, steady flow occurs when [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. conditions of flow change steadily with time conditions of flow do not change with time at a point conditions of flow remain the same at adjacent point velocity vector remains constant at a point.

Answer: Option B 46. A cylinder 3 m in diameter and 4 m long retains water one side as shown in the below figure. If the weight of the cylinder is 2000 kgf, the vertical reaction at A is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

14,137 kgf 5,863 kgf 20,000 kgf 18,000 kgf.

Answer: Option B 47. From a nozzle exposed to atmosphere, the liquid jet traverses [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a straight line a circular path an elliptical path a parabolic path.

Answer: Option D 48. To avoid the force of surface tension in an inclined manometer, the minimum angle of inclination is [A]. [C]. 2 4 [B]. [D]. 3 5

Answer: Option C

49. An orifice is taken as large if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. (H2 - H1) > H (H2 - H1) > H/4 (H2 - H1) > H/2 (H2 - H1) > H/3

Answer: Option D 50. A closed cylindrical vessel of 100 cm diameter and 200 cm high is completely filled with a liquid (sp. weight 1600 kg/m 3) when rotated about its vertical axis at 100 r.p.m. The total pressure on its lid, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 459 kg 549 kg 945 kg 954 kg 95.4 kg.

Answer: Option D SECTION - 3 1. For exerting a pressure of 4.8 kg/cm2, the depth of oil (specific gravity 0.8), should be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 40 cm 41 cm 56 cm 60 cm 76 cm.

Answer: Option D 2. A cylindrical vessel 40 cm high is revolved about its vertical axis so that the water touches the bottom when it just spills out. If the radius of the cylinder is 5 cm, the angular velocity of rotation, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 2 rad/sec 3 rad/sec 4 rad/sec 5 rad/sec none of these.

Answer: Option A 3. For the flow of liquid from an open ended tube (or nozzle) leading to the formation of spray of liquid drops, the number generally applied, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Froude number Weber number Reynold number Mach number.

Answer: Option B 4. In Newton's viscosity equation known as coefficient of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. viscosity absolute viscosity dynamic viscosity simple viscosity , the coefficient () is

[E].

all the above.

Answer: Option E 5. An error of 1% in measuring the head of water over the crest of a triangular notch, produces an error in the discharge which is equal to [A]. [C]. 1.25% 2.0%. [B]. [D]. 1.5% 2.5%

Answer: Option D 6. Which one of the following equation is applicable to unsteady flow in open channels : [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. Answer: Option D Explanation: It means discharge is also depends on time but according to continuity equation discharge remains constant.

7. Dimensions of the dynamic viscosity () are [A]. [C]. MLT-2 ML-1T-1 [B]. [D]. M-1L-1T-1 ML-1T-1.

Answer: Option D

8. To avoid vapourisation, pipe lines are laid over the ridge so that these are above the hydraulic gradient line, not more than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2.4 m 6.4 m 10.0 m 5.0 m.

Answer: Option B 9. A jet projected at an angle of 45, 40 m from the foot of a vertical column, just reaches the top of the column. The height of the column is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 15 m 20 m 30 m 40 m 60 m.

Answer: Option D 10. If Cv, Cc, Cd and Cr are the hydraulic coefficients of an orifice, then [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Cd = Cc . Cv Cr = 1 + Cv2/Cd Cv = Cc + Cd Cc = Cv/Cd

Answer: Option A 11. Atmospheric pressure varies with

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

altitude temperature weather conditions none of these.

Answer: Option D 12. The magnitude of water hammer in a pipe depends upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. speed at which value is closed length of the pipe line elastic properties of the pipe material elastic properties of the following liquid all the above.

Answer: Option E 13. If velocities of fluid particles vary from point to point in magnitude and direction, as well as from instant to instant, the flow is said to be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. laminar turbulent flow uniform flow non-uniform flow.

Answer: Option B 14. The rise of the liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder above the initial level, is [A]. [B]. greater than the depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation lesser than the depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation

[C]. [D].

the same as the depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation none of these.

Answer: Option C 15. Fluids change the volume under external pressure due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. plasticity viscosity compressibility none of these.

Answer: Option C 16. Discharge over an ogee weir remains the same as that of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sharp crested weir triangular weir cippoletti weir drowned weir.

Answer: Option C 17. When no air is left below the nappe and water stream adheres to the down stream face of the weir, it is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. free nappe depressed nappe clinging nappe none of these.

Answer: Option C 18. The best side slope for most economical trapezoidal section, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 30 45 60 None of these.

Answer: Option C 19. The following is not a laminar flow [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Flow of oil in measuring instruments Flow in beds in ground water Rise of water in plants through roots Flow of blood in the arteries of human body Flow in water pipe lines.

Answer: Option E 20. Which one of the following statements is true ? [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The value of kinetic energy correction factor for turbulent flow lies between 1.03 to 1.06 The value of kinetic energy correction factor for laminar flow is 2 The practical value of kinetic energy correction factor for turbulent flow is unity all the above.

Answer: Option D 21. Uniform flow is said to occur when

[A]. [B]. [C].

size and shape of the cross-section in a particular length remain constant size and shape of the cross-section change along a length frictional loss in the particular length of the channel will the more than the drop in its elevation frictional loss in the particular length of the channel, will be less than the drop in elevation.

[D].

Answer: Option A 22. For the most economical trapezoidal section of a channel with regards to discharge, the required condition, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. perpendiculars drawn from the centre of the top width on to the bottom sloping side, are all equal all the above. half of top width = sloping side hydraulic depth = half the depth

Answer: Option E 23. Molecules of fluids get attracted due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. capillarity action surface tension adhesion cohesion none of these.

Answer: Option C

24. Cappoletti weir is a [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. rectangular weir whose length is kept 3 times the height of the water above sill triangular weir whose notch angle is 90 trapezoidal weir, whose sides slope 1 horizontal to 2 verticals a combination of rectangular and triangular weirs.

Answer: Option C 25. On an inclined plane, centre of pressure is located [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at the centroid above the centroid below the centroid anywhere.

Answer: Option C 26. For pipes not running full, the hydraulic mean depth is given by [A]. [B]. m = r( - sin )

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B

27. Atmospheric pressure is equal to water column head of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 9.81 m 5.0 m 10.30 m 7.5 m.

Answer: Option C 28. Shear stress is directly proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. the velocity the shear strain the viscosity the velocity.

Answer: Option B 29. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at the inlet at the outlet at the summit at any point between intet and outlet.

Answer: Option C 30. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. Total energy gradient is the graphical representation of the total head at any section of a pipe line Vertical distance between the total energy line and hydraulic grade line is equal to the velocity head

[B].

[C]. [D].

Vertical distance between the total energy line and total energy gradient represents loss of head all the above.

Answer: Option D 31. A fluid particle may possess the displacement of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. translation rotation distortion all the above.

Answer: Option D 32. In Chezy's formula V = C mi [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. V is the mean velocity of flow m is the hydraulic mean depth i is the loss of head per unit length of pipe All the above.

Answer: Option D 33. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. When the length of the tube is equal to diameter of the internal mouth piece, the jet of liquid comes out without touching the sides of the tube When the length of the tube is three times the diameter of the internal mouth piece, the jet diameter is equal to diameter of the tube. both (a) and (b) Neither (a) nor (b).

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C 34. If total head available at the inlet of pipe and f1 is the loss of head due to friction in the pipe, the maximum efficiency of transmission of power (max) is [A]. [C]. 1/2 3/4 [B]. [D]. 2/3 4/5

Answer: Option B 35. Piezometers are used to measure [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pressure in water channels, pipes etc. difference in pressure at two points atmospheric pressure very low pressure.

Answer: Option D 36. Most economical section of a triangular channel, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. equilateral triangle right angled triangle isosceles triangle with 45 vertex angle right angled triangle with equal sides.

Answer: Option D 37. In an open tube, free surface of mercury remains [A]. [B]. horizontal curved upwards

[C]. [D].

curved downwards none of these.

Answer: Option C 38. The equation [A]. [C]. [E]. Bernoulli Chezy Helmholtz. for the viscosity, is suggested [B]. [D]. Newton Bezin

Answer: Option B 39. The value of momentum correction factor () for a laminar flow through a circular pipe, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 1/2 3/4 3/2 [B]. [D]. 2/3 4/3

Answer: Option D 40. Manometers are used to measure pressure in water channels, [A]. pipes etc. [B]. [C]. [D]. difference in pressure at two points atmospheric pressure very low pressure.

Answer: Option A 41. For maximum horse power of a nozzle, the head supplied must be equal to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

head loss in the pipe due to friction twice the head loss in the pipe due to friction thrice the head loss in the pipe due to friction four times the head loss in the pipe due to friction.

Answer: Option C 42. The ratio of frictional factor and coefficient of friction used in general equation for a head loss in a pipe, is [A]. [C]. 1 3 [B]. [D]. 2 4

Answer: Option D 43. Flow in pipes is turbulent if Reynold number is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. less than 2100 more than 3000 between 2100 and 3000 none of these.

Answer: Option B 44. Back water curve is caused if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. friction head loss is more than the bed slope pressure is due to weir in the channel there is an increase in width of the channel none of these.

Answer: Option B 45. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when friction head loss, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. one-half of the total head supplied one-third of the total head supplied one-fouth of the total head supplied equal to the total head supplied.

Answer: Option B 46. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3 [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at normal pressure of 760 mm at 4C temperature at mean sea level all the above.

Answer: Option D 47. Specific weight of liquid [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. remains constant at every place does not remain constant at every place varies from place to place on the earth does not vary on any other planet.

Answer: Option D 48. Manning's formula is used for [A]. flow in open channels

[B]. [C]. [D].

head loss due to friction in open channels head loss due to friction in pipes flowing full flow in pipes.

Answer: Option B 49. A non-uniform steady flow is through [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a long tube at a decreasing rate an expanding tube at constant rate an expanding tube at increasing rate a long pipe at increasing rate.

Answer: Option B 50. An ideal fluid is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. incompressible compressible compressible and nonviscous slightly affected by surface torque.

Answer: Option C SECTION - 4 1. Equation of continuity of flow is based on the principle of conservation of [A]. [B]. [C]. mass momentum force

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option A 2. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Discharge over a triangular notch is proportional to H5/2 Discharge over a rectangular notch is proportional to H3/2 Both (a) and (b) Neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: Option C 3. The flow in open channel is said to be subcritical if the Froude number is less than [A]. 1.0 [B]. [C]. [D]. equal to 1.0 greater than 1.0 none.

Answer: Option A 4. In C.G.S. system the unit of visocity is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. dyne joule poise Newton none of these.

Answer: Option C

5. The ratio of the percentage error in the discharge and percentage error in the measurement of head, over rectangular notch, is [A]. [C]. 1/2 3/2 [B]. [D]. 2/3 3/4

Answer: Option C 6. In steady flow, which one of the following changes with time [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. velocity pressure density none of these.

Answer: Option D 7. The notch angle for maximum discharge over a triangular notch, is [A]. [C]. 30 90 [B]. [D]. 60 120

Answer: Option C 8. In an inclined pipe, the pressure difference at its two ends is due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. sudden head drop at inlet exit head drop frictional loss head elevation head all the above.

Answer: Option E

9. Weber number is the ratio of inertia force to surface [A]. tension [B]. [C]. [D]. gravitational force elasticity viscosity.

Answer: Option A 10. Though angle of deviation of liquid is more in internal mouth piece, the contraction of the jet, is more in the internal mouth [A]. piece [B]. [C]. [D]. less in the internal mouth piece equal to external mouth piece none of these.

Answer: Option A 11. The width of a weir with end contraction, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. equal to the width of the channel less than the width of the channel half the width of the channel none of these.

Answer: Option B 12. The ratio of time for completely emptying the hemispherical tank and circular horizontal tank of equal radii both fitted with similar orifices at their bottoms is : [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 13. An open container filled with water is moved vertically upward with a uniform linear acceleration. The pressure at its bottom will be greater than static [A]. pressure [B]. [C]. [D]. equal to static pressure lesser than static pressure none of these.

Answer: Option A 14. The gases are considered incompressible if Match number is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. equal to 1.0 equal to 1.5 is more than 0.5 less than 0.2

Answer: Option D 15. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and the paths of adjacent particles do not cross each other, is called [A]. stream line

flow [B]. [C]. [D]. uniform flow steady flow turbulent flow.

Answer: Option A 16. To replace a pipe of diameter D by n parallel pipes of diameter d, the formula is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option D 17. The dimensionless parameter not applicable to flowing liquids, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Reynold number Weber number Pressure coefficient Kinematic viscosity Friction factor.

Answer: Option D 18. The pressure rise due to water hammer depends upon

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

the velocity of flow of water in the pipe the length of pipe time taken to close the valve the elasticity of the pipe material All of above.

Answer: Option E 19. In a two dimensional flow if the components of the velocity are u = ax ; v = by, the point where no motion occurs, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. critical point neutral point stagnation point stationary point none of these.

Answer: Option C 20. Most economical section of a circular channel for maximum velocity, is if, [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. depth of water = 0.810 diameter hydraulic mean depth = 0.304 diameter wetted perimeter = 2.245 diameters all the above.

Answer: Option D 21. For a most economical rectangular channel, the width of the channel must be

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

equal to depth of flow twice the depth of flow half the depth of flow None of these.

Answer: Option B 22. If a1 and a2 are the cross-sectional areas of a tank and orifice, h the height of water level in tank above the centre of the orifice, the velocity of approach is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 23. The hydrostatic force acts through centre of [A]. pressure [B]. [C]. [D]. centre of top edge centre of bottom edge metacentre.

Answer: Option A

24. In an inclined position, a venturimeter records [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. more reading less reading same reading none of these.

Answer: Option C 25. If E1 and E2 are the specific energies at the start of back water curve and at the maximum rise of water respectively and ib and ie are the head slope and the energy line slope respectively, the length of back water (L) is given by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. None of these.

Answer: Option B 26. The velocity of flow at the critical depth (hc) is called critical velocity (Vc) which is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. None of these. Vc = g x h c g x hc

Answer: Option B 27. In a short cylindercial external mouthpiece, the venacontracta occurs at a distance from the outlet of orifice equal to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

diameter of the orifice one-fourth the diameter of the orifice one-third the diameter of the orifice two-third the diameter of the orifice

Answer: Option B 28. If the pressure at the inlet of a pipe is 90 kg/cm2 and pressure drop over the pipe line is 10 kg/cm2, the efficiency of transmission, is [A]. [C]. 66.6% 55.5% [B]. [D]. 77.7% 88.8%.

Answer: Option D 29. Pick up the incorrect statement from to following regarding triangular notch : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. For measuring low discharge, it gives more accurate result Only one reading (i.e. H) is required for computation of discharge Ventilation is necessary None of these.

Answer: Option C 30. The flow in a channel is said to be non-uniform, if [A]. [B]. free water surface of an open channel is not parallel to the bed of channel head needed to overcome frictional reistance is less than the drop in elevation of channel bed head needed to overcome frictional resistance is more than the drop in elevation of channel bed all the above.

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 31. If H is the depth of water retained by a vertical wall, the height of centre of pressure above the bottom is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option A 32. For maximum power transmission through a nozzle, (where hf is the head lost due to friction) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option B 33. Mass density of liquid () is given by [A]. [B].

[C]. [D]. all the above.

Answer: Option D 34. 'Flow net' can be drawn only if the flow is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. turbulent rotational distortion none of these.

Answer: Option C 35. The flow in open channel is laminar if the Reynold number is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. less than 500 more than 500 1000 none of these.

Answer: Option A 36. Centre of buoyancy is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. centroid of the floating body centroid of the fluid displaced centre of pressure of the displaced liquid none of these.

Answer: Option B

37. The intensity of pressure due to sudden closure of a valve of a pipe in which water flows with velocity v, is directly proportional to : square root of the bulk modulus of [A]. elasticity of water [B]. [C]. [D]. bulk modulus of elasticity of water specific weight of water none of these.

Answer: Option A 38. The initial difference between liquid levels of two identical cylindrical vessels having their area of cross-section A, is H. Flow time T from one vessel to another through an orifice having coefficient of discharge Cd and area a will be [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 39. Total energy line is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pressure head datum head kinetic head All the above.

Answer: Option D

40. For critical flow, the Froude number is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1.0 less than 1.0 more than 1.0 2

Answer: Option A 41. A stepped notch is a combination of rectangular notches of [A]. different sizes [B]. [C]. [D]. triangular notches of different sizes rectangular and triangular notches all the above.

Answer: Option A 42. The centre of pressure of a vertical plane immersed in a liquid is at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. centre of higher edge centre of lower edge centroid of the area none of these.

Answer: Option D 43. The ratio of the hydraulic radius of a pipe running full to the hydraulic radius of a square section of a channel whose side is equal to the diameter of the pipe, is [A]. 1

[B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option D 44. A body of dimensions 1.5 m x 1.0 m x 2 m weighs 3000 kg in water. Its specific gravity is [A]. [C]. 0.8 1.0 [B]. [D]. 0.9 1.1

Answer: Option D 45. An orifice is called a large orifice if water head, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. twice the diameter of the orifice thrice the diameter of the orifice four times the diameter of the orifice five times the diameter of the orifice.

Answer: Option D 46. When a liquid rotates at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis of a rigid body, the pressure [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. increases linearly to its radial distance varies inversely as the altitude along any vertical line varies as the square of the radial distance decreases as the square of the radial distance none of these.

Answer: Option C 47. For the two dimensional flow, the stream function is given by = 2xy. The velocity at a point (3, 4) is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 6 m/sec 8 m/sec 10 m/sec 12 m/sec 15 m/sec.

Answer: Option C 48. A floating body attains stable equilibrium if its metacentre is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at the centroid above the centroid below the centroid anywhere.

Answer: Option B 49. The unit of the viscosity is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. kg sec/m2 Newton sec per m2 Newton-sec2/m3 m2 per sec.

Answer: Option B SECTION - 5

1. Water flows through a convergent mouthpiece of diameter 4 cm at convergence under a head of 3 metres. If the maximum vacuum pressure is 9 metres of water, the maximum diameter of divergence, to aviod separation of flow, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 4 cm 6 cm 2 cm 23 cm.

Answer: Option C 2. An ideal fluid is frictionless and [A]. incompressible [B]. [C]. [D]. obeys Newton's law of velocity is similar to gas is very viscous.

Answer: Option A 3. In C.G.S. system the units of kinematic viscosity, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. stoke poise Newton none of these.

Answer: Option A 4. A triangular notch is preferred to a rectangular notch because [A]. [B]. only one reading is required its formula is simple to remember

[C]. [D]. [E].

it gives more accurate results for low discharge it measures a wide range of flows accurately all the above.

Answer: Option E 5. In case of laminar flow through a circular pipe, [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. momentum correction factor is 1.33 energy correction factor is 2.00 both (a) and (b) Neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: Option C 6. The pressure less than atmospheric , pressure, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. suction pressure vacuum pressure negative gauge pressure all the above.

Answer: Option D 7. If H is the difference of liquid levels on two sides of an orifice (width b, depth d), the discharge through the orifice will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Cdbd22gH Cdb2d2gH Cdbd2gh Cdbd.2g H1/2.

Answer: Option C 8. A load w is rolled a distance d across the deck of a ship of weight W, due to which the ship heels through . The metacentric height of the ship, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C 9. A rise or fall of liquid in a glass tube of a very small diameter when dipped is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. directly proportional to the force per unit length of periphery direcly proportional to the sine of the angle of contact directly proportional to the specific weight of liquid inversely proportional to the diameter of the glass tube.

Answer: Option C 10. To measure very low pressure, we use [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. barometers piezometers manometers differential manometers.

Answer: Option C

11. If a pitot tube is placed with its nose facing down stream, the liquid [A]. [B]. rises in the tube to a height [C]. falls in the tube to a depth [D]. none of these. does not rise in the tube

Answer: Option C 12. The discharge through an internal mouth piece is more if its length is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. < diameter

< diameter diameter none of these.

Answer: Option C 13. A spherical load 900 kg is rolled through 9.8 m across the deck of a ship weighing 10, 000 kg. If the metacentric height of the ship is 5 metres, the angle of heel, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 10 5' 10 10' 10 15' 10 20'

Answer: Option C 14. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. In incompressible flow the density of a fluid remains

constant [B]. In compressible flow, the density of a fluid changes from point to point In uniform flow, the velocity of a fluid does not change with respect to length of flow direction All the above.

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 15. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. In radial flow, fluid flows such that pressure and velocity at any point change with respect to its distance from the central axis In radial flow, velocity of flow is in a radial direction In radial flow, flow may take place radially inward to or outward from the centre In radial flow, flow is one dimensional with stream lines parallel.

Answer: Option D 16. Chezy's formula is used to determine [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. head loss due to friction in pipe velocity of flow in pipe velocity of flow in open channels none of these.

Answer: Option C 17. The metacentric height of a body equals the distance between [A]. [B]. the centre of gravity and centre of buoyancy the metacentre and centre of gravity

[C]. [D].

the centre of buoyancy and metacentre none of these.

Answer: Option B 18. Discharge through a totally submerged orifice, is directly proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. difference in elevation of water surfaces square root of the difference in elevation of water surface square root of the opening reciprocal of the area of the opening none of these.

Answer: Option B 19. Frictional loss of head includes the loss of energy due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. viscosity turbulence both (a) and (b) none of these.

Answer: Option D 20. The length of hydraulic jump is roughly [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2 to 3 times its height 3 to 5 times its height 5 to 7 times its height None of these.

Answer: Option C 21. To ensure that water does not rise more than 100 cm above the crest, for a discharge of 5.00 m3/sec, the length of water will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2.48 m 2.49 m 2.50 m 2.51 m.

Answer: Option B 22. For a most economical trapezoidal open channel, the half of the top width must be equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. the bed width one sloping side the depth of flow None of these.

Answer: Option B 23. Pick up the correct statement regarding convergent divergent mouth piece from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. It converges upto Venacontracta and then diverges In this mouth piece there is no loss of energy due to sudden enlargement The coefficient of discharge is unity All the above.

Answer: Option D 24. The value of kinetic energy correction factor (a) for a laminar flow through a circular pipe, is

[A]. [C]. [E].

0.5 l.5 2.5

[B]. [D].

1.0 2.0

Answer: Option D 25. The formula Q = m x L x 2g x H3/2 where [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Bazin Francis Cipolletti None of these. was suggested by :

Answer: Option A 26. One metric slug is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1 kg wt 9.81 kg wt 9.81 kg mass 0.98 kg wt.

Answer: Option C 27. Falling drops of water become spheres due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. adhesion cohesion surface tension viscosity.

Answer: Option C 28. The most efficient channel section, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. semi-circular rectangular triangular half hexagon in the form of trapezoid.

Answer: Option D 29. With a clinging nappe of a weir, the excess discharge, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 6% to 7% 8% to 10% 18% to 20% 25% to 30% 30% to 40%.

Answer: Option D 30. For steady flow in open channels, which one of the following does not change : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. depth of flow velocity of flow rate of flow All of these.

Answer: Option D 31. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of flow before and after sudden enlargement in a pipe, the head loss given by Carnot and Borda equation, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

(v22 - v12)/2g (v1 - v2)2/2g (v2 - v1)2/2g (v1 + v2)2/2g.

Answer: Option B 32. Equation of continuity of fluids is applicable only if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. flow is steady flow is compressive flow is one dimensional velocity is uniform over the cross-sections all the above.

Answer: Option E 33. The flow in open channel is said to be critical if the Froude number is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. less than 1.0 equal to 1.0 greater than 1.0 None of these.

Answer: Option B 34. An orifice is an opening in a vessel with closed perimeter of regular shape through [A]. which water flows [B]. the water level of the liquid on the up stream side is below the top of the orifice

[C]. [D].

partially full flow prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of the opening in thick wall.

Answer: Option A 35. The imaginary line drawn such that the tangents at its all points indicate the direction of the velocity of the fluid particles at each point, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. path line stream line potential line streak line.

Answer: Option B 36. A nozzle is fitted at the end of a pipe whose length is 320 m and diameter is 10 cm. If the value of f = 0.01, the diameter of the nozzle for the maximum transmission of power through the nozzle is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2.4 cm 2.5 cm 2.6 cm 2.7 cm.

Answer: Option B 37. When the whole fluid mass rotates either due to fluid pressure or gravity or rotation previously imparted, the motion is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. free vortex forced vortex non-potential vortex rotational vortex.

Answer: Option A 38. The ratio of the maximum height to which a jet inclined through rises to its total horizontal span is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sin cos tan cot .

Answer: Option C 39. For solving the problems is hydraulic engineering, the velocity used is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. velocity at the centre of pipe section average velocity of flow over a section mean of the velocities at the centre and that along the pipe surface none of these.

Answer: Option B 40. The shape of fire hose nozzle is generally kept [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. divergent convergent convergent divergent cylindrical.

Answer: Option B

41. The dimensions MLT-2 refers to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. specific weight force discharge none of these.

Answer: Option B 42. The line joining the points to which the liquid rises in vertical piezometer tubes fitted at different cross-sections of a conduit, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. hydraulic gradient piezometric line pressure grade line hydraulic grade line all the above.

Answer: Option E 43. Practical fluids possess [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. viscosity surface tension compressibility all the above.

Answer: Option D 44. The depth of the centre of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate (4 m wide, 3 m high) with water upto top surface, is [A]. 1.0 m

[B]. [C]. [D].

1.5 m 2.0 m 2.5 m.

Answer: Option C 45. The differential equation dp/ + gdz + vdv = 0 for a fluid motion is suggested by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Bernoulli Cauchy-Riemann Laplace Leonard Euler.

Answer: Option D 46. An open container filled with water is moved vertically downward with a uniform linear acceleration. The pressure at its bottom will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. greater than static pressure equal to static pressure lesser than static pressure none of these.

Answer: Option C 47. For uniform flow in canals [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. there is a balance between the frictional loss and drop in elevation of the channel bed and free water surfaces of a channel are parallel to each other bed of channel represents the hydraulic gradient all the above.

Answer: Option D 48. If H is height of the liquid above the sill, the effect of end contractions, according to Francis formula, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.1 H 0.2 H 0.3 H 0.4 H 0.5 H.

Answer: Option A 49. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. For maximum velocity of flow, the depth of water in the circular channel must be 0.81 times the diameter of the channel For maximum velocity, the hydraulic mean depth must be 0.3 times the diameter of circular channel For maximum discharge the depth of flow must be 0.95 times the diameter of circular channel All the above.

[B].

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 50. The velocity of flow (v) at the outlet of a syphon of length l, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B SECTION - 6 1. In flowing liquids pitot tubes are used measure [A]. [C]. discharge velocity [B]. [D]. pressure depth.

Answer: Option C 2. Capillary rise of water is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. directly proportional to surface tension inversely proportional to water density inversely proportional to diameter of the tube All of these.

Answer: Option D 3. A water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck moving with a constant horizontal acceleration. The level of the water [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. rises on the front side of the tank falls on the back side of the tank remains the same at both sides of the tank rises on the back side and falls on the front side none of these.

Answer: Option D 4. The dimensional formula of force is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

MLT2

M-1LT2 ML-2T M-1L2T-2 none of these.

Answer: Option A 5. An error of 1% in measuring the head of water over the crest of a rectangular weir, produces an error in the discharge which is equal to [A]. [C]. 1.25% 1.75% [B]. [D]. 1.5% 2.25%

Answer: Option B 6. Orifice-meter is used to measure [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pressure at the point discharge average speed velocity.

Answer: Option B 7. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. Dimensional homogeneity means the dimensions of each term in an equation on both sides are equal Dimensionally homogeneous equations are independent of the system of units In dimensionally homogeneous equation, the powers of fundamental dimensions on either side of the equation are identical

[D].

All the above.

Answer: Option D 8. The ratio of inertia force of a flowing fluid and the viscous force of the liquid is called : Renold's [A]. number [B]. [C]. [D]. Froude's number Euler's number Weber's number.

Answer: Option A 9. For an irrotational flow, the equation [A]. [C]. Cauchy-Riemann Laplaces [B]. [D]. is given by Reynold Bernoulli.

Answer: Option C 10. Water belongs to Newtonian [A]. fluids [B]. [C]. [D]. non-Newtonian fluids compressible fluid none of these.

Answer: Option A 11. Hydraulic radius is equal to [A]. area divided by the square of wetted perimeter

[B]. [C]. [D].

area divided by wetted perimeter wetted perimeter divided by area square root of the area.

Answer: Option B 12. The discharg formula Q = Cd 2gH x A is used for rectangular [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. small orifices only large orifices only small and large orifices only for all types of orifices.

Answer: Option B 13. Chezy's constant [A]. [C]. Bazin Manning is suggested by [B]. [D]. Kutter Powell.

Answer: Option A 14. The acceleration f required to accelerate a rectangular tank containing water horizontally so that the slope of its free surface is 45, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. g/2 g 2g 2.5 g 3 g.

Answer: Option B 15. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. The fluids which follow are known as Newtonian fluids

[B]. [C]. [D].

The fluids which do not follow the linear relationship between shear and rate of strain are known as non Newtonian fluids The substances which flow after yield strains, are known as plastics all the above.

Answer: Option D 16. For solving network problems of pipes, necessary condition is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. continuity equation energy equation Darcy-Weisbach equation all the above.

Answer: Option D 17. In a fluid flow a particle may posses [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. elevation energy kinetic energy pressure energy initial energy all the above.

Answer: Option E

18. In two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u = ax; v = by. The stream lines will be [A]. [C]. circular hyperbolic [B]. [D]. parabolic elliptical.

Answer: Option C 19. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. H 1/H H3/2 H7/2 H5/2.

Answer: Option D 20. For a most economical rectangular channel, the hydraulic mean depth, is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. the depth of flow half the depth of flow one-third depth of flow None of these.

Answer: Option B 21. The instrument used for measuring the velocity of flow, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. venturimeter orifice meter pitot tube

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option C 22. For a long pipe, the head loss [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at the entrance is ignored at the outlet is ignored at the entrance and outlet both are ignored due to friction is ignored.

Answer: Option C 23. On a flow net diagram, the distance between two consecutive steam lines at two successive sections are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. If the velocity at the first section is 1 m/sec, the velocity at the second is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1.0 m/sec 0.5 m/sec 2.0 m/sec 2.5 m/sec 3 m/sec.

Answer: Option C Explanation: Velocity is inversely proportional to cross sectional area. 24. If L, D and f are the length, diameter and coefficient of friction of a pipe, the ratio of the areas of the pipe A and nozzle a, to transmit maximum power, is [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. Answer: Option D 25. The flow is called rotational if its velocity normal to the plane of area is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. angular velocity vector twice the angular velocity vector thrice the angular velocity vector none of these.

Answer: Option B 26. Flow of water in pipes of diameter more than 3 metres, can be measured by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pitot tube venturimeter orifice plate rotameter.

Answer: Option D 27. The pressure variation along the radial direction for vortex flow along a horizontal plane is related by [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 28. Hydraulic grade line [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. remains above the centre line of conduit remains below the centre line of conduit remains parallel to the centre line of conduit may be above or below the centre line of conduit.

Answer: Option D 29. If the Mach number for a fluid flow is less than 1, the flow is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sonic supersonic sub-sonic none of these.

Answer: Option C 30. Hydraulic coefficient of an orifice means the coefficient of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. velocity contraction resistance all the above.

Answer: Option D

31. The minimum specific energy of flow of water in open channel is : (where hc is the critical depth) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. hc

hc

Answer: Option C 32. In a venturimeter, the divergent cone is kept [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shorter than convergent cone equal to covergent cone longer than convergent cone none of these.

Answer: Option C 33. Specific weight of sea water is more than that of pure water because of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. dissolved air dissolved salts suspended matter all the above.

Answer: Option D 34. Total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessesl completely filled with liquid, is directly proportional to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

radius (radius)2 (radius)3 (radius)4 none of these.

Answer: Option D 35. Energy equation is usually applicable to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. non-uniform flow turbulent flow laminar flow steady flow.

Answer: Option D 36. Poise is the unit of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. viscosity velocity gradient mass density kinematic viscous.

Answer: Option A 37. For mountaneous regions having steep slope, wagons for carrying liquid are made with bottom [A]. [B]. parallel to the road surface parallel to the horizontal surface

[C]. [D].

inclined upward while moving upwards inclined downward while moving downwards.

Answer: Option B 38. Specific energy of a flowing fluid per unit weight is [A].

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C 39. The upper surface of the weir over which water flows, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. vein nappe sill none of these.

Answer: Option C 40. The ratio of the inertia and viscous forces acting in any flow, ignoring other forces, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. Euler number Frode number Reynold number

[D].

Weber number.

Answer: Option C 41. Discharge with velocity of approach, over a rectangular weir is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Cd x L x 2g [(H + ha)3/2 + ha3/2] Cd x L x 2g [(H + ha)3/2 - ha3/2] Cd x L x 2g [(H - ha)3/2 + ha3/2] Cd x L x 2g [(H - ha)3/2 - ha3/2]

Answer: Option B 42. To avoid the tendency of separation of liquid flow, the most suitable ratio of the diameters of the throat and the pipe, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1/4 to 1/8 1/3 to 1/2 1/2 to 3/4. none of these.

Answer: Option B

Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Section 1 1. In a liquid limit test, the moisture content at 10 blows was 70% and that at 100 blows was 20%. The liquid limit of the soil, is [A]. 35%

[B]. [C]. [D].

50% 65% none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. Liquid limit is defined as the moisture content at which a groove made in a pat of soil will flow through a distance of 13mm under an impact of 25 blows. Using linear interpolation with the help of flow curve we can get the above. 2. Liquid Limit= W * (N/25)^0.121. where, W= water content at N blows. N= no.of blows. We can find the flow index 1st using. I = (w1 - w2)/log(n2/n1) and then find the water content corresponding to the 25 blows using this flow index value. STEP1: just draw the rough graph on which, no. of blows on X-axis and moisture content on Y-axis. 80%. M C 70%. .A(10,70%) O O 60%. I N 50%. S T 40%. T E 30%. U N 20%. .B(100,20%) R T 10%. E(%)0% . . . . . . . . . . . . 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 NO. OF BLOWS STEP2: Join the coordinates A and B. STEP3: draw the vertical line from 25 no. of blows to the line AB and mark it. STEP4: Draw horizontal line from the marked point on line AB To the pt. on Y-axis, that same will give us the liquid limit of soil sample(ie. 65%).

3.

4.

(NOTE: ALL STEPS ARE TAKEN FROM EXPERIMENT OF DETERMINATION OF LIQUID LIMIT BY USING LIQUID LIMIT DEVICE) 2. The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to (where is the angle of friction of the soil) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. tan (45 - ) tan2 (45 + ) tan2 (45 - ) tan (45 + )

Answer: Option B 3. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3 mm in diameter, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit plastic limit shrinkage limit permeability limit.

Answer: Option B Explanation: About 15g of dried soil passing through IS 425 micron is taken for plastic limit determination and is mixed with a sufficient amount of water which would enable to soil mass become plastic enough to be easily shape into a ball. When a diameter of 3 mm is reached, the soil is remolded into a ball. The process of making the threat and remolded continuous till the threat at a dia. Of 3 mm, just start crumbling. 4. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The rise of the ground surface due to frost action is called frost heave. The freezing of water is accompained by a volume increase of 9%. Below freezing point, higher soil suction develops. The magnitude of frost heave decreases as the degree of saturation of soil decreases

[E].

All the above.

Answer: Option E 5. Which one of the following statements is true ? [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Clays are more porous than sands Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits All the above.

Answer: Option D 6. The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. is equal to mass of the soil retained proportional to the depth of the soil proportional to the square of the depth of the soil proportional to the internal friction of the soil none of these.

Answer: Option D Explanation: P = 0.5kwh^2. k = lateral earth pressure coefficient. w = soil density. h = ht of soil retained. 7. The internal molecular attraction of a soil, the cohesion [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. decreases as the moisture content increases increases as the moisture content decreases is more in well compacted clays depends upon the external applied load.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. I think the option (A) is also correct. On increasing the water content repulsion dominates and hence the cohesion decreases. If A is correct then automatically B option is also correct because inversely proportional. I think cohesion depends upon type of soil also. For example if we take sand its cohesion is zero. So we can't say anything about cohesion by using moisture content only. In option (A) and (B) we can't find which type of soil it is? in well compacted clay cohesion will be more due to decreasing in porosity. Sand is said to be cohesion less soil. Because it has less inter molecular bonding and moisture content also very less. But even though water content decreases in clay's, it may not be a cohesion less soil. Yes answer C is correct, because it has the less inter molecular bonding & moisture content.

2. 3.

4.

5.

8. The quantity of seepage of water through soils is proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. coefficient of permeability of soil total head loss through the soil neither (a) nor (b) both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D 9. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily consolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. quick test drained test consolidated undrained test none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: When drainage is allowed the consolidation takes place and it is also mentioned that at the later stage drainage is curbed so the the test name is called Consolidated undrained test.

10. The minimum water content at which the soil retains its liquid state and also possesses a small shearing strength against flowing, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit plastic limit shrinkage limit permeability limit.

Answer: Option A Explanation: 1. When soil gain shear strength is known plastic state of soil. 11. Minimum size of the particles of silt soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.002 mm 0.04 mm 0.06 mm. 0.08 mm 1 mm

Answer: Option A

12. The maximum value of effective stress in the past divided by the present value, is defined as over consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an over consolidated clay is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. less than 1 1 more than 1 None of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: Consolidation mostly happens in clayey soils only. Initially, there will be pore water pressure, after consolidation is said to be happened; pore water escapes and thus plastic readjustment of

clay particles occurs, results in very low effective stress. Thus the ratio will be greater than 1 always. 13. If Nf, Nd and H are total number flow channels, total number of potential drops and total hydraulic head differences respectively, the discharge q through the complete flow is given by (where K is a constant) [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C

14. A flow line makes angles 1 and 2 with the normal to the interface of the soils having permeabilities k1, k2 before and after deflection. According to the law of deflection of the flow lines at the interface of the dissimilar soils [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 15. Under-reamed piles are generally [A]. driven piles

[B]. [C]. [D].

bored piles precast piles all the above.

Answer: Option B 16. Pick up the clay soil group which does not swell when wet from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Kaolinite group Mite group Vermiculite group Montrorillonite group.

Answer: Option B Explanation: A kaolinite group- these show minimum volume change during moisture variation. 17. Factor of safety against sliding of a slope, is the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. actual cohesion to that required to maintain stability of slope shear strength to shear stress along the surface neither (a) nor (b) both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D 18. The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of soil solids in a given soil mass, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. porosity specific gravity void ratio water content.

Answer: Option C

19. A compacted soil sample using 10% moisture content has a weight of 200 g and mass unit weight of 2.0 g/cm3. If the specific gravity of soil particles and water are 2.7 and 1.0, the degree of saturation of the soil is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 11.1% 55.6% 69.6% none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. Given That, Water Content w = 0.1 Unit Wt of Soil = 2.0 g/cc. Sp. Gravity of Soil = 2.7. Unit Wt of water = 1 g/cc. Dry Unit Wt of Soil = Bulk unit wt/ (1+ w). = 2/(1+0.1). =1.818 g/cc.

Now, Void Ratio (e)=(G * Unit Wt of Water/dry unit wt ) - 1. = (2.7 * 1 / 1.818) - 1. = 0.4851 . Now, Degree of Saturation (S) = G*w/e. =2.7*0.1/0.4851. =0.556. =55.6% Ans. But the answer showing is 69.6%.

2. I got 77%. Yd = G.Yw/ 1+ e. I got e = 0.35. Sr = W.G / e. So, Sr = 0.777. 20. A partially saturated sample of soil has a unit weight of 2.0 g/cm3 and specific gravity of soil particles is 2.6. If the moisture content in the soil is 20%, the degree of saturation is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 20% 77% 93% none of these.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Unit weight of soil = 2.0g/cm3. Dry unit weight = unit weight/(1+w). Here w = 0.2. Hence dry unit weight = 2/(1+0.2). = 1.66. Void ratio = ((specific gravity * unit weight of water )/dry unit weight)-1. = 0.566. Degree of saturation = w * specific gravity /void ratio. = 0.9182. = 91.82%. 21. Minimum depth of a footing carrying a heavy load, is calculated by the formula

[A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 22. According to Coulomb's wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedge [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. down and outwards on a slip surface up and inwards on a slip surface horizontal upward and parallel to base horizontal inward and parallel to base.

Answer: Option A 23. The coefficient of curvature is defined [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C

24. The effective size of particles of soil is denoted by [A]. [C]. D10 D30 [B]. [D]. D20 D60

Answer: Option A Explanation: Why not D30 and D60 are effective sizes? 25. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50 and void ratio 0.5, is [A]. [C]. 50% 75% [B]. [D]. 60% 80%

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. es = GW. s = Degree of saturation. s = GW/e = 2.5*.15/.5 = 75%. s = w*G/e = (.15*2.65/.50)*100 = 75%. w = water content. G = sp. gravity. e = void ratio. s = degree of saturation. The relation between water content, degree of saturation, specific gravity and void ratio is given by Se=WG (or) s = WG/e.

2.

3.

26. The coefficient of compressibility of soil, is the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. stress to strain strain to stress stress to settlement rate of loading to that of settlement.

Answer: Option B

27. If the failure of a finite slope occurs through the toe, it is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. slope failure face failure base failure toe failure.

Answer: Option D 28. Rankine's theory of active earth pressure assumes [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. soil mass is homogeneous, dry and cohesionless ground surface is a plane which may be horizontal or inclined back of the wall is vertical and smooth wall yields about the base all the above.

Answer: Option E 29. The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. volume of water to volume of given soil volume of water to volume of voids in soil weight of water to weight of air in voids weight of water to weight of solids of given mass of soil.

Answer: Option D 30. Accurate determination of water content, is made by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. calcium carbide method sand bath method alcohol method oven-drying method.

Answer: Option D 31. Stoke's law sates that the velocity at which a grain settles out of suspension, the other factors remaining constant, is dependent upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. shape of grain weight of grain size of grain shape and size of grain shape, size and weight of grain.

Answer: Option E 32. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. When water table is above the base of a footing, the dry weight m should be used for soil below water table When water table is located somewhat below the base of a footing, the elastic wedge is partly of moist soil and partly of submerged soil, and a suitable reduction factor is used When water table is just at the base of the footing, no reduction factor is used None of these.

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option B 33. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. In soils, the flow index indicates variation in shear strength with water content Liquid limit minus plastic limit, is known as plasticity index of the soil Plastic limit minus shrinkage limit, is known as shrinkage index of the soil The ratio of the plasticity index to the flow limit, is known as toughness index of the soil All the above.

Answer: Option E

34. If S, L and R are the arc length, long chord and radius of the sliding circle then the perpendicular distance of the line of the resultant cohesive force, is given by [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. none of these.

Answer: Option A 35. The liquid limit and plastic limit exist in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sandy soils silty soils gravel soils clay soils.

Answer: Option D 36. Back fill with a sloping surface exerts a total active pressure Pa on the wall of heightH and acts at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. H/4 above the base parallel to base H/2 above the base parallel to base H/3 above the base parallel to base H/5 above the base parallel to base.

Answer: Option C 37. The ratio of the weight of given volume of soil solids to the weight of an equal volume of distilled water at the given temperature, is known

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

porosity specific gravity void ratio water content.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. Void Ratio = Volume of Voids/ Volume of soil solids. 2. sp.gravity = required sample density/standard sample density. = sample weight/equal weight of water. 38. The ultimate Settlement of a soil is directly proportional to: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. depth of the compressible soil strata compressive index void ratio both (a) and (b) none of these.

Answer: Option D 39. The seepage force in a soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. perpendicular to the equipotential lines proportional to the exit graident proportional to the head loss all the above.

Answer: Option D 40. A soil has bulk density 2.30 g/cm3 and water content 15 per cent, the dry density of the sample, is [A]. 1.0 g/cm2

[B]. [C]. [D].

1.5 g/cm3 2.0 g/cm3 2.5 g/cm3

Answer: Option C Explanation: Dry density = ratio of bulk density to water content with adding one. D.D = 2.3/1+ 0.15 = 2 g/cm3. 41. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Sandy clayloam contains highest percentage of sand Silty clayloam contains highest percentage of silt Stiff boulder clay offers maximum shear strength Soft chalk carries least safe load All the above.

Answer: Option B 42. The clay soil mainly consists of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Kaolinites . Montomorillonite Illites Vermiculite All the above.

Answer: Option E 43. The liquidity index is defined as a ratio expressed as percentage of [A]. [B]. plastic limit minus the natural water content, to its plasticity index natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index

[C]. [D].

natural water content plus its plastic limit to its plasticity index liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index.

Answer: Option B 44. The fluid generally used for grouting is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. cement and water mix clay suspension sodium silicate bitumen emulsion all the above.

Answer: Option E 45. A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific gravity as 2.75. The critical gradient at which quick sand condition occurs, is [A]. [C]. 0.25 0.75 [B]. [D]. 0.50 1.00

Answer: Option D Explanation: 1. Critical Hydraulic gradient = (G-1)/(1+e). Where, e - Void ratio. G - Specific gravity of soil. 2. Critical hydraulic gradient = (G-1)/(1+e). = (2.75-1)/(1+0.75). = 1.00. 46. The relationship between void ratio (e) and porosity ratio (n) is :

[A].

n=

[B].

e=

[C]. [D].

n= e = n(1 + e)

Answer: Option D Explanation: 1. e = vol of voids/vol of soilds. vol of soil = vol of voids +vol of soilds. Using this formula we get e = n(1 + e). 2. n = Vv/V. e = Vv/Vs. V = Vs+Vv. n = Vv/(Vv+Vs). Divide numerator and denominator by Vs. n = (Vv/Vs)/{(Vv/Vs)+(Vs/Vs)}. n = e/(1+e). 47. Failure of the stability of slopes, generally occurs along [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. slip plane a horizontal surface a curved surface all the surfaces.

Answer: Option C

48. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Failure plane carries maximum shear stress Failure plane does not carry maximum shear stress Failure plane carries shear stress equal to maximum shear stress None of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation: Failure plane may not carry max shear stress because in box shear test or direct shear test the failure plane may not carry max. Shear stress. 49. Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Upheavel transportation deposition weathering Weathering upheaval transportation deposition Transportation upheaval weathering deposition Weathering transportation deposition upheaval None of these.

Answer: Option D 50. The weight of a pycnometer containing 400 g sand and water full to the top is 2150 g. The weight of pycnometer full of clean water is 1950 g. If specific gravity of the soil is 2.5, the water content is [A]. [C]. 5% 15% [B]. [D]. 10% 20%

Answer: Option D Explanation: W1 = 200g. W2 = 600g. W3 = 2150g. W4 = 1950g. G=2.5.

w = (((W3-W4)/W2-W1))*(1-1/G))-1. Solve and you will get the answer. Section 2 1. The maximum shear stress occurs on the filament which makes an angle with the horizontal plane equal to [A]. [C]. 30 60 [B]. [D]. 45 90

Answer: Option B 2. For determining the moisture content of a soil sample, the following data is available Weight of container = 260 g, Weight of soil sample and = 320 g container, Weight of soil sample (dried) and = 310 g container. The moisture content of the soil sample, is [A]. [C]. 15% 20% [B]. [D]. 18% 25%

Answer: Option C Explanation: We Know that moisture content is weight of water to weight of solids. By applying that we will get the above solution. 3. Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. multiplied by unit weight of water divided by unit weight of water plus unit weight of water minus unit weight of water.

Answer: Option D Explanation: Saturated unit weight = submerged unit weight + unit weight of water.

4. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. An unconfined compression test is a special case of triaxial compression test An unconfined compression test is a special case of direct shear test The confining pressure is maximum during an unconfined compression test The cylindrical specimen of a soil is subjected to major principal stress till it fails due to shearing along the plane of the failure.

Answer: Option A 5. A partially saturated soil is classified as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. one phase soil two phase soil three phase soil four phase soil.

Answer: Option C

6. Pick up the in-correct statement from the following: The soils which contain montmorillonite minerals [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. swell more when wet shrink more when dry possess high plasticity possess high coefficient of internal coefficient None of these.

Answer: Option D Explanation: Actually wet montmorillonite have a high plasticity and low coefficient of friction. 7. For determing the specific gravity of soil solids, using a pycnometer of 500 cc., the following data is available : Weight of dry empty pycnometer = 125 g Weight of dried soil and

pycnometer = 500 g Weight of dried soil and distilled = 850 g water filled in pycnometer up to top The specific gravity of soil soilds, is [A]. [C]. 2.0 2.50 [B]. [D]. 2.25 2.75

Answer: Option C 8. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Kaolinite is most stable clay Kaolinite shows a very little sign of swelling on wetting Kaolinite when wet, becomes moderately plastic because negative electro magnetic charges on platelets attrack water Kaolinite is also called China clay All the above.

Answer: Option E 9. A pile is being driven with a drop hammer weighing 1800 kg and having a free fall of 1.00 m. If the penetration with last blow is 5 mm, the load carrying capacity of the pile, -according to the Engineering News formula, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 100 tonnes 50 tonnes 20 tonnes 10 tonnes.

Answer: Option D Explanation: Engineering News Formula, Q = W*h/ (s+c). Where, Q = Energy loss. W = weight of the ram. h = fall height of the ram (inches).

s = measured penetration of the pile per blow (inches). c = 0.1. 10. If the specific gravity and voids in soil sample are G and e respectively, the hydraulic gradient i, is [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A

11. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. To an agriculturist, soil is the substance existing on the earth's surface, which grows and develops plants To a geologist, soil is the material in a relatively thin surface zone within which roots occur, and rest of the crust is termed as rock irrespective of hardness To an engineer, soil is the unaggregated and uncemented deposits of minerals and organic particles covering the earth's crust All the above.

[B].

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 12. The ratio of settlement at any time 't' to the final settlement, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. co-efficient of consolidation degree of consolidation consolidation index consolidation of undisturbed soil.

Answer: Option B 13. The Westergaard analysis is used for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sandy soils cohesive soils stratified soils clayey soils.

Answer: Option C 14. If L and B are the length and breadth of a footing, e the eccentricity along the length and P and Q are the axial force and bearing capacity of the soil, then, to avoid tension, [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 15. 260 g of wet soil was taken in a pycnometer jar of weight 400 g in order to find the moisture content in the soil, with specific gravity of soil particles 2.75. The weight of soil and remaining water filled in pycnometer without air bubbles was 1415 g and the weight of pycnometer filled with water alone was 1275 g. The moisture content in the soil is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 24.2% 18.2% 53.8% none of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation: Can be calculated by below formula. MOISTURE content = {[(w2-w1)/(w3-w4)][(Gs-1)/Gs]-1}*100. 16. The earth pressure of a soil at rest, is proportional to (where is the angle of internal friction of the soil) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. tan (45 - ) tan (45 + ) tan2 (45 - ) tan2 (45 + ) none of these

Answer: Option E 17. A fundamental equation of void ratio(e), specific gravity (G), water content () and degree of saturation (Sr) is [A]. e=

[B].

[C].

G=

[D].

Sr =

Answer: Option A 18. The critical exist gradient of seepage water in soils, is [A]. [B]. directly proportional to the voids ratio inversely proportional to the specific gravity

[C]. [D]. [E].

directly proportional to the specific gravity inversely proportional to the voids ratio none of these.

Answer: Option E Explanation: I guess it's inversely proportionally to void radio. 19. Water content of a soil sample is the difference of the weight of the given sample at the given temperature and the weight determined after drying it for 24 hours at temperature ranging from [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 80 to 90C 90 to 95C 95 to 100C 103 to 105C 105 to 110C

Answer: Option E 20. The ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of the given soil mass, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. porosity specific gravity void ratio water content.

Answer: Option A 21. The compression index of a soil [A]. [B]. [C]. decreases with an increase in the liquid limit increases with an increase in the liquid limit decreases with an increase in the plastic limit

[D].

is not related with plastic limit.

Answer: Option B Explanation: Compression index describes variation of void ratio as a function of the change of effective stress plotted in the logarithmic scale. It therefore represents deformative characteristics of overconsolidated soil. Typical range of compression index is 0.1 to 10. 22. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The void space between the soil grains, is filled partly with air and partly with water In perfectly saturated soil, the voids are completely filled with water In dry soil, the voids are completely filled with air all the above.

Answer: Option D 23. For a homogeneous earth dam 50 m high having 2 m free broad, a flow net was constructed and the results were : Number of potential drops = 2.4 Number of flow channels = 0.4. If coefficiency of permeability of the dam mateiral is 3 x 10-3 cm3/sec, the discharge per metre length of dam, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 12 x 10-5 m3/sec 24 x 10-3 m3/sec 6 x 10-5 m3/sec 24 x 10-5 m3/sec

Answer: Option D Explanation: q = kh (Nf/Nd) you will get the answer. 24. W is the weight of soil having a moisture content . If V is the volume of proctor's mould, the dry density of the soil is

[A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C

25. For shear strength, triaxial shear test is suitable because [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. it can be performed under all three drainage conditions precise measurement of the pore pressure and volume change during the test is possible stress distribution on the failure plane, is uniform state of stress within the specimen during any stage of the test as well as at failure, is completely determined all the above.

Answer: Option E 26. The degree of saturation of the soil sample stated in Q. No, 216, is [A]. [C]. 60% 64% [B]. [D]. 62% 66%

Answer: Option C 27. Number of piles required to support a column, is [A]. [C]. 1 3 [B]. [D]. 2 4

Answer: Option C

28. The soil moisture driven off by heat, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. free water hydroscopic water gravity water none of these.

Answer: Option B 29. If the specific gravity of a soil particle of 0.05 cm diameter is 2.67, its terminal velocity while settling in distilled water of viscosity, 0.01 poise, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.2200 cm/sec 0.2225 cm/sec 0.2250 cm/sec 0.2275 cm/sec 0.2300 cm/sec

Answer: Option D Explanation: Terminal velocity = 91*D^2 D in cm. 30. The direct shear test suffers from the following disadvantage: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Drain condition cannot be controlled Pore water pressure cannot be measured Shear stress on the failure plane is not uniform. The area under the shear and vertical loads does not remain constant throughout the test

[E].

All the above.

Answer: Option C Explanation: It is disadvantageous because :-. Drainage not controlled. Shear Stress development is not uniform. Principle Plane rotates. Failure plane is predetermined. 31. For a clay slope of height of 10 m, the stability number is 0.05, = 2.0 t/m3, C = 2.5 t/m2, the critical height of the slope of the soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 4.0 m 12.5 m 25.0 m 15.0 m

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. F = (C/H*Y*Sn), F = Hc/H. Applying these two formula you will get the answer. 2. Hc = C/(y*Sn) y - unit weight , Sn - Stability Number. 32. If 0 and represent initial and increased pressure ; e0 and e void ratios corresponding to initial and increased pressure ; and C0 the compression index (dimensionless), then, the virgin compression curve as expressed by Terzaghi empirical formula is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. e = e0 + Cc log10 /0' e = e0 - Cc log10 /0' e0 = e - Cc log10 /0' e0 = e + Cc log10 /0'

Answer: Option B 33. The equation = C + tan is given by [A]. [C]. Rankine Culaman [B]. [D]. Coulomb Mohr.

Answer: Option B

34. You are given a sample of soil containing coarse grains to determine its water content, you will use [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pycnometer oven-drying method calcium carbide method alcohol method.

Answer: Option A 35. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Compaction has no effect on the [A]. structure of a soil [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Permeability decreases with increase in the dry density of a compacted soil A wet side compacted soil is more compressible than a dry side compacted soil Dry side compaction soils swell more when given access to moisture None of the these.

Answer: Option A 36. The maximum load carried by a pile, when it continues to sink without further increase of load, is known as [A]. [B]. ultimate load carrying capacity ultimate bearing capacity

[C]. [D].

ultimate bearing resistant all the above.

Answer: Option D 37. The soil which contains finest grain particles, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. coarse sand fine sand silt clay.

Answer: Option D 38. The general relationship between specific gravity (G), weight of water (), degree of saturation (Sr), void ratio (e) and bulk density (), is [A]. = [B]. = [C]. = [D].

Answer: Option B

39. If C is cohesion, F is factor of safety, is unit weight of soil and H is the maximum height of embankment, the stability number, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option B

40. The angle between the directions of the failure and the major principal plane, is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 90 + effective angle of shearing resistance 90 + half of the angle of shearing resistance 45 - half of the angle of shearing resistance 45 + half of the angle of shearing resistance.

Answer: Option D

41. The compressibility of clays, is caused due to: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. expulsion of double layer water from in between the grains sliping of particles to new positions of greater density bending of particles as elastic sheets all the above.

Answer: Option D 42. A phreatic line is defined as the line within a dam section below which there are [A]. positive equipotential lines

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

positive hydrostatic pressure negative hydrostatic pressure negative equipotential lines none of these.

Answer: Option B 43. The ratio of the difference between the void ratio of the soil in its loosest state and its natural void ratio (e) to the difference between the void ratios in the loosest and fully dense state, is generally termed as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. degree of density relativity density index all the above.

Answer: Option D 44. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The property of a soil that enables it to become stiff in a relatively short time on standing is called thixotropy The ratio of shear strength in natural state to the remoulded shear strength under undrained conditions, is called degree of sensitivity. The difference between the undisturbed shear strength and remoulded shear strength is known remoulding loss The tendency of dense sand to expand on application of shearing load, is known as dilatancy All the above.

[B].

[C].

[D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 45. According to the Indian Standards the specific gravity is the ratio of the unit weight of soil solids to that of water at a temperature of [A]. 17C [B]. 23C

[C].

27C

[D].

30

Answer: Option C 46. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Illite bond is weaker than Kaolinite bond Illite bond is stronger than montmorillonite bond Illites do not swell when wet Illites are composed of two silica tetrahedralsheets with a central octahedral sheet All the above.

Answer: Option E 47. Determination of water content of a soil sample suspected to contain gypsum is made by drying the sample for longer period at a temperature not more than [A]. [C]. 60C 100C [B]. [D]. 80C 110C

Answer: Option B 48. Water formed transported soil is [A]. [C]. alluvial lacustrine [B]. [D]. marine loess.

Answer: Option D 49. A decrease in water content results in a reduction of the volume of a soil in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid state plastic state semi solid state all of these.

Answer: Option D

50. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. If the ratio of depth to width is less than 2, it is shallow foundation If the ratio of depth to width is more than 2, it is deep foundation If the ratio of the length to width is between 1 and 2, it is spread foundation If the length is large as compared to width, it is a strip foundation All the above.

Answer: Option E Section 3 1. The vane shear test is used for the in-situ determination of the undrained strength of the intact fully saturated [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sands clays gravels highly organic soils.

Answer: Option B 2. Fundamental relationship between dry density (d), bulk density () and water content (), is : [A]. =

[B].

d =

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B

3. The specific gravity of quartz, is [A]. [C]. 2.65 2.85 [B]. [D]. 2.72 2.90

Answer: Option A 4. If the cohesive force, (c), is 1.5 t/m2, the density () of the soil is 2.0 t/m3, factor of safety (F) is 1.5 and stability factor (Sn) is 0.05, the safe height of the lope, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 5 metres 8 metres 10 metres 12 metres

Answer: Option C Explanation: Safe Height of a slope, H = (density of the soil* Factor of safety (F) * stability factor)/ Cohesive force (c). 5. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The phenomenon of quicksand generally occurs in the cohesionless soil At critical hydraulic gradient, the saturated sand becomes quick The critical gradient depends on the void ratio and the specific gravity The quick sand occurs more in fine sand and silt than coarse material (e) All the above.

Answer: Option E 6. If W1, W2, W3 and W4 are the sequential weights obtained during observations in pycnometer method for determining water content, the formula to be used, is [A]. W=

[B]. W=

[C]. W=

[D]. W= Answer: Option C

7. Si particles [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. show dilatancy swell when moist possess high strength when dry disintegrate easily.

Answer: Option A 8. Flow net is used for the determination of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. quantity of seepage hydrostatic pressure seepage pressure exit gradient all the above.

Answer: Option E 9. If the back fill is having a uniform surcharge of intensity q per unit area, the lateral pressure will be [A]. q times the lateral pressure within the surface

[B]. [C]. [D].

1/q times the lateral pressure within the surface equal to a fill of height Z equal to q/r, where r is the density of the backfill none of these.

Answer: Option C 10. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. Isotropic consolidation of clay can be obtained in the triaxial apparatus under equal all-round pressure. If the present effective stress is the maximum to which the clay has ever been subjected, it is called normally consolidated clay If the present effective stress in the past was more than present effective stress, it is called over-consolidated clay All the above.

[B].

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 11. Through a point in a loaded soil, the principal stress is maximum on [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. minor principal plane intermediate principal plane major principal plane none of these.

Answer: Option C 12. Maximum size of clay particles, is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.002 mm 0.04 mm 0.06 mm 0.08 mm 1 mm

Answer: Option A 13. The capillary rise of water depends upon the force [A]. responsible [B]. [C]. [D]. increases as the size of the soil particles increases decreases as the size of the soil particles decreases is less in wet soil than in dry soil.

Answer: Option A 14. Coulomb's wedge theory assumes that [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. back fill is dry, cohesionless, homogeneous and isotropic slip surface is the plane which passes through the heel of the wall sliding wedge itself acts as a rigid body and the value of earth pressure is obtained by considering the limiting equilibrium of the wedge position and direction of the resultant earth pressure, are known all the above.

Answer: Option E 15. If dry density, water density and specific gravity of solids of a given soil sample are 1.6 g/cc, 1.84 g/cc and 2.56 respectively, the porosity of the soil sample, is [A]. [C]. 0.375 0.380 [B]. [D]. 0.370 0.390

Answer: Option A 16. Pick up the correct statement applicable to plate load test [A]. [B]. Width of the test pit for plate load test is made five times the width of the plate At the centre of the test pit, a hole is dug out whose size is kept equal to the size of the test plate

[C].

Bottom level of the hole dug at the centre of the test pit, is kept at the level of the actual formation Ratio of the depth of the hole to the width of the test plate is the same as the ratio of the depth of the actual formation to the width of the formation All the above.

[D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 17. Terzaghi's analysis assumes : [A]. [B]. soil is homogeneous and isotropic elastic zone has straight boundaries inclined at = to the horizontal and plastic zones fully developed failure zones do not extend above the horizontal plane through the base of the footing all the above.

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 18. The fundamental equation of air content (ac), degree of saturation (Sr) and void ratio (e), is [A]. ac =

[B].

ac =

[C]. ac = [D].

ac =

Answer: Option C 19. A soil sample has passing 0.075 mm sieve = 60% liquid limit = 65% and plastic limit = 40%. The group index of the soil, is [A]. 5

[B]. [C]. [D].

20 40 none of these.

Answer: Option D 20. The plasticity index is the numerical difference between [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit and plastic limit plastic limit and shrinkage limit liquid limit and shrinkage limit none of these.

Answer: Option A The fundamental equation of specific gravity (G), dry density (d), unit weight of water () and void ratio (e), is [A]. e=

[B].

G=

[C].

d =

[D].

Answer: Option C 22. Negative skin friction on piles [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. is caused due to relative settlement of the soil is caused in soft clays decreases the pile capacity all of the above.

Answer: Option D 23. Fine sand possesses [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. good plasticity limited plasticity reasonable plasticity clay.

Answer: Option D 24. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. total load on the bearing area safe load on the bearing area load at which soil fails load at which soil consolidates.

Answer: Option C 25. Transporting and redepositing soils, is done by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. water glacier gravity wind all the above.

Answer: Option E A moist soil sample of volume 60 cc. weighs 108 g and its dried weight is 86.4 g. If its absolute density is 2.52, the degree of saturation is [A]. [C]. 54% 74% [B]. [D]. 64% 84%

Answer: Option D

27. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. O.M.C. refers to the moisture corresponding to the maximum point on the moisture content dry density curve The line which shows moisture content dry density relation for soil containing a constant percentage of air voids, is known as air void line The weight of hammer used for compaction test is 25 kg The free fall of hammer for compaction is 30.5 cm All the above.

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 28. The passive earth pressure of a soil, is proportional to (where is the angle of internal friction of the soil.) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. tan (45 - ) tan (45 + ) tan2 (45 - tan2 (45 + )

Answer: Option D 29. If a soil undergoes a change in shape and volume by application of external loads over it, but recovers its shape and volume immediately after removal of the load, the property of the soil is said to be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Resilience of soils Elasticity of soils Compressibility of soils None of these.

Answer: Option B 30. If the unit weight of sand particles is 2.696 g/cc. and porosity in loose state is 44%, the critical hydraulic gradient for quick sand condition, is

[A]. [C]. [E].

0.91 0.93 0.95

[B]. [D].

0.92 0.94

Answer: Option E 31. The void ratio of a soil sample decreases from 1.50 to 1.25 when the pressure is increased from 25 tonnes/m2 to 50 tonnes/m2, the coefficient of compressibility is [A]. [C]. 0.01 0.05 [B]. [D]. 0.02 0.001

Answer: Option A 32. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The smaller the size of the pores, the higher the water can rise above the water table. Below the water table, the pore water may be static. The hydrostatic pressure depends on the depth below the water level. The attractive forces between the particles, caused due to negative pressure of water held above the water table is called soil suction. None of these.

Answer: Option E 33. The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content does not cause a decrease in volume of a soil mass, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit plastic limit shrinkage limit permeability limit.

Answer: Option C

34. A sample of saturated soil has 30% water content and the specific gravity of soil grains is 2.6. The dry density of the soil mass in g/cm3, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1.47 1.82 1.91 none of these.

Answer: Option D 35. The specific gravity of sands, is approximately [A]. [C]. [E]. 1.6 2.2 2.6 [B]. [D]. 2.0 2.4

Answer: Option E 36. If the coefficients of volume change and compressibility of a soil sample are respectively 6.75 x 10-2 and 3 x 10-2, the void ratio of the soil sample, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 1.10 1.20 1.30 [B]. [D]. 1.15 1.25

Answer: Option D Explanation: coeff. compressibility = coeff.volume change/ (1 + e). 37. The minimum centre to centre distance of friction piles of 1 m diameter, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2m 2 m to 3 m 3 m to 4 m 5m

Answer: Option C

38. Over-consolidation of soils is caused due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. erosion of over burden melting of ice sheets after glaciation permanent rise of water table all the above.

Answer: Option D 39. Darcy's law is applicable to seepage if a soil is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. homogeneous isotropic incompressible all the above.

Answer: Option D 40. An infinite slope is inclined at angle i and has its angle of internal friction , the stability number Sa, is [A].

[B]. [C]. [D]. (tan i - tan ) cos2 i (tan i - tan ) sin2 i

Answer: Option C 41. Depending upon the properties of a material, the failure envelope may [A]. be either straight or curved

[B]. [C]. [D].

pass through the origin of stress intersect the shear stress axis all the above.

Answer: Option D 42. A stratum of clay 2 m thick will get consolidated 80% in 10 years. For the 80% consolidation of 8 m thick stratum of the same clay, the time required is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 100 years 120 years 140 years 160 years 180 years.

Answer: Option D 43. The maximum net pressure intensity causing shear failure of soil, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. safe bearing capacity net safe bearing capacity net ultimate bearing capacity ultimate bearing capacity.

Answer: Option C 44. The factor which affects the compaction, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. moisture content compacting content method of compaction type of soil All the above.

Answer: Option E 45. The compression resulting from a long term static load and consequent escape of pore water, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. compaction consolidation swelling none of these.

Answer: Option B 46. Soil classification of composite soils, exclusively based on the particle size distribution, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. particle classification textural classification High Way Research Board classification unified soil classification.

Answer: Option B 47. The coefficient of curvature for a well graded soil, must be between [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 0.5 to 1.0 1.0 to 3.0 3.0 to 4.0 4.0 to 5.0

Answer: Option B 48. Fundamental relationship between dry density (d), specific gravity (G), water content () and percentage of air voids (na) is : [A]. d =

[B]. d = [C]. d = [D]. d = Answer: Option A 49. A moist soil sample weighing 108 g has a volume of 60 cc. If water content is 25% and value of G = 2.52, the void ratio is [A]. [C]. 0.55 0.75 [B]. [D]. 0.65 0.80

Answer: Option C Explanation: y = (G+G*w)/(1+e) * yw = Ws/Vs. 50. The shear resistance of a soil is con-tituted basically of the following component. [A]. The frictional resistance to translocation between the individual soil particles at their contact point To the structural relation to displacement of the soil because of the interlocking of the particles Cohesion and adhesion between the surfaces of the soil particles All the above.

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option D Section 4 1. The method of the slices is applicable to [A]. [B]. homogenous soils stratified soils

[C]. [D]. [E].

saturated soils non-uniform slopes all the above.

Answer: Option A 2. When the seepage pressure becomes equal to the pressure due to submerged weight of a soil, the effective pressure is reduced to zero and the soil particles have a tendency to move up in the direction of flow. This phenomenon is generally known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. quick condition boiling condition quick sand all the above.

Answer: Option D 3. The phreatic line in an earth dam may be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. circular elliptical parabolic a straight line all the above.

Answer: Option C 4. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. A maximum value of dry density is obtained at optimum water content At low value of water content most soils tend to be stiff. At high water content, the dry density decreases with an increase of water content. An airless soil will have maximum possible value of dry density for the given water content

[E].

All the above.

Answer: Option E 5. The shearing strength of a cohesion-less soil depends upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. dry density rate of loading confining pressure nature of loading.

Answer: Option C 6. According to IS : 2720 - 1965, the composition of a dispersing solution used in pipette analysis for determining the size of particles, is sodium-hexametaphosphate 33 g, sodium carbonate 7 g and distilled water one [A]. litre [B]. [C]. [D]. sodium-hexametaphosphate 7 g, sodium carbonate 33 g and distilled water one litre sodium-hexametaphosphate 23 g, sodium carbonate 17 g and distilled water one litre none of these.

Answer: Option A

7. Cohesive soils are generally plastic and also [A]. compressible [B]. [C]. [D]. elastic and also compressible plastic but incompressible none of these.

Answer: Option A 8. If the coefficient of the active pressure Ka is 1/3, the coefficient of passive pressureKp, is

[A]. [C]. [E].

1/3 1 3

[B]. [D].

2/3 3/2

Answer: Option E 9. The inventor of the term soil mechanics, was [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Kray Dr. Karl Terzaghi Leygue Fellenius.

Answer: Option B 10. Compression of soil occurs rapidly if voids are filled with [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. air water partly with air and partly with water none of these.

Answer: Option A 11. If drainage is permitted throughout the test, during the application of both normal, and shear stresses so that full consolidation occurs and no excess pore pressure is set up at any stage of the test, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. quick test drained test consolidated undrained test none of these.

Answer: Option B

12. The degree of saturation of the soil sample stated in Q. No. 213, is [A]. [C]. 95.4% 95.6% [B]. [D]. 95.5% 95.7%

Answer: Option D 13. For slopes of limited extent the surface of slippage, is usually along [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a parabolic arc an elliptical arc a straight line a circular arc.

Answer: Option D 14. For a base failure of a slope, depth factor [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Df = 1 Df < 1 Df > 1 none of these.

Answer: Option C 15. A critical hydraulic gradient may occur when [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. flow is in upward direction seepage pressure is in upward direction effective pressure is zero all the above.

Answer: Option D 16. Plasticity index is defined as the range of water content between [A]. liquid and plastic limit

[B]. [C]. [D].

plastic limit and semi solid limit semi-solid limit and liquid limit liquid limit and solid limit.

Answer: Option A 17. The minimum depth of building foundations on [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sandy soils is 80 cm to 100 cm clay soils is 90 cm to 160 cm rocky soils is 5 cm to 50 cm all the above.

Answer: Option D 18. The ratio of the undrained strength in the undrained state to the undrained strength, at the same water content, in the remoulded state, is called the sensivity of the clay. Its value for quick clays is [A]. [C]. [E]. 4 12 20 [B]. [D]. 8 16

Answer: Option E 19. The total weight of a pycnometer with water and oven dried soil 20 (g) is 1600 g. The pycnometer filled with water alone weighs 1500 g. The specific gravity of the soil, is [A]. [C]. 1.0 2.0 [B]. [D]. 1.5 2.5

Answer: Option C 20. The consolidation time for soils [A]. [B]. increases with increasing compressibility decreases with increasing permeability

[C]. [D]. [E].

increases rapidly with increasing size of soil mass is independent of the magnitude of the stress change. All the above.

Answer: Option E 21. The zero atmospheric pressure is at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. sea level mean sea level water table phreatic surface both (c) and (d) of the above.

Answer: Option E 22. A soil mass coated with a thin layer of paraffin weighs 460 g. When immersed, it displaces 299 cc of water. The weight of paraffin is 10 g. If specific gravity of solids is 2.5 and that of paraffin 0.9, the void ratio of soil, is [A]. [C]. 0.55 0.65 [B]. [D]. 0.60 0.70

Answer: Option B Explanation: Parffin volume = 10/(0.9*1.0) = 11.11 cc (1.0 - density of water). Vol.of Soil = (460-10) /(2.5*1.0) = 180 cc. Vol.of Soil = 299 -11.11 = 287.89 cc. Vol.of Voids = 287.89 - 180 = 107.89 cc. Void Ratio = Vol.Voids / Vol os Soilds = 107.89/180 = 0.60. 23. Pick up the incorrect definition from the following: [A]. Ratio of the compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of

remoulded soil, is known as the sensitivity of the soil sample [B]. The rotation of soil particles into stable state while remoulding, is known as the thiostropy of soil The water content at which a soil changes from the liquid state to solid state, is known liquid limit of the soil The water content at which a soil flows, is known plastic limit of the soil None of these.

[C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option D 24. In a fow net flow lines and equipotential lines cross each [A]. other at right angles [B]. [C]. [D]. fields are rectangles whose length is twice the breadth smaller the dimensions of the field, smaller will be the hydraulic gradient and velocity of flow through it for homogeneous soil, the curves are smooth and circular.

Answer: Option A 25. The ratio of the volume of water present in a given soil mass to the total volume of its voids, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. porosity void ratio percentage voids degree of saturation.

Answer: Option D 26. Stoke's law does not hold good if the size of particle is smaller than [A]. [B]. 0.0002 mm 0.002 mm

[C]. [D].

0.02 mm 0.2 mm

Answer: Option A 27. In a purely cohesive soil, the critical centre lies at the intersection of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. perpendicular bisector of slope and the locus of the centre perpendicular drawn at l/3rd slope from toe and the locus of the centre perpendicular drawn at 2/3rd slope from toe and the locus of the centre directional angles none of these.

Answer: Option D 28. The angle of internal friction, is least for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. angular-grained loose sand angular -grained dense sand round-grained loose sand round-grained loose sand clays.

Answer: Option E 29. In non-cohesive soil in passive state of plastic equilibrium [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. major principal stress is horizontal minor principal stress is vertical major principal stress is vertical minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to the horizontal.

Answer: Option B

30. In active state of plastic equilibrium in a non cohesive soil with horizontal ground surface [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. major principal stress is horizontal minor principal stress is vertical major principal stress is vertical minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to horizontal.

Answer: Option C 31. The reduction in volume of soil due to squeezing out of water from the voids, is termed [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. primary consolidation primary compression primary time effect all the above.

Answer: Option D 32. 'Drift' is the material picked up, mixed, disintegrated, transported and redeposited by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. wind gravitational force glaciated water all the above.

Answer: Option C 33. The consistency index of a soil is defined as the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit plus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil natural water content of a soil minus plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil natural water content of a soil plus its plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil.

Answer: Option B 34. The weight of a container is W1 and that of container with soil simple, is W2. If the weight of the container and oven dried soil sample is W3, the moisture content of the soil, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 35. The shear strength in plastic undrained clay, is due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. inter-granular friction internal friction cohesion none of these.

Answer: Option C 36. The Terzaghi's general bearing capacity equation for a continuous footing is given by (where Nc, 2V& and Ny are bearing capacity factors.) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. qf = cNc + DNq + 0.5BN qf = cNc - DNq + 0.5BN qf = cNc - DNq + 0.5BN qf = cNc + DNq + 0.5BN

Answer: Option A

37. A clay subjected to pressure in excess to its present over-burden, is said to be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pre-compressed pre-consolidated over-consolidated all the above.

Answer: Option D 38. The expression [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. dry density bulk density degree of saturation optimum water content. is used for

Answer: Option A 39. If Cv is the coefficient of consolidation, t is the time and d is drainage path of one dimensional consolidation of soil, the time factor Tv, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option D 40. The total active earth pressure due to dry back fill with no surcharge, acts at H/3 above the base of the wall and is directly proportional to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

H2 H3.

Answer: Option C 41. If e0, e, , 0' have their usual meanings, the coefficient of compressibility (ac), is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 42. A saturated soil sample has water content of 40% and specific gravity of soil particles 2.7. The void ratio of the soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 0.4 0.52 1.08 none of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation: S*e = G*w. Where, S = saturation (which is equal to 1 due to saturated state). e = void ratio.

G = specific gravity. w = water content. e = 2.7 * 0.40 = 1.08. The answer is 1.08. 43. For testing a saturated clay for shear strength, the test recommended, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. direct shear test triaxial compression test unconfined compression test all the above.

Answer: Option C 44. The critical exist gradient of seepage water in soils, increases with [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. an increase in specific gravity a decrease in specific gravity a decrease in void ratio both (a) and (c) none of these.

Answer: Option D 45. The coefficient ka of the active earth pressure, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D]. Answer: Option D 46. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids The porosity of a soil is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the gross volume of the soil The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil The dry density of a soil is defined as weight of solids to the total volume of the soil All the above.

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 47. The shear strength of a soil [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. increases with an increase in the normal stress is proportional to the cohesion of the soil is generally known as the strength of the soil is proportional to the tangent of the angle of internal friction all the above.

Answer: Option E 48. The property of a soil which permits water to percolate through it, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. moisture content permeability capillarity none of these.

Answer: Option B 49. The triaxial apparatus is usually used for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. unconsolidated-undrained test consolidated-undrained test drained test all the above tests.

Answer: Option D 50. A pycnometer is used to determine [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. voids ratio dry density water content density index.

Answer: Option C Section 5 1. Soils containing organic matters are of spongy [A]. nature [B]. [C]. [D]. swell with decrease of moisture shrink with increase of moisture content none of these.

Answer: Option A 2. A soil not fully consolidated under the existing over-burden pressure, is called [A]. pre-consolidated

[B]. [C]. [D].

normally consolidated overconsolidated none of these.

Answer: Option C 3. The angle of internal friction is maximum for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. angular-grained loose sand angular-grained dense sand round-grained dense sand round-grained loose sand clays.

Answer: Option B 4. If G is specific gravity of sand particles, e is porosity, the critically hydraulic gradient [A]. ic = [B]. ic = [C].

ic =

[D]. ic = Answer: Option C 5. A grillage foundation [A]. is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns

[B]. [C]. [D].

is treated as spread foundation consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel beams all the above.

Answer: Option D 6. The plasticity of fine soils may be assessed by means of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. dry strength test toughness test dilatancy test all of these.

Answer: Option D 7. The density of soil can be increased [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. by reducing the space occupied by air by elastic compression of soil grains by expelling water from pores All the above.

Answer: Option D 8. The degree of saturation of the soil sample stated in Question No. 11.243, is [A]. [C]. 54% 74% [B]. [D]. 64% 84%

Answer: Option D 9. The length/diameter ratio of cylindrical specimens used in triaxial test, is generally [A]. [C]. 1 2 [B]. [D]. 1.5 2.5

[E].

Answer: Option C 10. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The object of classifying soils is to arrange them into groups according to their properties and behaviour A soil classification system is meant to provide an accepted and systematic method of describing the various types of soils eliminating personal factors The first category of soil classification is based on grain size of the soil The second category of soil classification is based on fine as well as coarse grains All the above.

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 11. The porosity of the soil sample stated in Q. No. 213, is [A]. [C]. 44.3% 46.3% [B]. [D]. 45.3% 47.3%

Answer: Option C 12. A suspended particle falls through a height H cm in water in t minutes. If the viscosity of water is and specific gravity of the particle is G, the diameter of the particle is (where M is a constant factor) [A]. 103M

[B].

104M

[C].

105M

[D].

102M

Answer: Option C 13. Laplacian fundamental equation for a non-compressible flow in three dimensions, is [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. none of these.

Answer: Option C 14. The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. size of the particles shape of the particles cohesive properties of particles internal frictional resistance of particles all the above.

Answer: Option E 15. A direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure developed during the test As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes none of these.

Answer: Option C 16. Through a point in a loaded soil mass, there exists n typical planes mutually orthogonal on

which the stress is wholly normal and no shear stress acts, if n is [A]. [C]. 1 3 [B]. [D]. 2 4

Answer: Option C 17. The pressure that builds up in pore water due to load increment on the soil, is termed [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. excess pore pressure excess hydrostatic pressure hydrodynamic pressure all the above.

Answer: Option D 18. The ratio of emax and emin of silty sand, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 2.0 3.0 4.0 [B]. [D]. 5 3.5

Answer: Option C 19. A flow net may be utilised for the determination of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. exit gradient seepage hydrostatic pressure seepage pressure all the above.

Answer: Option E 20. The neutral stress in a soil mass is [A]. force per neutral area

[B]. [C]. [D].

force per effective area stess taken up by the pore water stress taken up by solid particles.

Answer: Option C 21. If voids ratio is 0.67, water content is 0.188 and specific gravity is 2.68, the degree of saturation of the soil, is [A]. [C]. 25% 60% [B]. [D]. 40% 75%

Answer: Option D 22. If water content of a soil is 40%, G is 2.270 and void ratio is 1.35, the degree of saturation is [A]. [C]. [E]. 70% 80% 90% [B]. [D]. 75% 85%

Answer: Option C 23. If is the surcharge angle of a backfill with an angle of internal friction , the coefficient of active earth pressure given by Rankine's theory, is : [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. none of these.

Answer: Option B

24. A structure is erected on an impervious clay whose thickness is 12 m. Drainage is possible both at upper and lower surfaces. Coefficient of consolidation is 0.015 cm2per minute. For attaining 50% consolidation with a time factor 0.20, the number of days required [A]. [C]. 3233 33331 [B]. [D]. 3123 3313

Answer: Option C Explanation: Tv = Cv/t/H^2. t = 0.2*12*12*100*100/(0.015*60*24) days = 13333.33 days. 25. Which one of the following statements is true for Mohr-Coulomb envelope ? [A]. Coulomb suggests that the relationship between shear strength and normal stress, is adequately represented by the straight line The generalised Mohr theory suggests that, though the shear stress depends on the normal stress, the relation is not linear Coulomb and Mohr suggest that a definite relationship exists among the principal stress and the angle of internal friction For an ideal pure friction material, the straight line passes through the origin. All the above.

[B].

[C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 26. The intensity of active earth pressure at a depth of 10 metres in dry cohesionless sand with an angle of internal friction of 30 and with a weight of 1.8 t/m3, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 4 t/m2 5 t/m2 6 t/m2 7 t/m2 8 t/m2

Answer: Option C Explanation: Intensity of pressure at base = Ka.Y.H. 27. On wetting, cohesive soils, [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. loose permeability gain shear strength loose elasticity decrease their shear strength.

Answer: Option D 28. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The range of water content between the liquid limit and plastic limit, is called plasticity index. The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of soils, is called consistency index The ratio of natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index is called liquidity index The ratio between plasticity index and flow index (i.e. slope of flow curve in case of liquid limit), is called toughness index All the above.

[B].

[C].

[D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 29. 'Talus' is the soil transported by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. wind water glacier gravitational force.

Answer: Option D

30. A triaxial shear test is prefered to direct shear test, because [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. it can be performed under all three driange conditions with complete control precise measurement of pore pressure and change in volume during test, is not posible stress distribution on the failure plane, is non uniform none of these.

Answer: Option A 36. An unsaturated 100 cm3 sample of soil weighs 190 g. If its dried weight is 160 g, water content of the soil, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 0.188 0.388 0.588 [B]. [D]. 0.288 0.488

Answer: Option A Explanation: Bulk Density = Weight/Volume = 190/100 = 1.9g/cc. Dry Density = Weight of solids/ Volume = 160/100 = 1.6g/cc. Dry density = Bulk density/ (1+water content). Water content = (1.9/1.6)-1. Water content = 0.188 = 18.8%. 37. If the natural moisture content, the liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample are stated as 30.5%, 42.5% and 22.5% respectively, the ratio of liquidity index and plastic index, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2

Answer: Option D Explanation: Ip = Wl - Wp = 42.5 - 22.5 = 0.20. Il = w - Wp / Ip = (30.5 - 22.5)/20 = 0.40. Il/Ip = 0.4/0.2 = 2.0 answer - C. 38. The specific gravity of Calcite is [A]. [C]. 2.65 2.85 [B]. [D]. 2.72 2.90

Answer: Option B 39. The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of total voids, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. air content percentage air voids percentage voids porosity.

Answer: Option A 40. A plane inclined at an angle to the horizontal at which the soil is expected to stay in the absence of any lateral support, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. natural slope line repose line the line all the above.

Answer: Option D 41. Tergazhi's theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes [A]. load is applied in one direction

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

coefficient of permeability is constant excess pore water drains out only in the vertical direction time lag in consolidation is due entirely to permeability all the above.

Answer: Option E 42. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The dry density reduces by addition of water after attaining optimum moisture content The line joining the peak of three moisture content graphs obtained by using three compactive energies, is called line of optimus Well graded coarse grained soils can be compacted to a very high density as compared to fine grained soils All the above. .

[B].

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 43. A soil mass is said to be in plastic equilibrium if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. it is stressed to maximum it is on the verge of failure it is in plastic stage it starts flowing.

Answer: Option B 44. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. The permeability of the coarse-grained soils may be reduced by grouting. The process of injecting fluids (i.e. grouts) into the pores space of the soil, is called grouting. The grouting increases the soil strength.

[D].

All the above.

Answer: Option D 45. A soil sample of mass specific gravity 1.92, has a moisture content 30%. If the specific gravity of solids is 2.75, the void ratio, is [A]. [C]. 0.858 0.862 [B]. [D]. 0.860 0.864

Answer: Option C 46. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids in a given mass of soil, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. porosity specific gravity void ratio water content.

Answer: Option B 47. During seepage through a soil, direction of seepage is always [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. parallel to equipotential lines perpendicular to stream lines perpendicular to equipotential lines none of these.

Answer: Option C 48. The slip at critical angle, is generally known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1-line rupture plane slip plane all the above.

Answer: Option D 49. The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly without rupture, elastic rebound and also a volume change, is known [A]. [C]. porosity permeability [B]. [D]. plasticity ductility.

Answer: Option B 50. According to Rankine's fromula, the minimum depth of foundation [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A

Section 6 1. Pick up the cohesive soil from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Red earth Clay Black cotton soil Compacted ground.

Answer: Option C

2. Pile foundations are generally preferred to for [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. bridge foundations sky scrapper buildings residential buildings runways.

Answer: Option B 3. The angle of internal friction of clays, is usually [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 0 to 5 5 to 20 20 to 30 30 to 45

Answer: Option B 4. If the bulk density of the soil is and water content , then dry density of the soil, is [A].

[B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 5. The specific yield of soil depends upon [A]. [B]. compaction of stratum distribution of pores

[C]. [D].

shape and size of particles all the above.

Answer: Option D 6. The area of cross-section A at failure or during any stage of Triaxial Compression Test and its initial length (L) and volume (V), are related by the equation [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 7. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. In hydrometer method, weight Wd per ml of suspension is found directly In pipette analysis, weight Wd per ml of suspension is found indirectly In pipette analysis, weight Wd per ml of suspension is found directly None of these.

Answer: Option C 8. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. Coefficient of compressibility is the decrease in void ratio per unit increase of pressure The percent settlement at any time is called degree of consolidation

[C]. [D]. [E].

Time factor is a dimensionless quantity The initial curve on either side of the point of unloading and reloading is called 'virgin curve' All the above.

Answer: Option E 9. 'Loess' is silty clay formed by the action of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. water glacier wind gravitational force.

Answer: Option C 10. The maximum possible value nf dry density is referred to as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. dry density zero air voids saturation dry density all the above.

Answer: Option D 11. The void ratio of the soil sample stated in Q. No. 216, is [A]. [C]. 0.4 0.6 [B]. [D]. 0.5 0.75

Answer: Option C 12. The bulk density of the soil sample stated in Q. No. 11.243, is [A]. 1.4 g/cc

[B]. [C]. [D].

1.6 g/cc 1.8 g/cc 2.0 g/cc

Answer: Option C 13. Failure of a slope occurs only when total shear force is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. equal to total shearing strength greater than total shearing strength less than total shearing strength none of these.

Answer: Option B 14. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. A soil having pH value more than 7 is an acidic soil A soil having pH value less than 7 is an acidic soil A soil having pH value more than 7 is an alkaline soil A soil containing chemicals for the manufacture of portland cement is preferred.

Answer: Option B 15. Cohesionless soil is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sand silt clay clay and silt.

Answer: Option A

16. The shearing force acting along the slice of a curved surface of slippage, causes the soil to slide down at the [A]. centre [B]. [C]. [D]. down at the toe upward at the centre none of these.

Answer: Option A 17. The seepage exit gradient in a soil is the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. total head to the length of seepage flow line to slope head upstream to that at downstream head loss to the length of the seepage none of these.

Answer: Option D 18. Sedimentation analysis is based on the assumption: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. soil particles are spherical particles settle independent of other particles walls of the jar do not affect the settlement . all the above.

Answer: Option D 19. If Cs is the expansion index in Q. 11.165, the empirical formula given by Terzaghi, is [A]. [B]. e = e0 - Cd log10 /0' e = e0 + Cd log10 /0'

[C]. [D].

e0 = e - Cd log10 /0' e = e + Cd log10 /0'

Answer: Option B 20. The maximum pressure which a soil can carry without shear failure, is called safe bearing [A]. capacity [B]. [C]. [D]. net safe bearing capacity net ultimate bearing capacity ultimate bearing capacity.

Answer: Option A 21. For general engineering purposes, soils are classified by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. particle size classification system textural classification system High Way Research Board (HRB), classification system unified soil classification system.

Answer: Option D 22. If there is no impervious boundary at the bottom of a hydraulic structure, stream lines tend to follow : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a straight line a parabola a semiellipse a semi-circle.

Answer: Option C 23. The change of moisture content of soils, changes the

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

value of the angle of repose amount of compaction required cohesive strength of soil all the above.

Answer: Option D 24. A failure wedge develops if a retaining wall moves away from the [A]. backfill [B]. [C]. [D]. moves towards the backfill sinks downwards stresses equally by vertical and horizontal forces.

Answer: Option A 25. For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of soil, the recommended size of a square bearing plate to be used in load plate test should be 30 to 75 cm square with a minimum thickness of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 5 mm 10 mm 15 mm 20 mm 25 mm

Answer: Option E 26. The water content in a soil sample when it continues to loose weight without loosing the volume, is called Shrinkage [A]. limit [B]. Plastic limit

[C]. [D].

liquid limit semi-solid limit.

Answer: Option A 27. The intensity of vertical pressure at a depth Z directly below the point load Q on its axis of loading is : [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 28. When a cohesionless soil attains quick condition, it looses [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shear strength bearing capacity both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (6).

Answer: Option C 29. Pick up the correct definition from the following: [A]. The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wall moves away from the back fill, is generally known as active earth pressure of the soil The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wail moves towards the soil, is generally known as 'Passive earth pressure of the soil' The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wall has no movement

[B]. [C].

relative to the back fill, is known as 'earth pressure at rest of the soil' [D]. All the above.

Answer: Option D

Steel Structure Design Section 1 1. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is [A]. [C]. [E]. L 0.85 L 2L [B]. [D]. 0.67 L 1.5 L

Answer: Option A 2. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. modulus of elasticity shear modulus of elasticity bulk modulus of elasticity tangent modulus of elasticity all the above.

Answer: Option B 3. For determination of allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has adopted [A]. Euler's formula

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Rankine formula Engesser formula Secant formula Perry Robertson formula.

Answer: Option D 4. The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. simply design semi-rigid design fully rigid design none of these.

Answer: Option C 5. If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the number of rivets required for a riveted connection carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of 30 cm from the centre line, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 6 10 15 [B]. [D]. 8 12

Answer: Option B Explanation: Strength of rivet in shearing and bearing are calculated and the lesser value among two is known as rivet value. 6. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for circular sections, is [A]. 1.5

[B]. [C]. [D].

1.6 1.697 none of these.

Answer: Option C 7. The critical stress on a column for elastic buckling given by Euler's formula, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 8. A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. axial loading transverse loading axial and transverse loading none of these.

Answer: Option B 9. According to IS : 800 - 71, the minimum thickness of a vertically stiffened web plate, shall not be less than [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option D 10. A fillet weld may be termed as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. mitre weld concave weld convex weld all the above.

Answer: Option D 11. If the moment of inertia of a section about its axis is I and its effective sectional area is A, its radius of gyration r about the axis, is [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option B

12. The critical load for a column of length I hinged at both ends and having flexural rigidity El, is given by [A]. [B].

[C]. [D]. none of these

Answer: Option A 13. Slenderness ratio of a compression member is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option C 14. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. Vertical stiffeners may be placed in pairs one on each side of the web Single vertical stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web Horizontal stiffeners may be placed in pairs one on each side of the web

[D]. [E].

Horizontal stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web All the above.

Answer: Option E 15. A structural member subjected to compressive stress in a direction parallel to its longitudinal axis, is generally known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. column stanchion post strut all the above.

Answer: Option E 16. The equivalent axial tensile load Pe, which produces an average axial tensile stress in the section equivalent to the combined stress due to axial tension P and bending M, at the extreme fibre of the section, is given by (where Z is the section modulus of the section). [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 17. Live load [A]. varies in magnitude

[B]. [C]. [D].

varies in position is expressed as uniformly distributed load All the above.

Answer: Option D 18. The most economical section for a column, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. rectangular solid round flat strip tubular section hexagonal.

Answer: Option D 19. If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. with filler plates with bearing plates with filler and hearing plates none of these.

Answer: Option D 20. The distance between e.g. of compression and e.g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as [A]. [B]. overall depth clear depth

[C]. [D].

effective depth none of these.

Answer: Option C 21. Web crippling generally occurs at the point where [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. bending moment is maximum shearing force is minimum concentrated loads act deflection is maximum all the above.

Answer: Option C 22. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The nominal diameter of a rivet is its diameter before driving The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of rivet hole The gross area of a rivet is the cross-sectional area of the rivet hole The diameter of a rivet hole is equal to the nominal diameter of the rivet plus 1.5 mm None of these.

Answer: Option D 23. The allowable stress in axial tension for rolled I-sections and channels, is taken as [A]. [B]. [C]. 1420 kg/cm2 1500 kg/cm2 2125 kg/cm2

[D].

1810 kg/cm2

Answer: Option B 24. When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as a web, the allowance for holes is made as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. two holes for each angle and one hole for the web one hole for each angle and one hole for the web one hole for each angle and two holes for the web two holes for each angle and two holes for the web none of these.

Answer: Option C 25. The failure of a web plate takes place by yielding if the ratio of the clear depth to thickness of the web, is less than [A]. [C]. [E]. 45 60 82 [B]. [D]. 55 75

Answer: Option E 26. The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate). [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 2t 4t 6t 8t 10 t

Answer: Option B 27. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A] . [B] . [C] . [D] . Dead load includes self-weight of the structure and super-imposed loads permanently attached to the structure Dead loads change their positions and vary in magnitude

Dead loads are known in the beginning of the design

None of these.

Answer: Option A 28. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member carrying loads resulting from wind, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 180 250 350 [B]. [D]. 200 300

Answer: Option C 29. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not greater than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. d 1.25 d 1.5 d 1.75 d

Answer: Option C

30. If the unsupported length of a stanchion is 4 metres and least radius of gyration of its crosssection is 5, the slenderness ratio of the stanchion, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 60 80 100 [B]. [D]. 70 90

Answer: Option C Explanation: 400/5 = 80, l/r = slenderness ratio. 31. The area Ap of cover plates in one flange of a built up beam, is given by [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option D 32. The average shear stress for rolled steel beam section, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 845 kg/cm2 945 kg/cm2 1025 kg/cm2 1500 kg/cm2 1875 kg/cm2

Answer: Option B

33. For a rectangular section, the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 1.5 2.5 4.0 [B]. [D]. 2.0 3.0

Answer: Option A 34. To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete compressive and to vary from zero to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option E 35. The cross-section of a standard fillet is a triangle whose base angles are 45 and [A]. 45 [B]. [C]. [D]. 30 and 60 40 and 50 20 and 70 , the ratio of the moment M to the axial load P should be

Answer: Option A

36. Secant formula for direct stress in compression, is applicable only for slenderness ratio upto [A]. [C]. [E]. 120 140 160 [B]. [D]. 130 150

Answer: Option C 37. A second horizontal stiffener is always placed at the neutral axis of the girder if the thickness of the web is less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. d/250 for structural steel d/225 for high tensile steel both (c) and (b) neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option C 38. The rolled steel I-sections are most commonly used as beams because these provide [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. large moment of inertia with less cross-sectional area large moment of resistance as compared to other section greater lateral stability all the above.

Answer: Option D 39. The thickness t of a single flat lacing should not be less than [A]. [B]. [C]. 1/30 th length between inner end rivets 1/40 th length between inner end rivets 1/50 th length between inner end rivets

[D]. [E].

1/60 th length between inner end rivets none of these.

Answer: Option B 40. For the steel member exposed to weather and accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel should not be less than (excepting the webs of Indian Standard rolled steel joists and channels). [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 4 mm 6 mm 8 mm 10 mm

Answer: Option B 41. The permissible stress in bending for rolled steel I-beams and channels, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1500 kg/cm2 1575 kg/cm2 945 kg/cm2 1650 kg/cm2 1875 kg/cm2

Answer: Option D 42. Column footing is provided [A]. [B]. [C]. to spread the column load over a larger area to ensure that intensity of bearing pressure between the column footing and soil does not exceed permissible bearing capacity of the soil to distribute the column load over soil through the column footing

[D].

all the above.

Answer: Option D 43. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. When the gauge distance is larger than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a zig-zag line When the gauge distance is smaller than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a straight right angle section through the centre of rivet holes When the gauge distance and pitch are both equal, the failure to the section becomes more likely as the diameter of the holes increases All the above.

[B].

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 44. The ratio of longitudinal stress to strain within eiastic limit, is known as modulus of [A]. elasticity [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. shear modulus of elasticity bulk modulus of elasticity tangent modulus of elasticity all the above.

Answer: Option A 45. If flexural rigidity of a column whose length is L and the loaded end is free, is El, the critical load will be [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option B 46. For a column of height L fixed in position and direction both at its top and bottom, its effective length, is [A]. L [B].

L 2L

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 47. In a tension member if b is width of plate, t is thickness of plate, p is staggered pitch,g is gauge distance, n is number of rivet holes in zig-zag line, n is number of gauge spaces, d is gross diameter of rivets, then the net sectional area Anet of the plate, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option C 48. Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its gross section area [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. plus the area of the rivet holes divided by the area of rivet holes multiplied by the area of the rivet holes minus the area of the rivet holes none of these.

Answer: Option D 49. The distance measured along one rivet line from the centre of a rivet to the centre of adjoining rivet on an adjacent parallel rivet line, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. pitch of rivet gauge distance of rivet staggered pitch all the above none of these.

Answer: Option C 50. Tongue plates are provided in a steel girder at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. the upper flange the lower flange the upper end of the web the lower end of the web the upper and lower ends of the web.

Answer: Option E Section - 2 1. The effective length L of a simply supported beam with ends restrained against torsion, and also the ends of compression flange partially restrained against lateral bending, is given by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. L = span L = 0.85 span L = 0.75 span L = 0.7 span L = 1.25 span

Answer: Option B 2. Rolled steel beams are designated by Indian Standard series and its [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. weight per metre and depth of its section depth of section and weight per metre width of flange and weight per metre weight per metre and flange width.

Answer: Option B 3. The spans are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than [A]. [C]. 5% 15% [B]. [D]. 10% 20%

Answer: Option C 4. If the depth of the section of an upper column is smaller than the lower column

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

filler plates are provided with column splice bearing plates are provided with column splice neither filler plates nor bearing plates are provided with column splice filler plates and bearing plates are provided with column splice none of these.

Answer: Option D 5. A tension member, if subjected to possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of the member should not exceed [A]. [C]. [E]. 180 250 350 [B]. [D]. 200 300

Answer: Option E 6. An axial loaded column is supported on a slab base whose projection is 8 cm. If the intensity of pressure from concrete is 40 kg/cm2 and allowable bending stress in slab base is 1890 kg/cm2, the thickness (t) of the slab base, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B

7. If P is the load applied to a bracket with an eccentricity e, the resisting moment Fexerted by a rivet at a distance rn from the centre of gravity, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option B 8. The effective length of a weld, is taken as the actual length [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. minus the size of weld minus twice the size of weld plus the size of weld plus twice the size of weld none of these.

Answer: Option B 9. The permissible bearing stress in steel, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1500 kg/cm2 1890 kg/cm2 2025 kg/cm2 2340 kg/cm2

[E].

2250 kg/cm2

Answer: Option B 10. The main assumption of the method of simple design of steel frame work, is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. beams are simply supported all connections of beams, girders and trusses are virtually flexible members in compression are subjected to forces applied at appropriate eccentricities all the above.

Answer: Option D 11. Strengths of a rivet in single shearing, in bearing and in tearing are 3425 kg, 4575 kg and 5025 kg respectively. If the load in the member is 35 tonnes, the number of rivets required, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 10 12 15 [B]. [D]. 11 13

Answer: Option D 12. In a fillet weld placed on the sides of the base, the metal experiences [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. shear tension compression bending all the above.

Answer: Option E

13. The bending moment for filler joists at the middle of at intermediate span, is [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option D 14. The maximum length of 6 mm fillet weld required to connect a tie bar 80 mm x 8 mm with a gusset plate 8 mm thick, assuming permissible stress in tension as 1500 kg/cm 2, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 20.32 cm 21.32 cm 22.32 cm 23.32 cm

Answer: Option E 15. The Indian standard code which deals with steel structures, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. IS : 875 IS : 800 IS : 456 IS : 1893

Answer: Option B

16. When two plates are placed end to end and are joined by two cover plates, the joint is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. lap joint butt joint chain riveted lap joint zig-zag riveted lap joint double cover butt joint.

Answer: Option E 17. The moment of the couple set up in a section of a beam by the logitudinal compressive and tensile force, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. bending moment moment of resistance flexural stress moment none of these.

Answer: Option B 18. Pick up the correct statement from the following: The minimum pitch should not be less than 2.5 times the gross [A]. diameter of the river [B]. [C]. [D]. The minimum pitch should not be less than 12 times the gross diameter of the rivet The maximum pitch should not exceed 10 times the thickness or 150 mm whichever is less in compression All the above.

Answer: Option A 19. In a member subjected to an axial tensile force and bending moment, the maximum allowable stress in axial tension is ft and the maximum allowable bending stress in tension

is fht. If ft and fht are their corresponding actual axial tensile and bending stresses, the relationship which holds goods is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 20. A major beam in a building structure, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a girder a floor beam a main beam all the above.

Answer: Option D 21. Rolled steel Tee-sections are used [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. as columns with flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks as built up sections to resist axial tension none of these.

Answer: Option B 22. A compression member consisting of angle sections may be a

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

continuous member discontinuous single angle strut discontinuous double angle strut all the above.

Answer: Option D 23. The equivalent axial load is obtained from the fomula [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

none of these.

Answer: Option A 24. According to IS : 800-1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plates, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1500 kg/cm2 1420 kg/cm2 2125 kg/cm2 1890 kg/cm2

Answer: Option D

25. A simply supported beam carrying a central load, will be safe in deflection if the ratio of its span to depth, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. < 19 < 24 > 19 > 24 > 37

Answer: Option B 26. For double angles carrying tension, placed back to back and connected to either side of the gusset plate, the sectional area of the section, is equal to cross sectional area of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. the section the section plus area of rivet holes the section minus area of rivet holes tthe section multiplied by the area of the rivet hole.

Answer: Option C 27. When a load is transferred through one surface to another surface in contact, the stress is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. tensile stress compressive stress shearing stress working stress none of these.

Answer: Option C

28. The most commonly used sections in lateral system to carry shear force in built up columns, are [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. rolled steel flats rolled angles rolled channels all the above.

Answer: Option D 29. If p and d are pitch and gross diameter of rivets, the efficiency () of the riveted joint, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option C 30. For steel members not exposed to weather, the thickness of steel should not be less than [A]. [B]. [C]. 4.5 mm 6 mm 8 mm

[D].

10 mm

Answer: Option B 31. The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. d 1.25 d 1.5 d 2d 2.5 d

Answer: Option E 32. A long plate girder is subjected to a maximum bending moment M in which permitted allowable bending stress is fb. The economical depth de and the thickness of the webtw, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

none of these.

Answer: Option B 33. The beams supporting the steps of a stair are generally known as

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

headers trimmers stringers spandrel beams.

Answer: Option C 34. In a grillage column footing maximum bending moment M occurs at the centre of grillage beams. Its value is (where P, L and a are axial load, length of the beam and length of the column base respectively). [A]. [B]. M = P(L - a)

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option C 35. For a steel grillage footing to support two unequal column loads [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. line of action of the resultant of two column loads, is made to coincide with the centre of gravity of the base of the footing trapezoidal shape is used for the base footing projections of beams on either side in lower tier are such that bending moments under columns are equal bending moment under the columns are kept equal to the bending moment between

to two columns [E]. all the above.

Answer: Option E 36. In case of cantilever fillers, the ratio of the span L to depth d, should not exceed [A]. [C]. [E]. 4 12 20 [B]. [D]. 8 16

Answer: Option C 37. The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field, are known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. power driven shop rivets power driven field rivets hand driven rivets cold driven rivets field rivets.

Answer: Option B 38. The strength of a riveted lap joint is equal to its [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. shearing strength bearing strength tearing strength least of (a), (b) and (c) greatest of (a) (b) and (c).

Answer: Option D

39. The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when its length [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. is zero is equal to its radius of gyration is supported on all sides throughout its length is between the points of zero moments.

Answer: Option D 40. If f is the maximum allowable bending stress in a tension member whose radius of gyration is r and depth is 2y, the required cross sectional area A is given by [A]. [B].

[C]. [D].

[E].

Answer: Option A 41. The main advantage of a steel member, is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. its high strength its gas and water tightness its long service life all the above.

Answer: Option D

42. A 20 mm dia steel bar which is subjected to an axial tension of 2300 kg/cm 2 produces a strain of 0.004 cm. If Young's modulus of steel is 2.1 x 106 kg/cm2, the bar is in the elastic [A]. range [B]. [C]. [D]. in the plastic range at yield point none of these.

Answer: Option A 43. Poisson's ratio for steel within elastic limit, ranges from [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.15 to 0.20 0.25 to 0.24 0.25 to 0.33 0.33 to 0.35 0.45 to 0.50

Answer: Option C 44. For eccentrically loaded columns, the bending factor is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 45. When a large value of radius of gyration is not required [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. channels are placed back to back channel flanges are kept inward channel flanges are kept outward none of these.

Answer: Option B 46. The maximum axial load which is just sufficient to keep a column in a small deflected shape, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. crippling load buckling load critical load all the above.

Answer: Option D 47. If the slenderness ratio is greater than 160, the allowable stress in axial compression is multiplied by a factor (1.2 - (l/xy) where x is [A]. [C]. [E]. 200 600 1000 [B]. [D]. 400 800

Answer: Option D 48. The effective length of a compression member of length L, held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

L 0.67 L 0.85 L 1.5 L 2L

Answer: Option B 49. Spans of continuous fillers are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed the shortest span by more than [A]. [C]. [E]. 5% 15% 25% [B]. [D]. 10% 20%

Answer: Option C 50. The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. cold rivet before driving rivet after driving rivet hole none of these.

Answer: Option B SECTION 3 1. Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger than the diameter of the rivet by [A]. [B]. 1.0 mm for rivet diameter upto 12 mm 1.5 mm for rivet diameter exceeding 25 mm

[C]. [D].

2.0 mm for rivet diameter over 25 mm none of these.

Answer: Option C 2. Number of rivets required in a joint, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option D 3. When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. each web each flange both webs each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less.

Answer: Option E 4. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders without

horizontal stiffeners, are spaced at a distance not less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 0.15 d 0.22 d 0.33 d 0.44 d

Answer: Option C 5. A column splice is used to increase length of the [A]. column [B]. [C]. [D]. strength of the column cross-sectional area of the column none of these.

Answer: Option A 6. If W and L are the total superimposed load and the span of a plate girder in metres, the approximate self weight (W) of the girder, is taken as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option C

7. If d is the clear depth of a plate girder, t is the minimum required thickness of the web, C is the maximum clear distance between vertical stiffeners, the moment of inertia of a pair of stiffeners about the centre line of the web, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 8. The ratio of the span L of the filler joists to the depth d from the under side of the joist to the top of the structural concrete, should not exceed [A]. [C]. [E]. 60 35 20 [B]. [D]. 45 25

Answer: Option C 9. The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in extreme fibres of rolled I-sections and channels on the effective section, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1500 kg/cm2 1420 kg/cm2 1650 kg/cm2 2285 kg/cm2

Answer: Option C

10. Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for built up sections consisting of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. channels placed back to back channels placed toe to toe four angle box section all the above.

Answer: Option C 11. The tensile strength of mild steel for bolts and nuts should not be less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 32 kg/mm2 36 kg/mm2 40 kg/mm2 44 kg/mm2

Answer: Option D 12. A riveted joint may experience [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. shear failure shear failure of plates bearing failure bearing failure of rivets all the above.

Answer: Option E 13. With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its [A]. [C]. strength brittleness [B]. [D]. hardness ductility.

Answer: Option D 14. In a built up beam actual bending compressive stress fbc is given by (when y1 is the distance of the edge of the beam from the neutral axis). [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option A 15. In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. t < 1/40 th length between inner end rivets t < 1/50 th length between inner end rivets t < 1/60 th length between inner end rivets t < 1/70 th length between inner end rivets none of these.

Answer: Option C 16. When the length of a tension member is too long [A]. [B]. a wire rope is used a rod is used

[C]. [D].

a bar is used a single angle is used.

Answer: Option E 17. An imaginary line along which rivets are placed, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. rivet line scrieve line back line gauge line all the above.

Answer: Option E 18. The allowable stress in axial tension is generally kept less if thickness of the member is more than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10 mm 12 mm 15 mm 20 mm 22 mm

Answer: Option D 19. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of compression member carrying dead and superimposed load, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 180 250 350 [B]. [D]. 200 300

Answer: Option A 20. The safe working pressure for a spherical vessel 1.5 m diameter and having 1.5 cm thick wall not to exceed tensile stress 50kg/cm2 , is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 16 kg/cm2 18 kg/cm2 20 kg/cm2 22 kg/cm2

Answer: Option C 21. Lug angle is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. used with single angle member not used with double angle member used with channel member all the above.

Answer: Option D 22. Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. L 0.67 L 0.85 L 1.5 L 2L

Answer: Option B

23. A riveted joint many experience [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. tearing failure of plates bearing failure of plates splitting failure of plates at the edges bearing failure of rivets all the above.

Answer: Option E 24. If a pair of angles placed back to back in tension are connected by one leg of each angle, the net effective area of the section, is [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option D 25. IS : 800 - 1971 recommends that in a splice plate the number of rivets carrying calculated shear stress through a packing greater than 6 mm thick, is to be increased by 2.5% for every [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1.00 mm thickness of packing 1.50 mm thickness of packing 2.0 mm thickness of packing 2.50 mm thickness of packing

[E].

3.0 mm thickness of packing.

Answer: Option C 26. To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete, compressive throughout the length of the column base, the ratio of the moment M to axial load P should be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option B 27. When the upper column does not provide full bearing area over lower column, the column splice is provided with the following assumption [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. bearing plate is assumed as a short beam to transmit the axial load to the lower column section axial load is assumed to be taken by flanges load transmitted from the flanges of upper column and reactions from the flanges of lower columns are equal and form a couple all the above.

Answer: Option D 28. For a steel member of slenderness ratio 350, the allowable stress is 76 kg/cm 2 if it is [A]. HTW grade of thickness exceeding 32 mm

[B]. [C]. [D].

HT grade of thickness exceeding 45 mm HT grade of thickness not exceeding 45 mm All the above.

Answer: Option D 29. The permissible stress to which a structural member can be subjected to, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. bearing stress working stress tensile stress compressive stress all the above.

Answer: Option B 30. If M is the moment due to a couple in a bearing plate whose width is b and allowable bending stress is P, the thickness (t) of the bending plate of the column splice, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option B 31. Tacking rivets in compression plates not exposed to the weather, have a pitch not exceeding 300 mm or [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 16 times the thickness of outside plate 24 times the thickness of outside plate 32 times the thickness of outside plate 36 times the thickness of outside plate.

Answer: Option C 32. Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. L 0.67 L 0.85 L 1.5 L 2L

Answer: Option E 33. For columns whose slenderness ratio is upto 160, the secant formula for the determination of allowable stress, is

[A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 34. The effective length of a double angle strut with angles placed back to back and connected to both the sides of a gusset plate, by not less than two rivets, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.5 L 0.67 L 0.85 L L 2L

Answer: Option C 35. According to the Unwin's formula, if t is thickness of the plate in mm, the nominal diameter of the rivet, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. d = 1.91 t d = 1.91 t2 d = 1.91 t d = 1.91 t d = 2.3 t

Answer: Option C

36. A single angle in tension is connected by one leg only. If the areas of connecting and outstanding legs are respectively a and b, net effective area of the angle, is [A]. [B]. [C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option B 37. The central deflection of a simply supported steel beam of length L with a concentrated load W at the centre, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 38. If L is the overall length of a combined footing having A as its area, d being the distance between the centre of gravity of the base and centre of the base, the larger width b is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 39. On eccentrically loaded columns, the equivalent axial load may be obtained by adding the axial load, eccentric load, the product of the bending moment due to [A]. eccentric load and the appropriate bending factor [B]. adding the axial load and eccentric load and subtracting the product of bending moment and appropriate bending factor dividing the sum of axial load and eccentric load by the product of the bending moment and appropirate bending factor none of these.

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option A 40. The distance between the outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. overall depth clear depth effective depth none of these.

Answer: Option A 41. To the calculated area of cover plates of a built-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added, is [A]. 10% [B]. 13%

[C]. [E].

15% 20%.

[D].

18%

Answer: Option B 42. The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the top, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. unstiffened seated connection stiffened seated connection seated connection none of these.

Answer: Option C 43. Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to back and connected to one side of a gusset plate, is reduced to [A]. [C]. [E]. 50% 70% 40% [B]. [D]. 60% 80%

Answer: Option D 44. Bulb angles are used in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. column building bridge building ship building water tank building.

Answer: Option C

45. Effective sectional area of a compression member is : gross sectional area - area of [A]. rivet hole [B]. [C]. [D]. gross sectional ares + area of rivet hole gross sectional ares x area of rivet hole gross sectional ares + area of rivet hole.

Answer: Option A 46. A fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. diagonal filler weld end fillet weld side fillet weld all the above.

Answer: Option C 47. Assuming the values of maximum deviation P and E to be 25% of the computed value of P and E respectively, the minimum value of the factor of safety is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1.00 0.67 1.67 2.67 none of these.

Answer: Option C 48. In case horizontal stiffeners are not used, the distance between vertical legs of flange angles at the top and bottom of a plate girder, is known as [A]. overall depth

[B]. [C]. [D].

clear depth effective depth none of these.

Answer: Option B 49. Rolled steel angle sections are classified as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. equal angles unequal angles bulb angles all the above.

Answer: Option D 50. Factor of safety is the ratio of yield stress to working [A]. stress [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. tensile stress to working stress compressive stress to working stress bearing stress to working stress bearing stress to yield stress.

Answer: Option A SECTION - 4 1. Cold driven rivets range from [A]. [B]. 6 to 10 mm in diameter 10 to 16 mm in diameter

[C]. [D]. [E].

12 to 22 mm in diameter 22 to 32 mm in diameter none of these.

Answer: Option C 2. The main type of butt joints, is a double cover [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shear riveted joint chain riveted joint zig-zag riveted joint all the above.

Answer: Option D 3. Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel, is measured as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. half of the nominal width nominal width of the section from the edge to the first row of rivets none of these.

Answer: Option B 4. The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to maximum stress produced by the [A]. eccentric load [B]. [C]. [D]. maximum stressed fibre bending stress none of these.

Answer: Option A 5. If d is the distance between the flange angles of a plate girder, vertical stiffeners are provided at a distance not greater than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. d but not less than 0.20 d 1.25 d but not less than 0.33 d 1.5 d but not less than 0.33 d 2.0 d but not less than 0.50 d 2.5 d but not less than 0.50 d

Answer: Option B 6. The beam outside a wall upto floor level above it, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. rafter purlin spandrel beam lintel none of these.

Answer: Option C 7. A structural member subjected to tensile force in a direction parallel to its logitudinal axis, is generally known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a tie a tie member a tension member all the above.

Answer: Option D 8. For the economical design of a combined footing to support two equal column loads, the projections of beams in lower tier are kept such that bending moment under column is equal to bending moment at the centre of [A]. the beam [B]. [C]. [D]. half the bending moment at the centre of the beam twice the bending moment at the centre of the beam none of these.

Answer: Option A 9. In rolled steel beams, shear force is mostly resisted by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. web only flanges only web and flanges together none of these.

Answer: Option A 10. When plates are exposed to weather, tacking rivets are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding (where t is the thickness of the outside plate). [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 8t 16 t 24 t 32 t 48 t

Answer: Option B

11. The greatest gauge of long rivets should not exceed (where d is the diameter of the holes). [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 2d 4d 6d 8d 10 d

Answer: Option D 12. Maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as a tie in a roof truss, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 180 250 350 [B]. [D]. 200 300

Answer: Option E 13. If d is the distance between the flange angles, [A]. [B]. vertical stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less thand/85 vertical stiffeners are provided in high tensile steel plate girders if the web is less than d/175 horizontal stiffeners are provided in high tensile girder steel plate if the web is less than d/180 horizontal stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/200 All the above.

[C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E 14. The side thrust T on the tie rods provided at the end beam of jack arch of rise R, is calculated

from the formula [A].

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C 15. When the depth of a plate girder is at least n times the depth of vertical leg of the flange angles, the girder is known as deep plate girder, if n is [A]. [C]. [E]. 2 6 10 [B]. [D]. 4 8

Answer: Option D 16. Stiffeners are used in a plate girder [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. to reduce the compressive stress to reduce the shear stress to take the bearing stress to avoid bulking of web plate.

Answer: Option D 17. The channels get twisted symmetrically with regard to its axis [A]. [B]. parallel to flanges parallel to web

[C]. [D].

perpendicular to flanges perpendicular to web.

Answer: Option B 18. The stiff portion of a bearing stiffener is taken equal to [A]. [B]. depth of the beam

th depth of the beam

[C]. [D].

depth of the beam depth of the beam.

Answer: Option D 19. Effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. L 0.67 L 0.85 L 1.5 L 2L

Answer: Option C 20. The strength of ISA 125 = 75 x 10 mm used as a tie member with its longer leg connected at the ends by 27 mm diameter rivets, is [A]. [B]. 26,000 kg 26,025 kg

[C]. [D]. [E].

26,050 kg 26,075 kg 27,000 kg

Answer: Option D 21. The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as depth of the beam multiplied by its [A]. web thickness [B]. [C]. [D]. width of the flange multiplied by its web thickness sum of the flange width and depth of the beam multiplied by the web thickness none of these.

Answer: Option A 22. If fbt and fc are the co-existent bending tensile stress and shear stress in a member, the equivalent stress fc is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option C 23. For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection, is 1/325 of the [A]. span

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

1/350 of the span 1/375 of the span 1/400 of the span none of these.

Answer: Option A 24. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal consists of mild steel flat 4001.S.F. and carries a pull of 80 tonnes. If the grossdiameter of the rivet is 26 mm, the number of rivets required in the splice, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 6 8 12 [B]. [D]. 7 9

Answer: Option C 25. Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivets Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area Bearing stress is uniform between the contact surfaces of the plate and the rivet Bearing stress in the rivet is neglected All the above.

Answer: Option E 26. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. The steel beams placed in plain cement concrete, are known as reinforced beams The filler joists are generally continuous over three-supports only

[C]. [D]. [E].

Continuous fillers are connected to main beams by means of cleat angles Continuous fillers are supported by main steel beams All the above.

Answer: Option D 27. When a column is subjected to eccentric load having eccentricity ex, with respect to x-axis and eccentricity ey with respect to y-axis the column is subjected to moment in two directions and the equivalent axial load, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option A 28. The value of f.o.s 'm' in the formula for safe compressive stress for a column is taken

as [A]. [C]. 1.5 1.68 [B]. [D]. 1.6 1.88

Answer: Option C 29. Maximum permissible slenderness ratio of compression members which carry dead and

superimposed load, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 350 180 75 [B]. [D]. 250 80

Answer: Option C 30. If the area of cross-section of a single angle discontinuous strut is 30 cm2 and allowable working stress corresponding to its slenderness ratio is 625 kg/cm 2, the safe load carrying capacity of the member, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10 tonnes 12 tonnes 15 tonnes 18 tonnes 20 tonnes

Answer: Option C 31. According to I.S. : 800 - 1871, lacing bars resist transverse shear equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1.0% of the axial load 2.0% of the axial load 2.5% of the axial load 3.0% of the axial load 4.0% of the axial load.

Answer: Option C 32. The greatest permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is restricted to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

180 t 220 t 230 t 260 t 270 t

Answer: Option E 33. As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections are classified into [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. two series three series four series five series.

Answer: Option D 34. Water pressure in a 80 cm water main is 10 kg/cm2. The minimum thickness of the metal required for the water main, not to be stressed more than 200 kg/cm2, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1 cm 1.5 cm 2 cm 2.5 cm 3 cm

Answer: Option C 35. In a tension member if one or more than one rivet holes are off the line, the failure of the member depends upon : [A]. pitch

[B]. [C]. [D].

gauge diameter of the rivet holes all the above.

Answer: Option D 36. The size of a butt weld is specified by the effective throat thickness which in the case of incomplete penetration, is taken as [A]. of the thickness of thicker part

[B].

of the thickness of thicker part

[C]. [D]. [E].

of the thickness of thinner part of the thickness of thinner part none of these.

Answer: Option D 37. The thickness of the web of a mild steel plate girder is less than d/200. If only one horizontal stiffener is used, it is placed at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. the neutral axis of the section 2/3rd of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange 2/5th of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange 2/5th of the height of the neutral axis from tension flange none of these.

Answer: Option C

38. The load on a lintel is assumed as uniformly distributed if the height of the masonry above it, is upto a height of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. the effective span 1.25 times the effective span 1.50 times the effective span 2.0 times the effective span 2.5 times the effective span.

Answer: Option B 39. Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 785 kg/cm2 1025 kg/cm2 2360 kg/cm2 none of these.

Answer: Option B 40. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Loaded columns are supported on column bases Column bases transmit the column load to the concrete foundation Column load is spread over a large area on concrete In column bases, intensity of pressure on concrete block is assumed to be uniform All the above.

Answer: Option E 41. The ratio of hydrostatic stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic range, is called

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

modulus of elasticity shear modulus of elasticity bulk modulus of elasticity tangent modulus of elasticity all the above.

Answer: Option E 42. The deflection of beams may be decreased by increasing the depth of [A]. beam [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. increasing the span decreasing the depth of beam increasing the width of beam none of these.

Answer: Option A 43. For a cantilever beam of length L built-in at the support and restrained against torsion at the free end, the effective projecting length l is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. l = 0.7L l = 0.75L l = 0.85L l = 0.5L l=L

Answer: Option B 44. In a built up section carrying a tensile force, the flanges of two channels are turned outward

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

to simplify the transverse connections to minimise lacing to have greater lateral rigidity all the above none of the above.

Answer: Option C 45. If P is the wind pressure in kg/cm2, v is the velocity in km/hour and K is a constant of proportionality, then [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. P = K/v2 v = K/P2 P = Kv2 P = Kv

Answer: Option C 46. Length of an outstanding leg of a vertical stiffener, may be taken equal to [A]. th of clear depth of the girder plus 15 mm

[B]. [C]. [D].

th of clear depth of the girder plus 20 mm th of clear depth of the girder plus 25 mm th of clear depth of the girder plus 50 mm

[E].

th of clear depth of the girder plus 50 mm.

Answer: Option C

47. Efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint all the above.

Answer: Option D 48. The stress in the wall of a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. hoop compression shear torsional shear hoop tension.

Answer: Option D 49. The diameter of a bolt hole is taken as the nominal diameter of the bolt plus [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1.0 mm 1.2 mm 1.4 mm 1.6 mm 1.5 mm

Answer: Option D 50. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. Tacking rivets are used if the minimum distance between centres of two adjacent rivets exceeds 12 t or 200 mm, whichever is less

[B]. [C]. [D].

Tacking rivets are not considered to calculate stress Tacking rivets are provided throughout the length of a compression member composed of two components back to back All the above.

Answer: Option D

SECTION 5 1. In a grillage footing, the maximum shear force occurs at the [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. edge of grillage beam centre of base plate centre of grillage beam centre of base plate.

Answer: Option B 2. If d is the diameter of column, D is the side of square base, W is total axial load and pis the allowable bending stress, the thickness (t) of the base plate, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 3. Modified moment of inertia of sections with a single web, is equal to moment of inertia of the section about Y-Y axis at the point of maximum bending moment and is multiplied by the ratio of [A]. area of compression flange at the minimum bending moment to the corresponding area at the point of maximum bending moment area of tension flange at the minimum bending moment of the corresponding area at the point of maximum bending moment total area of flanges at the maximum bending moment to the corresponding area at the point of maximum bending moment none of these.

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C 4. Rivets subjected to shear and an externally applied tensile force, should be so proportioned that [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option D

5. According to IS: 800-1962, the coefficient of expansion of steel per degree centigrade per unit length, is taken as [A]. [C]. [E]. 0.000008 0.000012 0.000016 [B]. [D]. 0.000010 0.000014

Answer: Option C 6. For a cantilever beam of length L continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at the support and free at the end, the effective length l is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. l=L l = 2L l = 0.5L l = 3L l = 3.5L

Answer: Option D 7. On steel structures the dead load is the weight of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. steel work material fastened to steel work material supported permanently all the above.

Answer: Option D 8. The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the area of cross section at [A]. mid-section

[B]. [C]. [D].

root of the thread difference of (a) and (b) none of these.

Answer: Option B 9. With usual notations of the letters, the shear stress fs at any point of the cross-section is given by [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 10. The least permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is restricted to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 150 t 160 t 170 t 180 t 200 t

Answer: Option D 11. Long column is one

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

which is more than 3 m long whose lateral dimension is less than 25 cm which is free at its top which has a ratio of effective length and least lateral dimension more than 15.

Answer: Option D 12. Rolled steel beams are : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. mainly used to resist bending stress used as independent sections to resist compressive stress used as independent sections to resist tensile stress All the above.

Answer: Option D 13. Tacking rivets in tension members, are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 25 cm 50 cm 75 cm 100 cm

Answer: Option D 14. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position at both ends but not restrained in direction, is [A]. [B]. [C]. L 0.67 L 0.85 L

[D]. [E].

1.5 L 2L

Answer: Option A 15. When the ratio of the moment M to axial load P is greater than , the resultant of the compressive bearing pressure which acts at a distance Y from one side, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option B 16. Under a concentrated load, bearing stress fb in a beam, is given by (where b is the length of the bearing plate and h is the depth of the root of the fillet). [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 17. If R is the reaction on the bearing plate, the minimum moment of. inertia of the bearing stiffener provided at the support of a plate girder of overall depth D, the maximum thickness of the compression flange T, carrying total load W, is [A].

[B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 18. A beam may be designed as a cased beam if [A]. section is of double open channel form with the webs not less than 40 mm apart overall depth and width of the steel section do not exceed 750 and 450 mm respectively. beam is solidly encased in concrete with 10 mm aggregate having 28 days strength 160 kg/cm2 width of the solid casing is kept at least 100 mm more than the width of the steel flange and having a concrete cover of 50 mm all the above.

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option E

19. The economical depth d of a web plate in which allowable bearing stress is fb, and the maximum bending moment is M, as suggested by Rawater and Clark, is [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option E 20. For a single section used as a tension member, the given area is assumed [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 20% to 30% in excess of the net area 30% to 40% in excess of the net area 40% to 50% in excess of the net area 50% to 60% in excess of the net area 60% to 70% in excess of the net area.

Answer: Option C 21. The minimum width B of a solid casing for a cased beam, is equal to [A]. [B]. [C]. B = b + 25 mm B = b + 50 mm B = b + 75 mm

[D]. [E].

B = b + 100 mm B = b + 125 mm

Answer: Option D 22. Design of a riveted joint is based on the assumption: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Bending stress in rivets is accounted for Riveted hole is assumed to be completely filled by the rivet Stress in the plate in not uniform Friction between plates is taken into account None of these.

Answer: Option B 23. A web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of clear depth to thickness is less than [A]. [C]. [E]. 35 60 90 [B]. [D]. 50 85

Answer: Option D 24. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars for compression members should not exceed 145 The minimum width of lacing bar connected with rivets of nominal diameter 16 mm, is kept 50 mm The minimum thickness of a flat lacing bar is kept equal to one-fortieth of its length between inner end rivets The angle of inclination of lacing bars and the axis of the members should be between 40 and 70

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

All the above.

Answer: Option E 25. If P is the allowable bending stress in a slab, whose greater and lesser projections from the column faces, are A and B, the thickness (t) of the slab base, is (where w is the intensity of earth pressure.) [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 26. If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. one dimensional two dimensional three dimensional none of these.

Answer: Option B 27. In factory buildings, the horizontal beams spanning between the wall columns supporting a wall covering, are called

[A]. [C].

stringers girts

[B]. [D].

trimmers lintels.

Answer: Option C 28. A column is carrying an axial load W and an eccentric load P. If A is its cross-sectional area, ex and ey are the eccentricities and Pxx and Zyy the section modulli, the equivalent axial load is obtained from the formula, [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option A 28. A column is carrying an axial load W and an eccentric load P. If A is its cross-sectional area, ex and ey are the eccentricities and Pxx and Zyy the section modulli, the equivalent axial load is obtained from the formula, [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option A 29. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. The ends of a strut, are connected together with two rivets The members of strut will have at least two connections spaced equidistant in their length The members when separated back-to-back, the connecting rivets should pass through solid washer or packing All the above.

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D 30. Rise of a Jack arch is kept about [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1/2 to 1/3 of the span 1/3 to 1/4 of the span 1/4 to 1/8 of the span 1/8 to 1/12 of the span.

Answer: Option D 31. If N is the number of rivets in the joint, the strength of a riveted joint against shearing of rivets, is given by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Ps = N x (/4) d2 x Ps Ps = N x (d x t x ps) Ps = N x (p - d) x t x Ps Ps = N x (P + d) x t x ps. none of these.

Answer: Option A 32. For steel members exposed to weather and not accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel should not be less than [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 4.5 mm 6 mm 8 mm 10 mm

Answer: Option C 33. Compression members composed of two channels back-to-back and separated by a small distance are connected together by riveting so that the minimum slenderness ratio of each member between the connections, does not exceed [A]. [C]. 40 60 [B]. [D]. 50 70

Answer: Option A

MECHANICS

Section 1 1. A rectangular bar of width b and height h is being used as a cantilever. The loading is in a plane parallel to the side b. The section modulus is [A]. [C]. Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. Section modulus = I/y(max). Here the load is parallel to the width b so, I = (b^3*h)/12. And y = b/2. Then z = (b^2*h)/6. Section modulus = I/Y (this is max). Moment of inertia (I) = (d*b^3)/12. = (h*b^3)/12. In this problem width = b. Depth d = h. And y = b/2. :- Z= ( (h*b^3)/12)/(b/2). Z = (h*b^2)/6. 2. As compared to uniaxial tension or compression, the strain energy stored in bending is only [A]. [C]. Answer: Option C [B]. [D]. [B]. [D]. none of these.

2.

3. The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollow having inside diameter D/2, in torsion, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 1/4 1/16 3/8 [B]. [D]. 1/2 15/16

Answer: Option D Explanation: 1. The strength of a solid shaft in torsion is given by, T(solid shaft) = (pi/16)*(max stres)*(D^3). T(hollow shaft) = (pi/16)*(max stres)*(D^4-d^4)/D. On solving we get 15/16. max stress = Tymax/Ip; where Ip = polar moment of inertia. ymax = D/2. max stress(solid) = 16T/piD^3. max stress(hollow) = 32T(D/2)/pi(D^4-d^4). Replacing d = D/2. The ratio we get is 15/16. 4. The weakest section of a diamond riveting, is the section which passes through [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. first row second row central raw one rivet hole of end row.

2.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Weakest section in riveting at which maximum stress are developed and in a diamond riveting, it is first row.

5. In a loaded beam, the point of con-traflexture occurs at a section where [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. bending moment is minimum bending moment is zero or changes sign bending moment is maximum shearing force is maximum shearing force is minimum.

Answer: Option B Explanation: 1. Meaning of contraflexure is contra opposite and flexure means bending totally it means zero bending moment or change in sign of bending moment. 2. If bending moment sign change at a section then such as a point is called contraflexure. Point of inflection - point where SF change its sign in SFD. 6. The ratio of elongations of a conical bar due to its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the same length, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option B Explanation: Elongation of a conical bar due to its own weight is = (lemma) *L^2 divided by 6AE. Elongation of a prismatic bar is = (lemda)*L^2 divided by 2AE. 7. A three-hinged arch is said to be : [A]. statically determinate structure

[B]. [C]. [D].

statically indeterminate structure a bent beam none of these.

Answer: Option A 8. The deflection due to couple M at the free end of a cantilever length L is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C Explanation: EI(d^2y/dx^2) = M. (d^2y/dx^2) = M/EI. dy/dx = (M/EI)*X+C1. y = (M/2EI)X^2+C1X+C2. AT X=0, Y=0 SO C2=0. AT X=0, DY/DX=0 MEANS SLOPE ZERO, SO C1=0. Y = (M/2EI)X^2 AT X = L. Y = (M/2EI)L^2. 9. The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load, is always [A]. linear [B]. parabolic

[C].

cubical

[D].

circular.

Answer: Option A Explanation: If the beam having no external load then self weight will be act as udl throughout the entire span, for that reason the BM diagram will be parabola. 10. Pick up the incorrect statement [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The cross-sectional area of the welded member is effective A welded joint develops strength of its parent metal Welded joints provide rigidity Welded joints have better finish Welding takes more time than riveting.

Answer: Option E Explanation: Because for riveting initially we have to make holes to the plate and after that we do the riveting. 11. A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its entire length and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M. at the centre will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option D 12. A beam of length L is pinned at both ends and is subjected to a concentrated bending couple of moment M at its centre. The maximum bending moment in the beam is WL

[A]. [C].

M M/3

[B]. [D].

M/2 ML/2

Answer: Option A 13. If two forces acting at a joint are not along the straight line, then for the equilibrium of the joint [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. one of the forces must be zero each force must be zero forces must be equal and of the same sign forces must be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign.

Answer: Option B 14. A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial load W. If the radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material isC, the stress developed in the helical spring is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option B 15. If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. zero maximum minimum average of maximum-minimum

[E].

none of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation: Where the shear force becomes zero. The B.M becomes maximum. Proof: The b.m for simply supported beam subjected to point load at middle. The shear force at A.is W/2. We know that the shear force becomes zero at L/2 of the span. The B.M is maximum at L/2 the shear force becomes zero. Therefore, (W/2)*(L/2)=WL/4. 16. In the cantilever truss as shown in below figure, the horizontal component of the reaction at A, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

30 tonnes 60 tonnes 90 tonnes 120 tonnes 150 tonnes.

Answer: Option A Explanation:

Because it has only axial load and there is 3 axial load to be applicable in a space of 5m from A point so total is 10 each tonnes for 3 (10*3= 30 tonnes). 17. In case of an eccentric loading on a bracket subjected to moment M, the tangential force developed in any rivet, at right angles to its radius vector r is [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 18. A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its mid-span. The maximum bending moment M is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option B Support reactions = w/2, Max bending moment occurs at point of loading acting for symmetrical loading, = w/2*l/2 = wl/4

19. The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an isolated central load and that of with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option C Explanation: Maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an isolated central load = (WL^3)/(48EI) Maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with uniformly distributed load= (5wL^4)/(384EI) {W=wL} 1

So [(WL^3)/(48EI)] / [(5wL^4)/(384EI)] = 24/15. 20. The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load is always [A]. [C]. linear cubical [B]. [D]. parabolic circular.

Answer: Option B Explanation: In case of BM diagram for: Point load = linear shape. UDL = parabolic shape. UVL = cubical shape. Proof: The parabolic equation is Y = mx^2.

The B.M for simply supported beam subjected to u.d.l over all span. is WL^2/8. Since the square variation shows the parabola. 21. The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate, is [A]. [C]. 1 3 [B]. [D]. 2 4

Answer: Option B 22. A triangular section having base b, height h, is placed with its base horizontal. If the shear stress at a depth y from top is q, the maximum shear stress is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option A

23. The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of a square cross-section of 2.5 cm sides and 300 cm length, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 200 360 500 [B]. [D]. 240 416

Answer: Option D Explanation: Slenderness ratio = Unsupported length of column/minimum radius of gyration of cross-section. Hence, SR = 300/rad. of gyration.

= 300/ sq.root of ((2.5^4/(12*2.5^2))). = 415.692. = 416. 24. If n is the ratio of internal and external diameters of a hollow shaft, the ratio of the weight of the hollow shaft and that of solid shaft of same strength, will be [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 25. A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is subjected to a maximum shearing force of 10, 000 kg, the corresponding maximum shearing stress being 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 15 cm 20 cm 25 cm 30 cm.

Answer: Option C Explanation: T = SQ/Ib. S=10000, T=30, Q=bh^2/8, I=bh^3/12. Then h = 25cm, or Tmax = (3*Vmax)/(2*A).

h = 25cm, how will be 15cm.

26. The maximum twisting moment a shaft can resist, is the product of the permissible shear stress and [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. moment of inertia polar moment of inertia polar modulus modulus of rigidly.

Answer: Option C Explanation: By applying torsion equation, Tau/R = T/Polar moment of inertia = C theta/L. 27. For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. least at the centre least at the supports maximum at the supports maximum at the centre.

Answer: Option D Explanation: In simply supported beam both ends have zero bending moment and it has maximum bending moment at centre. 28. For a given material Young's modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2. The value of Poisson's ratio is [A]. [C]. [E]. 0.15 0.25 0.40 [B]. [D]. 0.20 0.30

Answer: Option C Explanation: 1. Relation between young's modulus(E), Rigidity modulus(G) and Poisson's ratio(u). 1. E = 2G(1+u). u = E/2G - 1. = 200/2*80 - 1. u = 0.25.
2.

Answer should be 0.25 Poisson's ration = ( E-2G )/2G = (200-2x80)/2*80 = 0.25.

29. The ratio of the moment of inertia of a circular plate and that of a square plate for equal depth, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. less than one equal to one more than one equal to 3/16 none of these.

Answer: Option D Explanation: For circular plate, MI = *d^4/64. For square plate, MI = d^4/12. So, Ratio = MI of circular plate/MI of square plate. = 3*/16.

30. The force in member U2L2 of the truss shown in below figure, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

10 T tension 10 T compression zero 15 T compression.

Answer: Option B 31. If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse power being transmitted by the shaft, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option C

32. If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by [A]. [C]. 1/2 2 [B]. [D]. 1/8 8

[E].

Answer: Option A Explanation: y = (wl^3)/(48*EI) FOR WIDTH b. If it is 2b, I = 2bh^3/12. y' = (wl^3)/(48*E2I). So it is 1/2. 33. For a simply supported beam of length L, the bending moment M is described as M =a (x x3/L2), 0 x < L; where a is a constant. The shear force will be zero at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. the supports x = L/2 x = L/3 x = L/3

Answer: Option C Explanation: Maximum bending moment occurs at zero shear force*. d(M)/dx = 0 (for maximum bending moment). on differentiating above equation you get option C. 34. The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. directly proportional to its weight inversely proportional to its width inversely proportional to the cube of its depth directly proportional to the cube of its length none of these.

Answer: Option C 35. If a rectangular beam measuring 10 x 18 x 400 cm carries a unformly distributed load such that the bending stress developed is 100 kg/cm2. The intensity of the load per metre length, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 240 kg 250 kg 260 kg 270 kg 280 kg.

Answer: Option B 36. Influence lines are drawn for structures of any [A]. type [B]. [C]. [D]. statically determinate pin-jointed truss none of these.

Answer: Option A

37. A shaft turning 150 r.p.m. is subjected to a torque of 150 kgm. Horse power transmitted by the shaft is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 10 2 1/

Answer: Option B Explanation:

Where N = The speed in r.p.m. T = the torque in kgm. Therefore, P=2*(py)*N*T/4500. Where (py) is 3.141. 38. A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its whole span, is propped at the centre of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of the prop will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. half the distributed load 3/8th the distributed load 5/8th the distributed load distributed load. none of these.

Answer: Option C 39. The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid any tensile stress, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. one-half of the base one-fifth of the base one-fourth of the base one-fifth of the base one sixth of the base on either side of centroid.

Answer: Option B Answer should be (1/3) of base. If applied load follows middle one by third rule then no tensile stresses are produced. Check it out. 40. In a beam, the neutral plane

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

may be its centre passes through the C.G. of the area of cross-section does not change during deformation none of these.

Answer: Option C 41. When loads are applied proportionately to a frame structure containing its members in one plane, the structure is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. grid frame plane frame space frame truss frame.

Answer: Option C

42. The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. at the centre of the section at a distance r/2 from the centre at the top of the surface at a distance 3/4 r from the centre none of these.

Answer: Option C 43. The region of the cross-section of a column in which compressive load may be applied without producing any tensile stress, is known as the core of the cross-section. In circular columns the radius of the core, is [A]. one-half of the radius

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

one-third of the radius one-quarter of the radius one-fifth of the radius one-sixth of the radius.

Answer: Option C 44. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. B.M. is same throughout the beam deflection is same throughout the beam bending stress is same throughout the beam shear stress is same throughout the beam none of these.

Answer: Option C 45. In a tension test, the yield stress is 300 kg/cm2, in the octa hedral shear stress at the point is: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 100 2 kg/cm2 150 2 kg/cm2 200 2 kg/cm 250 2 kg/cm2.

Answer: Option A Explanation: OCTAHEDRAL SHEAR STRESS = SQRT(2)*YIELD STRESS/3. 46. The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is not proportional to [A]. [B]. square root of the moment of inertia square root of the inverse of the area

[C]. [D].

square root of the moment of inertia divided by area of the section none of these.

Answer: Option D 47. A reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. homogeneous material heterogeneous material isotropic material none of these.

Answer: Option B

48. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the rivets, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. chain riveting zig-zag riveting diamond riveting none of these.

Answer: Option C

49. The energy stored in a beam of length L subjected to a constant B.M. is [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option A 50. The force in DB of the truss shown in below figure is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

3 W compression W tension 2 W compression 5 W tension 4 W tension.

Answer: Option B Section 2 1. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. A ductile material has large plastic zone A brittle material has no plastic zone A rigid material has no plastic zone All the above.

Answer: Option D 2. The number of points of contraflexure in a simple supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load, is [A]. 1 [B]. 2

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option D

3. The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported beam, occurs [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. at the mid span at the supports under the load anywhere on the beam none of these.

Answer: Option C 4. A three hinged parabolic arch hinged at the crown and springings, has a horizontal span of 4.8 m and a central rise of 1 m. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 0.75 tonne per metre over half left hand span. The horizontal thrust at the support will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10.8 tonnes 1.08 tonnes 1.8 tonnes 0.8 tonnes none of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation: 1. Support reactions Va and Vb will be 1.35 and 0.45. Then apply equilibrium equation at crown. 2. convert distributed load to point load for easy calculations = 0.75*2.4=1.8 acts in the middle of left hand side. Take moment at c = 0. Vay and Vby are 1.35 and 0.45. Then take moment at crown is zero. Vax = 1.08 tonnes.

3.

Due to the u.d.l the reactions at the supports are Ra=1.35&Rb=0.45. Take the left half or right half of the arch. Take the moments about hinge C. There fore Mc=Vb*2.4 - H*Y = 0. 0.45*2.4-H*1 = 0. H= 1.08 tonnes.

5. The length of a column which gives the same value of buckling load by Euler and RankineGordon formula, is equal to [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option B 6. The length of a column, having a uniform circular cross-section of 7.5 cm diameter and whose ends are hinged, is 5 m. If the value of E for the material is 2100 tonnes/cm2, the permissible maximum crippling load will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1.288 tonnes 12.88 128.8 tonnes 288.0 none of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation:

P = (n^2*pi^2*EI)/L^2. I = pi*r^4/4, n=1. P = 128800*10^-4. P = 12.88 tonnes. 7. If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, every section of the arch resists. compressive [A]. force [B]. [C]. [D]. tensile force shear force bending moment.

Answer: Option A 8. In a three hinged arch, the shear force is usually [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. maximum at crown maximum at springings maximum at quarter points varies with slope.

Answer: Option B 9. An arch may be subjected to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. shear and axial force bending moment and shear force bending moment and axial force shear force and thrust thrust, shear force and bending moment.

Answer: Option E 10. The law which states, "within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress producing it", is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Bernoulli's law Stress law Hooke's law Poisson's law none of these.

Answer: Option C 11. A simply supported beam of span L carries a uniformly distributed load W. The maximum bending moment M is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option C Explanation: Support reactions are Vay = wl/2 = Vby. Cut s/n and take the moment at pont zero. M = - (wx^2/2) +wlx/2. Max moment at mid pnt l/2.

M = Wl^2/8. For uniformly distributed load moment varies parabolically not linearly. 12. A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of [A]. [C]. [E]. 8 1/2 3 [B]. [D]. 1/8 2

Answer: Option C Explanation: y1 = MX^2/2EI For b. I = bh^3/12 if b = 2b. I = 2bh^3/12. y2 = MX^2/4EI FOR 2b. y2 = 1/2(y1). 13. The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having constant load, i.e. increasing with the time is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. creeping yielding breaking none of these.

Answer: Option A 14. The direction of the reaction at support B of a truss shown in below figure will be

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

East of North West of North East of South West of South Vertical.

Answer: Option A 15. The reaction at support A of the beam shown in below figure, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

zero 5T 10 T 1T 4 T.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Ray+Rby = 10T.

The distri load convert to pt load 1*5 for 1st member and 1*5 for 2nd. Take moment about A is zero Rby = 10T. SO Ray = 0. 16. The maximum resistance against rotation, is offered by the weld at a point most [A]. distant [B]. [C]. [D]. least distant at either end centrally located.

Answer: Option A

17. For structural analysis of forces, the method refers to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. moment-area-theorem three-moment equation Maxwell's reciprocal theorem none of these.

Answer: Option A 18. The B.M. of a cantilever beam shown in below figure at A, is

[A]. [B]. [C].

zero 8 Tm 12 Tm

[D].

20 Tm.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Vay = 2T. Take moment at C is zero. 4+(2*2)-Ma-Vay*4 = 0. Ma = 0. 19. If a member carries a tensile force P on its area of cross-section A, the normal stress introduced on an inclined plane making an angle with its transverse plane, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option B Explanation: Force in the normal(perpendicular) direction = PCos0. Area in inclined say A'. Then A = A'Cos0, A' = A/cos0. stress = force/area. Pcos0/A/cos0. pcos^20/A.

20. The reaction at the supports will be vertical to the plane of the support if the frame structure rests on [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. roller supports free supports hinged supports all the above.

Answer: Option D

21. A cylinder is said to be thin if the ratio of its thickness and diameter, is less than [A]. [C]. [E]. 1/25 1/15 1/5 [B]. [D]. 1/20 1/10

Answer: Option D

22. The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. displacement of the neutral axis sum of the forces sum of the transverse forces algebraic sum of the transverse forces of the section curvature of the neutral axis.

Answer: Option D

23. An arch with three hinges, is a structure statically [A]. determinate [B]. statically indeterminate

[C]. [D]. [E].

geometrically unstable structurally sound but indeterminate none of these.

Answer: Option A

24. Stress in members of statically determinate simple frames, can be determined by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. method of joints method of sections graphical solution all the above.

Answer: Option D

25. While testing a cast iron beam (2.5 cm x 2.5 cm) in section and a metre long simply supported at the ends failed when a 100 kg weight is applied at the centre. The maximum stress induced is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 960 kg/cm2 980 kg/cm2 1000 kg/cm2 1200 kg/cm2.

Answer: Option A 26. For a channel section, the shear centre lies at a distance of [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option C

27. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so produced, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shear stress compressive stress tensile stress transverse stress.

Answer: Option C

28. Stress in a beam due to simple bending, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. directly proportional inversely proportional curvilinearly related none of these.

Answer: Option A

29. A cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load W over its full length is propped at its free end such that it is at the level of the fixed end. The bending moment will be zero at its free end also at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. mid point of the cantilever fixed point of the cantilever 1/4th length from free end 3/4th length from free end half length from free end.

Answer: Option D

30. In rectangular columns (cross-section b x h), the core is a [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. rectangle of lengths b/2 and h/2 square of length b/2 rhombus of length h/2 rhombus of diagonals b/3 and h/3 none of the these.

Answer: Option D

31. The tensile force required to cause an elongation of 0.045 mm in a steel rod of 1000 mm length and 12 mm diameter, is (where E = 2 x 106 kg/cm2) [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 166 kg 102 kg 204 kg 74 kg

Answer: Option B Explanation: Given data is: Change in length dl = 0.045 mm or 0.0045 cm. Length = 100 mm. D = 12 mm. E = 2*10^6. Formula is dl = (p*l)/(A*E). Substitute given values and you will get answer.

32. According to Unwin's formula, the diameter d of a rivet of plate of thickness t is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. d = 6.05 t d = 1.5 t + 4 d=5t d = t + 1.5

Answer: Option A

33. In a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its ownweight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at the lower cross-section at the built-in upper crosssection at the central cross-section at every point of the bar.

Answer: Option B

34. If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a toque T and a bending moment M, the ratio of maximum bending stress and maximum shearing stress is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option C

35. Struts are load carrying members of a frame structure which are subjected to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. axial tension loads axial compressive loads torsional loads transverse loads.

Answer: Option B

36. A simply supported wooden beam 150 cm long and having a cross section 16 cm x 24 cm carries a concentrated load, at the centre. If the permissible stress ft = 75 kg/cm2and fs = 10 kg/cm2 the safe load is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 3025 kg 3050 kg 3075 kg 3100 kg.

Answer: Option C

37. If the normal cross-section A of a member is subjected to tensile force P, the resulting normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at angle to transverse plane will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option B

38. The nature of the stress in horizontal members of the truss shown in below figure may be

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

compressive tensile shear zero all the above.

Answer: Option B

39. A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be x-times the linear strain in any of the three axes when [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. x=1 x=2 x=3 x=4

Answer: Option C

40. The structure shown in below figure is stable, if

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. x = 2y x=y 2x = y.

Answer: Option D

41. n and j are numbers of members and joints in a frame. It contains redundant members if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. n = 2j - 3 n = 3j - 2 n < 2j - 3 n<j-2 n > 2j - 3

Answer: Option E

42. The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called [A]. [C]. isotropic homogeneous [B]. [D]. brittle hard.

Answer: Option A

43. The greatest eccentricity which a load W can have without producing tension on the crosssection of a short column of external diameter D and internal diameter d, is [A]. [B].

[C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option C

44. In a three hinged arch, the third hinge is generally kept at crown of the [A]. arch [B]. [C]. [D]. midpoint of the crown and left support hinge midpoint of the crown and right support hinge none of these.

Answer: Option A

45. A bending moment may be defined as : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Arithmetic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section Arithmetic sum of the forces on either side of the section Algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section None of these.

Answer: Option C

46. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates, is called [A]. [C]. malleability plasticity [B]. [D]. ductility elasticity.

Answer: Option A

47. If a constant section beam is subjected to a uniform bending moment throughout, its length bends to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a circular arc a parabolic arc a catenary none of these.

Answer: Option A

48. A simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) carries a uniformly distributed load over the whole length, the B.M. changes sign if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. l > 2a l < 2a l = 2a l = 4a l = 3a .

Answer: Option A

49. The type of butt joints in common use, is : single inverted V-butt [A]. joint [B]. [C]. [D]. double V-butt joint double U-butt joint single V-butt joint.

Answer: Option A

50. For structural analysis, Maxwell's reciprocal theorem can be applied to :

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

plastic structures elastic structures symmetrical structures all the above.

Answer: Option B Section 3

1. The ratio of the moments of resistance of a solid circular shaft of diameter D and a hollow shaft (external diameter D and internal diameter d), is [A]. [B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option A

2. A cantilever carries is uniformly distributed load W over its whole length and a forceW acts at its free end upward. The net deflection of the free end will be [A]. [B]. [C]. zero upward downward

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option B

3. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying a concentrated load at its free end, will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. triangle rectangle parabola cubic parabola.

Answer: Option A

4. In a shaft rotated by a couple, the shear force varies [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. from zero at the centre to a maximum at the circumference from minimum at the centre of maximum at the circumference from maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference equally throughout the section none of these.

Answer: Option A 5. The section modulus of a rectangular light beam 25 metres long is 12.500 cm3. The beam is simply supported at its ends and carries a longitudinal axial tensile load of 10 tonnes in addition to a point load of 4 tonnes at the centre. The maximum stress in the bottom most fibre at the mid span section, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 13.33 kg/cm2 tensile 13.33 kg/cm2 compressive 26.67 kg/cm2 tensile 26.67 kg/cm2 compressive

[E].

none of these.

Answer: Option C

6. The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly increasing load, is always [A]. [C]. linear cubical [B]. [D]. parabolic circular.

Answer: Option C

7. When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear develops on [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. bottom fibre top fibre middle fibre every-horizontal plane.

Answer: Option D

8. The tension coefficient of any member is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. force divided by the length tension divided by the length tension per unit area tension in the member.

Answer: Option B 9. A steel rod of 2 cm diameter and 5 metres long is subjected to an axial pull of 3000 kg. If E = 2.1 x 106, the elongation of the rod will be [A]. [B]. 2.275 mm 0.2275

mm [C]. [D]. 0.02275 mm 2.02275 mm.

Answer: Option B 10. For a given material, if E, C, K and m are Young's modulus, shearing modulus, bulk modulus and poisson ratio, the following relation does not hold good [A].

[B].

[C]. [D].

[E].

Answer: Option C

11. If the width b and depth d of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the deflection at the centre of the beam will be changed in the ratio of [A]. [C]. [E]. b/ d (d/b)2 (b/d)3. [B]. [D]. d/ b (b/d)2

Answer: Option D

12. In the given below figure, the rivets with maximum stress, are :

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

1 and 2 1 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4

Answer: Option D

13. The maximum stress intensity due to a suddenly applied load is x-times the stress intensity produced by the load of the same magnitude applied gradually. The value ofx is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option B 1 2 3

14. For the beam shown in below figure, the maximum positive bending moment is nearly equal

to negative bending moment when L1 is equal to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

1.0 L 0.7 L 0.5 L 0.35 L.

Answer: Option D

15. Strain energy of a member may be equated to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. average resistance x displacement stress x strain x area of its cross-section stress x strain x volume of the member (stress)2 x volume of the member + Young's modulus E.

Answer: Option D 16. If the stress in each cross-section of a pillar is equal to its working stress, it is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. body of equal body of equal section body of equal strength none of these.

Answer: Option C A composite member shown in below figure was formed at 25C and was made of two materials a and b. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of a is more than that ofb and the composite member is heated upto 45C, then

17. [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. a will be in tension and b in compression both will be in compression both will be in tension

a will be in compression and b in tension. Answer: Option D

18. The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. elastic point plastic point breaking point yielding point.

Answer: Option D

19. In a square beam loaded longitudinally, shear develops [A]. [B]. [C]. on middle fibre along horizontal plane on lower fibre along horizontal plane on top fibre along vertical plane

[D]. [E].

equally on each fibre along horizontal plane none of these.

Answer: Option D

20. Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulusG, under a concentrated load W at its free end, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C

21. The point of contraflexture occurs in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. cantilever beams only continuous beams only over hanging beams only all types of beams both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option C

22. An open-ended cylinder of radius r and thickness t is subjected to internal pressurep. The Young's modulus for the material is E and Poissons ratio is . The longitudinal strain is [A]. zero

[B]. [C]. [D]. none of these.

Answer: Option A

23. The force in BD of the truss shown in below figure is :

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

500 kg compressive 500 kg tensile 1500 kg tensile 1500 kg compressive zero.

Answer: Option A

24. The bending moment at E for the structure shown in below figure, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

zero 10 Tm 20 Tm 40 Tm.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Line of action is passing through member. 25. A member which is subjected to reversible tensile or compressive stress may fail at a stress lower than the ultimate stress of the material. This property of metal, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. plasticity of the metal elasticity of the metal fatigue of the metal workability of the metal.

Answer: Option C

26. For a simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load W on it entire lengthL, the maximum bending moment is [A].

[B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option B

27. Euler's formula states that the buckling load P for a column of length l, both ends hinged and whose least moment of inertia and modulus of elasticity of the material of the column are I and E respectively, is given by the relation [A]. [B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. P = El2.

Answer: Option A

28. The shiftness factor for a prismatic beam of length L and moment of inertia I, is [A]. [B]. [C].

[D]. [E]. Answer: Option A

29. The stress in the wall of a cylinder in a direction normal to its longitudinal axis, due to a force acting along the circumference, is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. yield stress longitudinal stress hoop stress circumferential stress ultimate stress.

Answer: Option C

30. In a simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) and carrying a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, B.M. at the middle point of the beam will be zero if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. l = 2a l = 4a l < 2a l>a l > 3a .

Answer: Option A

31. At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments, are [A]. one [B]. two

[C]. [E].

three zero.

[D].

four

Answer: Option E 32. The principal stresses at a point are 100, 100 and-200 kgf/cm2, the octo hedral shear stress at the point is : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 100 2 kg/cm2 200 2 kg/cm2 300 2 kg/cm2 400 2 kg/cm2 500 2 kg/cm2.

Answer: Option A 33. During a tensile test on a ductile material [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress true stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress true stress at fracture is the same as the ultimate stress none of these.

Answer: Option B

34. Rankine-Golden formula accounts for direct as well as buckling stress and is applicable to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. very long columns long columns short columns intermediate columns

[E].

all the above.

Answer: Option D

35. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. The point through which the resultant of the shear stresses, passes is known as shear centre In the standard rolled channels, the shear centre is on the horizontal line passing through and away from the C.G. beyond web In equal angles, the shear centre is on the horizontal plane and away from the C.G., outside of the leg projection In T-sections, the shear centre is at the C.G. of the section All the above.

[B].

[C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option E

36. In a three hinged arch, the bending moment will be zero [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. at right hinge only at left hinge only at both right and left hinges at all the three hinges.

Answer: Option D

37. The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to the tensile stress in the axial direction, is [A]. [C]. 4 2 [B]. [D]. 3 1

Answer: Option C

38. The force in the member DE of the truss shown in below figure will be

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

zero 2 W tensile 2 W compressive 4 W compressive 4 W tensile.

Answer: Option C

39. In a shaft shear stress intensity at a point is not [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. directly proportional to the distance from the axis inversely proportional to the distance from the axis inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia directly proportional to the applied torque.

Answer: Option B

40. Along the neutral axis of a simply supported beam fibres do not undergo [A]. strain [B]. fibres undergo minimum strain

[C]. [D].

fibres undergo maximum strain none of these.

Answer: Option A

41. A joint of a frame is subjected to three tensile force P, Q and R equally inclined to each other. If P is 10 tonnes, the other forces will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Q = 10 tonnes and R = zero R + 10 tonnes and Q = zero Q + R = 10 tonnes Q - R = zero Q and R each is equal to 10 tonnes.

Answer: Option E

42. If a member is subjected to a tensile force P, having its normal cross-section A, the resulting shear stress in an oblique plane inclined at an angle to its transverse plane, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option B

43. A simply supported beam carries two equal concentrated loads W at distances L/3 from either support. The maximum bending moment

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option A

44. If a solid shaft is subjected to a torque T at its end such that maximum shear stress does not exceed fz the diameter of the shaft will be [A].

[B].

[C]. [D]. none of these.

Answer: Option C 45. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The distance of the eccentric axial load from the C.G. beyond which tension develops, is known as kern distance In visco-elastic material, stress-strain relation is dependent on time An instropic material has different properties is different directions An orthotropic material has different properties in three mutually perpendicular directions All the

above. Answer: Option E 46. In a simply supported beam L with a triangular load W varying from zero at one end to the maximum value at the other end, the maximum bending moment is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option D

47. Maximum deflection of a cantilever due to pure bending moment M at its free end, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

Answer: Option D

48. Along the principal plan subjected to maximum principal stress [A]. maximum shear stress acts

[B]. [C]. [D].

minimum shear stress acts no shear stress acts none of these.

Answer: Option C

49. A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the span of a beam, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. bending moment diagram shear force diagram thrust diagram stress diagram none of these.

Answer: Option C

50. A member which does not regain its original shape after removed of load producing deformation is said [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. plastic elastic rigid none of these.

Answer: Option A

Section 4 1. The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force [A]. is maximum

[B]. [C]. [D].

is minimum is equal changes sign.

Answer: Option D 2. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The rate of change of bending moment is equal to rate of shear force The rate of change of shear force is equal to rate of loading neither (a) nor (b) both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D

3. A short masonry pillar is 60 cm x 60 cm in cross-section, the core of the pillar is a square whose side is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 17.32 cm 14.14 cm 20.00 cm 22.36 cm 25.22 cm.

Answer: Option B

4. A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at its centre. The maximum shear force in the wooden log is [A]. [B]. [C]. 50 N at each end 50 N at the centre 100 N at the centre

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option C

5. The following assumption is not true in the theory of pure torsion : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. The twist along the shaft is uniform The shaft is of uniform circular section throughout Cross-section of the shaft, which is plane before twist remains plane after twist All radii get twisted due to torsion.

Answer: Option D

6. The under mentioned type is simple strain [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. tensile strain compressive strain shear strain volumetric strain all the above.

Answer: Option E

7. The ratio of the effective length of a column and minimum radius of gyration of its crosssectional area, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. buckling factor slenderness ratio crippling factor none of these.

Answer: Option B

8. The bending moment at C of a portal frame shown in below figure is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

8 t-m 4 t-m 28 t-m 16 t-m zero.

Answer: Option E

9. Failure of riverted joints is due to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Tearing of the plates between the rivet hole and the edge of the plate Tearing of plates between rivets Shearing of rivets Crushing of rivets All the above.

Answer: Option E

10. The maximum load to which a fillet joint of length L can be subjected to, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. none of these. 0.7 x S x fillet size x L 2 x S x fillet size x L permissible shear stress x fillet size x L

Answer: Option A

11. Pick up the correct assumption of the theory of simple bending [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The value of the Young's modulus is the same in tension as well as in compression Transverse section of a beam remains plane before and after bending The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic The resultant pull or thrust on transverse section of a beam is zero All the above.

Answer: Option E

12. The neutral axis of a beam cross-section must [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pass through the centroid of the section be equidistant from the top of bottom films be an axis of symmetry of the section none of these.

Answer: Option A

13. If the beam is supported so that there are only three unknown reactive elements at the supports. These can be determined by using the following fundamental equation of statics [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. H = 0 V = 0 H = 0; H = 0 H = 0; V = 0; M = 0 M = 0; H = 0

Answer: Option D

14. In a solid arch, shear force acts [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. vertically upwards along the axis of the arch perpendicular to the axis of arch tangentially to the arch none of these.

Answer: Option C

15. A three hinged arch is loaded with an isolated load 1000 kg at a horizontal distance of 2.5 m from the crown, 1 m above the level of hinges at the supports 10 metres apart. The horizontal thrust is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 1250 kg 125 kg 750 kg 2500 kg 2325 kg.

Answer: Option A

16. For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column anywhere within a concentric circle of diameter [A]. [C]. [E]. d/2 d/4 d/10 [B]. [D]. d/3 d/8

Answer: Option C

17. A member is balanced at its end by two inclined members carrying equal forces. For equilibrium the angle between the inclined bars must be [A]. [C]. [E]. 3 60 120 [B]. [D]. 45 90

Answer: Option E

18. For a cantilever with a uniformly distributed load W over its entire length L, the maximum bending moment is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. WL WL WL W2L WL2

Answer: Option B

19. To ascertain the maximum permissible eccentricity of loads on circular columns, the rule

generally followed, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. middle half rule of columns middle third rule of columns middle fourth rule of columns none of these.

Answer: Option C

20. If Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section, the shear force F and bending moment M at a section are related by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option C

21. A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial load W. If the radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material isC, the deflection of the coil is [A].

[B].

[C]. [D].

Answer: Option D

22. The width of a beam of uniform strength having a constant depth d length L, simply supported at the ends with a central load W is [A]. [B]. [C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 23. Beams of uniform strength are preferred to those of uniform section because these are economical for large [A]. spans [B]. [C]. [D]. heavy weights light weights short spans.

Answer: Option A

24. The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. triangle rectangle parabola cubic parabola.

Answer: Option B

25. Reactions at the supports of a structure can be determined by equating the algebraic sum of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. horizontal forces to zero vertical forces to zero moment about any point to zero all the above.

Answer: Option D 26. If a steel rod of 20 mm diameter and 5 metres long elongates by 2.275 mm when subjected to an axial pull of 3000 kg, the stress developed, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 9.5541 kg/cm2 95.541 kg/cm2 955.41 kg/cm2 9554.1 kg/cm2.

Answer: Option C

27. Shear force for a cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. triangle rectangle parabola cubic parabola.

Answer: Option B

28. If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

2 times 4 times 8 times 1/2 times 3 times.

Answer: Option C

29. For a stable frame structure, number of members required, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. three times the number of joints minus three twice the number of joints minus three twice the number of joints minus two twice the number of joints minus one none of these.

Answer: Option B

30. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. bottom fibre top fibre neutral axis every cross-section.

Answer: Option B

31. The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of length L with a central loadW, is

[A].

[B]. [C]. [D].

[E].

Answer: Option C

32. In a continuous bending moment curve the point where it changes sign, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. point of inflexion point of contraflexture point of virtual hinge all the above.

Answer: Option D

33. A beam of length L supported on two intermediate rollers carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire length. If sagging B.M. and hogging B.M. of the beam are equal, the length of each overhang, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.107 L 0.207 L 0.307 L 0.407 L 0.5 L.

Answer: Option B

34. A long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. a column a strut a tie a stanchion all the above.

Answer: Option A

35. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force, is called [A]. [C]. plasticity ductility [B]. [D]. elasticity malleability.

Answer: Option B

36. The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option D 1

37. For a beam of uniform strength keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

bending moment (M) M M2 none of these.

Answer: Option A

38. A shaft 9 m long is subjected to a torque 30 t-m at a point 3 m distant from either end. The reactive torque at the nearer end will be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 5 tonnes metre 10 tonnes metre 15 tonnes metre 20 tonnes metre none of these.

Answer: Option D

39. The width b and depth d of a beam cut from a wooden cylindrical log of 100 cm diameter for maximum strength are : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. b = 57.73 cm d = 81.65 cm b = 81.65 cm d = 57.73 cm b = 50.00 cm d = 50.00 cm b = 40.00 cm d = 80.00 cm b = 30.00 cm d = 60.00 cm.

Answer: Option A

40. If the stress produced by a prismatic bar is equal to the working stress, the area of the crosssection of the prismatic bar, becomes

[A]. [C].

zero maximum

[B]. [D].

infinite minimum.

Answer: Option B

41. The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. area of the section square of the area of the section product of the area and depth product of the area and width half moment of inertia of the section.

Answer: Option A

42. The property of a material by which it can be drawn to a smaller section, due to tension, is called [A]. [C]. plasticity elasticity [B]. [D]. ductility malleability.

Answer: Option B

43. The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. pitch lap gauge staggered pitch.

Answer: Option A

44. Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulusG,

subjected to w/m u.d.l., is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option A

45. Columns of given length, cross-section and material have different values of buckling loads for different end conditions. The strongest column is one whose [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. one end is fixed and other end is hinged both ends are hinged or pin jointed one end is fixed and the other end entirely free both the ends are fixed none of the these.

Answer: Option D

46. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain increases more [A]. rapidly [B]. [C]. [D]. decreases more rapidly increases in proportion to the stress decreases in proportion to the stress.

Answer: Option A

47. The ratio of the flexural strengths of two square beams one placed with its two sides horizontal and the other placed with one diagonal vertical, diagonal, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 2 2 5 7

Answer: Option A

48. Simple bending equation is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option C

49. Every material obeys the Hooke's law within its [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. elastic limit plastic point limit of proportionality none of these.

Answer: Option C 50. The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam is 1600 kg/cm 2 and the corresponding

tensile stress at its bottom is 400 kg/cm2 . If the depth of the beam is 10 cm, the neutral axis from the top, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 2 cm 4 cm 6 cm 8 cm 10 cm.

Answer: Option D

Section 5 1. The stress necessary to initiate yielding, is considerably more than that necessary to [A]. continue it [B]. [C]. [D]. less than that necessary to continue it more than that necessary to stop it less than that necessary to stop it.

Answer: Option A

2. If a circular beam of diameter d experiences a longitudinal strain the volumetric strain is [A]. and a lateral strain

[B].

[C].

[D]. [E]. none of these.

Answer: Option B

3. Strain energy of any member may be defined as work done on it [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. to deform it to resist elongation to resist shortening all the above.

Answer: Option D

4. If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the deflection of the free end will increase by [A]. [C]. [E]. 8 1/3 3 [B]. [D]. 1/8 2

Answer: Option B

5. If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by [A]. [B]. [C].

[D]. Answer: Option B

6. The B.M. diagram of the beam shown in below figure, is

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

a rectangle a triangle a trapezium a parabola a circle.

Answer: Option A

7. The value of Poisson's ratio always remains [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. greater than one less than one equal to one none of these.

Answer: Option B

8. For a beam having fixed ends, the unknown element of the reactions, is [A]. [B]. [C]. horizontal components at either end vertical components at either end horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other

[D].

horizontal and vertical components at both the ends.

Answer: Option D

9. If all the dimensions of a bar are increased in the proportion n : 1, the proportion with which the maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratio [A]. [B]. [C]. 1:n n:1

1:

[D]. [E].

:1 1 : n.

Answer: Option B

10. The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of square cross- section of 10 cm side and 500 cm long, is [A]. [C]. [E]. 117.2 173.2 13.72 [B]. [D]. 17.3 137.2

Answer: Option C

11. If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre will be changed by a factor of [A]. [C]. [E]. 2 8 4 [B]. [D]. 1/2 1/8

Answer: Option D

12. The equivalent length of a column fixed at one end and free at the other end, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.5 l 0.7 l l 2l 1.5 l.

Answer: Option D

13. A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to be three times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. h/4 h/3 h/2 2/3 h.

Answer: Option A

14. The equivalent length of a column fixed at both ends, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.5 l 0.7 l l 2l 1.5 l.

Answer: Option A

15. The rise of a parabolic arch at quarter points, is equal to

[A]. [B]. [C].

times the rise of the crown times the rise of the crown times the rise of the crown times the rise of the crown times the rise of the crown.

[D].

[E].

Answer: Option D The effect of arching a beam, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. to reduce the bending moment throughout to increase the bending moment throughout nothing on the bending throughout ail the above.

Answer: Option A

17. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress, is called [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. yielding creeping breaking none of these.

Answer: Option B

18. Hooke's law states that stress and strain are directly [A]. proportional

[B]. [C]. [D].

inversely proportional curvilinearly related none of these.

Answer: Option A

19. If S is the shear force at a section of an I-joist, having web depth d and moment of inertia I about its neutral axis, the difference between the maximum and mean shear stresses in the web is, [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Answer: Option D

20. A 8 metre long simply supported rectangular beam which carries a distributed load 45 kg/m. experiences a maximum fibre stress 160 kg/cm2. If the moment of inertia of the beam is 640 cm4, the overall depth of the beam is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 10 cm 12 cm 15 cm 16 cm 18 cm.

Answer: Option A

21. A column is said to be of medium size if its slenderness ratio is between

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

20 and 32 32 and 120 120 and 160 160 and 180 180 and 200

Answer: Option B 22. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. The maximum normal stress induced in the shaft, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. none of these. zero

Answer: Option B

23. If p is the internal pressure in a thin cylinder of diameter d and thickness t, the developed hoop stress, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option A

24. Ties are load carrying members of a frame, which are subjected to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. transverse loads axial tension loads axial compressive loads torsional loads.

Answer: Option B

25. At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces, are [A]. [C]. [E]. one three zero. [B]. [D]. two four

Answer: Option A

26. The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a square whose permissible bending stress are same under same maximum bending. The ratio of their flexural weights is, [A]. [C]. 1.118 1.228 [B]. [D]. 1.338 1.108

Answer: Option A

27. When two plates butt together and are riveted with two cover plates with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. lap joint butt join single riveted single cover butt joint double riveted double cover butt joint.

Answer: Option D

28. The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to a uniformly distributed load will be a [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. triangle rectangle parabola cubic parabola.

Answer: Option C

29. The areas of cross-section of a square beam and a circular beam subjected to equal bending moments, are same. [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. circular beam is more economical square beam is more economical both the beams are equally strong both the beams are equally economical none of these.

Answer: Option B

30. For the same height, the bottom width for no tension, [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. for triangular section is more than rectangular section for rectangular section is more than triangular section for triangular section is same as that of a rectangular section none of these.

Answer: Option C

31. Maximum deflection of a [A]. Cantilever beam carrying a concentrated load W at its free end is

[B].

simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load W at mid-span is

[C].

cantilever beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load over span is simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over the span

[D]. is [E]. All the above.

Answer: Option E

32. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. B.M. is same throughout the beam shear stress is same throughout the beam deflection is same throughout the beam bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis.

Answer: Option D

33. For a beam, if fundamental equations of statics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive forces at the supports, the structure is said to be [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. determinate statically determinate statically indeterminate none of these.

Answer: Option C

34. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and to maximum at the fixed end will be a [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. triangle rectangle parabola cubic parabola.

Answer: Option D

35. The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly increasing load from either end and [A]. having the apex at the mid span is [B].

a fixed ended beam carrying a distributed load over the span is

[C].

a fixed ended beam carrying a concentrated load at the mid span is

[D]. [E].

a cantilever beam subjected to a moment M at the free end is All the above.

Answer: Option E

36. If two tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelopiped bar are equal, the resulting elongation of the pipe, is [A]. [B].

[C]. [D]. [E]. Answer: Option A

37. The intensity of direct longitudinal stress in the cross-section at any point distant rfrom the neutral axis, is proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. r3 . r2 r

Answer: Option A Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Section 1 1. In a liquid limit test, the moisture content at 10 blows was 70% and that at 100 blows was 20%. The liquid limit of the soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 35% 50% 65% none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation:

5.

6.

Liquid limit is defined as the moisture content at which a groove made in a pat of soil will flow through a distance of 13mm under an impact of 25 blows. Using linear interpolation with the help of flow curve we can get the above. Liquid Limit= W * (N/25)^0.121. where, W= water content at N blows. N= no.of blows. We can find the flow index 1st using. I = (w1 - w2)/log(n2/n1) and then find the water content corresponding to the 25 blows using this flow index value. STEP1: just draw the rough graph on which, no. of blows on X-axis and moisture content on Y-axis. 80%. M C 70%. .A(10,70%) O O 60%. I N 50%. S T 40%. T E 30%. U N 20%. .B(100,20%) R T 10%. E(%)0% . . . . . . . . . . . . 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 NO. OF BLOWS STEP2: Join the coordinates A and B. STEP3: draw the vertical line from 25 no. of blows to the line AB and mark it. STEP4: Draw horizontal line from the marked point on line AB To the pt. on Y-axis, that same will give us the liquid limit of soil sample(ie. 65%). (NOTE: ALL STEPS ARE TAKEN FROM EXPERIMENT OF DETERMINATION OF LIQUID LIMIT BY USING LIQUID LIMIT DEVICE)

7.

8.

2. The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to (where is the angle of friction of the soil) [A]. [B]. [C]. tan (45 - ) tan2 (45 + ) tan2 (45 - )

[D].

tan (45 + )

Answer: Option B 3. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3 mm in diameter, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit plastic limit shrinkage limit permeability limit.

Answer: Option B Explanation: About 15g of dried soil passing through IS 425 micron is taken for plastic limit determination and is mixed with a sufficient amount of water which would enable to soil mass become plastic enough to be easily shape into a ball. When a diameter of 3 mm is reached, the soil is remolded into a ball. The process of making the threat and remolded continuous till the threat at a dia. Of 3 mm, just start crumbling. 4. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. The rise of the ground surface due to frost action is called frost heave. The freezing of water is accompained by a volume increase of 9%. Below freezing point, higher soil suction develops. The magnitude of frost heave decreases as the degree of saturation of soil decreases All the above.

Answer: Option E 5. Which one of the following statements is true ? [A]. [B]. Clays are more porous than sands Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil

[C]. [D].

Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits All the above.

Answer: Option D 6. The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. is equal to mass of the soil retained proportional to the depth of the soil proportional to the square of the depth of the soil proportional to the internal friction of the soil none of these.

Answer: Option D Explanation: P = 0.5kwh^2. k = lateral earth pressure coefficient. w = soil density. h = ht of soil retained. 7. The internal molecular attraction of a soil, the cohesion [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. decreases as the moisture content increases increases as the moisture content decreases is more in well compacted clays depends upon the external applied load.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 6. I think the option (A) is also correct. On increasing the water content repulsion dominates and hence the cohesion decreases. If A is correct then automatically B option is also correct because inversely proportional. I think cohesion depends upon type of soil also. For example if we take sand its cohesion is zero. So we can't say anything about cohesion by using moisture content only. In

7. 8.

9.

10.

option (A) and (B) we can't find which type of soil it is? in well compacted clay cohesion will be more due to decreasing in porosity. Sand is said to be cohesion less soil. Because it has less inter molecular bonding and moisture content also very less. But even though water content decreases in clay's, it may not be a cohesion less soil. Yes answer C is correct, because it has the less inter molecular bonding & moisture content.

8. The quantity of seepage of water through soils is proportional to [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. coefficient of permeability of soil total head loss through the soil neither (a) nor (b) both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D 9. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily consolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. quick test drained test consolidated undrained test none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: When drainage is allowed the consolidation takes place and it is also mentioned that at the later stage drainage is curbed so the the test name is called Consolidated undrained test. 10. The minimum water content at which the soil retains its liquid state and also possesses a small shearing strength against flowing, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. liquid limit plastic limit shrinkage limit permeability limit.

Answer: Option A Explanation: 2. When soil gain shear strength is known plastic state of soil. 11. Minimum size of the particles of silt soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. 0.002 mm 0.04 mm 0.06 mm. 0.08 mm 1 mm

Answer: Option A

12. The maximum value of effective stress in the past divided by the present value, is defined as over consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an over consolidated clay is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. less than 1 1 more than 1 None of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: Consolidation mostly happens in clayey soils only. Initially, there will be pore water pressure, after consolidation is said to be happened; pore water escapes and thus plastic readjustment of clay particles occurs, results in very low effective stress. Thus the ratio will be greater than 1 always. 13. If Nf, Nd and H are total number flow channels, total number of potential drops and total hydraulic head differences respectively, the discharge q through the complete flow is given by (where K is a constant) [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C

14. A flow line makes angles 1 and 2 with the normal to the interface of the soils having permeabilities k1, k2 before and after deflection. According to the law of deflection of the flow lines at the interface of the dissimilar soils [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 15. Under-reamed piles are generally [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. driven piles bored piles precast piles all the above.

Answer: Option B 16. Pick up the clay soil group which does not swell when wet from the following :

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D].

Kaolinite group Mite group Vermiculite group Montrorillonite group.

Answer: Option B Explanation: A kaolinite group- these show minimum volume change during moisture variation. 17. Factor of safety against sliding of a slope, is the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. actual cohesion to that required to maintain stability of slope shear strength to shear stress along the surface neither (a) nor (b) both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D 18. The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of soil solids in a given soil mass, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. porosity specific gravity void ratio water content.

Answer: Option C

19. A compacted soil sample using 10% moisture content has a weight of 200 g and mass unit weight of 2.0 g/cm3. If the specific gravity of soil particles and water are 2.7 and 1.0, the degree of saturation of the soil is [A]. 11.1%

[B]. [C]. [D].

55.6% 69.6% none of these.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 3. Given That, Water Content w = 0.1 Unit Wt of Soil = 2.0 g/cc. Sp. Gravity of Soil = 2.7. Unit Wt of water = 1 g/cc. Dry Unit Wt of Soil = Bulk unit wt/ (1+ w). = 2/(1+0.1). =1.818 g/cc.

Now, Void Ratio (e)=(G * Unit Wt of Water/dry unit wt ) - 1. = (2.7 * 1 / 1.818) - 1. = 0.4851 . Now, Degree of Saturation (S) = G*w/e. =2.7*0.1/0.4851. =0.556. =55.6% Ans. But the answer showing is 69.6%. 4. I got 77%. Yd = G.Yw/ 1+ e. I got e = 0.35. Sr = W.G / e. So, Sr = 0.777. 20. A partially saturated sample of soil has a unit weight of 2.0 g/cm3 and specific gravity of soil

particles is 2.6. If the moisture content in the soil is 20%, the degree of saturation is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 20% 77% 93% none of these.

Answer: Option A Explanation: Unit weight of soil = 2.0g/cm3. Dry unit weight = unit weight/(1+w). Here w = 0.2. Hence dry unit weight = 2/(1+0.2). = 1.66. Void ratio = ((specific gravity * unit weight of water )/dry unit weight)-1. = 0.566. Degree of saturation = w * specific gravity /void ratio. = 0.9182. = 91.82%. 21. Minimum depth of a footing carrying a heavy load, is calculated by the formula [A]. [B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option B 22. According to Coulomb's wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedge [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. down and outwards on a slip surface up and inwards on a slip surface horizontal upward and parallel to base horizontal inward and parallel to base.

Answer: Option A 23. The coefficient of curvature is defined [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

Answer: Option C 24. The effective size of particles of soil is denoted by [A]. [C]. D10 D30 [B]. [D]. D20 D60

Answer: Option A Explanation: Why not D30 and D60 are effective sizes? 25. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50 and void ratio 0.5, is

[A]. [C].

50% 75%

[B]. [D].

60% 80%

Answer: Option C Explanation: 4. es = GW. s = Degree of saturation. s = GW/e = 2.5*.15/.5 = 75%. s = w*G/e = (.15*2.65/.50)*100 = 75%. w = water content. G = sp. gravity. e = void ratio. s = degree of saturation. The relation between water content, degree of saturation, specific gravity and void ratio is given by Se=WG (or) s = WG/e.

5.

6.

26. The coefficient of compressibility of soil, is the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. stress to strain strain to stress stress to settlement rate of loading to that of settlement.

Answer: Option B 27. If the failure of a finite slope occurs through the toe, it is known as [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. slope failure face failure base failure toe failure.

Answer: Option D 28. Rankine's theory of active earth pressure assumes

[A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E].

soil mass is homogeneous, dry and cohesionless ground surface is a plane which may be horizontal or inclined back of the wall is vertical and smooth wall yields about the base all the above.

Answer: Option E 29. The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. volume of water to volume of given soil volume of water to volume of voids in soil weight of water to weight of air in voids weight of water to weight of solids of given mass of soil.

Answer: Option D 30. Accurate determination of water content, is made by [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. calcium carbide method sand bath method alcohol method oven-drying method.

Answer: Option D 31. Stoke's law sates that the velocity at which a grain settles out of suspension, the other factors remaining constant, is dependent upon [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. shape of grain weight of grain size of grain shape and size of grain

[E].

shape, size and weight of grain.

Answer: Option E 32. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. When water table is above the base of a footing, the dry weight m should be used for soil below water table When water table is located somewhat below the base of a footing, the elastic wedge is partly of moist soil and partly of submerged soil, and a suitable reduction factor is used When water table is just at the base of the footing, no reduction factor is used None of these.

[B]. [C]. [D].

Answer: Option B 33. Pick up the correct statement from the following : [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. In soils, the flow index indicates variation in shear strength with water content Liquid limit minus plastic limit, is known as plasticity index of the soil Plastic limit minus shrinkage limit, is known as shrinkage index of the soil The ratio of the plasticity index to the flow limit, is known as toughness index of the soil All the above.

Answer: Option E 34. If S, L and R are the arc length, long chord and radius of the sliding circle then the perpendicular distance of the line of the resultant cohesive force, is given by [A].

[B].

[C].

[D].

none of these.

Answer: Option A 35. The liquid limit and plastic limit exist in [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. sandy soils silty soils gravel soils clay soils.

Answer: Option D 36. Back fill with a sloping surface exerts a total active pressure Pa on the wall of heightH and acts at [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. H/4 above the base parallel to base H/2 above the base parallel to base H/3 above the base parallel to base H/5 above the base parallel to base.

Answer: Option C 37. The ratio of the weight of given volume of soil solids to the weight of an equal volume of distilled water at the given temperature, is known [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. porosity specific gravity void ratio water content.

Answer: Option C Explanation: 3. Void Ratio = Volume of Voids/ Volume of soil solids.

4.

sp.gravity = required sample density/standard sample density. = sample weight/equal weight of water.

38. The ultimate Settlement of a soil is directly proportional to: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. depth of the compressible soil strata compressive index void ratio both (a) and (b) none of these.

Answer: Option D 39. The seepage force in a soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. perpendicular to the equipotential lines proportional to the exit graident proportional to the head loss all the above.

Answer: Option D 40. A soil has bulk density 2.30 g/cm3 and water content 15 per cent, the dry density of the sample, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. 1.0 g/cm2 1.5 g/cm3 2.0 g/cm3 2.5 g/cm3

Answer: Option C Explanation: Dry density = ratio of bulk density to water content with adding one. D.D = 2.3/1+ 0.15 = 2 g/cm3.

41. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Sandy clayloam contains highest percentage of sand Silty clayloam contains highest percentage of silt Stiff boulder clay offers maximum shear strength Soft chalk carries least safe load All the above.

Answer: Option B 42. The clay soil mainly consists of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Kaolinites . Montomorillonite Illites Vermiculite All the above.

Answer: Option E 43. The liquidity index is defined as a ratio expressed as percentage of [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. plastic limit minus the natural water content, to its plasticity index natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index natural water content plus its plastic limit to its plasticity index liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index.

Answer: Option B 44. The fluid generally used for grouting is [A]. [B]. cement and water mix clay suspension

[C]. [D]. [E].

sodium silicate bitumen emulsion all the above.

Answer: Option E 45. A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific gravity as 2.75. The critical gradient at which quick sand condition occurs, is [A]. [C]. 0.25 0.75 [B]. [D]. 0.50 1.00

Answer: Option D Explanation: 3. Critical Hydraulic gradient = (G-1)/(1+e). Where, e - Void ratio. G - Specific gravity of soil. 4. Critical hydraulic gradient = (G-1)/(1+e). = (2.75-1)/(1+0.75). = 1.00. 46. The relationship between void ratio (e) and porosity ratio (n) is : [A]. n=

[B].

e=

[C]. [D].

n= e = n(1 + e)

Answer: Option D

Explanation: 3. e = vol of voids/vol of soilds. vol of soil = vol of voids +vol of soilds. Using this formula we get e = n(1 + e). 4. n = Vv/V. e = Vv/Vs. V = Vs+Vv. n = Vv/(Vv+Vs). Divide numerator and denominator by Vs. n = (Vv/Vs)/{(Vv/Vs)+(Vs/Vs)}. n = e/(1+e). 47. Failure of the stability of slopes, generally occurs along [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. slip plane a horizontal surface a curved surface all the surfaces.

Answer: Option C 48. Pick up the correct statement from the following: [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. Failure plane carries maximum shear stress Failure plane does not carry maximum shear stress Failure plane carries shear stress equal to maximum shear stress None of these.

Answer: Option B Explanation: Failure plane may not carry max shear stress because in box shear test or direct shear test the failure plane may not carry max. Shear stress.

49. Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is [A]. [B]. [C]. [D]. [E]. Upheavel transportation deposition weathering Weathering upheaval transportation deposition Transportation upheaval weathering deposition Weathering transportation deposition upheaval None of these.

Answer: Option D 50. The weight of a pycnometer containing 400 g sand and water full to the top is 2150 g. The weight of pycnometer full of clean water is 1950 g. If specific gravity of the soil is 2.5, the water content is [A]. [C]. 5% 15% [B]. [D]. 10% 20%

Answer: Option D Explanation: W1 = 200g. W2 = 600g. W3 = 2150g. W4 = 1950g. G=2.5. w = (((W3-W4)/W2-W1))*(1-1/G))-1. Solve and you will get the answer.

1. Youngs modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of wire compared to its original length by (a) Half (b) Same amount (c) Double (d) One-fourth Answer. (b)

2. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a mild steel specimen, strain (a) Becomes contant (b) Starts decreasing (c) Increases without any increase in load (d) None of the above Answer. (c) 3. Impact strength of a material is an index of its (a) Toughness (b) Tensile strength (c) Capability of being cold worked (d) Hardness Answer. (a) 4. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as solid shaft transmits (a) Same torque (b) Less torque (c) More torque (d) Unpredictable Answer. (c) 5. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal length are heated through 100C The stresses developed shall be (a) Ensile in both the materials (b) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper (c) Compressive in steel and tensile in copper (d) Compressive in both the materials Answer. (d) 6. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of (a) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain (b) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain (c) Lateral stress and lateral strain (a) Shear stress and shear strain Answer. (d) 7. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is (a) Same (b) More (c) Less (d) Unpredictable Answer. (b)

8. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 0% (d) 15% Answer. (c) 9. Modular ratio of two materials is the ratio of (a) Strains (b) Stress and strain (c) Shear stress and shear strain (d) Modulii and elasticity Answer. (d) 10. Elasticity of a M.S. specimen is defined by (a) Hookes law (b) Yield point (c) Plastic flow (d) Proof stress Answer. (c) 11. In a uniform bar supported at one end in position, the maximum stress under self weight of bar shall occur at the (a) Middle of bar (b) Supported end (c) Bottom end (d) None of the above Answer. (b) 12. Stenderness of a column is zero when (a) Ends are firmly fixed (b) Column is supported on all sides throughout the length (c) Length is equal to radius of gyration (d) Length is twice the radius of gyration Answer. (d) 13. Formula adopted for IS codes is based on (a) Straight line formula (b) Eulers formula (c) Rankines formula (d) Secant formula Answer. (d)

14. Deflection at the mid span of a rectangular point beam under a concentrated load acting there shall become .. if the length, width and depth of beam are all doubled (a) 2 times (b) 8 times (c) Same (d) Half Answer. (d) 15. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress in the walls in a direction normal to the longitudinal axis of cylinder, this stress is called (a) Longitudinal stress (b) Hoop stress (c) Yeild stress (d) Ultimate stress Answer. (b) 16. In a cantilever, maximum deflection occurs where (a) Bending moment is zero (b) Bending moment is maximum (c) Shear force is zero (d) Slope is zero Answer. (a) 17. A beam encastered at both the ends is known as (a) Simply supported beam (b) Over hanging beam (c) A fixed beam (d) A continuous beam Answer. (c) 18. The resistance offered by internal stresses to bending is known as (a) Shear stress (b) Compressive stress (c) Modulus of elasticity (d) Moment of resistance Answer. (d) 19. Bending stress at any section in a beam is (a) Equal to section Modulus (b) Inversely proportional to section modulus (c) Directly proportional to section modulus

(d) None of the above Answer. (c) 20. A sudden change in shear force diagram between and two points indicates that there is (a) Point load at both the points (b) No loading between two points (c) U.d.l. between two point (d) Uniformly varying load between two points. Answer. (a) 21. In a rectangular beam, when width, depth and length are doubled the bending stress (a) Shall remain unchanged (b) Shall be doubled (c) Shall become 1/4th (d) Shall be halved Answer. (d) 22. A circular bar is subjected to an axial force of 1000 kg. The components of force normal and tangent to a plane inclined at 45 to the axis of bar will be (a) 1003 kg each (b) 707 kg each (c) 500 kg each (d) Not possible to determine with these data Answer. (b) 23. Diagram showing the variation of axial load along the span is (a) Shear force diagram (b) Normal thrust diagram (c) Influence line diagram (d) Bending moment diagram Answer. (b) 24. Rankines crippling load formula is valid for (a) Long columns only (b) Short columns (c) For all columns (d) Intermediate columns Answer. (c) 25. Longitudinal strain for a specimen is 0.01 and it is found to undergo 1 mm change in its thickness. Its thickness will be (a) 100 mm

(b) 200 mm (c) 400 mm (d) 800 mm Answer. (c)