1 (Elec.

-A)
A. QUESTION BOOKLET
Domain : Electrical Engineering
INSTRUCTIONS
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6) The test is of objective & subjective type. This Question Booklet
contains a total of 124 questions and the total time allotted is 3
hours. The written test consists of 4 Sections.
Part - A: General Awareness has 40 questions of 1 marks each
Part - B: relates to domain with 80 questions to be attempted
Part - C: General Awareness and has 2 descriptive questions which
carries 5 marks each.
Part - D: relates to domain with 2 descriptive questions to be at-
tempted which carries 10 marks each
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A B C D
A B C D
A B C D
2 (Elec.-A)
Part-A General Awareness (MCQs)
1. Arrange the following Mughal emperors in chronological order:
a. Akbar, Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Aurangazeb b. Akbar, Aurangazeb, Jahangir, Shah Jahan
c. Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Aurangazeb d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Akbar, Aurangazeb
a. c.
c. d.
2. The Doctrine of Lapse for annexation of protected states to the British Empire was the brainchild of
__________________
a. Lord Cornwallis b. Lord Dalhousie
c. Lord Wellesley d. Lord Mountbatten
a. b.
c. d.
3. The modern districts of Tirunelveli, Madurai, Ramanad, etc were part of the territory ruled by the
___________________
a. Chera dynasty b. Chola dynasty
c. Pallava dynasty d. Pandya dynasty
a. b.
c. d.
4. Kalibangan, a site associated with the Harappan civilization, is situated in ____________
a. Rajasthan b. West Punjab in Pakistan
c. Punjab in India d. Sind in Pakistan
a. b.
c. ( ) d.
5. An area of knowledge the Vedic Aryans were not conversant in was _______________
a. Chemistry b. Surgery
c. Mathematics d. Astronomy
a. b.
c. d.
6. Which Tamil King had gone to the Himalayas to fetch a stone to make an idol of Goddess Kannaki?
a. Senguttuvan b. Nedumcheran
c. Kuttuvancheran d. Imayavaramban
a. b.
c. d.
7. A social reformist organization in Lahore invited Dr B R Ambedkar in 1936, to deliver the presidential address.
The manuscript of the speech did not receive the approval of the hosts. It later became a book called
_______________
a. Annihilation of Caste b. Federation versus Freedom
c. Buddha of Marx d. Pakistan or Partition of India
a. b.
c. d.
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8. Which of the following statements are not true of the Home Rule Movement?
I. The demand was for self-government and not complete independence.
II. The movement included promoting political education to build a base for self-government
III. It did not achieve much impact or popularity.
IV. The movement was the part of the Congress activity.
a. I and II b. II and III
c. III and IV d. IV and I
I.
II.
III.
IV.
a. I II b. II III
c. III IV d. IV I
9. Who said, The British Empire is rotten to the core, corrupt in every direction and tyrannical and mean?
a. Mrs. Annie Besant b. W. Digby
c. Sister Nivedita d. William Wedderburn
a. b.
c. d.
10. India and Pakistan were partitioned under which of the following plans of the British colonial government?
a. Mountbatten Plan b. Cripps Plan
c. Chelmsford Plan d. Wavell Plan
a. b.
c. d.
11. Who was known as Frontier Gandhi?
a. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan b. Vinoba Bhave
c. Firoz Gandhi d. Manilal Gandhi
a. b.
c. d.
12. The Vedanga consists of the following:
a. Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
b. Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
c. Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
d. Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
a.
b.
c.
d.
13. The earliest available work of the Tamil Sangams is ___________________
a. Pattinappalai b. Tirumurugarruppadai
c. Maduraikanchi d. Tolkappiyam
a. b.
c. d.
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14. Which foreign traveller visited India during the Mughal period and left us an experts description of the Peacock
Throne?
a. Geronimo Verroneo b. Omrah Danishmand Khan
c. Tavernier d. Francisco Palsaert
a. b.
c. d.
15. The Constitution of India describes India as a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. Prior to the
42
nd
Amendment in 1976, it was described as a ___________
a. Sovereign Democratic Republic b. Sovereign Socialist Republic
c. Sovereign Secular Republic d. Secular Democratic Republic
a. b.
c. d.
16. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST?
a. Article 337 b. Article 334
c. Article 338 d. Article 339
a. 337 b. 334
c. 338 d. 339
17. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List?
a. Lok Sabha b. Parliament
c. Rajya Sabha d. Legislative Council
a. b.
c. d.
18. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly
elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in
the election of the Lok Sabha?
a. S R Bommai vs Union of India AIR 1994 SC 1916
b. State of Kerala vs Union of India AIR 1957 SC 1361
c. State of West Bengal vs Union of India AIR 1999 SC 131
d. None of the above
a. AIR SC
b. AIR SC
c. AIR 1999 SC 131
d.
19. In case the recommendation for imposing Presidents Rule in a state is not approved by the Parliament, for how
many months can the promulgation last?
a. Four months b. Two months
c. Three months d. Six months
a. b.
c. d.
5 (Elec.-A)
20. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj?
a. District Sabha b. Gram Sabha
c. Nagar Panchayat Sabha d. Zila Sabha
a. b.
c. d.
21. What do we understand by the term Government Bill in the Parliament?
a. Bill presented by Ruling Party member
b. Bill approved by the Government
c. Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
d. A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament
a.
b.
c.
d.
22. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights
conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency?
a. Executive b. President
c. Governor d. Prime Minister
a. b.
c. d.
23. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period for the first time?
a. Government of India Act 1938 b. The Indian Council Act 1861
c. Government of India Act 1919 d. Government of India Act 1935
a. b.
c. d.
24. Who said As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you?
a. Dr Babu Rajendra Prasad b. Dr S Radhakrishnan
c. Abraham Lincoln d. Woodrow Wilson
a. b.
c. d.
25. Who has the powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation
of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines,
postponing of election, etc.?
a. Regional Election Commissioner b. Election Committee of Government
c. Electoral Officer d. Election Commission
(1)
a. b.
c. d.
26. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding
if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published.
a) The report must be a report of the proceedings of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be
relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged.
6 (Elec.-A)
b) It must be a report as distinguished from one article or Comment.
c) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected.
The reporting must not be actuated by malice.
d) All of the above
a)
expunged
b)
c) garbed
actuated
d)
27. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court?
i. Delimitation of Constituencies
ii. The allotment of seats to such Constituency
a. i only b. ii only
c. Both i & ii d. Neither of them
i.
ii.
a. i b. ii
c. i ii d.
28. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission
on recognizing or de-recognizing a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within
a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party?
a. Under Article 32
b. Under Article 229
c. As a Special leave petition
d. As Public Interest Litigation
a. b.
c. d.
29. The central banking functions in India are performed by the _____________
a. Central Bank of India
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. State Bank of India
d. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development
a.
b.
c.
d.
30. The following item(s) is/are traded in the gilt-edged market:
a. Precious metals like platinum and palladium b. Bullion (Gold and silver)
c. Unlicensed guns understudy d. Government securities
(gilt-edged market)
a. b.
c. understudy d.
7 (Elec.-A)
31. Devaluation of a currency means ______________
a. reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies
b. permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
c. fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined
currencies
d. fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major trading partners
a.
b.
c.
d.
32. Development Expenditure of the Central Government does not include
a. Defence Expenditure b. Expenditure on economic services
c. Expenditure on social and community services d. Grants to states
a. a.
c. d.
33. In the last decade, which of the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into
India?
a. Services sector b. Food processing
c. Telecommunication d. Retail trade
a. b.
c. d.
34. The main role of State Financial Corporations in India is to provide financial assistance for the
development of _____________
a. Agriculture b. Cottage industry
c. Large scale industry d. Medium and small scale industries
a. b.
c. d.
35. The major outcome of the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee was that guidelines were framed to
_____________
a. govern entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive
b. reduce the freedom given to banks to rationalize their existing branch network
c. setup more foreign exchange banks
d. lend more easily for industrial development
a.
b.
c.
d.
36. Indirect taxes contribute ________% of the revenue of India.
%
a. 74% b. 85%
c. 63% d. 93%
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37. In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes. Which of the following reason(s) account(s)
for this?
1. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
a. 1 alone b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3 d.1, 2 and 3
1.
2.
3.
a. I b. 1 2
c. 2 3 d.1, 2 3
38. Which of the following is responsible for formulating the fiscal policy in India?
a. The Planning Commission
b. The Ministry of Finance
c. The Finance Commission
d. The Reserve Bank of India
a.
b.
c.
d.
39. Which of the following are the measures of Integrated Slum Development Programme adopted in India in the
Eleventh Five Year Plan?
1. Creating and updating database on slums.
2. Using land as a resource for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers
3. Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government.
4. Granting tenure security to slum dwellers.
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
1.
2.
3.
4.
a. 1, 2 3 b. 1 2
c. 2 4 d. 1, 2 4
40. The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) which is for the
period 2007 2012 is estimated at about:
a. Rs. 30 lakh crore b. Rs. 36 lakh crore
c. Rs. 40 lakh crore d. Rs. 46 lakh crore
a. b.
c. d.
9 (Elec.-A)
Part-B Electrical Engineering (MCQs)
41. The periphery of the armature divided by the number of poles of the generator is called as ___________?
a. Back pitch b. Front pitch
c. Pole pitch d. Resultant pitch
___________
a. b.
c. d.
42. By adding extra ampere-turns to the main field winding, the following effect can be neutralized?
a. Demagnetizing effect b. Cross magnetizing effect
c. Commutation d. None of the above
ampere-turns
a. Demagnetizing b. magnetizing
c. d.
43. The below circuit has C1 = 0.5F and if it has to pass 5000 cycles wave, then the value of inductor L = ?
C1 = 0.5F L __________
L = ? 0.5F

a. 2.03mh b. 3.1mh
c. 2.5 mh d. 5h
44. A four pole lap wound generator has 56coils with 6 turns per coil. The speed is 1150rpm. What must be the flux
per pole in order to generate 265V?
coils coil rpm
v
a. 20.2mWb b. 19mWb
c. 20.6mWb d. 2.5mWb
45. Calculate the torque developed by a 440V d.c. motor having an armature resistance of 0.25 and running at
750rpm when taking a current of 60A?
V d.c. armature 0.25 750 rpm
A
a. 325N-m b. 320N-m
c. 300N-m d. 155N-m
46. A d.c. shunt motor operating on 220V supply takes an armature current of 20A and run at 800rpm. Its armature
resistance is 1. Calculate the additional resistance to be inserted in series with the armature to reduce its
speed to 520rpm with same armature current.
v A rpm
1 rpm
a. 3.5 b. 4.5
c. 5 d. 1
47. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4 poles and rotating at 1800rpm is _________ Hz.
rpm _________ Hz.
a. 60 b. 7200
c. 120 d. 450
48. If the angle of a four pole synchronous motor is 8 degrees (electrical), its value in mechanical degree is
_________
a. 0.25 b. 0.5
c. 2 d. 4
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49. In a synchronous motor, damped winding is provided in order to
a. Stabilize rotor motion b. Suppress rotor oscillation
c. Develop necessary starting torque d. Both a and c
damped
a. b.
c. d. a b
50. In a SCIM torque with auto starter is _______ times the torque with direct switching
SCIM _______
a. k
2
b. k
c. 1/ k
2
d. 1/k
51. A 100 : 5 transformer is used in conjunction with a 5A ammeter. If the latter reach 3.5 A. Then the line current
i s
100 : 5 5A ammeter ammeter 3.5 A.
current
a. 70A b. 35A
c. 100A d. 5A
52. An auto transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 3kW. The power transformed
conductively from primary to secondary is
3kw
_____
a. 0.6kW b. 2.4kW
c. 1.5kW d. 0.27kW
53. The iron loss of a transformer at 400Hz is low. Assuming that eddy current and hysteresis losses vary as the
square of flux density, the iron loss of a transformer at rated voltage but at 50Hz would be _______ watt.
400Hz transformer
50hz ____
a. 80 b. 640
c. 1.25 d. 100
54. A 100KVA, 2 winding transformer has an iron loss of 1kW and a copper loss on normal output current of 1.5kW.
The KVA loading at which the efficiency would be maximum is ________?
100KVA, 2 k kW copper
1.5kw _______ kva
a. 85KVA b. 82.3KVA
c. 80KVA d. 100KVA
55. A concentric cable has a conductor diameter of 1cm and an insulation thickness of 1.5cm. When the cable is
subjected to test pressure of 33kV, the maximum field strength would be _________?
cm cm kV
_________
a. 47.6kV b. 45.5 kV
c. 40 kV d. 10 kV
56. The most economical value of the conductor radius of an 80kV cable having an insulation with a voltage gradient
of 60kV/cm is ___________?
80kV 60kv/cm ______
a. 1.33cm b. 2.5cm
c. 1.8cm d. 1cm
57. In case of m-derived low pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is _________________?
a. below the cut-off frequency b. above the cut-off frequency
c. at the cut-off frequency d. All of the above
m _________________
a. b.
c. d.
58. If Z
11
=2, Z
21
=1, Z
12
=1, Z
22
=3, then the determinant of the admittance matrix is ______?
Z
11
=2, Z
21
=1, Z
12
=1, Z
22
=3 ______
a. 5 b. 1/5
c. 1 d. 2
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59. A series RLC circuit has a Q of 80 and a bandwidth of 160 cycles. Then the resonant frequency is __________Hz.
RLC Q ______
a. 12800 b. 12720
c. 12880 d. 13880
60. A voltage e = 340sin 314t is applied to a resistor and the current is I = 42.5sin314t. Then the Ohmic value of
the resistor is ___________?
e = 340sin 314t I = 42.5sin314t
Ohmic ___________?
a. 8 b. 6
c. 4 d. 3
61. Two coupled coils of L1 = 0.9H and L2 = 0.4H have a coupling coefficient k=0.8. Then the mutual inductance (M)
50. In a SCIM torque with auto starter is _______ times the torque with direct switching
SCIM _______ (m)
a. k
2
b. k
c. 1/ k
2
d. 1/k
62. Three wattmeter method of power measurement can be used to measure power in __________?
a. Balanced Circuits b. Unbalanced circuits
c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b)
__________
a. b.
c. d.
63. The maximum energy stored in a capacitive circuit is ___________?
capacitive ___________
a. W=CE
2
b. W=C
2
E
c. W=1/2CE
2
d. 1/2C
2
E
64. Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when ___________?
RLC oscillatory ___________
a. R=2(L/C)

b. R=0
c. R>2(L/C)

d. R<2(L/C)
1/2
65. A 50 C/S, 11kV generator is connected to a power system. The system reactance and capacitance per phase are
10mH and 0.02F respectively. The maximum voltage across the contacts of the circuit breaker at an instant
when it passes through zero is ______________?
50c/s, 11kv 10mH 0.02F
_____
a. 17.96kV b. 14.59kV
c. 10.9kV d. 15kV
66. The data for a three phase oil circuit breaker are as follows:
- Operating voltage = 11kV
- Rupturing capacity = 500mVA
- Normal current = 500A
- Time = 3seconds
Then the rated symmetrical breaking current is _____________?
a. 21.25kA(rms) b. 26.25kA(rms)
c. 20.25kA(rms) d. 20kA(rms)
kV
Rupturing mVA
current A
3
_____________?
a. 21.25kA(rms) b. 26.25kA(rms)
c. 20.25kA(rms) d. 20kA(rms)
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67. A zinc strip of width 0.4inch and of thickness 1 inch fuses when a current of 66A passes through it. Then the
fusing current for a fuse of same width and double the thickness is ________________?
inch 1 inch A current
________________
a. 109A b. 115A
c. 129A d. 60A
68. The disadvantage of oil circuit breaker is _____________?
a. that it is Inflammable
b. that it forms an explosive mixture with air
c. due to its composition, the oil has to be kept clear and then requires maintenance
d. All of the above
_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
69. When large currents are required it is necessary to use ___________?
a. lap winding b. wave winding
c. single layer winding d. lap and wave winding
______
a. b.
c. b.
70. Six bulbs are connected in parallel across 110V. Each bulb is rated as 75W. The total current flow will be equal
to ___________?
110V 75W
___________
a. 4.092A b. 9.7A
c. 75A d. 110A
71. Eddy current loss is proportional to ___________?
___________
a. f
2
b. f
c. 1/f
2
d. 1/f
72. If the network contains B branches and N nodes then the number of mesh current equations would be __________?
B N __________
a. B - (N - 1) b. N - (B - 1)
c. B N 1 d. (B + N) - 1
73. An electric motor is developing 10kW at a speed of 900rpm. Then the torque available at the shaft is
_________________?
900rpm 10kW
_________________?
a. 106N-m b. 101N-m
c. 95N-m d. 100N-m
74. A lift of 250kg mass is raised with a velocity of 5m/s. If the driven motor has an efficiency of 85, then the input
power of the motor is __________?
250kg 5m/s
_________________?
a. 14.45kW b. 12.25kW
c. 11.25kW d. 15.5kW
75. A generating station has a daily output of 280MWH and uses 500t (tons) of coal in the process. The coal releases
7MJ/kg when burnt. Then the overall efficiency of the station is ___________?
280MWH 500t (tons)
7mj/kg _________________?
a. 28.8% b. 30%
c. 45% d. 47.5%
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76. The lamps in a set of Christmas tree lights are connected in series. If there are 20lamps and each lamp has a
resistance of 25 then the total current taken from 240V supply is _________?
25
240v ______
a. 0.48A b. 0.5A
c. 1.5A d. 2A
77. Given the following circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ?
R

10A
2V
R
(A)
a. 0.5 ohms b. 10 ohms
c. 2 ohms d. 2.5 ohms
78. Given the below circuit, can you find the value of Rth?
R

40ohm
26ohm
200V
60ohm
a. 50 ohms b. 60 ohms
c. 40 ohms d. 0 ohms
79. Find the value of I in the below circuit.
I



I
4A
-3A
2A
a. 5A b. 5A
c. 6A d. 6A
80. At what frequency, the current leads the voltage by 30
0
in a series RL circuit with R = 8ohms and C = 30F?
RL R = 8ohms C = 30F
a. 1149 Hz b. 900 Hz
c. 240 Hz d. 998 Hz
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81. A DC voltage is applied to a series RL circuit by closing a switch. The voltage across L is 100V at t = 0 and drops
to 13.5 V at t = 0.02s. If L = 0.1h, the value of R is ______?
RL L 100V at t
= 0 13.5 V at t = 0.02s. L = 0.1h R ______
a. 10 ohm b. 5 ohm
c. 0.1 ohm d. 0.5 ohm
82. A series RL circuit having current i = 4.24 cos(5000t+450) has an input power of 180W. What would be the value
of R ?
RL i = 4.24cos (5000t+450) 180W. R
a. 20 ohm b. 22.5 ohm
c. 25 ohm d. 4 ohm
83. The equivalent impedance of the couple circuit shown below is _____________?
circuit _____________?

j5ohm j5ohm
2ohm 2ohm
a. 1+ j5 b. 5 + j
c. 4 + 12j d. 4 - 12j
84. The equivalent capacitance value as viewed from the voltage source is ______________?
______


6F
2F
4F
6F
4F
V
a. 2.85F b. 2.8F
c. 6F d. 6.5F
85. In a DC generator the generated emf is directly proportional to the _____________?
a. field current b. pole flux
c. number of armature parallel path d. number of dummy coils
DC emf _____________?
a. b.
c. d. Meh coils
86. Which one of the below statements about shunt field speed control method for DC shunt motor is False?
a. It is based on the fact that motor speed is inversely proportional to the flux
b. It gives constant hp characteristics to the motor
c. It is very useful due to high I2R loss in the field rheostat
d. It gives speed above the basic speed
DC
a. inversely
b.
c. rheostat I2R
d.
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87. ADC motor develops a torque of 200 Nm at 25 rps. At 20 rps it will develop a torque of _________________?
ADC 25rps 20M, rps _____________ ?
a. 200 Nm b. 160 Nm
c. 250 Nm d. 128 Nm
88. A 230 volt DC series motor is taking 50 amps. Resistance of armature and series field windings is 0.2 ohms and
0.1 ohm respectively. Then the brush voltage is ___________?
amps 0.2 ohms
0.1 ohms _____________?
a. 215 V b. 205 V
c. 195 V d. 0 V
89. A 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc shunt motor draws a current of 40A. When running at full load, the full load torque
is ____?
14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc 40A ____?
a. 356 Nm b. 350 Nm
c. 300 Nm d. 256 Nm
90. The most efficient method of increasing the speed of a 3.75kW dc shunt motor is _______ method.
a. armature control b. flux control
c. ward Leonard d. tapped field control
3.75kW dc _____________
a. b.
c. d.
91. The maximum efficiency of a 100KVA transformer having iron loss of 900kW and full load copper loss of 1600W
occurs at _______ KVA?
100kva 900kw 1600w ____KVA
a. 56.3 b. 133.3
c. 75 d. 177.7
92. If copper loss of a transformer at 7/8 full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper loss would be _____________?
7/8 4900W _____________?
a. 5600W b. 6400W
c. 375W d. 429W
93. The no load voltage ratio in a single phase 50Hz, core type transformer is 1200/440. If the maximum flux is to be
0.075wb then the number of turns in each winding is ______, ______?
50Hz 1200/440 0.075wb
_____________ _____________?
a. 24, 74 b. 60, 240
c. 204, 60 d. 200, 70
94. Two transformers A and B having equal outputs and voltage ratios but unequal percentage impedance of 4 and 2
are operating in parallel. Transformer A will be running overloaded by _______ ?
A B
A_____________
a. 50% b. 66%
c. 33% d. 25%
95. For eliminating seventh harmonic from the emf wave of an alternator, the fractional pitch must be __________?
alternator emf _____________
a. 2/3 b. 5/6
c. 7/8 d, 6/7
96. The winding of the four phase alternator having 36 slots and a coil span of 1 to 8 is short pitched by _______
degrees.
_______
a. 140 b. 80
c. 20 d. 40
97. The effect of increasing load on a synchronous motor running with normal excitation is ___________.
a. to increase both its Ia and pf b. to decrease its Ia and increase its pf
c. to increase its Ia and decrease its pf d. to decrease both its Ia and pf
16 (Elec.-A)
excitation _____________
a. b. Ia pF
c. Ia pF d.
98. Three phase alternators are invariably Y connected because ___________.
a. magnetic losses are minimized b. less turns of wire are required
c. smaller conductors can be used d. higher terminal voltage is obtained
alternators _____________
a. b.
c. d.
99. Find the most economical value of the conductor radius of a 80kV cable having an insulation with a voltage
gradient of 60kV/cm.
80kV 60kV/cm
a. 1.33cm b. 1.5cm
c. 2cm d. 1cm
100. The minimum voltage at which the corona just becomes visible is called as _________?
a. visual critical voltage b. disruptive critical voltage
c. threshold voltage d. None of the above
corona _____________ ?
a. b.
c. d.
101. The contacts used in the circuit breakers are usually made up of ____________?
a. copper b. iron
c. steel d. alumina
_____________?
a. b.
c. d.
102. The operating voltage of a three phase oil circuit breaker is 11kV; rupturing capacity is 500MVA and the normal
current 500A, 3 seconds. Then the rated symmetrical breaking current is _____?
11kV rupturing MVA A
current _____________?
a. 26.25kA rms b. 25.25kA rms
c. 25.75kA rms d. 20.15kA rms
103. The series and parallel system of speed control of series motors widely used in traction work gives a speed range
of about __________?
_____________?
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3
c. 1 : 4 d. 1 : 6
104. The following relay is used for the production of transformers?
a. Buchholz relay b. Induction relay
c. Electro dynamic relay d. Solenoid
a. Buchholz a.
a. d. Solenoid
105. A circuit delivers energy at the rate of 20W and the current is 10A. The energy of each coulomb of charge in the
circuit is _________?
20W current 10A Coulomb _______?
a. 2J b. 0.5J
c. 20J d. 10J
106. A current of 5A flows in a resistor of resistance 8ohms.Then the heat dissipated in 30sec is ___________?
5A 8ohms _____________?
a. 6000J b. 3000J
c. 2400J d. 1000J
17 (Elec.-A)
107. A capacitor is made with seven metal plates connected as multi plate capacitor and separated by sheets of mica
having a thickness of 0.3mm and a relative permittivity of 6. The area of one side of each plate is 500cm
2
. Then the
capacitance value is ______?
0.3 mm
500cm
2
_____________
a. 0531 F b. 0155 F
c. 0122 F d. 0512 F
108. A 50F capacitor is charged from a 200V supply. After being disconnected it is immediately connected in parallel
with a 30F capacitor which is initially uncharged. Then the potential difference across the combination is
___________?
A 50F V 30F
uncharged _____________?
a. 12 5V b. 120 V
c. 200 V d. 100 V
109. Retardation test on a dc shunt motor is used to find the __________?
a. a. friction loss b. b. copper loss
c. c. stray loss d. d. iron loss
_____________?
a. b.
c. d.
110. A three phase, three wire ABC system with a balanced load has effective line voltage 200v (minimum) and line
current IA = 13.61/600.The total power is _____________?
ABC v current
IA = 13.61/600. _____________?
a. 2887W b. 3087W
c. 3000W d. 2500W
111. Find the impedance corresponding to apparent power 3500VA, power factor 0.76lagging and effective current
18A.
3500VA 0.76lagging current A
a. 10.8/40.540 ohms b. 12/50.5040 ohms
c. 50.8/80.50 ohms d. 18/400 ohms
112. When two resistors are connected in series the total equivalent is 90 ohms; when in parallel the equivalent is 20
ohm, then the value of each resistor will be ___________?
ohms ohms
_____________
a. 30, 60 ohms b. 35, 30 ohms
c. 30, 30 ohms d. 10, 10 ohms
113. A 4 pole dc generator runs at 750rpm and generates an e.m.f of 240V. The armature is wave wound and has
792conductors. If the total flux from each pole is 0.0145wb. The leakage coefficient is ________________?
rpm V emf 792
conductors 0.0145wb _____________
a. 1.2 b. 1.4
c. 0.2 d. 0
114. For a four pole, two layer dc lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer, the number of commutators
bars are _______?
commutators
_____________
a. 80 b. 20
c. 40 d. 160
115. If a charge of 25C passes a given point in a circuit in a time of 125ms, then the current in the circuit is
__________?
25C 125ms current ____ ?
a. 25 A b. 125 A
c. 200 A d. 250 A
18 (Elec.-A)
116. A heater takes a current of 8A from a 240V source for 12hours. The energy consumed is __________?
hours V A current _____________?
a. 23 kW-h b. 25 kW-h
c. 24kW-h d. 96kW-h
117. A coil of Cu wire has a resistance of 200ohm when its mean temperature is zero degree. The value of resistance
at its mean temperature is _______?
ohm
_____________?
a. 200 ohm b. 260 ohm
c. 268. 5 ohm d. 274 ohm
118. An inductor coil is connected to a supply of 250V at 50Hz and takes a current of 5A the coil dissipates 750W, the
power factor is ________________?
250v 50Hz 5A 750W
_____________
a. 0.6 lag b. 0.8 lag
c. 0.9 lag d. Unity
119. A coil of 1kohm resistance and 0.15 h inductance is connected in parallel with a variable capacitor across a 2V,
10 KHz ac supply. Then the capacitance of a capacitor when the supplied current is minimum is ____________?
1kohm 0.15h 2v 10khz ac
________
a. 1.69nF b. 1.7nF
c. 2nF d. 2.5nF
120. A parallel network consists of branches A, B and C. If Ia = 10/-600A , Ib = 5/-300A and Ic = 10/900A. All phase
angles being relative to supply voltage,then the total supply current is ______________?
a. 9.0 A b. 9.4A
c. 9.5 A d. None of the above
A,B,C IA=10/-600A. IB=5/-300A IC=10/900A
_____________
a. 9.0 A b. 9.4A
c. 9.5 A d.
19 (Elec.-A)
Part-C General Awareness (Descriptive)
121. In the context of the recent fight against corruption, by Anna Hazare and team, answer the following questions.
i. Write in 4 -5 lines about Anna Hazare especially his real name, birthplace, year of birth and then about his
profession (during his early 20's) and finally about the awards that he received from the Government of India.
ii. Mention the other team members' names of Anna Hazare and mention in one line about their current (or past)
professions.
iii. What is the other name for Jan Lokpal Bill and what is its main purpose?
iv. What are the 3 demands (as on 25th August 2011) set aside by Anna Hazare and team that it urges the govern-
ment must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill?
i
ii
iii
iv
122. In the background of one of the biggest terrorist attacks on India, in particular the one that happened on Mumbai
in the year 2008, answer the following questions.
i. Mention the date on which this attack was made by the terrorists and which was the terrorist group that was
behind it.
ii. Mention any five places that were attacked on this day.
iii. Mention atleast 3 (of the 4) police personnel's name and their designation who were killed during the fight
against these terrorists.
i
ii
iii
Part-D Electrical Engineering (Descriptive)
123. A 110 V shunt generator has a full-load current of 100 A, shunt field resistance of 55 ohms and constant losses
of 500 W. If F.L. efficiency is 88%, find the armature resistance. Assuming the voltage to be constant at
100 V, calculate the efficiency at half F.L. and at 50% overload. Find the load current corresponding to maximum
efficiency.
V A
W 88%
V
124. A 4 pole, 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor has rotor resistance of 0.03 ohm and reactance of 0.15 ohm respectively
per phase. Calculate the speed at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give maximum torque at
starting?
Hz 0.03 ohm 0.15 ohm