Professional Documents
Culture Documents
SITUATION: Nursing is a profession. The nurse should have a background on the theories and foundation of nursing as it
influenced what is nursing today.
1. Nursing is the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury,
alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of the
individuals, families, communities and the population. This is the most accepted definition of nursing as defined by the:
2. Advancement in Nursing leads to the development of the Expanded Career Roles. Which of the following is NOT an
expanded career role for nurses?
3. The Board of Nursing regulated the Nursing profession in the Philippines and is responsible for the maintenance of the
quality of nursing in the country. Powers and duties of the board of nursing are the following, EXCEPT:
4. A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who has not yet experienced enough real situations to make judgments
about them is in what stage of Nursing Expertise?
5. Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different from the other levels in nursing expertise in the context of having:
SITUATION: The nurse has been asked to administer an injection via Z TRACK technique. Questions 6 to 10 refer to this.
6. The nurse prepares an IM injection for an adult client using the Z track technique. 4 ml of medication is to be
administered to the client. Which of the following site will you choose?
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7. In infants 1 year old and below, which of the following is the site of choice for intramuscular
Injection?
9. After injection using the Z track technique, the nurse should know that she needs to wait for a few seconds before
withdrawing the needle and this is to allow the medication to disperse into the muscle tissue, thus decreasing the
client’s discomfort. How many seconds should the nurse wait before withdrawing the needle?
10. The rationale in using the Z track technique in an intramuscular injection is:
A. It decreases the leakage of discolouring and irritating medication into the subcutaneous tissues
B. It will allow a faster absorption of the medication
C. The Z track technique prevent irritation of the muscle
D. It is much more convenient for the nurse
SITUATION: A Client was rushed to the emergency room and you are his attending nurse. You are performing a vital sign
assessment.
11. All of the following are correct methods in assessment of the blood pressure EXCEPT:
12. You attached a pulse oximeter to the client. You know that the purpose is to:
A. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion
B. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion
C. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti-hypertensive medications
D. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops
13. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, The client is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of
blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:
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A. inconsistent
B. low systolic and high diastolic
C. higher than what the reading should be
D. lower than what the reading should be
14. Through the client’s health history, you gather that the patient smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the blood
pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse wait before taking the client’s
blood pressure for accurate reading?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 5 minutes
15. While the client has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is shining on the area where the
oximeter is. Your action will be to:
16. The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood pressure reading. In case of such re assessment, the nurse should
wait for a period of:
17. If the arm is said to be elevated when taking the blood pressure, it will create a:
A. False high reading B. False low reading C. True false reading D. Indeterminate
18. You are to assessed the temperature of the client the next morning and found out that he ate ice cream. How many
minutes should you wait before assessing the client’s oral temperature?
19. When auscultating the client’s blood pressure the nurse hears the following: From 150 mmHg to 130 mmHg: Silence,
Then: a thumping sound continuing down to 100 mmHg; muffled sound continuing down to 80 mmHg and then silence.
What is the client’s blood pressure?
20. In a client with a previous blood pressure of 130/80 4 hours ago, how long will it take to release the blood pressure
cuff to obtain an accurate reading?
Situation: Oral care is an important part of hygienic practices and promoting client comfort.
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21. An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive dryness and presence of
sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care?
22. When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special consideration to prevent
aspiration of fluids into the lungs?
23. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following, EXCEPT:
24. A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious clients is the risk of fluid aspiration to lungs. This can be
avoided by:
A. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouthwash to avoid rinsing the buccal cavity
B. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton swabs
C. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton washcloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips and ums
D. suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity
25. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes dryness of the mouth
with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended for the client and in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened
by using:
Situation – Ensuring safety before, during and after a diagnostic procedure is an important responsibility of the nurse.
26. To help Fernan better tolerate the bronchoscopy, you should instruct him to practice which
of the following prior to the procedure?
27. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following complains to Fernan should be noted as a
possible complication:
29. Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic study of pleural fluid. As a nurse your most important function during
the procedure is to:
30. Right after thoracentesis, which of the following is most appropriate intervention?
A. Instruct the patient not to cough or deep breathe for two hours
B. Observe for symptoms of tightness of chest or bleeding
C. Place an ice pack to the puncture site
D. Remove the dressing to check for bleeding
Situation: Knowledge of the acid-base disturbance and the functions of the electrolytes is necessary to determine
appropriate intervention and nursing actions.
31. A client with diabetes milletus has a blood glucose level of 644 mg/dL. The nurse interprets that this client is at most
risk for the development of which type of acid-base imbalance?
32. In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood gas analysis gives the following results: pH 7.48, PCO2 32 mmHg,
PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the client has which acid base disturbance?
33. A client has an order for ABG analysis on radial artery specimens. The nurse ensures that which of the following has
been performed or tested before the ABG specimens are drawn?
34. A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client and notes that the ph is 7.31, Pco2 is 50 mmHg, and the
bicarbonate is 27 mEq/L. The nurse concludes that which acid base disturbance is present in this client?
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35. Allen’s test checks the patency of the:
Situation 6: Eileen, 45 years old is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of renal calculi. She is experiencing severe
flank pain, nauseated and with a temperature of 39 0C.
36. Given the above assessment data, the most immediate goal of the nurse would be which of the following?
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37. After IVP a renal stone was confirmed, a left nephrectomy was done. Her post operative order includes “daily
urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory” . Eileen has a foley catheter attached to a urinary drainage system.
How will you collect the urine specimen?
A. remove urine from drainage tube with sterile needle and syringe and empty urine from the
syringe into the specimen container
B. empty a sample urine from the collecting bag into the specimen container
C. disconnect the drainage tube from the indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from catheter into the
specimen container.
D. disconnect the drainage the from the collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from the catheter into the
specimen container.
38. Where would the nurse tape Eileen’s indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral irritation?
39. Which of the following menu is appropriate for one with low sodium diet?
40. How will you prevent ascending infection to Eileen who has an indwelling catheter?
A. see to it that the drainage tubing touches the level of the urine
B. change he catheter every eight hours
C. see to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine
D. clean catheter may be used since urethral meatus is not a sterile area
Situation: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the endocrine system is
necessary.
42. All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland except:
43. All of the following hormones are hormones secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except:
45. While Parathormone, a hormone that negates the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the:
Situation: The staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff nurses to “brainstorm” and learn ways to instruct
diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to do
health education classes.
47. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to the nurse-aide who is an unlicensed
staff, Mrs. Guevarra
48. Connie, the new nurse, appears tired and sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six weeks ago when she
started the job. The nurse supervisor should
A. grievance
B. arbitration
C. collective bargaining
D. strike
50. You are attending a certification on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by the hospital
employing you. This is
Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient chart is your responsibility.
51. Which of the following is not a legally binding document but nevertheless very important in the care of all
patients in any health care setting?
The
A. Bill of rights as provided in the Philippine constitution
B. Scope of nursing practice as defined by RA 9173
C. Board of nursing resolution adopting the code of ethics
D. Patient’s bill of rights
52. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client. Another nurse employed by the same hospital as a risk
manager will expect to receive which of the following communication?
53. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of an informed consent can lead to which of the following
charges?
A. Fraud C. Harassment
B. Assault and battery D. Breach of confidentiality
55. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that can be performed by a subordinate. The RN should always be
accountable and should not lose his accountability. Which of the following is a role included in delegation?
A. The RN must supervise all delegated tasks
B. After a task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN
C. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the delegate
D. Follow up with a delegated task is necessary only if the assistive personnel is not trustworthy
Situation: When creating your lesson plan for cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is important to include the
risk factors of stroke.
57. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or cause of stroke. The types of stroke based on cause are
the following EXCEPT:
58. Hemmorhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when the person is active. All are causes of hemorrhage,
EXCEPT:
59. The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug abuse carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug is closely linked
to this?
A. Amphetamines C. shabu
B. Cocaine D. Demerol
60. A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a risk factor of stroke. Your best response is:
A. “More red blood cells thicken blood and make clots more possible.”
B. “Increased RBC count is linked to high cholesterol.”
C. “More red blood cell increases hemoglobin content.”
D. “High RBC count increases blood pressure.”
Situation: Recognition of normal values is vital in assessment of clients with various disorders.
61. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of severe dehydration. The nurse
would expect the hematocrit level for this client to be which of the following?
63. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 3.2
mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value?
64. Dorothy underwent diagnostic test and the result of the blood examination are back. On reviewing the result
the nurse notices which of the following as abnormal finding?
A. Neutrophils 60%
B. White blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm
C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 39 mm/hr
D. Iron 75 mg/100 ml
65. Which of the following laboratory test result indicate presence of an infectious process?
Situation: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. Questions 66 to 70 refer to this.
66. Which of the following is a finding that the nurse will be able to assess in a client with Pleural effusion?
A. Reduced or absent breath sound at the base of the lungs, dyspnea, tachpynea and shortness of breath
B. Hypoxemia, hypercapnea and respiratory acidosis
C. Noisy respiration, crackles, stridor and wheezing
D. Tracheal deviation towards the affected side, increased fremitus and loud breath sounds
67. Thoracentesis is performed to the client with effusion. The nurse knows that the removal of fluid should be
slow. Rapid removal of fluid in thoracentesis might cause:
A. There is an oscillation
B. There is no bubbling in the drainage bottle
C. There is a continuous bubbling in the waterseal
D. The suction control bottle has a continuous bubbling
70. In a client with pleural effusion, the nurse is instructing appropriate breathing technique. Which of the
following is included in the teaching?
A. Breath normally
B. Hold the breath after each inspiration for 1 full minute
C. Practice abdominal breathing
D. Inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3 to 5 seconds after each inhalation
SITUATION : Health care delivery system affects the health status of every filipino. As a Nurse, Knowledge of this
system is expected to ensure quality of life.
72. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital?
75. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a fixed periodic
payment.
Situation: Nursing ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. As the ethical situation arises, so is the need to
have an accurate and ethical decision making.
77. The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and the health
professionals is referred to as:
A. Morality
B. Religion
C. Values
D. Bioethics
A. Morality
B. Religion
C. Values
D. Bioethics
79. Values are said to be the enduring believe about a worth of a person, ideas and belief. If Values are going to
be a part of a research, this is categorized under:
A. Qualitative C. Experimental
B. Quantitative D. Non Experimental
80. The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:
A. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
B. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair
C. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team
D. Be accountable for his or her own actions
82. According to the code of ethics, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the nurse?
83. Which of the following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?
A. The Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited professional organization was given the privilege to
formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses which the Board of Nursing promulgated
B. Code for Nurses was first formulated in 1982 published in the Proceedings of the Third Annual Convention
of the PNA House of Delegates
C. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the Professions in the Philippines
D. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or suspended for violations of any
provisions of the Code of Ethics.
84. Violation of the code of ethics might equate to the revocation of the nursing license. Who revokes the
license?
85. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing responsibility and
accountability?
Situation: As a profession, nursing is dynamic and its practice is directed by various theoretical models. To
demonstrate caring behaviour, the nurse applies various nursing models in providing quality nursing care.
86. When you clean the bedside unit and regularly attend to the personal hygiene of the patient as well as in
washing your hands before and after a procedure and in between patients, you indent to facilitate the body’s
reparative processes. Which of the following nursing theory are you applying in the above nursing action?
87. A communication skill is one of the important competencies expected of a nurse. Interpersonal process is
viewed as human to human relationship. This statement is an application of whose nursing model?
88. The statement “the health status of an individual is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant and
responsive to these changes” best explains which of the following facts about nursing?
89. Virginia Henderson professes that the goal of nursing is to work interdependently with other health care
working in assisting the patient to gain independence as quickly as possible. Which of the following nursing
actions best demonstrates this theory in taking care of a 94 year old client with dementia who is totally
immobile?
A. Feeds the patient, brushes his teeth, gives the sponge bath
B. Supervise the watcher in rendering patient his morning care
C. Put the patient in semi fowler’s position, set the over bed table so the patient can eat by himself, brush his
teeth and sponge himself
D. Assist the patient to turn to his sides and allow him to brush and feed himself only when he feels ready
90. In the self care deficit theory by Dorothea Orem, nursing care becomes necessary when a patient is unable to
fulfil his physiological, psychological and social needs. A pregnant client needing prenatal check up is classified as:
Situation: Documentation and reporting are just as important as providing patient care, As such, the nurse must
be factual and accurate to ensure quality documentation and reporting.
91. Health care reports have different purposes. The availability of patients record to all health team members
demonstrates which of the following purposes:
92. When a nurse commits medication error, she should accurately document client’s response and her
corresponding action. This is very important for which of the following purposes:
A. Research C. Legal documentation
B. Nursing Audit D. Vehicle for communication
93. POMR has been widely used in many teaching hospitals. One of its unique features is SOAPIE charting. The P
in SOAPIE charting should include:
94. The medical records that are organized into separate section from doctors or nurses has more disadvantages
than advantages. This is classified as what type of recording?
Situation: June is a 24 year old client with symptoms of dyspnea, absent breath sounds on the right lung and
chest x ray revealed pleural effusion. The physician will perform thoracentesis.
96. Thoracentesis is useful in treating all of the following pulmonary disorders except:
A. Hemothorax C. Hydrothorax
B. Tuberculosis D. Empyema
97. Which of the following psychological preparation is not relevant for him?
A. Telling him that the gauge of the needle and anesthesia to be used
B. Telling him to keep still during the procedure to facilitate the insertion of the needle in the correct place
C. Allow June to express his feelings and concerns
D. Physician’s explanation on the purpose of the procedure and how it will be done
98. Before thoracentesis, the legal consideration you must check is:
99. As a nurse, you know that the position for June before thoracentesis is:
A. Orthopneic C. Low fowlers
B. Knee-chest D. Sidelying position on the affected side
A. Procaine 2% C. Demerol 75 mg
B. Valium 250 mg D. Phenobartbital 50 mg
NURSING PRACTICE II
Situation: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has been married for 6 months. She consults you for guidance in
relation with her menstrual cycle and her desire to get pregnant.
1. She wants to know the length of her menstrual cycle. Her previous menstrual period is October 22 to 26. Her
LMB is November 21. Which of the following number of days will be your correct response?
A. 29 B. 28 C. 30 D. 31
2. You advised her to observe and record the signs of Ovulation. Which of the following signs will she likely note
down?
3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal temperature everyday, which of the following instructions is
incorrect?
4. She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. Which hormone brings about this change in her BBT?
A. Estrogen C. Gonadotropine
B. Progesterone D. Follicle stimulating hormone
5. The following month, Mariah suspects she is pregnant. Her urine is positive for Human chorionic
gonadotrophin. Which structure produces Hcg?
A. Pituitary gland
B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo
C. Uterine deciduas
D. Ovarian follicles
6. At 5 month gestation, which of the following fetal development would probably be achieve?
7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah. Now At 5 month gestation, What level of the abdomen can the
fundic height be palpated?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
C. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
D. Umbilicus
8. She worries about her small breasts, thinking that she probably will not be able to breastfeed her baby. Which
of the following responses of the nurse is correct?
9. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk regularly. She claims that she does not want to gain too much
weight during her pregnancy. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority?
10. Which of the following interventions will likely ensure compliance of Mariah?
A. Incorporate her food preferences that are adequately nutritious in her meal plan
B. Consistently counsel toward optimum nutritional intake
C. Respect her right to reject dietary information if she chooses
D. Inform her of the adverse effects of inadequate nutrition to her fetus
Situation: Susan is a patient in the clinic where you work. She is inquiring about pregnancy.
11. Susan tells you she is worried because she develops breasts later than most of her friends. Breast
development is termed as:
A. Adrenarche C. Thelarche
B. Mamarche D. Menarche
12. Kevin, Susan’s husband tells you that he is considering vasectomy After the birth of their new child.
Vasectomy involves the incision of which organ?
13. On examination, Susan has been found of having a cystocele. A cystocele is:
14. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34 days. She told you she had coitus on days 8, 10, 15 and 20 of her
menstrual cycle. Which is the day on which she is most likely to conceive?
15. While talking with Susan, 2 new patients arrived and they are covered with large towels and the nurse
noticed that there are many cameraman and news people outside of the OPD. Upon assessment the nurse
noticed that both of them are still nude and the male client’s penis is still inside the female client’s vagina and the
male client said that “I can’t pull it”. Vaginismus was your first impression. You know that The psychological cause
of Vaginismus is related to:
A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates vaginal closure
B. The penis was too large that is why the vagina triggered it’s defense to attempt to close it
C. The vagina do not want to be penetrated
D. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where she views sex as bad or sinful
Situation: Overpopulation is one problem in the Philippines that causes economic drain. Most Filipinos are
against in legalizing abortion. As a nurse, Mastery of contraception is needed to contribute to the society and
economic growth.
16. Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells you she wants to use fertility awareness method of contraception.
How will she determine her fertile days?
A. She will notice that she feels hot, as if she has an elevated temperature.
B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin, copious, clear and watery.
C. She should monitor her emotions for sudden anger or crying
D. She should assess whether her breasts feel sensitive to cool air
17. Dana chooses to use COC as her family planning method. What is the danger sign of COC you would ask her to
report?
18. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and she asks, how long will these implants be effective. Your best
answer is:
19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which of the following is true with regards to female condoms?
A. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild weight gain
B. She should insert the condom before any penile penetration
C. She should coat the condom with spermicide before use
D. Female condoms, unlike male condoms, are reusable
20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. What makes her a good candidate for GIFT?
A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized ova can be implanted on them
B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to rule out RH incompatibility
C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be injected through the cervix into it
D. Her husband is taking sildenafil, so all sperms will be motile
Situation : Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY
PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of
this particular population group.
21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go.
22. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility
because:
24. Lilia is scheduled to have a hysterosalphingogram. Which of the following instructions would you give her
regarding this procedure?
A. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after the procedure
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
C. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after effect
D. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted
25. Lilia’s cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Lorena’s specialization asks what artificial insemination by
donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena?
Situation . You are assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan.
26. Pain in the elder persons require careful assessment because they:
27. Administration of analgesics to the older persons requires careful patient assessment because older people:
28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence because of:
29. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?
31. Preschoolers are able to see things from which of the following perspectives?
A. Their peers C. Their own and their mother’s
B. Their own and their caregivers’ D. Only their own
A. There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one
B. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreements making up the conflict
C. Both parties involved are committed to solving the conflict
D. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal system and the parties win
33. According to the social-interactional perspective of child abuse and neglect, four factors place the family
members at risk for abuse. these risk factors are the family members at risk for abuse. These risk factors are the
family itself, the caregiver, the child, and
34. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you most likely find when assessing and infant with
Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of sensation in the legs, and restlessness
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex, and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant, and an arching of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea, and vomiting.
35. A parent calls you and frantically reports that her child has gotten into her famous ferrous sulfate pills and
ingested a number of these pills. Her child is now vomiting, has bloody diarrhea, and is complaining of abdominal
pain. You will tell the mother to:
A. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the child to the emergency room
B. Relax because these symptoms will pass and the child will be fine
C. Administer syrup of ipecac
D. Call the poison control center
36. A client says she heard from a friend that you stop having periods once you are on the “pill”. The most
appropriate response would be:
A. “The pill prevents the uterus from making such endometrial lining, that is why periods may often be scant or
skipped occasionally.”
B. “If your friend has missed her period, she should stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy test as soon as
possible.”
C. “The pill should cause a normal menstrual period every month. It sounds like your friend has not been
taking the pills properly.”
D. “Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead to the formation of precancerous cells.”
37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of the
following symptoms as a primary manifestation of Hirschsprung’s disease?
38. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa. She is stable
and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of these instructions to the client may indicate a need
for further teaching?
39. A woman has been rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse
check first?
40. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication were to be
prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the caregivers to:
avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper
avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
put the diaper on as usual
apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper
41. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of relationships used in delivering
nursing care?
43. In working with the caregivers of a client with an acute or chronic illness, the nurse would:
Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a return demonstration just before discharge
Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex, and respiratory distress.
Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant, and an arching of the back
Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea, and vomiting
44. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies the expanded role of the nurse?
45. According to DeRosa and Kochura’s (2006) article entitled “Implement Culturally Competent Health Care in
your workplace,” cultures have different patterns of verbal and nonverbal communication. Which difference does
NOT necessarily belong?
46. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following the prescribed
treatment regimen, the child experiences a remission. You are now checking to make sure the child does not
have a relapse. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion that a relapse is happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete blood count (CBC) with diiferential
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for 3 days, or the child found to have 3-4+
proteinutria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine output, and a
moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on voiding, and cloudy
urine.
47. The nurse is working with an adolescent who complains of being lonely and having a lack of fulfillment in her
life. This adolescent shies away from intimate relationships at times yet at other times she appears promiscuous.
The nurse will likely work with this adolescent in which of the following areas?
A. Isolation C. Lack of fulfillment
B. Loneliness D. Identity
48. The use of interpersonal decision making, psychomotor skills, and application of knowledge expected in the
role of a licensed health care professional in the context of public health welfare and safety is an example of:
A. Delegation C. Responsibility
b. Supervision D. Competence
49. The painful phenomenon known as “back labor” occurs in a client whose fetus in what position?
SITUATION: The infant and child mortality rate in the low to middle income countries is ten times higher than
industrialized countries. In response to this, the WHO and UNICEF launched the protocol Integrated Management
of Childhood Illnesses to reduce the morbidity and mortality against childhood illnesses.
51. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs in the yellow row in the IMCI chart, we can classify the patient as:
52. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days. There is no blood in the stool, he is irritable, his eyes are sunken, the
nurse offers fluid to Celeste and he drinks eagerly. When the nurse pinched the abdomen it goes back slowly.
How will you classify Celeste’s illness?
53. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for 14 days but has no sign of dehydration is classified as:
54. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment. Which of the following is not included in the rules for
home treatment in this case?
A. Forced fluids
B. When to return
C. Give vitamin A supplement
D. Feeding more
Situation: Prevention of Dengue is an important nursing responsibility and controlling it’s spread is a priority once
outbreak has been observed.
56. An important role of the community health nurse in the prevention and control of Dengue H-fever includes:
57. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue suspect. The following is NOT an indicator for
hospitalization of H-fever suspects?
58. The community health nurses primary concern in the immediate control of hemorrhage among patients with
dengue is:
59. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a truly positive signs indicative of Dengue H-fever?
Situation: Health education and Health promotion is an important part of nursing responsibility in the
community. Immunization is a form of health promotion that aims at preventing the common childhood illnesses.
61. In correcting misconceptions and myths about certain diseases and their management, the health worker
should first:
62. How many percent of measles are prevented by immunization at 9 months of age?
A. 80% C. 99%
B. 90% D. 95%
A. 80% C. 99%
B. 85% D. 90%
64. If ever convulsions occurs after administering DPT, what should the nurse best suggest to the mother?
Situation – With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply.
66. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
67. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following activities is the most important function of the
community health nurse?
68. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases?
69. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
70. In Community Health Nursing, despite the availability and use of many equipment and devices to facilitate the
job of the community health nurse, the best tool any nurse should be wel be prepared to apply is a scientific
approach. This approach ensures quality of care even at the community setting. This is nursing parlance is
nothing less than the:
Situation – Two children were brought to you. One with chest indrawing and the other had diarrhea. The
following questions apply:
71. Using Integrated Management and Childhood Illness (IMCI) approach, how would you classify the 1st child?
72. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast breathing using IMCI parameters he has:
73. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days. There is no blood in the stool. She is irritable, and her eyes are
sunken. The nurse offered fluids and and the child drinks eagerly. How would you classify Nina’s illness?
74. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old weighed 18 kgs. and her temperature registered at 37 degrees C.
Her mother says she developed cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general danger signs. She has 45 breaths/minute,
no chest in-drawing, no stridor. How would you classify Nina’s manifestation.
A. No pneumonia C. Pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia D. Bronchopneumonia
76. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5.5 kgs and it is her initial visit. Her mother says that Carol is not eating well
and unable to breastfeed, he has no vomiting, has no convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or difficult to
awaken. Her temperature is 38.9 deg C. Using the integrated management of childhood illness or IMCI strategy,
if you were the nurse in charge of Carol, how will you classify her illness?
77. Why are small for gestational age newborns at risk for difficulty maintaining body temperature?
78. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to augment labor. What are the first symptoms of water intoxication to
observe for during this procedure?
80. In assessing the patient’s condition using the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness approach strategy,
the first thing that a nurse should do is to:
A. ask what are the child’s problem C. check for the four main symptoms
B. check the patient’s level of consciousness D. check for the general danger signs
A. how long the child has diarrhea C. presence of blood in the stool
B. skin Petechiae D. signs of dehydration
82. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment. Which of the following is NOT included in the care for
home management at this case?
83. Ms. Jordan, RN, believes that a patient should be treated as individual. This ethical principle that the patient
referred to:
84. When patients cannot make decisions for themselves, the nurse advocate relies on the ethical principle of:
85. Being a community health nurse, you have the responsibility of participating in protecting the health of
people. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with their bare hands. They receive money with these
hands. You do not see them washing their hands. What should you say/do?
A. “Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands”
B. All of these
C. “Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread tong”
D. “Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting the bread”
Situation : The following questions refers to common clinical encounters experienced by an entry level nurse.
86. A female client asks the nurse about the use of a cervical cap. Which statement is correct regarding the use of
the cervical cap?
88. The extent of burns in children are normally assessed and expressed in terms of:
89. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always hungry; has no lunch
money; and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until midnight.
The nurse will suspect that this child is:
90. Which of the following indicates the type(s) of acute renal failure?
A. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting, and nonhemorrhagic with and without clottings
B. One type: acute
C. Three types: prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal
D. Two types: acute and subacute
Situation: Mike 16 y/o has been diagnosed to have AIDS, he worked as entertainer in a cruise ship;
A. Fungus C. retrovirus
B. Bacteria D. Parasites
93. You are assigned in a private room of Mike. Which procedure should be of outmost importance;
95. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health worker dealing with the AIDS patients . which among
these must be done as priority:
Situation: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler. She was reported by her sister to have measles but she is at home
because of fever, upper respiratory problem and white sports in her mouth.
96. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption
behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complication especially:
97. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities, Which includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and
nose. To clean the mouth, your antiseptic solution is in some form of which one below?
A. Water C. Alkaline
B. Sulfur D. Salt
98. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family members the prevention of complication of measles.
Which of the following should be closely watched?
99. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infection person. Filterable virus of measles is
transmitted by:
100. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infection person. Nursing responsibility for rehabilitation of
patient includes the provision of:
Situation: Leo lives in the squatter area. He goes to nearby school. He helps his mother gather molasses after
school. One day, he was absent because of fever, malaise, anorexia and abdominal discomfort.
1. Upon assessment, Leo was diagnosed to have hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the infection agent
taken?
A. Investigation of contact
B. Sanitary disposal of faeces, urine and blood
C. Quarantine of the sick individual
D. removing all detachable objects in the room, cleaning lighting and air duct surfaces in the ceiling, and cleaning
everything downward to the floor
3. Which of the following must be emphasized during mother’s class to Leo’s mother?
4. Disaster control should be undertaken when there are 3 or more hepatitis A cases. Which of these measures is
a priority?
Situation: As a nurse researcher you must have a very good understanding of the common terms of concept used
in research.
6. The information that an investigator collects from the subjects or participants in a research study is usually
called;
A. Hypothesis C. Variable
B. Data D. Concept
7. Which of the following usually refers to the independent variables in doing research
A. Result C. output
B. Cause D. Effect
8. The recipients of experimental treatment is an experimental design or the individuals to be observed in a non
experimental design are called;
A. Setting C. Treatment
B. Subjects D. Sample
A. Sample C. hypothesis
B. Instrument D. Concept
A. The use of another persons ideas or wordings without giving appropriate credit results from inaccurate or
incomplete attribution of materials to its sources. Which of the following is referred to when another persons
idea is inappropriate credited as one’s own;
A. Plagiarism C. assumption
B. Quotation D. Paraphrase
Situation – Mrs. Pichay is admitted to your ward. The MD ordered “Prepare for thoracentesis this pm to remove
excess air from the pleural cavity.”
11. Which of the following nursing responsibilities is essential in Mrs. Pichay who will undergo thoracentesis?
A. Support and reassure client during the procedure
B. Ensure that informed consent has been signed
C. Determine if client has allergic reaction to local anesthesia
D. Ascertain if chest x-rays and other tests have been prescribed and completed
12. Mrs. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is assigned by the nurse to which of the following positions?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Supine position
C. Dorsal Recumbent position
D. Orthopneic position
13. During thoracentesis, which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial?
14. To prevent leakage of fluid in the thoracic cavity, how will you position the client after thoracentesis?
Situation: A computer analyst, Mr. Ricardo J. Santos, 25 was brought to the hospital for diagnostic workup after
he had experienced seizure in his office.
16. Just as the nurse was entering the room, the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure.
Which of the following must the nurse do first?
17. Mr. Santos is scheduled for CT SCAN for the next day, noon time. Which of the following is the correct
preparation as instructed by the nurse?
18. Mr. Santos is placed on seizure precaution. Which of the following would be contraindicated?
19. Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?
20. Before, during and after seizure. The nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position?
24. In pain assessment, which of the following condition is a more reliable indicator?
Situation: You are assigned at the surgical ward and clients have been complaining of post pain at varying
degrees. Pain as you know, is very subjective.
26. A one-day postoperative abdominal surgery client has been complaining of severe throbbing abdominal pain
described as 9 in a 1-10 pain rating. Your assessment reveals bowel sounds on all quadrants and the dressing is
dry and intact. What nursing intervention would you take
28. The client complained of abdominal distention and pain. Your nursing intervention that can alleviate pain is:
29. Surgical pain might be minimized by which nursing action in the O.R.
30. Inadequate anesthesia is said to be one of the common cause of pain both in intra and post op patients. If
General anesthesia is desired, it will involve loss of consciousness. Which of the following are the 2 general types
of GA?
Situation: Nurse’s attitudes toward the pain influence the way they perceive and interact with clients in pain.
31. Nurses should be aware that older adults are at risk of underrated pain. Nursing assessment and
management of pain should address the following beliefs EXCEPT:
A. Older patients seldom tend to report pain than the younger ones
B. Pain is a sign of weakness
C. Older patients do not believe in analgesics, they are tolerant
D. Complaining of pain will lead to being labeled a ‘bad’ patient
32. Nurses should understand that when a client responds favorably to a placebo, it is known as the ‘placebo
effect’. Placebos do not indicate whether or not a client has:
A. Conscience C. Disease
B. Real pain D. Drug tolerance
33. You are the nurse in the pain clinic where you have client who has difficulty specifying the location of pain.
How can you assist such client?
34. What symptom, more distressing than pain, should the nurse monitor when giving opioids especially among
elderly clients who are in pain?
A. Forgetfulness C. Drowsiness
B. Constipation D. Allergic reactions like pruritis
35. Physical dependence occurs in anyone who takes opiods over a period of time. What do you tell a mother of
a ‘dependent’ when asked for advice?
Situation: The nurse is performing health education activities for Janevi Segovia, a 30 year old Dentist with Insulin
dependent diabetes Miletus.
36. Janevi is preparing a mixed dose of insulin. The nurse is satisfied with her performance when she:
37. Janevi complains of nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis and headache. Which of the following nursing intervention
are you going to carry out first?
38. Janevi administered regular insulin at 7 A.M and the nurse should instruct Jane to avoid exercising at around:
A. 9 to 11 A.M C. Between 8 A.M to 9 A.M
B. After 8 hours D. In the afternoon, after taking lunch
39. Janevi was brought at the emergency room after four month because she fainted in her clinic. The nurse
should monitor which of the following test to evaluate the overall therapeutic compliance of a diabetic patient?
40. Upon the assessment of Hba1c of Mrs. Segovia, The nurse has been informed of a 9% Hba1c result. In this
case, she will teach the patient to:
41. The nurse is teaching plan of care for Jane with regards to proper foot care. Which of the following should be
included in the plan?
42. Another patient was brought to the emergency room in an unresponsive state and a diagnosis of
hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome is made. The nurse immediately prepare to initiate which of
the following anticipated physician’s order?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. 100 unites of NPH insulin
C. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
D. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate
43. Jane eventually developed DKA and is being treated in the emergency room. Which finding would the nurse
expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?
A. Comatose state
B. Decreased urine output
C. Increased respiration and an increase in pH
D. Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate level
44. The nurse teaches Jane to know the difference between hypoglycaemia and ketoacidosis. Jane demonstrates
understanding of the teaching by stating that glucose will be taken if which of the following symptoms develops?
A. Administer syrup of ipecac to remove the distilled water from the stomach
B. Suction the stomach content using NGT prior to specimen collection
C. Advice to physician to reschedule to diagnostic examination next day
D. Continue as usual and have the FBS analysis performed and specimen be taken
Situation: Elderly clients usually produce unusual signs when it comes to different diseases. The ageing process is
a complicated process and the nurse should understand that it is an inevitable fact and she must be prepared to
care for the growing elderly population.
46. Hypoxia may occur in the older patients because of which of the following physiologic changes associated
with aging.
47. The older patient is at higher risk for incontinence because of:
A. Dilated urethra
B. Increased glomerular filtration rate
C. Diuretic use
D. Decreased bladder capacity
48. Merle, age 86, is complaining of dizziness when she stands up. This may indicate:
50. The most dependable sign of infection in the older patient is:
Situation – In the OR, there are safety protocols that should be followed. The OR nurse should be well versed
with all these to safeguard the safety and quality of patient delivery outcome.
51. Which of the following should be given highest priority when receiving patient in the OR?
52. Surgeries like I and D (incision and drainage) and debridement are relatively short procedures but considered
‘dirty cases’. When are these procedures best scheduled?
A. Last case
B. In between cases
C. According to availability of anaesthesiologist
D. According to the surgeon’s preference
53. OR nurses should be aware that maintaining the client’s safety is the overall goal of nursing care during the
intraoperative phase. As the circulating nurse, you make certain that throughout the procedure…
54. Another nursing check that should not be missed before the induction of general anesthesia is:
55. Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect postoperative respiratory function. If your client smokes 3 packs of
cigarettes a day for the past 10 years, you will anticipate increased risk for:
56. There are 3 general types of sterilization use in the hospital, which one is not included?
57. Autoclave or steam under pressure is the most common method of sterilization in the hospital. The nurse
knows that the temperature and time is set to the optimum level to destroy not only the microorganism, but also
the spores. Which of the following is the ideal setting of the autoclave machine?
58. It is important that before a nurse prepares the material to be sterilized, A chemical indicator strip should be
placed above the package, preferably, Muslin sheet. What is the color of the striped produced after autoclaving?
60. If a nurse will sterilize a heat and moisture labile instruments, It is according to AORN recommendation to use
which of the following method of sterilization?
Situation 5 – Nurses hold a variety of roles when providing care to a perioperative patient.
61. Which of the following role would be the responsibility of the scrub nurse?
62. As a perioperative nurse, how can you best meet the safety need of the client after administering
preoperative narcotic?
A. Put side rails up and ask the client not to get out of bed
B. Send the client to OR with the family
C. Allow client to get up to go to the comfort room
D. Obtain consent form
63. It is the responsibility of the pre-op nurse to do skin prep for patients undergoing surgery. If hair at the
operative site is not shaved, what should be done to make suturing easy and lessen chance of incision infection?
A. Draped
B. Pulled
C. Clipped
D. Shampooed
64. It is also the nurse’s function to determine when infection is developing in the surgical incision. The
perioperative nurse should observe for what signs of impending infection?
65. Which of the following nursing interventions is done when examining the incision wound and changing the
dressing?
Situation – The preoperative nurse collaborates with the client significant others, and healthcare providers.
66. To control environmental hazards in the OR, the nurse collaborates with the following departments EXCEPT:
67. An air crash occurred near the hospital leading to a surge of trauma patient. One of the last patients will need
surgical amputation but there are no sterile surgical equipments. In this case, which of the following will the
nurse expect?
A. Equipments needed for surgery need not be sterilized if this is an emergency necessitating life saving measures
B. Forwarding the trauma client to the nearest hospital that has available sterile equipments is appropriate
C. The nurse will need to sterilize the item before using it to the client using the regular sterilization setting at 121
degree Celsius in 15 minutes
D. In such cases, flash sterlizer will be use at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes
68. Tess, the PACU nurse, discovered that Malou, who weights 110 lbs prior to surgery, is in severe pain 3 hrs
after cholecystectomy. Upon checking the chart, Malou found out that she has an order of Demerol 100 mg I.M.
prn for pain. Tess should verify the order with:
69. Rosie, 57, who is diabetic is for debridement if incision wound. When the circulating nurse checked the
present IV fluid, she found out that there is no insulin incorporated as ordered. What should the circulating nurse
do?
70. The documentation of all nursing activities performed is legally and professionally vital. Which of the
following should NOT be included in the patient’s chart?
A. Presence of prosthetoid devices such as dentures, artificial limbs hearing aid, etc.
B. Baseline physical, emotional, and psychosocial data
C. Arguments between nurses and residents regarding treatments
D. Observed untoward signs and symptoms and interventions including contaminant intervening factors
71. If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases, what important information do you need to ask
the surgeon?
72. In the OR, the nursing tandem for every surgery is:
74. Who usually act as an important part of the OR personnel by getting the wheelchair or stretcher, and
pushing/pulling them towards the operating room?
A. Orderly/clerk
B. Nurse Supervisor
C. Circulating Nurse
D. Anaesthesiologist
A. Electricity
B. Inadequate supply
C. Leg work
D. Communication
Situation: Basic knowledge on Intravenous solutions is necessary for care of clients with problems with fluids and
electrolytes.
76. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal
bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates which of the following
intravenous solutions will most likely be prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate blood
loss and increase blood pressure?
77. The physician orders the nurse to prepare an isotonic solution. Which of the following IV solution would the
nurse expect the intern to prescribe?
78. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the condition of assigned clients. The nurse
notes that the client’s IV Site is cool, pale and swollen and the solution is not infusing. The nurse concludes that
which of the following complications has been experienced by the client?
A. Infection B. Phlebitis C. Infiltration D. Thrombophelibitis
79. A nurse reviews the client’s electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L.
Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
80. One patient had a ‘runaway’ IV of 50% dextrose. To prevent temporary excess of insulin or transient
hyperinsulin reaction what solution you prepare in anticipation of the doctor’s order?
82. Which of the following is not true with regards to the informed consent?
84. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the client’s medical records, the nurse
determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?
Situation: As a perioperative nurse, you are aware of the correct processing methods for preparing instruments
and other devices for patient use to prevent infection.
86. As an OR nurse, what are your foremost considerations for selecting chemical agents for disinfection?
88. You have a critical heat labile instrument to sterilize and are considering to use high level disinfectant. What
should you do?
90. Bronchoscope, Thermometer, Endoscope, ET tube, Cytoscope are all BEST sterilized using which of the
following?
92. Nursing intervention for a patient on low dose IV insulin therapy includes the following, EXCEPT:
93. The doctor ordered to incorporate 1000”u” insulin to the remaining on going IV. The strength is 500 /ml. How
much should you incorporate into the IV solution?
A. 10 ml C. 0.5 ml
B. 2 ml D. 5 ml
95. Insulins using insulin syringe are given using how many degrees of needle insertion?
A. 45 B. 180 C. 90 D. 15
Situation : Maintenance of sterility is an important function a nurse should perform in any OR setting.
A. Sterility is time related, items are not considered sterile after a period of 30 days of being not use.
B. for 9 months, sterile items are considered sterile as long as they are covered with sterile muslin cover and
stored in a dust proof covers.
C. Sterility is event related, not time related
D. For 3 weeks, items double covered with muslin are considered sterile as long as they have undergone the
sterilization process
97. 2 organizations endorsed that sterility are affected by factors other than the time itself, these are:
A. The PNA and the PRC
B. AORN and JCAHO
C. ORNAP and MCNAP
D. MMDA and DILG
98. All of this factors affect the sterility of the OR equipments, these are the following except:
100. In using liquid sterilizer versus autoclave machine, which of the following is true?
NURSING PRACTICE IV
Situation: After an abdominal surgery, the circulating and scrub nurses have critical responsibility about sponge
and instrument count.
1. Counting is performed thrice: During the preincision phase, the operative phase and closing phase. Who counts
the sponges, needles and instruments?
2. The layer of the abdomen is divided into 5. Arrange the following from the first layer going to the deepest
layer:
1. Fascia
2. Muscle
3. Peritoneum
4. Subcutaneous/Fat
5. Skin
A. 5,4,3,2,1 C. 5,4,1,3,2
B. 5,4,2,1,3 D. 5,4,1,2,3
4. Like any nursing interventions, counts should be documented. To whom does the scrub nurse report any
discrepancy of counts so that immediate and appropriate action is instituted?
A. Anaesthesiologists
B. Surgeon
C. OR nurse supervisor
D. Circulating nurse
5. Which of the following are 2 interventions of the surgical team when an instrument was confirmed missing?
Situation: An entry level nurse should be able to apply theoretical knowledge in the performance of the basic
nursing skills.
6. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter and she is suspected of having urinary infection. How should you
collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?
A. clamp tubing for 60 minutes and insert a sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to
aspirate urine
B. drain urine from the drainage bag into the sterile container
C. disconnect the tubing from the urinary catheter and let urine flow into a sterile container
D. wipe the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and insert a sterile needle into the self sealing
port
7. To obtain specimen for sputum culture and sensitivity, which of the following instruction is best?
A. Upon waking up, cough deeply and expectorate into container
B. Cough after pursed lip breathing
C. Save sputum for two days in covered container
D. After respiratory treatment, expectorate into a container
8. The best time for collecting the sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is:
A. Explain procedure to patient; insert catheter gently applying suction. Withdrawn using twisting motion
B. Insert catheter until resistance is met, then withdraw slightly, applying suction intermittently as catheter is
withdrawn
C. Hyperoxygenate client insert catheter using back and forth motion
D. Insert suction catheter four inches into the tube, suction 30 seconds using twirling motion as catheter is
withdrawn
Situation - Mr. Santos, 50, is to undergo cystoscopy due to multiple problems like scantly urination,
hematuria and dysuria.
11. You are the nurse in charge in Mr. Santos. When asked what are the organs to be examined
during cystoscopy, you will enumerate as follows:
12. In the OR, you will position Mr. Santos who is cystoscopy in:
A. Supine
B. Lithotomy
C. Semi-fowler
D. Trendelenburg
13. After cystoscopy, Mr. Santos asked you to explain why there is no incision of any kind. What do you tell him?
A. “Cystoscopy is direct visualization and examination by urologist”.
B. “Cystoscopy is done by x-ray visualization of the urinary tract”.
C. “Cystoscopy is done by using lasers on the urinary tract”.
D. “Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure of the urinary tract”.
14. Within 24-48 hours post cystoscopy, it is normal to observe one the following:
A. Pink-tinged urine
B. Distended bladder
C. Signs of infection
D. Prolonged hematuria
15. Leg cramps are NOT uncommon post cystoscopy. Nursing intervention includes:
A. Bed rest
B. Warm moist soak
C. Early ambulation
D. Hot sitz bath
Situation – Mang Felix, a 79 year old man who is brought to the Surgical Unit from PACU after a transurethral
resection. You are assigned to receive him. You noted that he has a 3-way indwelling urinary catheter for
continuous fast drip bladder irrigation which is connected to a straight drainage.
16. Immediately after surgery, what would you expect his urine to be?
18. Mang Felix informs you that he feels some discomfort on the hypogastric area and he has to void. What will
be your most appropriate action?
19. You decided to check on Mang Felix’s IV fluid infusion. You noted a change in flow rate,
pallor and coldness around the insertion site. What is your assessment finding?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue
C. Pyrogenic reaction
D. Air embolism
20. Knowing that proper documentation of assessment findings and interventions are important
responsibilities of the nurse during first post operative day, which of the following is the LEAST relevant to
document in the case of Mang Felix?
Situation: Melamine contamination in milk has brought world wide crisis both in the milk production sector as
well as the health and economy. Being aware of the current events is one quality that a nurse should possess to
prove that nursing is a dynamic profession that will adapt depending on the patient’s needs.
21. Melamine is a synthetic resin used for whiteboards, hard plastics and jewellery box covers due to its fire
retardant properties. Milk and food manufacturers add melamine in order to:
A. It has a bacteriostatic properties leading to increase food and milk life as a way of preserving the foods
B. Gives a glazy and more edible look on foods
C. Make milks more tasty and creamy
D. Create an illusion of a high protein content on their products
22. Most of the milks contaminated by Melamine came from which country?
23. Which government agency is responsible for testing the melamine content of foods and food products?
24. Infants are the most vulnerable to melamine poisoning. Which of the following is NOT a sign of melamine
poisoning?
Situation: Leukemia is the most common type of childhood cancer. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is the cause of
almost 1/3 of all cancer that occurs in children under age 15.
28. The three main consequence of leukemia that cause the most danger is:
A. Neutropenia causing infection, anemia causing impaired oxygenation and thrombocytopenia leading to
bleeding tendencies
B. Central nervous system infiltration, anemia causing impaired oxygenation and thrombocytopenia leading to
bleeding tendencies
C. Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fractures
D. Invasion by the leukemic cells to the bone causing severe bone pain
30. Adriamycin,Vincristine,Prednisone and L asparaginase are given to the client for long term therapy. One
common side effect, especially of adriamycin is alopecia. The child asks: “Will I get my hair back once again?” The
nurse best respond is by saying:
31. All of the following are factors that said to contribute to the development of breast cancer except:
A. Prolonged exposure to estrogen such as an early menarche or late menopause, nulliparity and childbirth after
age 30
B. Genetics
C. Increasing Age
D. Prolonged intake of Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
32. Protective factors for the development of breast cancer includes which of the following except:
33. A patient diagnosed with breast cancer has been offered the treatment choices of breast conservation
surgery with radiation or a modified radical mastectomy. When questioned by the patient about these options,
the nurse informs the patient that the lumpectomy with radiation:
A. reduces the fear and anxiety that accompany the diagnosis and treatment of cancer
B. has about the same 10-year survival rate as the modified radical mastectomy
C. provides a shorter treatment period with a fewer long term complications
D. preserves the normal appearance and sensitivity of the breast.
34. Carmen, who is asking the nurse the most appropriate time of the month to do her self-examination of the
breast. The MOST appropriate reply by the nurse would be:
35. Carmen being treated with radiation therapy. What should be included in the plan of care to minimize skin
damage from the radiation therapy?
36. Based on the DOH and World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines, the mainstay for early detection method
for breast cancer that is recommended for developing countries is:
A. a monthly breast self examination (BSE) and an annual health worker breast examination (HWBE)
B. an annual hormone receptor assay
C. an annual mammogram
D. a physician conduct a breast clinical examination every 2 years
37. The purpose of performing the breast self examination (BSE) regularly is to discover:
A. on the same day of each month C. on the first day of her menstruation
B. right after the menstrual period D. on the last day of her menstruation
39. During breast self-examination, the purpose of standing in front of the mirror it to observe the breast for:
40. When preparing to examine the left breast in a reclining position, the purpose of placing a small folded towel
under the client’s left shoulder is to:
Situation – Radiation therapy is another modality of cancer management. With emphasis on multidisciplinary
management you have important responsibilities as nurse.
41. Albert is receiving external radiation therapy and he complains of fatigue and malaise. Which of the following
nursing interventions would be most helpful for Albert?
43. Albert is admitted with a radiation induced thrombocytopenia. As a nurse you should observe the following
symptoms:
Situation: Burn are cause by transfer of heat source to the body. It can be thermal, electrical, radiation or
chemical.
46. A burn characterized by Pale white appearance, charred or with fat exposed and painlessness is:
47. Which of the following BEST describes superficial partial thickness burn or first degree burn?
49. During the Acute phase of the burn injury, which of the following is a priority?
50. While in the emergent phase, the nurse knows that the priority is to:
A. Prevent infection C. Prevent deformities and contractures
B. Control pain D. Return the hemodynamic stability via fluid resuscitation
51. The MOST effective method of delivering pain medication during the emergent phase is:
A. intramuscularly C. orally
B. subcutaneously D. intravenously
52. When a client accidentally splashes chemicals to his eyes, The initial priority care following the chemical burn
is to:
53. Which of the following can be a fatal complication of upper airway burns?
54. When a client will rush towards you and he has a burning clothes on, It is your priority to do which of the
following first?
56. During the first 24 hours after the thermal injury, you should asses Sergio for:
58. A 165 lbs trauma client was rushed to the emergency room with full thickness burns on the whole face, right
and left arm, and at the anterior upper chest sparing the abdominal area. He also has superficial partial thickness
burn at the posterior trunk and at the half upper portion of the left leg. He is at the emergent phase of burn.
Using the parkland’s formula, you know that during the first 8 hours of burn, the amount of fluid will be given is:
A. 5,400 ml C. 9, 450 ml
B. 10,800 ml D. 6,750 ml
59. The doctor incorporated insulin on the client’s fluid during the emergent phase. The nurse knows that insulin
is given because:
Situation: ENTEROSTOMAL THERAPY is now considered a specialty in nursing. You are participating in the
OSTOMY CARE CLASS.
61. You plan to teach Fermin how to irrigate the colostomy when:
A. The perineal wound heals And Fermin can sit comfortably on the commode
B. Fermin can lie on the side comfortably, about the 3rd postoperative day
C. The abdominal incision is closed and contamination is no longer a danger
D. The stools starts to become formed, around the 7th postoperative day
62. When preparing to teach Fermin how to irrigate colostomy, you should plan to do the procedure:
A. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma
B. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid insertion
C. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after 500 ml of fluid has been instilled
D. Clamps of the flow of fluid when felling uncomfortable
64. You are aware that teaching about colostomy care is understood when Fermin states, “I will contact my
physician and report:
A. If I have any difficulty inserting the irrigating tub into the stoma.”
B. If I noticed a loss of sensation to touch in the stoma tissue.”
C. The expulsion of flatus while the irrigating fluid is running out.”
D. When mucus is passed from the stoma between the irrigations.”
65. You would know after teaching Fermin that dietary instruction for him is effective when he states, “It is
important that I eat:
Situation: Based on studies of nurses working in special units like the intensive care unit and coronary care unit, it
is important for nurses to gather as much information to be able to address their needs for nursing care.
66. Critically ill patients frequently complain about which of the following when hospitalized?
68. Which of the following factors may inhibit learning in critically ill patients?
69. Which of the following statements does not apply to critically ill patients?
A. Majority need extensive rehabilitation
B. All have been hospitalized previously
C. Are physically unstable
D. Most have chronic illness
70. Families of critically ill patients desire which of the following needs to be met first by the nurse?
Situation: Johnny, sought consultation to the hospital because of fatigability, irritability, jittery and he has been
experiencing this sign and symptoms for the past 5 months.
71. His diagnosis was hyperthyroidism, the following are expected symptoms except:
72. She has to take drugs to treat her hyperthyroidism. Which of the following will you NOT expect that the
doctor will prescribe?
73. The nurse knows that Tapazole has which of the following side effect that will warrant immediate withholding
of the medication?
A. Death C. Hyperthermia
B. Sore throat D. Thrombocytosis
74. You asked questions as soon as she regained consciousness from thyroidectomy primarily to assess the
evidence of:
76. Basal Metabolic rate is assessed on Johnny to determine his metabolic rate. In assessing the BMR using the
standard procedure, you need to tell Johnny that:
Situation : Pharmacological treatment was not effective for Johnny’s hyperthyroidism and now, he is scheduled
for Thyroidectomy.
81. Instruments in the surgical suite for surgery is classified as either CRITICAL, SEMI CRITICAL and NON CRITICAL.
If the instrument are introduced directly into the blood stream or into any normally sterile cavity or area of the
body it is classified as:
83. If an instrument is classified as Semi Critical, an acceptable method of making the instrument ready for
surgery is through:
A. Sterilization C. Disinfection
B. Decontamination D. Cleaning
A. Clean C. Sterilized
B. Decontaminated D. Disinfected
85. As a nurse, you know that intact skin acts as an effective barrier to most microorganisms. Therefore, items
that come in contact with the intact skin or mucus membranes should be:
A. Disinfected C. Clean
B. Sterile D. Alcoholized
86. You are caring for Johnny who is scheduled to undergo total thyroidectomy because of a diagnosis of thyroid
cancer. Prior to total thyroidectomy, you should instruct Johnny to:
87. As Johnny’s nurse, you plan to set up an emergency equipment at her bedside following thyroidectomy. You
should include:
88. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a total thyroidectomy?
89. If there is an accidental injury to the parathyroid gland during a thyroidectomy which of the following might
Leda develop postoperatively?
90. After surgery Johnny develops peripheral numbness, tingling and muscle twitching and spasm. What would
you anticipate to administer?
Situation: Budgeting is an important part of a nurse managerial activity. The correct allocation and distribution of
resources is vital in the harmonious operation of the financial balance of the agency.
A. Budget to estimate the cost of direct labour, number of staff to be hired and necessary number of workers to
meet the general patient needs
B. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses
C. These are related to long term planning and includes major replacement or expansion of the plant, major
equipments and inventories.
D. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to be time-related,
such as salaries or rents being paid per month
A. Budget to estimate the cost of direct labour, number of staff to be hired and necessary number of workers to
meet the general patient needs
B. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses
C. These are related to long term planning and includes major replacement or expansion of the plant, major
equipments and inventories.
D. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to be time-related,
such as rent
A. These are usually the raw materials and labor salaries that depend on the production or sales
B. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business
C. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to be time-related,
such as rent
D. This is the summation of the Variable Cost and the Fixed Cost
A. These are related to long term planning and include major replacement or expansion of the plant, major
equipments and inventories.
B. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business
C. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. They tend to be time-related,
such as rent
D. This is the summation of the Variable Cost and the Fixed Cost
Situation – Andrea is admitted to the ER following an assault where she was hit in the
face and head. She was brought to the ER by a police woman. Emergency measures were started.
96. Andrea’s respiration is described as waxing and waning. You know that this rhythm of
respiration is defined as:
97. What do you call the triad of sign and symptoms seen in a client with increasing ICP?
98. Which of the following is true with the Triad seen in head injuries?
99. In a client with a Cheyne stokes respiration, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
NURSING PRACTICE V
Situation : Understanding different models of care is a necessary part of the nurse patient relationship.
1. The focus of this therapy is to have a positive environmental manipulation, physical and social to effect a
positive change.
2. The client asks the nurse about Milieu therapy. The nurse responds knowing that the primary focus of milieu
therapy can be best described by which of the following?
3. A nurse is caring for a client with phobia who is being treated for the condition. The client is introduced to
short periods of exposure to the phobic object while in relaxed state. The nurse understands that this form of
behaviour modification can be best described as:
4. A client with major depression is considering cognitive therapy. The client say to the nurse, “How does this
treatment works?” The nurse respond by telling the client that:
A. “This type of treatment helps you examine how your thoughts and feelings contribute to your difficulties”
B. “This type of treatment helps you examine how your past life has contributed to your problems.”
C. “This type of treatment helps you to confront your fears by exposing you to the feared object abruptly.
D. “This type of treatment will help you relax and develop new coping skills.”
5. A Client state, “I get down on myself when I make mistake.” Using Cognitive therapy approach, the nurse
should:
6. The most advantageous therapy for a preschool age child with a history of physical and sexual abuse would be:
7. An 18 year old client is admitted with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. A cognitive behavioural approach is
used as part of her treatment plan. The nurse understands that the purpose of this approach is to:
A. Help the client identify and examine dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs
B. Emphasize social interaction with clients who withdraw
C. Provide a supportive environment and a therapeutic community
D. Examine intrapsychic conflicts and past events in life
8. The nurse is preparing to provide reminiscence therapy for a group of clients. Which of the following clients
will the nurse select for this group?
9. Which intervention would be typical of a nurse using cognitive-behavioral approach to a client experiencing
low self esteem?
10. Which of the following therapies has been strongly advocated for the treatment of post traumatic stress
disorders?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 10 D. 16
12.The nurse is providing information to a client with the use of disulfiram (antabuse) for the treatment of
alcohol abuse. The nurse understands that this form of therapy works on what principle?
14. Which of these nursing actions belong to the secondary level of preventive intervention?
15. When the nurse identifies a client who has attempt to commit suicide the nurse should:
A. call a priest
B. counsel the client
C. refer the client to the psychiatrist
D. refer the matter to the police
Situation: Rose seeks psychiatric consultation because of intense fear of flying in an airplane which has greatly
affected her chances of success in her job.
16. The most common defense mechanism used by phobic clients is:
A. Supression C. Denial
B. Rationalization D. Displacement
19. The fear and anxiety related to phobia is said to be abruptly decreased when the patient is exposed to what is
feared through:
A. Guided Imagery
B. Systematic desensitization
C. Flooding
D. Hypotherapy
20. Based on the presence of symptom, The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
Situation: Mang Jose, 39 year old farmer, unmarried, had been confined in the National center for mental health
for three years with a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
21. The most common defense mechanism used by a paranoid client is:
A. Displacement C. Rationalization
B. Suppression D. Projection
22. When Mang Jose says to you: “The voices are telling me bad things again!” The best response is:
23. A relevant nursing diagnosis for clients with auditory hallucination is:
24. During mealtime, Jose refused to eat telling that the food was poisoned. The nurse should:
Situation: Gringo seeks psychiatric counselling for his ritualistic behavior of counting his money as many as 10
times before leaving home.
28. The defense mechanism used by persons with obsessive compulsive disorder is undoing and it is best
described in one of the following statements:
A. Unacceptable feelings or behavior are kept out of awareness by developing the opposite behavior or emotion
B. Consciously unacceptable instinctual drives are diverted into personally and socially acceptable channels
C. Something unacceptable already done is symbolically acted out in reverse
D. Transfer of emotions associated with a particular person, object or situation to another less threatening
person, object or situation
29. To be more effective, the nurse who cares for persons with obsessive compulsive disorder must possess one
of the following qualities:
A. Compassion C. Patience
B. Consistency D. Friendliness
31. Studies on biological depression support electroconvulsive therapy as a mode of treatment. The rationale is:
A. ECT produces massive brain damage which destroys the specific area containing memories related to
the events surrounding the development of psychotic condition
B. The treatment serves as a symbolic punishment for the client who feels guilty and worthless
C. ECT relieves depression psychologically by increasing the norepinephrine level
D. ECT is seen as a life-threatening experience and depressed patients mobilize all their bodily defenses
to deal with this attack.
32. The preparation of a patient for ECT ideally is MOST similar to preparation for a patient for:
33. Which of the following is a possible side effect which you will discuss with the patient?
34. Informed consent is necessary for the treatment for involuntary clients. When this cannot be obtained,
permission may be taken from the:
35. After ECT, the nurse should do this action before giving the client fluids, food or medication:
36. Looking at Mrs. Agustin, your assessment would include the ff except;
A. Nystagmus
B. Difficulty of hearing
C. Weakness of the levator palpebrae
D. Weakness of the ocular muscle
37. In an effort to combat complications which might occur relatives should he taught;
A. Checking cardiac rate
B. Taking blood pressure reading
C. Techniques of oxygen inhalation
D. Administration of oxygen inhalation
A. Prostigmine
B. Morphine
C. Codeine
D. Prednisone
39. As her nurse, you have to be cautious about administration of medication, if she is undermedicated this can
cause;
A. Emotional crisis
B. Cholinergic crisis
C. Menopausal crisis
D. Myasthenia crisis
40. If you are not extra careful and by chance you give over medication, this would lead to;
A. Cholinergic crisis
B. Menopausal crisis
C. Emotional crisis
D. Myasthenia crisis
Rosanna 20 y/o unmarried patient believes that the toilet for the female patient in contaminated with AIDS virus
and refuses to use it unless she flushes it three times and wipes the seat same number of times with antiseptic
solution.
41. The fear of using “contaminated” toilet seat can be attributed to Rosanna’s inability to;
42. Assessment data upon admission help the nurse to identify this appropriate nursing diagnosis
A. Ineffective denial
B. Impaired adjustment
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Impaired social interaction
A. Convincing her to use the toilet after the nurse has used it first
B. Explaining to her that AIDS cannot be transmitted by using the toilet
C. Allowing her to flush and clear the toilet seat until she can manage her anxiety
D. Explaining to her how AIDS is transmitted
44. The goal for treatment for Rosana must be directed toward helping her to;
Dennis 40 y/o married man, an electrical engineer was admitted with the diagnosis of paranoid disorders. He has
became suspicious and sitrustful 2 months before admission. Upon admission, he kept on saying, “my wife has
been planning to kill me.”
46. A paranoid individual who can not accept the guilt demonstrate one of the following defense mechanism;
A. Denial
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Displacement
47. One morning, Dennis was seen tilting his head as if he was listening to someone. An appropriate nursing
intervention would be;
49. The nurse confirms that Dennis is manifesting auditory hallucination. The appropriate nursing diagnosis she
identifiesis;
50. Most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with suspicious behavior is one of the following;
Situation: Clients with Bipolar disorder receives a very high nursing attention due to the increasing rate of suicide
related to the illness.
51. The nurse is assigned to care for a recently admitted client who has attempted suicide. What should the
nurse do?
A. Search the client's belongings and room carefully for items that could be used to attempt suicide.
B. Express trust that the client won't cause self-harm while in the facility.
C. Respect the client's privacy by not searching any belongings.
D. Remind all staff members to check on the client frequently.
52. In planning activities for the depressed client, especially during the early stages of hospitalization, which of
the following plan is best?
A. Provide an activity that is quiet and solitary to avoid increased fatigue such as working on a puzzle and
reading a book.
B. Plan nothing until the client asks to participate in the milieu
C. Offer the client a menu of daily activities and ask the client to participate in all of them
D. Provide a structured daily program of activities and encourage the client to participate
53. A client with a diagnosis of major depression, recurrent with psychotic features is admitted to the mental
health unit. To create a safe environment for the client, the nurse most importantly devises a plan of care that
deals specifically with the clients:
54. The client is taking a Tricyclic anti depressant, Which of the following is an example of TCA?
A. Paxil C. Nardil
B. Zoloft D. Pamelor
55. A client visits the physician's office to seek treatment for depression, feelings of hopelessness, poor
appetite, insomnia, fatigue, low self-esteem, poor concentration, and difficulty making decisions. The client
states that these symptoms began at least 2 years ago. Based on this report, the nurse suspects:
56. The nurse is planning activities for a client who has bipolar disorder, which aggressive social behaviour.
Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for this client?
57. The nurse assesses a client with admitted diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder, mania. The symptom
presented by the client that requires the nurse’s immediate intervention is the client’s:
58. A nurse is conducting a group therapy session and during the session, A client with mania consistently talks
and dominates the group. The behaviour is disrupting the group interaction. The nurse would initially:
59. A professional artist is admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of bipolar disorder. During the last 2
weeks, the client has created 154 paintings, slept only 2 to 3 hours every 2 days, and lost 18 lb (8.2 kg).
Based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what should the nurse provide this client with first?
60. The physician orders lithium carbonate (Lithonate) for a client who's in the manic phase of bipolar disorder.
During lithium therapy, the nurse should watch for which adverse reactions?
A. Anxiety, restlessness, and sleep disturbance
B. Nausea, diarrhea, tremor, and lethargy
C. Constipation, lethargy, and ataxia
D. Weakness, tremor, and urine retention
Situation – Annie has a morbid fear of heights. She asks the nurse what desensitization therapy is:
61. The accurate information of the nurse of the goal of desensitization is:
A. To help the clients relax and progressively work up a list of anxiety provoking situations through imagery.
B. To provide corrective emotional experiences through a one-to-one intensive relationship.
C. To help clients in a group therapy setting to take on specific roles and reenact in front of an audience,
situations in which interpersonal conflict is involved.
D. To help clients cope with their problems by learning behaviors that are more functional and be better
equipped to face reality and make decisions.
63. In this level of anxiety, cognitive capacity diminishes. Focus becomes limited and client experiences tunnel
vision. Physical signs of anxiety become more pronounced.
64. Antianxiety medications should be used with extreme caution be cause long term use can lead to:
65. The nursing management of anxiety related with post traumatic stress disorder includes all of the following
EXCEPT:
67. Each nurse participants was asked to identify a problem. After the identification of the research problem,
which of the following should be done?
A. Methodology C. Acknowledgement
B. Review of related literature D. Formulate hypothesis
68. Which of the following communicate the results of the research to the readers. They facilitate the description
of the data.
69. In Quantitative date, which of the following is described as the distance in the scoring unites of the variable
from the highest to the lower?
A. Frequency C. Median
B. Mean D. Range
70. This expresses the variability of the data in reference to the mean. It provides as with a numerical estimate of
how far, on the average the separate observation are from the mean:
A. Mode C. Median
B. Standard deviation D. Frequency
Situation: Survey and Statistics are important part of research that is necessary to explain the characteristics of
the population.
71. According to the WHO statistics on the Homeless population around the world, which of the following groups
of people in the world disproportionately represents the homeless population?
73. In the value : 87, 85, 88, 92, 90; What is the mean?
A. 88.2 B. 88.4 C. 87 D. 90
74. In the value : 80, 80, 80, 82, 82, 90, 90, 100; What is the mode?
A. 80 B. 82 C. 90 D. 85.5
76. Draw Lots, Lottery, Table of random numbers or a sampling that ensures that each element of the population
has an equal and independent chance of being chosen is called:
A. Cluster C. Stratified
B. Simple D. Systematic
77. An investigator wants to determine some of the problems that are experienced by diabetic clients when using
an insulin pump. The investigator went into a clinic where he personally knows several diabetic clients having
problem with insulin pump. The type of sampling done by the investigator is called:
A. Probability C. Snowball
B. Purposive D. Incidental
78. If the researcher implemented a new structured counselling program with a randomized group of subject and
a routine counselling program with another randomized group of subject, the research is utilizing which design?
79. Which of the following is not true about a Pure Experimental research?
A. Quasi-experimental C. Phenomenological
B. Pure experimental D. Longitudinal
Situation 19: As a nurse, you are expected to participate in initiating or participating in the conduct of research
studies to improve nursing practice. You to be updated on the latest trends and issues affected the profession
and the best practices arrived at by the profession.
81. You are interested to study the effects of mediation and relaxation on the pain experienced by cancer
patients. What type of variable is pain?
A. Dependent C. Independent
B. Correlational D. Demographic
82. You would like to compare the support system of patient with chronic illness to those with acute illness. How
will you best state your problem?
A. A descriptive study to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness
in terms of demographic data and knowledge about intervention.
B. The effects of the types of support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness.
C. A comparative analysis of the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness.
D. A study to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness.
E. What are the differences of the support system being received by patient with chronic illness and patients
with acute illness?
83. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to those with acute illness.
Considering that the hypothesis was: “Client’s with chronic illness have lesser support system than client’s with
acute illness.” What type of research is this?
84. In any research study where individual persons are involved, it is important that an informed consent of the
study is obtained. The following are essential information about the consent that you should disclose to the
prospective subjects except:
85. In the Hypothesis: “The utilization of technology in teaching improves the retention and attention of the
nursing students.” Which is the dependent variable?
A. Utilization of technology
B. Improvement in the retention and attention
C. Nursing students
D. Teaching
Situation: You are actively practicing nurse who has just finished you graduate studies. You learned the value of
research and would like to utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the application of research to the nursing
service. The following questions apply to research.
86. Which type of research inquiry investigates the issues of human complexity (e.g understanding the human
expertise)?
A. A study examining the bereavement process in spouse of clients with terminal cancer
B. A study exploring the factors influencing weight control behaviour
C. A Study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing
D. A study examining client’s feelings before, during and after bone marrow aspiration.
89. An 85 year old client in a nursing home tells a nurse, “I signed the papers of that research study because the
doctor was so insistent and I want him to continue taking care for me” Which client right is being violated?
90. A supposition or system of ideas that is proposed to explain a given phenomenon best defines:
A. A paradigm C. A theory
B. A Concept D. A conceptual framework
91. Ana wants to know if the length of time she will study for the board examination is proportional to her board
rating. During the June 2008 board examination, She studied for 6 months and gained 68%, On the next board
exam, she studied for 6 months again for a total of 1 year and gained 74%, On the third board exam, She studied
for 6 months for a total of 1 and a half year and gained 82%. The research designed she used is:
A. Comparative C. Experimental
B. Correlational D. Qualitative
92. Anton was always eating high fat diet. You want to determine if what will be the effect of high cholesterol
food to Anton in the next 10 years. You will use:
A. Comparative C. Historical
B. Correlational D. Longitudinal
93. Community A was selected randomly as well as community B, nurse Edna conducted teaching to community
A and assess if community A will have a better status than community B. This is an example of:
A. Comparative C. Experimental
B. Correlational D. Qualitative
94. Ana researched on the development of a new way to measure intelligence by creating a 100 item
questionnaire that will assess the cognitive skills of an individual. The design best suited for this study is:
A. Historical C. Survey
B. Methodological D. Case study
95. Gen is conducting a research study on how mark, an AIDS client lives his life. A design suited for this is:
A. Historical C. Phenomenological
B. Case Study D. Ethnographic
96. Marco is to perform a study about how nurses perform surgical asepsis during World War II. A design best for
this study is:
A. Historical C. Phenomenological
B. Case Study D. Ethnographic
97. Tonyo conducts sampling at barangay 412. He collected 100 random individuals and determine who is their
favourite comedian actor. 50% said Dolphy, 20% said Vic Sotto, while some answered Joey de Leon, Allan K,
Michael V. Tonyo conducted what type of research study?
98. Jane visited a tribe located somewhere in China, it is called the Shin Jea tribe. She studied the way of life,
tradition and the societal structure of these people. Jane will best use which research design?
A. Historical C. Phenomenological
B. Case Study D. Ethnographic
99. Anjoe researched on TB. Its transmission, Causative agent and factors, treatment sign and symptoms as well
as medication and all other in depth information about tuberculosis. This study is best suited for which research
design?
A. Historical C. Phenomenological
B. Case Study D. Ethnographic
100. Diana is to conduct a study about the relationship of The number of family members in the household and
the electricity bill. Which of the following is the best research design suited for this study?
1. Descriptive
2. Exploratory
3. Explanatory
4. Correlational
5. Comparative
6. Experimental