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PRACTICE SET
IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: new 11 bold 22 carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38
Step I: 11 22 new bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38
Step II: it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses 38
Step III: 29 32 it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 45 houses 38
Step IV: bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred 45 houses 38
Step V: 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred houses
Step VI: houses hundred 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22
Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the
desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed
above find the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 35
eligible 41 browse candidates 10
1. Which of the following represents the position of ice
in Step VI?
1) Third from the left 2) Fifth from the right
3) Sixth from the right 4) Fourth from the left
5) None of these
2. Which step will be the last but one?
1) IX 2) VI 3) V 4) VII 5) None of these
3. Which word/number would be at the 5th position from
the right in Step V?
1) ice 2) qualify 3) 10 4) 12 5) money
4. How many steps will be required to complete the
arrangement?
1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) X 5) IX
5. How many elements (words or numbers) are there
between 21 and 12 in Step VII?
1) Eight 2) Five 3) Three
4) Six 5) None of these
6. Which step number is the following output?
money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 21 qualify 35
eligible 41 candidates
1) III 2) VI 3) IV
4) V 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-10): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
The festival of an institute was organised from 23rd to
30th November. 23rd was Wednesday. During that period
six functions were organised, viz Singing, Painting, Debate,
Dancing, Drama and Sports. Only one function is organised
on each day according to further information.
Drama was not organised on the closing day, ie on the
30th November.
Debate was organised on the previous day of Singing.
Sports was organised neither on Wednesday nor on
Saturday.
No function was organised on Thursday and Sunday.
Dancing was organised on Monday.
There was a gap of two days between Singing and
Sports.
7. Which of the following functions exactly precedes
Dancing?
1) Sports 2) Drama 3) Singing
4) Painting 5) None of these
8. Which of the following pairs of functions was
organised on Wednesdays?
1) Painting Drama 2) Drama Singing
3) Singing Dance 4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
9. A gap of how many days was there between Drama
and Sports?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four
4) Five 5) None of these
10. The festival started with which of the following
functions?
1) Debate 2) Singing 3) Drama
4) Sports 5) None of these
11. Which of the following expressions is false, if the given
expression is true?
V =W >X Y =Z
1) V >X 2) Y X 3) Y W
4) Z X 5) None of these
12. What will come in place of question mark (?) to make
the expression E >M true but A <O not true?
A ? M =N ? O E
1) =, 2) , 3) >, <
4) , < 5) None of these
13. In which of the following expressions Q >P is not
true?
1) J Q >M =H P 2) P >M H =Q N
3) M =P <H =N Q 4) Only 1) and 3)
5) None of these
14. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
CONTAIN each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
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15. In a certain code language BONDED is written as
EFMCPC. How is AMOUNT written in that code
language?
1) BNPTNB 2) VOUBNP 3) UONTNB
4) BONTNB 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-22): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, W, V, T and U are eight family members
sitting around a circular table, facing the centre, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each member has a different
hobby, viz Watching TV, Swimming, Cooking, Singing,
Reading, Dancing, Walking and Listening to Music, but
not necessarily in the same order.
P is the head of his family and sits third to the left of
wife Q. T has two sisters and sits second to the right of his
grandfather, whose hobby is Watching TV. S sits on the
immediate left of her brother, who sits in front of his father.
V sits between the person who likes Swimming and the
person who likes Singing. Her hobby is Reading. Q has
two sons and one of the sons hobby is Singing. U sits in
front of her mother-in-law, whose hobby is Music. Ws
sons hobby is Walking. R and his sister-in-law like Singing
and Cooking respectively.
16. How is W related to P?
1) Brother 2) Father
3) Daughter 4) Son
5) None of these
17. How many couples are there in the family?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Either 2) or 3) 5) None of these
18. Who among the following sits third to the left of W?
1) Q 2) R 3) T 4) S 5) None of these
19. Which of the following pairs of hobbies are a couples
hobbies?
1) Cooking Dancing 2) Music Singing
3) Watching TV Reading4) Swimming Cooking
5) None of these
20. What is the hobby of S?
1) Cooking 2) Singing 3) Dancing
4) Reading 5) None of these
21. Who among the following sits in front of R and what
is the relationship between them?
1) Q, who is brother of R 2) P, who is daughter of R
3) Q, who is mother of R 4) P, who is father of R
5) None of these
22. Which of the following statements is true?
1) P is grandfather of V and sits third to the right of V.
2) W is husband of U and sits on the immediate right
of R.
3) T is sister of V.
4) All are true
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 23-27): In each question below are
given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(23-24):
Statements: Some cakes are bread.
All breads are toffees.
Some toffees are sugar.
23. Conclusions: I. Some toffees are cakes.
II. All sugar being bread is a
possibility.
24. Conclusions: I. All cakes being toffees is a
possibility.
II. All breads are cakes.
(25-26):
Statements: No cabin is a room.
All rooms are houses.
No house is a place.
25. Conclusions: I. No cabin is a house.
II. Some houses are cabins.
26. Conclusions: I. Some houses are definitely not
cabins.
II. No house is a room.
27. Statements: All ribbons are mats.
Some mats are ropes.
No rope is a thread.
Conclusions: I. All ribbons are ropes.
II. No thread is a rope.
Directions (Q. 28-30): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II
and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
questions.
28. Who among Sunita, Naina, Veena and Meena is the
youngest?
I. Veena is younger than Meena but older than Sunita
and Naina.
II. Meena is older than Naina and Veena but not older
than Sunita.
III. Sunita is older than Naina but not older than Veena.
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only II and III
4) Only I and III 5) None of these
29. How is the woman in the photograph related to Suraj?
I. Pointing to the photograph, Suraj said, She is
mother of my fathers only granddaughter.
II. Pointing to the photograph, Suraj said, She is the
only daughter-in-law of my mother.
III. Suraj has no siblings but has a daughter.
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1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Either I or II
4) Only II and III 5) None of these
30. Among five friends Aman, Neelam, Vidya, Rani and
Sapna, whose salary is the highest?
I. Vidyas basic salary is `100 more than Ranis.
II. Ranis basic salary is more than those of Aman and
Neelam but not more than that of Sapna.
III. Neelams salary is more than that of Aman.
1) Only II and III 2) All I, II and III
3) Only I and III 4) Only II
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 31-34): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
Six friends B, L, N, Q, E and R are in two rows, each
row having three friends, facing each other and sitting in
such a way that E is second to the right of N. B is at the end
of the row. L is the neighbour of R. N is opposite R.
31. Which of the following pairs are not facing each other?
1) L, Q 2) B, N 3) E, B 4) R, N 5) None of these
32. Which of the following are sitting in a row?
1) LBE 2) NQR 3) EQN
4) LNE 5) None of these
33. If R and B exchange their places with each other who
will be on the immediate left of B?
1) L 2) N 3) Q 4) R 5) None of these
34. Who among the following faces Q?
1) R 2) L 3) B 4) N 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 35): Select the related word from the
given alternatives.
35. Mongoose : Snake
1) Milk : Goat 2) Fish : Crane 3) Whale : Crow
4) Water : Sky 5) None of these
36. A man runs 20m towards east and turns to right, runs
10m and turns to right, runs 9m and turns to left, runs
5m and again turns to left, runs 12m and finally turns
to left, and runs 6m. Now which direction is the man
facing?
1) East 2) West 3) Northeast
4) Southeast 5) North
37. Aman introduces Rohan as the son of the only brother
of his fathers wife. How is Rohan related to Aman?
1) Brother 2) Cousin 3) Son
4) Uncle 5) Son-in-law
Directions (Q. 38-40): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
Z, Y, X, W, V and T are standing in a row facing south.
Z is third to the right of V. X is fourth from one end of the
row. Y, who is between Z and W, is third to the right of T.
38. Which of the following pairs sit at the ends of the
row?
1) X,T 2) W, Z 3) V, W
4) X,Y 5) None of these
39. What is the position of T?
1) Immediate right of X
2) Right end of the row
3) Fourth to the right of W
4) Second to the left of Z
5) None of these
40. What is the position of Y with respect to V?
1) Immediate right 2) Fourth to the right
3) Second to the left 4) Third to the left
5) None of these
41. The EU has stepped up engagement with state leaders
ahead of the 2014 polls in India.
Which of the following may be a probable cause for
taking the above step?
1) EU will be happy to work with any party or coalition
that comes to power in Delhi.
2) Bihar and Odisha could play a key role in the
formation of next government.
3) The dominant themes of the forthcoming
parliamentary elections cannot be understood by
sitting in Delhi alone.
4) The EU ambassadors are ambassadors to India and
not ambassadors to Delhi.
5) None of these
42. Exports from India rose for a fourth month as imports
dropped.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the
above cause?
1) Market concerns about the US winding down its
stimulus programme have gone away.
2) India's trade deficit is significantly below last year's
levels.
3) The dollar has strengthened globally.
4) The Federal Reserve may begin tapering bond
purchases soon.
5) None of these
43. The Prime Minister has said agencies such as CBI
must not sit in judgement of policy formulation and
warned against errors of judgement being conflated
with criminal behaviour.
Which of the following is not in line with the Prime
Minister's statement?
1) Each agency should confine itself to the role it has
been assigned.
2) Lines of confidence should be clearly drawn
between investigating and police agencies on the
one hand and honest executive functionaries on
the other.
3) Policymakers should take decisions needed for fast
economic growth without any scope of impropriety.
4) Policymaking is multi-layered and complex.
5) It is important to distinguish errors of judgement
from criminal acts.
44. India has been tarnished by allegations of rampant
political corruption, retrospective changes in law,
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policy reforms getting stuck and, to top it all off, an
economic slump.
Which of the following can be a part of possible fallout
of the above situation?
1) India will soon emerge as one of the strongest
markets.
2) The political parties will strive to form a stable
coalition after the next elections.
3) India has witnessed chronic unemployment over
the years.
4) It will be difficult to attract foreign investors.
5) None of these
45. Indian enterprises are getting more proactive about
protecting their data and systems by using better and
advanced technologies as well as by looking outside
the company for expert help. The move is prompted
by the recent revelations of the US govt's widespread
snooping over the internet and communication
networks.
Which of the following statements substantiates the
views expressed in the above statement?
1) These companies are also now more open to
outsource parts of their security to experts instead
of relying on internal talent alone.
2) India is among the top five countries in terms of
highest incidents of cybercrime.
3) Companies are looking at adding forensics or
getting in consultants to check their systems for
threats that may not have been detected earlier.
4) There is also a new position called the 'chief risk
officer' (CRO) being institutionalised whereby chief
information security officers are being made to
report to the CRO.
5) None of these
46. The management of a company sent out an email,
"Do catch the legend playing his last international
cricket match being telecast live in our office
cafeterias. Use your discretion to balance work and
passion."
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the above statement? (An inference is something
which is not directly stated but can be inferred from
the given facts.)
1) The cafeterias will have quite a number of
employees watching the match.
2) The cafeterias will be packed with employees.
3) The bosses will be there in the cafeteria but not the
subordinates.
4) The legend will reward those employees who watch
the match.
5) None of these
47. According to Gartner, global PC shipments declined
8.6% in the third quarter of 2013, marking the sixth
consecutive quarter of fall.
Which of the following can be a probable cause(s) of
the above phenomenon?
(A) Computer chips are now being used in fewer walks
of life.
(B) There has been a shift in consumer preference
from PCs to tablets for daily content consumption.
(C) Internet-of-things will drive the next wave of
computing.
1) Only B 2) None 3) Only B and C
4) Only A and C 5) Only C
48. The higher education system in the country is dealing
with an acute faculty shortage.
Which of the following can be a course(s) of action to
tackle the situation?
(A) There should be an improvement in the pay and
perks of the faculty.
(B) The faculty should be exposed to the corporate
world.
(C) More management institutes should be opened
across the nation.
1) Only A and C 2) None 3) Only A
4) Only B 5) None of these
49. It would not be proper for the government to bestow
the Bharat Ratna on Dhyan Chand nearly 34 years
after he passed away.
Which of the following substantially weakens the
argument given in the above statement?
1) Tendulkar was not considered for the Bharat Ratna
in 2011 or 2012 because he was still playing.
2) Sardar Patel died in 1950 but he was given the
Bharat Ratna in 1991.
3) There is a complete lack of transparency in the
system of selecting the winners.
4) The Narasimha Rao-led Congress government in
1991 awarded the Bharat Ratna to the late Rajiv
Gandhi, who had passed away a few months earlier.
5) None of these
50. "When you have support on the ground, it shows up
in voting. There is a difference between a spontaneous
crowd and a rented one." A political leader
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Rallies are hardly relevant in this day of tweets and
24x7 news.
2) Great public meetings are no longer the barometers
of public opinion they once used to be.
3) The Left parties are past masters at organising
crowds, but this rarely translates into electoral
victory except in their old pockets of strength.
4) The crowd that you see at rallies is often gathered
by hiring supporters.
5) None of these
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Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Choosing not to make a choice has been accepted as
a democratic right. The Supreme Court decision to
introduce a None of the Above (NOTA) option enables
people to vote in a way that will have no effect on the
outcome. But will it have a fundamental effect on the
accountability and representativeness of the electoral
system?
The SC decision is an extension of a technical clause
in the Representation of People Act which allows for the
recording of spoilt or unused ballot papers. The use of
Electronic Voting Machines has not previously allowed
for any choice other than a valid vote, and so the provision
of the NOTA button re-institutes what was recognised as
a legitimate option. As such, it provides a recognition that
people might want to take part in the electoral process, but
not necessarily cast a vote for any of the candidates on
offer.
Dramatic claims about the advantages of a NOTA
option have been made. In his judgment, Chief Justice P
Sathasivam said that in a vibrant democracy, the voter
must be given an opportunity to choose none of the above
(NOTA) button, which will indeed compel the political
parties to nominate a sound candidate. He stated that the
significance of such a provision was massive, and would
foster the purity of the electoral process.
There is something surreal about debating the right to
cast a vote for no candidate. Representative democracy is
based on the principle that the electorate make a collective
decision, and that the public choose wisely amongst the
available options. The idea that the provision of a neutral
option will significantly enhance the democratic process
seems unlikely. The claim that NOTA will purify the political
process seems based on an assumption that it will threaten
a corrupt cartel of political parties, who can put up criminal
and corrupt candidates in the knowledge that their rivals
are bound to do the same. The Aam Aadmi Partys right-to-
reject proposal is based on the view that voters are forced
to waste our vote on someone we know is unfit for the
job. However, most elections have many candidates, and
the common complaint has been that it was too easy to
stand for election, with voters overwhelmed with choice.
The right-to-reject option provides for a more powerful
negative option. In cases where NOTA is a more popular
option than any candidate in that constituency, the election
would have to be contested again. This vote of no
confidence in the candidates on offer is a radical proposal,
but raises the prospect of political deadlock and a vacuum
in the representative process. Far more constructive is the
decision of Arvind Kejriwal to join the democratic fray, and
through AAP seek to provide a substantive alternative to
voters. Rather than a neutral protest, this is an opportunity
to broaden the choices available to the electorate, and test
the strength of discontent with established parties in the
arena of electoral competition.
A broader consideration is that NOTA will act as an
indicator of democratic legitimacy. In the past, in one-party
states such as Poland and the Soviet Union, the NOTA
option provided a signal that there was widespread
dissatisfaction with the political options on offer. In states
where an election boycott has been a recourse, the NOTA
button provides a way to actively cast a protest against
the political process. Yet it is unlikely that this will be a
common response the advantages of campaigning for a
NOTA vote cant really be expected to be much more
effective than a simple boycott.
51. What is the basic principle on which representative
democracy is based? Give your answer in light of the
facts mentioned in the given passage.
1) That the electorate would make a collective decision
on the basis of their religion
2) That the electorate would vote collectively to
choose the candidate of their caste, creed and race
3) That the electorate would make a collective decision
and that they will choose the candidate of their
choice amongst the available options
4) That the electorate will make a collective decision
and choose wisely amongst the available
candidates who have assured of better services, if
elected
5) None of these
52. Find the correct statement on the basis of the given
passage.
1) Aam Aadmi Partys right-to-reject proposal is based
on the view that it is better not to vote than to vote
for an unfit candidate
2) The decision to introduce NOTA option is based
on the assumption that it will threaten a corrupt
cartel of political parties.
3) These days politics has become a dirty game of
money and muscle power.
4) Right-to-reject option will create a trouble to the
Election Commission in conducting election on
scheduled dates because the existing EVMs do not
have NOTA option.
5) All the above
53. Which of the following is/are true about the NOTA
option?
(A) The NOTA option provides a recognition that
people might want to take part in the electoral
process and necessarily cast a vote for any of the
candidates on offer.
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(B) The EVM has not previously allowed for any
choice other than a valid vote, and the NOTA
button is a legitimate option to that.
(C) The implementation of NOTA option, an extension
of a clause of RP Act, will debar convicted
candidates.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Both (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
54. What will be the effect of None of the above (NOTA)
option on the results of the election?
(A) It will have no effect on the results of the election.
(B) If the number of NOTA exceeds fifty per cent of
the total votes polled, the Election Commission
will ask for a fresh poll.
(C) It will have effect on the accountability and
representativeness of the electoral system.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (B) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
55. In what way are claims being made that the NOTA
option will affect the electoral process?
1) It will encourage voters to cast their votes even if
they are not willing to do so.
2) It will compel the political parties to nominate a
clean candidate.
3) It will foster the purity of the electoral process.
4) Only 2) and 3)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
56. How does the author see the decision of Arvind
Kejriwal to form AAP and contest election?
1) It is a serious mistake on his part.
2) The formation of AAP will provide a substantive
alternative to voters who are not satisfied with
other candidates in fray.
3) It is an attempt to befool the innocent voters.
4) There was a need to form a party like AAP as people
of Delhi are not very much satisfied with Sheila
Dixit govt.
5) The formation of AAP will provide a respite to Anna
Hazare.
57. Which of the following is not in accordance with the
facts mentioned in the given passage?
1) The vote of no confidence raises the prospect of
political deadlock in the representative process.
2) The right-to-reject option provides for a more
powerful negative option.
3) In cases where NOTA is a more popular option
than any other candidate, the election would have
to be contested again in that constituency.
4) The decision of Arvind Kejriwal to join the
democratic fray is not a wise step.
5) None of these
58. How will NOTA option prove useful in a democratic
country?
1) It will make voting compulsory for all.
2) It will help change the character of our leaders.
3) It will act as an indicator of democratic legitimacy.
4) It will be used to highlight democratic satisfaction
with the choice on offer.
5) None of these
59. Why did the Supreme Court introduce None of the
Above button in EVMs?
(A) To enhance the accountability of the voters
(B) To put a check on large-scale rigging
(C) To purify the electoral process
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
60. Arena
1) territory 2) field 3) theatre
4) playground 5) battle
61. Cartel
1) shell 2) stronghold 3) meeting
4) syndicate 5) carcass
62. Recourse
1) resort 2) reply 3) virtue
4) referendum 5) reaction
Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
63. Foster
1) support 2) strengthen 3) uphold
4) concoct 5) discourage
64. Overwhelmed
1) exceeded 2) devoid 3) overpowered
4) overburdened 5) confuted
65. Broaden
1) scatter 2) disperse 3) shrink
4) sprout 5) stroke
Directions (Q. 66-70): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
66. 1) Many writers I know are / 2) far more talented to me
/ 3) but you need a combination of three essentials / 4)
to succeed: talent, hard work and luck. / 5) No error
67. 1) Challenges provide you the opportunity to grow /
2) as a human being, gain a fresh perspective / 3) or it
can motivate you / 4) to achieve set targets. / 5) No
error
68. 1) Success comes easy to those / 2) who are hard-
working and knowledgeable / 3) and possess a healthy/
4) dose of self-belief. / 5) No error
69. 1) The worst of times brings out the best / 2) from a
true leader, who, with political skill / 3) and a sense of
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national interest, / 4) turns adverse into advantage. /
5) No error
70. 1) It is unfortunate that the General has / 2)
inadvertently get embroiled in an unnecessary
controversy / 3) regarding the modus operandi / 4) of
Army intelligence working in J&K. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 71-75): In the following questions, a
sentence has been given with some part of it in bold. To
make the sentence correct, you have to replace the bold
part with the correct alternative given below. If the
sentence is correct as it is, please give 5) as your answer
(ie No correction required).
71. He behaves as though he is immortal.
1) as though he has been 2) as though he was
3) as though he were 4) as if he will have
5) No correction required
72. You should not get off the bus till it is stopped.
1) until it stops 2) until it is stopped
3) unless it stops 4) till it is being stop
5) No correction required
73. I knew Sachin would play for India but never thought
he would end up with all the cricketing records possible.
1) he would end all 2) he would end in all
3) he would end with all 4) he would end into
5) No correction required
74. The Indian Air Force has played a pivotal role in the
nations defence and our glorious history is replete of
numerous counts of valour and fortitude in the face
of extreme odds.
1) replete of numerous accounts
2) replete with numerous accounts
3) replete by numerous account
4) repleted through numerous counts
5) No correction required
75. The recruits have been known to operate Voice Over
Internet Protocol (VOIP) phones which cannot be
investigated by intelligence agencies.
1) infringed 2) intersected 3) interrogated
4) intercepted 5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) The great achievement during the last century
prior to Independence had been related largely to
pure research.
(B) A range of industries, from small to the most
sophisticated, has been established covering a
wide range of utilities, services and goods.
(C) At the time of Independence, our scientific and
technological infrastructure was neither strong
nor organised as compared to the developed
world.
(D) India has a long and distinguished tradition in
science and technology from the ancient times.
(E) This resulted in our being technologically
dependent on the skills and expertise available in
other countries.
(F) In the past six decades, an infrastructure and
capability largely commensurate with meeting
national needs has been created, minimising our
dependence on other countries.
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) E 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) C
77. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
1) D 2) F 3) C 4) A 5) B
78. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) D 3) F 4) B 5) E
79. Which of the following would be theLAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) A
80. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) D
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
Notwithstanding the role of politics in (81) decisions,
any criticism of the Modi governments latest stand must
be(82) with the view that the death penalty is no (83) to
heinous crimes. The moral and social (84) in criminal justice
must always be on establishing guilt and awarding (85)
punishment, the worst of which should be a lifelong prison
term. Death sentences achieve little more than arithmetic
equivalence. In the case of the Gujarat riots, there has been
a campaign to characterise the violence as a spontaneous
reaction to be Godhra train-burning incident. The
strongest (86) of this theory lies in the Naroda-Patiya
verdict of August 2012, which laid bare the existence of a
(87) involving BJ P and Sangh leaders. The Gujarat
government, the Special Investigation Team and the (88)
should focus on sustaining such convictions in the higher
courts instead of seeking the death penalty out of a
misconception that only capital punishment is complete
justice. And investigators and prosecutors throughout the
country would do well to (89) the need to identify the(90)
and establish their guilt in all cases involving organised
mob terrorism rather than labouring for death sentences.
81. 1) creating 2) influencing 3) effecting
4) informing 5) inflicting
82. 1) tempered 2) seen 3) kept
4) looked 5) tested
83. 1) clue 2) return 3) response
4) answer 5) insolence
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84. 1) desire 2) uplift 3) imperative
4) duty 5) status
85. 1) proper 2) better 3) corroborative
4) corresponding 5) condign
86. 1) reprimand 2) rebuttal 3) revolt
4) salvation 5) resurgence
87. 1) consternation 2) consistency 3) consolation
4) conspiracy 5) consortium
88. 1) prosecution 2) perspective 3) prospective
4) property 5) proposal
89. 1) align 2) solve 3) address
4) feel 5) help
90. 1) enemy 2) faults 3) friend
4) assistance 5) culprit
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 91-95): Which will be the next number
in the following number series?
91. 5 26 165 1332 13335 ?
1) 143602 2) 124680 3) 180056
4) 173004 5) 160038
92. 1320 720 336 120 24 ?
1) 12 2) 8 3) 4 4) 2 5) 0
93. 8 47 142 317 596 ?
1) 1003 2) 987 3) 961 4) 942 5) 902
94. 1 10 27 52 85 ?
1) 118 2) 122 3) 126 4) 130 5) 136
95. 1 54 375 1372 3645 ?
1) 6434 2) 7986 3) 8154 4) 9263 5) 9626
96. Mohan purchases 20 kg of sugar at `9.50 per kg and
30 kg of sugar at `9 per kg. At what price per kg should
he sell the mixture in order to gain 40%?
1) `12.48 2) `12.64 3) `12.72
4) `12.88 5) `12.96
97. The ages of Ravi and Rohan are in the ratio of 1 : 3.
After 12 years the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 11.
What is the difference between their ages?
1) 24 years 2) 28 years 3) 32 years
4) 36 years 5) 40 years
98. What will be the percentage profit after selling an
article at a certain price if there is a loss of 25% when
the article is sold at
3
1
of this selling price?
1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 37.5% 4) 87.5% 5) 125%
99. A person bought a chair at 35% discount on the listed
price. Had he not got the discount, he would have
paid `112 extra. At what price did he buy the chair?
1) `208 2) `224 3) `240 4) `248 5) `280
100. The salary of an employee increases consistently by
20% every year. If his present salary is `11500, then
what will be his salary after three years?
1) `18548 2) `18816 3) `19264
4) `19872 5) `20108
Directions (Q. 101-105): Following line graph shows
the percentage profit earned by two companies A and B
over the given years.
25
10
40
20
30
50
10
15
30
25
35
15
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
Year
%

p
r
o
f
i
t
Company A Company B
101. If the income of Company A in the year 2011 was `91
lakh, what was its expenditure in that year?
1) `51 lakh 2) `56 lakh 3) `63 lakh
4) `65 lakh 5) `72 lakh
102. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2008 and
that of Company B in the year 2009 were equal to `60
lakh, then what is the difference (in `) between the
income of Company B in the year 2009 and the income
of Company A in the year 2008?
1) 6 lakh 2) 9 lakh 3) 12 lakh
4) 15 lakh 5) 18 lakh
103. The percentage profit of Company B in the year 2011
is approximately what percentage of percentage profit
of Company A in the year 2013?
1) 75% 2) 125% 3) 150%
4) 175% 5) 180%
104. If the income of Company A in the year 2011 and that
in 2012 were equal and they were `91 lakh each then
what is the total expenditure (in `) of Company A in
the year 2011 and 2012 together?
1) 182 lakh 2) 154 lakh 3) 135 lakh
4) 124 lakh 5) None of these
105. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2013 and
the income of Company B in the year 2009 were `45
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lakh and `78 lakh respectively then the income of
Company A in the year 2013 is what percentage of the
expenditure of Company B in the year 2009?
1) 57.7% 2) 33% 3) 78% 4) 84% 5) 90%
Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Pie-chart-I shows the percentage distribution of
students who appeared in an examination from six different
schools and pie-chart-II shows the percentage distribution
of students who passed from these schools.
Pie-chart-I
B
13%
A
18%
F
17%
E
20%
D
22%
C
10%
Total students appeared = 9500
Pie-chart-II
B
8%
A
15% F
24%
E
20%
D
21%
C
12%
Total students passed = 2400
106. What is the difference between the number of students
appeared from School A and those appeared from
School D?
1) 320 2) 340 3) 360 4) 380 5) 400
107. How many students passed from School B and School
F together?
1) 760 2) 768 3) 774 4) 784 5) 788
108. How many students failed from School C?
1) 662 2) 664 3) 666 4) 668 5) 672
109. What is the difference between the total number of
failed and passed students from School D?
1) 1012 2) 1048 3) 1064 4) 1078 5) 1082
110. Total number of failed students from School E is
approximately what percentage of the total number of
appeared students from all six schools together?
1) 15% 2) 18% 3) 21% 4) 24% 5) 27%
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution
of the total viewers of different TV channels and the table
show the ratio of male to female viewers of these channels.
ZEE TV
18%
SAB TV
12% Colors
24%
Sahara
10%
Star Plus
17%
Sony
19%
Total viewers = 84 thousand
111. What is the total number of male viewers of ZEE TV?
1) 5420 2) 5880 3) 6040 4) 6450 5) 6760
112. What is the difference between the total number of
female viewers and the total number of male viewers
for Colors?
1) 1640 2) 1660 3) 1680 4) 1700 5) 1720
113. The total number of female viewers of ZEE TV is
approximately what percentage of the total number of
viewers of all six channels together?
1) 11% 2) 13% 3) 15% 4) 17% 5) 19%
114. The total number of male viewers of Star Plus is
approximately what percentage of the total number of
viewers of Sahara?
1) 10% 2) 30% 3) 50% 4) 70% 5) 90%
115. What is the difference between the total number of
female and male viewers of all channels together?
1) 12480 2) 12620 3) 12840 4) 13010 5) 13260
Directions (Q. 116-120): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
There are a certain number of students who appeared
in the state-level engineering examination conducted in
three different States A, B and C. All of them have cleared
at least one states exam. 39.4% students cleared State As
exam, 41.4% students cleared State Bs exam and 53.6%
students cleared State Cs exam. 8% students cleared only
State As and State Bs exam, 7% students cleared only
State Bs and State Cs exam and 9.8% students cleared
only State As and State Cs exam. If the total number of
students in the group is 500 then answer the following
questions.
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116. How many students cleared all three state-level
examinations?
1) 16 2) 14 3) 32 4) 36 5) 48
117. What is the percentage of students who cleared the
only examination conducted by State A?
1) 12.4% 2) 14.6% 3) 16.8% 4) 18% 5) 24%
118. How many students are there who cleared
examinations conducted by at least two states?
1) 148 2) 142 3) 136 4) 132 5) 128
119. What is the percentage of students who cleared the
exam conducted by State B but couldnt clear the exam
conducted by State C?
1) 23.4% 2) 21.6% 3) 27% 4) 28.4% 5) 29.6%
120. How many students are there who have cleared at
most one exam conducted by these three states?
1) 168 2) 204 3) 308 4) 352 5) 376
121. Find the compound interest on `77500 in two years,
the rate of interest being 10% for the first year and
12% for the second year.
1) `16840 2) `17980 3) `18260
4) `18840 5) None of these
122. Pipe X is 3 times faster than Pipe Y in filling a tank. If
Pipe Y can fill the tank in 20 minutes, then how long
will it take to fill the tank if both pipes are opened
together?
1) 5 minutes 2) 8 minutes 3) 10 minutes
4) 12 minutes 5) None of these
123. There are 16 students in a class. Find the number of
ways in which 5 students can be chosen to form a
group.
1) 80 2) 524160 3) 4368
4) 21840 5) None of these
124. A bag contains 4 green, 5 red and 7 white balls. Three
balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability that
all three drawn balls are of different colours?
1)
4
1
2)
4
3
3)
17
2
4)
17
15
5)
16
3
125. A man can swim a certain distance downstream in 2
hours and return in 7 hours. If the rate of stream is 5
kmph then what is the speed of man in still water?
1) 7 kmph 2) 8 kmph 3) 9 kmph
4) 10 kmph 5) 11 kmph
Directions (Q. 126-130): In each of these questions,
two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
the equations and give answer
1) if x >y 2) if x >y
3) if x <y 4) if x <y
5) if x y or relation cannot be established between x
and y.
126. I. x
2
+3x 40 =0 II. y
2
14y +48 =0
127. I. x
2
+x 2 =0 II. y
2
+5y +6 =0
128. I. 7x +5y =11 II. 7y 8x =51
129. I. x
2
=49 II. y
2
16y +63 =0
130. I. 2x
2
+13x +21 =0 II. 2y
2
+27y +88 =0
Directions (Q. 131-135): What approximate value
should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
131. (845% of 955) 5.96 =?
1) 46420 2) 44620 3) 48420
4) 52200 5) 54520
132. (8137 +3640 +3828) (1946 712 965) =?
1) 64 2) 58 3) 52 4) 46 5) 42
133. 35% of ?
4
3
=3984.75
1) 12720 2) 18480 3) 15180 4) 17460 5) 13220
134.
%
3
1
33
of 7810 24.89% of 5326 =?
1) 3560 2) 3720 3) 3850 4) 3930 5) 4080
135.
? 000125 . 0 913 . 4
3 3

1) 24 2) 28 3) 34 4) 42 5) 48
136. The width of a rectangular park is
21
10
of its length. If
the area of the park is 3360 sq m, then what is the
difference between the length and the width of the
park?
1) 40m 2) 44m 3) 48m 4) 52m 5) 56m
137. A rectangular field, 80m long and 55m broad, is
surrounded by a 3-metre-wide path. What is the area
of the path?
1) 646 sq m 2) 746 sq m 3) 856 sq m
4) 846 sq m 5) None of these
138. The length of a rectangle is increased by 40%. By
what per cent should the width be decreased so that
the area of the rectangle increases by 12%?
1) 28% 2) 24% 3) 20% 4) 16% 5) 12%
139. What value should come in place of question mark (?)
in the following equation?
3072
?
?
5292

1) 4032 2) 3684 3) 3212 4) 3056 5) 2816
140. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
EUROPA be arranged such that the vowels always
come together?
1) 720 2) 144 3) 120 4) 36 5) None of these
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Test-IV: General Awareness
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
141. Consider the following with respect to the recent path-
breaking verdict of the Supreme Court (SC) about the
functioning of bureaucrats:
(A)The SC suggested that Parliament must enact a
law to regulate postings, transfers and disciplinary
action against bureaucrats.
(B) The civil servants should not act on verbal orders
given by political executives and all actions must
be taken by them on the basis of written
communication.
(C) It asked the Centre and all State govts along with
Union Territories to issue directions within three
months for providing fixed tenure to civil servants.
(D) The bench has suggested constituting Civil
Services Board at the Centre and State-levels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct in the
context of the recent verdict?
1) All the above 2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C) 4) Only (A), (B) and (C)
5) Only (B), (C) and (D)
142. The book Vanity Bagh has been authored by
1) Anees Salim 2) Husain Haqqani
3) Sumati Bagrath 4) Kaveri Ponappa
5) None of these
143. The four Public Sector Enterprises have been awarded
the Turnaround Awards for 2013 by the Board for
Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises (BRPSE)
recently. Which of the following PSUs in not among
them?
1) SAIL Refractory Unit
2) National Project Construction Corporation Limited
3) National Film Development Corporation Limited
4) Bharat Coking Coal Limited
5) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
144. Which of the following countries has emerged as the
most attractive investment destination in the world in
a global survey of leading consultancy firm EY
recently?
1) US 2) China
3) Indonesia 4) India
5) South Africa
145. The panel headed by who among the following has
suggested that diesel prices should be hiked by `5
per litre, kerosene by `4 per litre and cooking gas (LPG)
rates by `250 per cylinder immediately to cut fuel
subsidy bill by `72,000 cr?
1) K Kasturirangan 2) Kirit S Parikh
3) Abhijit Sen 4) Narendra Jadhav
5) BK Chaturvedi
146. Which of the districts in Kerala has become the first
district in the country where every family owns a piece
of land?
1) Kozhikode 2) Kottayam
3) Kannur 4) Kollam
5) Kasargod
147. Name the Indian who has been elected to the United
Nations Board of Auditors, garnering the largest
number of votes among contenders.
1) Prashant Bhushan 2) N Gopalaswami
3) Vinod Rai 4) Shashi Kant Sharma
5) None of these
148. The Supreme Court upheld the appointment of UK
Sinha as the chairman of which of the following
regulators recently?
1) IRDA 2) PFRDA 3) CERC
4) SEBI 5) None of these
149. Which of the following cities has got the world's first
publicly accessible ATM machine which can exchange
digital currency, bitcoins, for any official currency?
1) Toronto 2) London 3) New York
4) Vancouver 5) None of these
150. India and which of the following countries has signed
a treaty for transfer of sentenced prisoners languishing
in jails in the two countries?
1) Chile 2) Cuba 3) Vietnam
4) Croatia 5) None of these
151. Yuki Bhambri is associated with which of the following
games?
1) Hockey 2) Squash 3) Tennis
4) Badminton 5) None of these
152. Who among the following has won the 2013 Singapore
Grand Prix Formula One championship recently?
1) Sebastian Vettel 2) Lewis Hamilton
3) Mark Webber 4) Fernando Alonso
5) None of these
153. The country's first all-women bank Bharatiya Mahila
Bank was launched on 19 Nov, which is the birth
anniversary of
1) Indira Gandhi 2) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
3) Annie Besant 4) Sarojini Naidu
5) None of these
154. As per the reports published in the financial
newspapers recently, India's core sector grew by 8 per
cent in the month of September, highest in last 11
months. Which of the following is not included in the
eight core sector industries?
1) Cement 2) Automobiles
3) Electricity production 4) Steel
5) Crude oil
155. The four-member advisory committee set up by the
Reserve Bank of India to vet the new bank licence
applications is expected to complete the process in
early 2014. Who among the following is heading the
committee?
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1) Bimal Jalan 2) Nachiket Mor
3) D Subbarao 4) C Rangarajan
5) Y Venugopal Reddy
156. Consider the following statements with respect to the
recently launched India's first Mars Orbiter Mission
(MOM):
(A)It was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space
Centre in Sriharikota.
(B) India's indigenous launch vehicle PSLV C25 carried
the MOM.
(C) After launch, the satellite is expected to go around
the Earth for 20-25 days, before embarking on a
nine-month voyage to the red planet.
(D) India's `1000-cr MOM mission is the third in the
world, after the US and Russia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A), (B) and (C) 4) Only (B), (C) and (D)
5) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)
157. Which of the following terrorists, the head of Pakistan
Taliban, was killed recently in the drone attack by the
US in Pakistan?
1) Abu Anas al-Libi 2) Hafiz Muhammad Saeed
3) Hakimullah Mehsud 4) Khan Syed Mehsud
5) None of these
158. Which of the following Indian batsmen scored a double
century, only third in the ODIs till date, in the recently
concluded India-Australia ODI series?
1) Virat Kohli 2) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
3) Rohit Sharma 4) Shikhar Dhawan
5) None of these
159. Nirupama Rao bid farewell to her diplomatic career
recently. She last served as India's envoy to which of
the following countries?
1) US 2) Sri Lanka 3) China
4) Brazil 5) None of these
160. In which of the following countries have 152 soldiers
been sentenced to death for 2009 mutiny in one of the
world's biggest-ever mass criminal trials recently?
1) Sri Lanka 2) Egypt 3) Bangladesh
4) Indonesia 5) None of these
161. Indian soldiers participated in a 10-day anti-terror
exercise codenamed 'Hand-in-Hand 2013' with the
soldiers of which of the following countries recently?
1) US 2) Russia 3) Israel
4) China 5) None of these
162. A new rule brought in by the ICC in the ODI matches
made ways for huge individual and team scores in the
recently concluded India-Australia series. What is the
rule?
1) Having five fielders inside the circle at any point of
time
2) Having five fielders outside the circle at any point
of time
3) Having four fielders inside the circle at any point
of time
4) Having four fielders outside the circle at any point
of time
5) None of these
163. What is the term used for the goods that are used in
producing other goods, rather than being bought by
consumers?
1) White goods 2) Brown goods
3) Capital goods 4) Utility goods
5) None of these
164. Consider the following with respect to RBI's decision
to allow foreign banks to buy local lenders:
(A) The RBI has proposed wholly-owned subsidiary
route for foreign banks, as compared to existing
branch model.
(B) Currently, foreign investors can hold up to 100%
of a bank's stake both through foreign direct
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investment as well as portfolio investment, but
no single entity can own more than 5% stake in a
local bank.
(C) The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital
for a wholly-owned subsidiary is pegged at `500
crore for new entrants.
(D) The priority sector lending requirement is kept at
par with domestic banks, which is 40% of net
adjusted bank credit (of previous year).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) All the above 2) Only (A) and (C)
3) Only (B) and (D) 4) Only (A), (C) and (D)
5) Only (B), (C) and (D)
165. Consider the following with respect to the govt's
approval for the launch of a new Integrated Processing
Development Scheme (IPDS) for textile sector:
(A) The scheme has been launched to address the
environmental concerns faced by textile units.
(B) The scheme has been launched with a total cost
of `1000 crore in the 12th Plan.
(C) Under the scheme, four to six brownfield projects
and three to five greenfield projects would be set
up.
Which of the above is NOT correct in this regard?
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) Both (A) and (C)
5) None of these
166. As per the figures released by the Union ministry of
communication and information technology, which of
the following states in India has the lowest overall
teledensity in the country (just 34.33)?
1) Bihar 2) West Bengal 3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Odisha 5) None of these
167. Which of the following is the first country in South
Asia to approve the cultivation of genetically modified
food crops with approving the commercial cultivation
of transgenic Bt brinjal?
1) India 2) Bangladesh 3) Pakistan
4) Myanmar 5) None of these
168. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has got
its first female managing director (MD) recently. Who
is she?
1) Vinita Bali 2) Usha Ananthasubramanian
3) Usha Sangwan 4) Usha Thorat
5) None of these
169. The Parliament of which of the following countries
has passed a new anti-terror bill that toughens
punishment for terrorism and requires terrorists'
relatives to pay for the damages caused in attacks?
1) France 2) UK 3) Australia
4) Russia 5) None of these
170. Which of the following countries has created a Social
Happiness ministry in an attempt to coordinate all the
programmes created to alleviate poverty?
1) Venezuela 2) Bhutan 3) Cuba
4) Norway 5) Spain
171. Six major central banks have announced to convert
their "temporary bilateral liquidity swap
arrangements" into standing arrangements to deal with
future global financial strains. Which of the following
banks is NOT among them?
1) Bank of England 2) European Central Bank
3) US Federal Reserve 4) Reserve Bank of India
5) The Bank of Japan
172. India suspended a two-decade-old tax benefits pact
with which of the following countries recently, saying
the European nation has "not been providing"
information to authorities here that are trying to track
down black money?
1) Croatia 2) Cyprus 3) Belgium
4) Austria 5) None of these
173. Which of the following is correct with respect to the
recent policy review (29 Oct 2013) of the RBI?
1) It allowed banks to pay interest on fixed deposits
and bank accounts on a monthly or fortnightly basis
given that the transition from current practice is
not mandatory.
2) The RBI is in process to make the inflation index
linked to the consumer price inflation (CPI).
3) The RBI advised the banks not to levy charges on
SMS alerts.
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2)
174. What is India's current ranking in the list of 189
countries in the ease-of-doing-business report
released by the World Bank recently?
1) 85 2) 110 3) 130 4) 134 5) None of these
175. India has developed a new tactical missile named
'Pragati' with a range of 60-170 km. The missile will be
offered to friendly countries and was on display at a
defence exhibition in South Korea recently. It is a
1) Surface-to-air missile
2) Surface-to-surface missile
3) Air-to-surface missile
4) Air-to-air missile
5) None of these
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176. What is the current repo rate after the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) raised it by 25 bps recently (29 Oct 2013)?
1) 7.00 per cent 2) 7.25 per cent 3) 7.50 per cent
4) 7.75 per cent 5) None of these
177. The US govt is likely to slap a fine of $35 million (`219
crore) on which of the following Indian information
technology companies over charges of inappropriate
use of visitor visa for business purposes?
1) Wipro 2) Infosys 3) Tech Mahindra
4) TCS 5) None of these
178. The Shyamal Sen Commission probing the collapse of
the Saradha collective investment scheme controversy
has put the size of the scam at ________.
1) `1,200 crore 2) `1,620 crore 3) `2,060 crore
4) `2,206 crore 5) None of these
179. Which of the following telecommunication companies
is in process to raise its 64 per cent equity stake in its
Indian unit to 100 per cent investing `10,141 cr?
1) SingTel 2) Sistema 3) Maxis
4) Vodafone 5) None of these
180. The United Nations General Assembly, for the 22nd
year in a row, has voted overwhelmingly to condemn
the US economic embargo against _______recently.
1) Venezuela 2) Cambodia 3) Cuba
4) Croatia 5) None of these
Test-V: Computer Knowledge
181. Which of the following is not a unit of measurement in
a computer system?
1) DPI 2) PPI 3) API 4) Bd 5) MB
182. The linking of computers with a communication
system is called
1) Networking 2) Pairing 3) Interlocking
4) Assembling 5) Sharing
183. Booting is a process to
1) load DOS 2) Switch on the computer
3) load the memory 4) All the above
5) None of these
184. Which of the following is the command to restart the
computer?
1) Ctrl+Z 2) Ctrl+Alt+Del
3) Tab+Alt+Del 4) Shift+Ctrl+Tab
5) None of these
185. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are
not updated, this causes
1) data redundancy 2) information overload
3) duplicate data 4) data inconsistency
5) None of these
186. A dedicated computer is one
1) which is used by one person only.
2) which is assigned one and only one task.
3) which uses one kind of software.
4) which is meant for application software.
5) None of these
187. Which of the following is not a part of the operating
system?
1) Supervisor 2) Job-control program
3) I/O control program 4) Performance monitor
5) None of these
188. ________ is a system that pre-dates the World Wide
Web for organising and displaying files on internet
servers.
1) HTML 2) SGML 3) Telnet
4) Gopher 5) None of these
189. ESRB is a self-regulatory body established in 1994 to
1) develop entertainment software
2) determine age-appropriate ratings for computer and
video entertainment
3) block inappropriate Web content from minors
4) provide education
5) None of these
190. ________ include(s) many different categories, such
as action, puzzles, role-playing, sports, simulation,
strategy, and virtual reality.
1) Computer games 2) Video-editing software
3) Image-editing software 4) Multimedia software
5) None of these
K
KUNDAN
Answers
(1-6):
The machine arranges words and numbers in
the following manner:
Step I. The first two numbers are arranged
in ascending order from the left.
Step II. The first two words are arranged
according to the number of letters present in
the word.
This process follows in each alternate step
until all the numbers and words are arranged.
Input: ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify
35 eligible 41 browse candidates 10
Step I: 10 12 ice money 21 13 good 18
qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates
Step II: ice good 10 12 money 21 13 18
qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates
Step III: 13 18 ice good 10 12 money 21
qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates
Step IV: money browse 13 18 ice good 10
12 21 qualify 35 eligible 41 candidates
Step V: 21 35 money browse 13 18 ice good
10 12 qualify eligible 41 candidates
Step VI: qualify eligible 21 35 money browse
13 18 ice good 10 12 41 candidates
Step VII: 41 qualify eligible 21 35 money
browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 candidates
Step VIII: candidates 41 qualify eligible 21
35 money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12
1. 3 2. 4 3. 4 4. 3 5. 1
6. 3
(7-10):
Date Day Function
23 Wednesday Drama
24 Thursday
25 Friday Debate
26 Saturday Singing
27 Sunday
28 Monday Dancing
29 Tuesday Sports
30 Wednesday Painting
7. 3 8. 1 9. 4 10. 3
11. 3; Given expression:
We cant compare W and Y.
12. 3;
Thus, we cant compare A and O.
13. 2; Check options one by one:
Check for 1)
Hence, 1) does not follow.
Check for 2)
Hence, 2) follows.
Check for 3)
Hence, 3) does not follow.
14. 2;
15. 3;
Similarly,
(16-22):
191. The term hypertext means
1) non-sequential writing
2) hypermedia
3) blinking text
4) text with heavy formatting
5) None of these
192. Programs used to create or modify bitmap images are
called
1) illustration programs 2) image editors
3) graphical modifiers 4) bit publishing packages
5) None of these
193. How many options does a binary choice offer?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) It depends on the amount of memory on the
computer.
5) It depends on the speed of the processor of the
computer.
194. To centre a paragraph using shortcut keys, press
1) CTRL +C 2) CTRL +E 3) CTRL +L
4) CTRL +R 5) None of these
195. ________ are attempts by individuals to obtain your
confidential information by falsifying their identity.
1) Phishing trips 2) Computer viruses
3) Special function cards 4) Scanners
5) Keyboards
196. The Assistant is
1) an application that allows you to take notes and
save them in a file.
2) an animated character that provides help and
suggestions.
3) a button on the standard Toolbar that executes the
print command.
4) a collection of frequently misspelt words in a
dictionary file.
5) None of these
197. Hardware devices that are not part of the main
computer system and are often added later to the
system are called
1) clip art 2) highlight 3) execute
4) peripherals 5) None of these
198. First RAM chip was introduced by which of the
following?
1) Microsoft 2) Intel 3) Dell
4) HP 5)Apple
199. Reel-to-reel tape drives are commonly used with
1) mini computers 2) micro computers
3) mainframe computers 4) laptops
5) personal computers
200. Which piece of hardware protects the resource of a
private network from other networks?
1) Cache server 2) Proxy server 3) Firewall
4) Router 5) Bridge
K
KUNDAN
Family tree
16. 4 17. 2 18. 1 19. 4 20. 3
21. 4 22. 1
23. 5; Some cakes are bread (I) +All breads
are toffees (A) =I +A =I =Some cakes are
toffees conversion Some toffees are
cakes. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, there is no negative statement. Hence
the possibility exists in II.
24. 1; There is no negative statement. So
the possibility exists in I. Hence, conclusion
I follows.
Again, Some cakes are breads conversion
Some breads are cakes. Hence, conclusion
II does not follow.
25. 3; No cabin is a room(E) +All rooms are
houses (A) =E +A =O* =Some houses are
not cabins. But conclusion I and II make a
complementary pair (I -E). Hence, either
conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
26. 1; No cabin is a room(E) +All rooms are
houses (A) =E +A =O* =Some houses are
not cabins. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, All rooms are houses conversion
Some houses are rooms. Hence,
conclusion II does not follow.
27. 2; All ribbons are mats (A) +Some mats
are ropes (I) =A +I =No conclusion. Hence,
conclusion I does not follow.
Again, No rope is a thread conversion
No thread is a rope. Hence, conclusion I I
follows.
28. 4; From I. Meena >Veena >Sunita, Naina
From II. Sunita >Meena >Naina, Veena
From III. Veena >Sunita >Naina
From I and III.
Meena >Veena >Sunita >Naina.
Hence, Naina is the youngest.
29. 3; From I:
The woman in the photograph may be
Surajs wife or Surajs brothers wife.
From II: Again, Surajs wife or Surajs
brothers wife.
From III: Suraj has no brother.
Hence, either I and I I I , or I I and I I I are
required to reach a certain conclusion, viz
the woman is Surajs wife.
30. 5; From I. Vidyas salary is `100 more
than Ranis.
From II. Sapna >Rani >Aman, Neelam
From III. Neelam >Aman
Hence, all are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(31-34):
31. 2 32. 3 33. 1 34. 2
35. 2; First is eaten by the second.
36. 5;
37. 2; Rohan is Amans maternal uncles son.
(38-40):
38. 3 39. 4 40. 2
41. 3; Both 3 and 4 are quite close. But we go
for 3 because it is more explanatory.
42. 2; Trade deficit is the difference between
imports and exports.
43. 3; This one goes beyond the immediate
scope of the given statement.
44. 4; The symptoms given in the state-
ment form a perfect recipe for shooing away
the investors.
45. 5
46. 1; Choice 2 is ruled out because an appeal
has been made to use one's "discretion to
balance work and passion".
47. 1; (A) is the effect and not the cause. (C)
has nothing to do with PCs. But (B) seems to
be the probable cause quite obviously. If con-
sumers start buying less PCs, their shipments
are bound to decline.
48. 3; (B) may improve the quality of the
faculty but won't address their shortage. (C)
will only aggravate the crisis. (A) will ad-
dress the shortage because "pay and perks"
are a great puller for human resources.
49. 2; Choice 4 also weakens the argument
but not substantially so. Rajiv Gandhi re-
ceived the Bharat Ratna only "a few months"
after his death.
50. 4; This one is implicit in the reference
to "rented crowd" and its relation to the first
sentence.
51. 3 52. 2 53. 1 54. 1 55. 5
56. 2 57. 4 58. 3 59. 3 60. 2
61. 4 62. 1 63. 5 64. 2 65. 3
66. 2; Replace to with than
67. 3; Replace it with they
68. 5
69. 4; Replace adverse with adversity
70. 2; Replace get with got
71. 3 72. 1 73. 5 74. 2 75. 4
(76-80): DACEFB
76. 4 77. 3 78. 5 79. 2 80. 1
81. 2 82. 1 83. 4 84. 3 85. 5
86. 2 87. 4 88. 1 89. 3 90. 5
91. 5; The series is 4 +6, 6 +9, 8 +12, ...
92. 5; The series is 11
3
11, 9
3
9, 7
3
9, ...
93. 1; The series is 3
2
1 1, 5
2
2 3,
7
2
3 5, 9
2
4 7, ...
94. 3; The series is 1 2 1, 3 4 2,
5 6 3, 7 8 4, 9 10 5, ...
95. 2; The series is 1 1
3
, 2 3
3
, 3 5
3
,
4 7
3
, 5 9
3
, ...
96. 4;
CP =20 9.5 +30 9 =190 +270 =460
SP =460
100
140
=644
Now, price per kg =
50
644
=`12.88
97. 4; Let the age of Ravi and Rohan be x
and y respectively.
Then,
y
x
=
3
1
or, 3x =y ... (i)
After 12 years
12 y
12 x


=
11
5
11x 5y +72 =0 ... (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we have
x =18, y =54
Difference =54 18=36 years
98. 5; Suppose previous selling price =`x
Now, the later selling price =`
3
x
There is loss of 25% when selling price
is `
3
x
Cost price =
9
x 4
225
x 100
25 100
100
3
x






Now, when the selling price `x,
then the percentage profit = 100
9
x 4
9
x 4
x

=
100
4
x 5

=125%
Quicker Method:
Reqd % profit =100 3 % loss
( Here, n =3)
3 (100 x) 100 =300 3x 100
=200 3x
=200 3 % loss
=200 3 25 =125%
99. 1; Let the listed price be `x.
Then, x
100
35
=112
or, x =320
So, the person bought the chair for
320 112 =`208
100. 4; Reqd answer
=11500
100
120

100
120

100
120
=`19872
101. 4; Expenditure
2011
=91
140
100
=65 lakh
102. 2; I
A2008
=60
100
115
=69 lakh
I
B2009
=60
100
130
=78 lakh
Difference =78 69 =9 lakh
103. 4; Reqd % =
35
100 175%
20

104. 3; E
2011
=91
140
100
=65 lakh
And, E
2012
=
130
100
91
=70 lakh
Total expenditure =65 +70 =135 lakh
K
KUNDAN
105. 5; I
A2013
=45
100
120
=54 lakh
E
B2009
=
130
100
78
=60 lakh
Reqd % =
100
60
54

=90%
106. 4;
Reqd difference =
100
) 18 22 (
9500
=380
107. 2; Total number of students passed from
School B and F together =
100
) 24 8 (
2400


=24 32 =768
108. 1; C
App
=
950
100
10
9500
C
Pass
=2400
100
12
=288
Number of failed students =950 288 =662
109. 5; D
App
=9500
100
22
=2090
D
Pass
=
100
21
2400
=504
D
Fail
=2090 504 =1586
Reqd difference =1586 504 =1082
110. 1; E
Fail
=













100
20
2400
100
20
9500
=1900 480 =1420
Total appeared students =9500
Reqd % =
100
9500
1420

=14.94 15%
111. 2; Zee
Male
=






100
18
84000

18
7
=5880
112. 3; Reqd difference
=













24
11 13
100
24
84000
=1680
113. 1; Zee
F
=
18
11
100
18
84000






=9240
Total number of viewers of all channels
together =84000
Reqd % =
84000
100 9240
=11%
114. 5; Total number of viewers of Star Plus
=84000
100
17
=14280
Star Plus
Male
=14280
17
9
=7560
Now, total number of viewers of Sahara
=84000
100
10
=8400
Reqd % =
100
8400
7560

=
84
7560
=90%
115. 2; Male
Total
=
100
84000
(12
21
8
+18
18
7
+19
12
5
+17
17
9
+10
10
3
+24
24
11
)
=840 (
7
32
+7 +
12
95
+9 +3 +11)
=3840 +5880 +6650 +7560 +2520 +
9240 =35690
Total number of females
=84000 35690 =48310
Difference =48310 35690 =12620
(116-120):
x +k =197 (40 +49) =108 ... (i)
y +k =207 (40 +35) =132 ... (ii)
z +k =268 (49 +35) =184 ... (iii)
x +y +z +k =500 (40 +49 +35)
=376 ... (iv)
Now, equation (i) +(ii) +(iii) equation (iv)
gives
k =24
x =84, y =108 and z =160
116. 2; Number of students who cleared all
the three state-level exams =24
117. 3; Reqd % =
500
84
100 =16.8%
118. 1; Reqd number of students
=40 +49 +35 +24 =148
119. 5; Reqd % =
100
500
148

=29.6%
120. 4; Reqd number of students
=84 +108 +160 =352
121. 2; CI =







100
112
100
110
77500
77500
=95480 77500 =`17980
122. 1; Pipe Y can fill
20
1
of the tank in 1
minute.
Pipe X will fill
20
3
of the tank in 1 minute.
I f both are opened together then in one
minute they will fill







20
3
20
1
, ie
5
1
of the
tank.
So, they will take 5 minutes to fill the tank.
123. 3; Reqd probability =
5
16
C =
! 11 ! 5
! 16

=4368
124. 1; n(S) =
3
16
C =560
n(E) =
1
7
1
5
1
4
C C C =4 5 7 =140
P(E) =
560
140
=
4
1
125. 3; Let the speed of the man in still
water be x kmph.
Then, x +5 2 =x 5 7
or, 2x +10 7x +35 =0
or, 5x =45
or, x =9
126. 3; I. x
2
+3x 40 =0
or, x
2
+8x 5x 40 =0
or, x(x +8) 5(x +8) =0
or, (x 5) (x +8) =0
or, x =5, 8
II. y
2
14y +48 =0
or, y
2
6y 8y +48 =0
or, y(y 6) 8(y 6) =0
or, (y 6) (y 8) =0
or, y =6, 8
Hence, x <y
127. 2; I. x
2
+x 2 =0
or, x
2
+2x x 2 =0
or, x(x +2) 1(x +2) =0
or, (x 1) (x +2) =0
x =1, 2
II. y
2
+5y +6 =0
or, y
2
+2y +3y +6 =0
or, y(y +2) +3(y +2) =0
or, (y +2) (y +3) =0
or, y =2, 3
Hence, x y
128. 3;
445 y 89
357 56x 49y
88 40y 56x
7 (II) eqn 8 (I) eqn




or, y =5 and x =2
Hence, x <y
K
KUNDAN
129. 4; I. x
2
=49
or, x=+7, 7
II. y
2
16y +13 =0
or, y
2
7y 9y +63 =0
or, y(y 7) 9(y 7) =0
or, (y 7) (y 9) =0
or, y =7, 9
Hence, x y
130. 1; I. 2x
2
+13x +21 =0
or, 2x
2
+6x +7x +21 =0
or, 2x(x +3) +7(x +3) =0
or, (2x +7) (x +3) =0
or, x =
2
7

, 3
II. 2y
2
+16y +11y +88 =0
or, 2y(y +8) +11(y +8) =0
or, (2y +11) (y +8) =0
or, y =8,
2
11
Hence, x >y
131. 3; ? =







100
955
845
6
=8069.75 6 =48418.5 48420
132. 2; ? =
269
15605

270
15600
=57.77 58
133. 3; ? =
3 35
4 100 75 . 3984


=15180
134. 4; ? =
%
3
100
of 7810
100
89 . 24
5326
=
5326
100
25
7800
100 3
100


=2600 +1331.5 =3931.5 3930
135. 3; ? =
34
05 . 0
7 . 1

136. 2; Let the length of the park be x metres.
Width =
21
10
x
=
21
x 10
Area =
21
x 10
x
=3360
or, x
2
=
10
21
3360
=7056
or, x =84
Hence, length =x =84m
and width =84
21
10
=40 metres
Difference =84 40 =44 metres
137. 4;
Area of A
1
KND
1
=61 3 =183 sq m
Area of KABL =80 3 =240 sq m
Area of path =2(183 +240) =846 sq m
138. 3; Quicker Method: (see rule on page
562 in Practice Book Quicker Maths)
Reqd % decrease in width
=
Differencein length and breadth
100+x
=
4012
100 20%
100+40

139. 1;
3072
?
?
5292

or, ?
2
=5292 3072 =(441 12) (256
12) =144 256 441
or, ? =12 16 21 =4032
140. 2; There are six letters in the word
EUROPA, in which four are vowels. I f we
consider all the vowels as a single letter, then
total letters will be 2 +1 =3
These three letters can be arranged in
3
P
3
=
3! ways and all the fours vowels can be
arranged in 4! ways among themselves.
Total number of ways =3! 4! =6 24
=144
141. 1 142. 1 143. 5 144. 4 145. 2
146. 3 147. 4 148. 4 149. 4 150. 3
151. 3 152. 1 153. 1 154. 2 155. 1
156. 3 157. 3 158. 3 159. 1 160. 3
161. 4 162. 1 163. 3 164. 4 165. 2
166. 3 167. 2 168. 3 169. 4 170. 1
171. 4 172. 2 173. 5 174. 4 175. 2
176. 4 177. 2 178. 3 179. 4 180. 3
181. 3 182. 1 183. 1 184. 2 185. 4
186. 2
187. 4; Operating system does not measure
performance.
188. 4 189. 2 190. 1 191. 1 192. 2
193. 3 194. 2 195. 1 196. 2 197. 4
198. 2
199. 3; Reel-to-reel tape is one of the basic
tape mechanisms mainly used in mainframe
computers.
200. 3