B.

Tech Degree Examination November 2013

Seventh Semester
Branch: Mechanical Engineering
ME 010 701 - DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS
Time : 3hrs

Maximum : 100 Marks

25 x 4 =100
Module 1

1. Explain the different phases in design process and the factors affecting
design?
OR
2. Describe the following theories of failure in detail
a) Maximum normal stress theory
b) Maximum shear stress theory
c) Maximum distortion theory
Module 2
3. Design and draw a knuckle joint to transmit an axial load of 150kN. Assume
the working stress for both the pin and rod material as 80 N/mm2 in tension
68N/mm2 in shear and 160N/mm2in crushing. Assume that the rods to be
connected are not very long.
OR
4. The nominal diameter of a triple threaded square screw is 50mm, while the
pitch is 8mm. It is used with a collar having outer diameter of 100mm and the
inner diameter as 65mm. the coefficient of friction at the thread surface as well
as at the collar surface can be taken as 0.15. The screw is used to raise a load of
15kN. Using the uniform wear theory for collar friction, calculate:
i)

Torque required to raise the load

ii)

Torque required to lower the load and

iii)

The force required to raise the load, if applied at a radius of 500mm.

Module 3
5. A shaft of rectangular cross section is welded to a support by means of fillet
welds as shown in the figure. Determine the size of the welds, if the permissible
stress in the weld is limited to 75 N/mm2.
OR
6.Design a closed coil helical spring for a maximum load of 500 N and
deflection of 200 mm. The permissible shear stress=500 MPa and spring
index=6.

Module 4
7.A counter shaft receives 26.25 kW from a motor through a coupling and
transmit it via two belt drives to two machine tools each consuming 11.25 kW.
Both belt drives are arranged horizontally. The diameter of pulleys are 0.25 m
and 0.6 m and their corresponding weights are 400N and 750N. Shaft speed is
30 rad/sec. Design the shaft.
OR
8.Design a cast-iron flange coupling to connect two shafts of 100 mm diameter
running at 300 rpm for transmitting 500 Nm of torque. Assume permissible
shear stress of shaft, bolt and key as 50 MPa . Permissible crushing stess for
bolt and key is 150 MPa and shear stress for cast iron is 15 MPa.

B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2013

Seventh Semester
Branch Mechanical Engineering
ME 010 702 DYNAMICS OF MACHINES
(Regular)
Time: 3 hours

Maximum 100 marks

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

PART A
Answer all questions
Each question carries 3 marks
Explain the effect of partial primary balance of a reciprocating engine.
Define transmissibility ratio.
Define the terms coefficient of damping and critical damping coefficient.
Define acoustic impedance.
Explain sound propagation.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

PART B
Answer all questions
Each question carries 5 marks
Explain swaying couple and hammer blow.
Find an expression for logarithmic decrement in terms of damping factor.
Explain the process of recording and reproduction of sound.
Explain coordinate coupling.
Explain vibration absorber with a sketch.
PART C

1. 4 masses A, B, C & D are completely balanced. Masses C & D make angles of 90 and 210
respectively with B in the same sense. The planes containing B & C are 300 mm apart. Masses
A,B,C & D can be assumed to be concentrated at radii of 360, 480, 240 & 300 mm respectively
the masses B, C & D are 15kg, 25 kg & 20 kg respectively. Determine
a. The mass A & its angular position.
b. Positions of planes A & B.
(12 marks)
OR
2. A four cylinder vertical engine has cranks 150 mm long. The planes of rotation of the 1st, 2nd &
4th cranks are 400, 200 & 200 mm respectively from the 3rd crank and their reciprocating masses
are 50, 60 & 50 kgs respectively. Find the mass of the reciprocating mass for the 3rd cylinder and
the relative angular positions of the crank in the order that the engine may be in complete primary
balance.
(12 marks)

3.
a. Derive and expression for the natural frequency of single d.o.f systems. (6 marks)

b. A vibrating system consists of a mass of 200 kg, a spring of stiffness 80N/mm and a
damper with damping coeff of 800 N/m/s. Determine frequency of vibration of system.
(6 marks)
OR
4. A mass of 20 kg is suspended from one end of a helical spring the other being fixed. The stiffness
of the spring is 10N/mm. The viscous damping causes the amplitude to decrease to 1/10th of the
initial value in 4 complete oscillations. If a periodic force 150cos(50t) newtons is applied at the
mass in the vertical direction find the amplitude of the forced vibrations. What is its value of
resonance?
(12 marks)

5. The moment of inertia of 3 rotors A,B & C are respectively 0.3, 0.6 and 0.18 kg-m2, the distance
between A & B is 1.5 m and B & C is 1 m, the shaft is 70 mm in diameter and modulus of
rigidity for the shaft material is 84x109 N/m2. Find
a. Frequencies of torsional vibrations
b. Position of nodes.
c. Amplitude of vibrations.
(12 marks)
OR
6. A structure supporting rotating machinery vibrates excessively at an excitation frequency of 18
Hz. It is proposed to attach a vibration absorber tunes to this frequency. What should be absorber
mass and stiffness so that the resulting 2 natural frequencies are at least 20% away from the
excitation frequency? The effective mass of the structure is 1 tonne and the natural frequency is
16 Hz.
(12 marks)

7. Using Laplace Transform determine the response of an undamped single d.o.f system of natural
frequency n and mass M when it is subjected to a constant force of magnitude F0. The system is
at rest at time t = 0.
(12 marks)
OR
8. Explain the nature of non linearity in the following systems.
a. Simple Pendulum
(6 marks)
b. A point mass is attached to the midpoint of the string.
(6 marks)
9.
a. Explain the working of a sound level meter with a neat sketch.
(7 marks)
b. Write short note on acoustical measurements.
(5 marks)
OR
10. In the same area of a warehouse there are four large machines. M/C 1 produces a sound power of
1 W. M/Cs 2, 3 & 4 produce an acoustical power of 0.5, 0.75 & 1.25 W respectively. What is the
total power level generated in the area by the four machines?
(12 marks)

B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER

Seventh Semester
Branch: Mechanical Engineering/Automobile Engineering
ME010 703 GAS DYNAMICS AND JET PROPULSION
Time: Three Hours
Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer all questions
Part A
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Explain Mach cone and Mach angle.

Explain Stagnation conditions.
Give assumptions regarding fanno flow. What is fanno line?
Define strength of a normal shock wave.
How is turbofan Engine different from turboprop engine?
(5 X 3 = 15 marks)

Part B
Each Question Carries 5 marks
6) What is the effect of Mach number on compressibility?

dA
A

7) Derive the following for one dimensional isentropic flow

:
=

dP
1 M2
V 2

8) Prove that the Mach Numbers at the Maximum enthalpy and maximum entropy points on the
Rayleigh line are 1/ and 1 respectively.
9) Derive expressions for the ratio of static pressure and static temperature across the shock in
terms of Mach number upstream and downstream of shock.
10) With a neat sketch explain the working of a pulse jet engine. Write down its main advantages
and disadvantages.
(5 X 5 = 25 marks)

Part C
Each Question Carries 12 marks

11) Starting from continuity and momentum equation, derive the expression for the velocity of
sound in a perfect gas, in terms of Characteristic Gas Constant and Static Temperature.
Or

a2
V2
12) (a) Derive the energy equation
+ =
1 2

(Vmax ) = ( a0 ) =
2

h0 , stating the assumptions

used
(b) An air jet ( =1.4, R=287 J/kgK) at 400K has sonic velocity. Determine
1) Velocity of sound.

2) Velocity of sound at stagnation conditions.

3) Maximum velocity of jet.
4) Stagnation enthalpy.
13) Air is discharged from a reservoir at p0 = 6.91 and t 0 = 325 C through a nozzle to an exit
pressure of 0.98bar. If the flow rate is 3600kg/hr determine the isentropic flow
(i)
Throat area, pressure and velocity
(ii)
Exit area , Mach number .
Or
14) A conical diffuser has entry and exit diameters of 15cm and 30cm respectively. The pressure,
temperature and velocity of air at entry are 0.69 bar, 340K and 180m/s. Determine (a) the exit
pressure (b) the exit velocity and (c) the force exerted on the diffuser walls. Assume
isentropic flow, =1.4.
15) A combustion chamber in a gas turbine plant receives air at 350K, 0.55bar and 75m/s. The
air-fuel ratio is 29 and the calorific value of the fuel is 41.87MJ/kg. Taking =1.4 and
R=0.287 kJ/kgK for the gas, determine (a) the initial and final Mach numbers (b) final
pressure, temperature and velocity of the gas (c) percent stagnation pressure loss in the
combustion chamber and (d) the maximum stagnation temperature attainable.
Or
16) A gas at a pressure of 0.69 bar and temperature 278K enters a combustion chamber at a
velocity of 60 m/s, the heat supplied in the combustion chamber is 1405.6 kJ/kg. Determine
the Mach number, pressure , temperature and velocity of the gas at exit ( Take =1.4 and C p =
1.004 kJ/KgK for the gas)
17) (a)Derive Rankine-Hugoniot relation for a normal shock.
(b)A gas (=1.4, R=0.287 kJ/kgK)at a Mach number of 1.8, p=0.8 bar and T=373K passes
through a normal shock. Determine its density after the shock.
Or
18) The ratio of the exit to entry area in a subsonic diffuser is 4.0. The Mach number of a jet of air
approaching the diffuser at p 0 =1.013bar, T = 290 K is 2.2. There is a standing normal shock
wave just outside the diffuser entry. The flow in the diffuser is isentropic. Determine at the
exit of diffuser (a) Mach number (b) Temperature and (c) pressure. What is the stagnation
pressure loss between the initial and final states of the flow?
19) Derive the following relations for aircraft engines (a)Propulsive efficiency (b) Thermal
efficiency, overall efficiency (c) Specific fuel consumption, specific thrust and impulse
Or
20) With the help of neat sketches, explain the working principle of Liquid propellent rocket
engines and solid propellant rocket engines.

B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER

Seventh Semester
Branch: Mechanical Engineering/Automobile Engineering
ME010 704 REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING (MU)

Time: Three Hours

Maximum: 100 Marks

Use of R and AC tables, charts and steam tables are permitted

Part A
(Answer allquestions.Each question carries 3 marks)
1. What is the unit for refrigeration? Give definition. What is its equivalent in kW.
2. What is the purpose of flash intercooler in two stage compression refrigeration
system?
3. What are the desirable properties of an ideal refrigerant?
4. Discuss the operation of capillary tube in a refrigeration system.

5. Derive the relation, specific humidity W=0.622 .

(5 * 3 = 15 marks)

Part B
(Answer all questions.Each question carries 5 marks)
6. The capacity of a refrigerator is 200TR when working between -6C and
25C.Determine the mass of ice produced per day from water at 25C. Also find the
power required to drive the unit. Assume that the cycle operates on reversed carnot
cycle and latent heat of ice is 335kJ/kg.
7. Sketch the T-S and P-h diagrams for vapour compression refrigeration cycles when
vapour after compression is (a) Superheated and (b) Dry saturated.
8. What is the principle of Steam Jet refrigeration system.
9. Briefly explain flooded evaporators.
10. Define (a) Degree of saturation (b) Specific humidity (c) Relative humidity (d) Dew
point temperature (e) Adiabatic saturation temperature.
(5 * 5 = 25 marks)

Turn over

Part C
(Each question carries 12 marks)
11. (a) Sketch and explain a Bell- Coleman cycle. Derive an expression for COP.
(8 marks)
(b) A machine works on Carnot cycle between temperature limits -10C and 27C.
Find its COP when working as (i) heat engine (ii) heat pump (iii) refrigerating
machine.

(4 marks)
Or

12. A dense air based Bell-Coleman system working between 4 bar and 16 bar extracts
120MJ/hr. The air enters the compressor atC
6 and enters the expander 23C. The
compressor is double acting and its stroke is 30cm, =1.4, mechanical efficiencies
of compressor and expander are 0.85 and 0.87 respectively. Take of air

1.005kJ/kgK, R of air 287 J/kgK. Assuming the unit runs at 300rpm find(i) power
required to run the unit (ii) bore of the compressor (iii) refrigerating capacity in
tonnes. Assume isentropic compression and expansion.

(12 marks)

13. (a)A simple ammonia vapour compression system has compressor with piston
displacement of 2m3/min, condenser pressure of 12 bar and evaporator pressure of 2.5
bar. The liquid is subcooled to 20C by soldering the liquid line to suction line. The
temperature of vapour leaving the compressor is 100
C,heat rejected to condenser
cooling water is 5000kJ/hr and volumetric efficiency of compressor is 0.8. Compute
capacity, indicated power and COP of the system.

(8 marks)

(b) Explain how COP is improved using a flash chamber.

(4 marks)

Or
14. A two stage refrigeration system with flash intercooling works between a condenser
temperature of 40
C and an evaporator temperature of

-15C. Obtain COP and

capacity of the system if mass flow rate through evaporator is 0.2kg/s. The
intermediate pressure is 4.2 bar. Compare the COP and capacity with a corresponding
single stage system operating between the above temperature limits. The refrigerant
used is R12.

(12 marks)

15. Explain the working of a vortex tube with necessary figure and theory.
Or

(12 marks)

16. With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of Lithium Bromide water
absorption refrigeration system.

(12 marks)
Turn over

17. Explain the working of thermostatic expansion valve with the help of a neat sketch.
(12 marks)
Or
18. Explain the principle of working of (i) Hermetic (ii) Semi hermetic (iii) Open type
refrigeration compressors.

(12 marks)

19. 40m3 of air per minute at 31C DBT and 18.5C WBT is passed over the cooling coil
whose surface temperature is C.
4.4 The coil cooling capacity is 3.56 tons of
refrigeration under the given condition of air. Determine (i) DBT and WBT of the air
leaving the cooling coil (ii) Bypass factor of the cooling coil (Use Chart).
(12 marks)
Or
20. Define Sensible heat factor. Discuss any three psychrometric processes and explain
their applications.

(12 marks)

B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER

Seventh Semester
Branch: Mechanical Engineering/Automobile Engineering
Time: Three Hours

ME010 705 INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer all questions.
Part A
Each question carries 3 marks.

1. Explain the term Productivity index.

2. What is meant by product layout?
3. What is ABC analysis?
4. What are the objectives of merit rating?
5. Comment on TQM?
(5 x 3 = 15 marks)
Part B
Each question carries 5 marks.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Explain the functions of an industrial engineer.

How to choose material handling equipment for various types of products?
Explain the functions and scope of materials management.
Write note on micro motion study.
How to draw process control charts.
(5 x 5 = 25 marks)
Part C
Each question carries 12 marks.

11. Explain the term productivity. What are the various factors affecting productivity?
Or
12. Explain the different types of values. What are the reasons of poor values?

13. Explain the layouts based on layouts based on group technology, just-in-time and cellular manufacturing
systems.
Or
14. Explain the principles and types of material handling equipments.
15. Explain the purchasing procedure and buying techniques.
Or
16. Obtain an expression for economic order quantity in a simple inventory model.

17. Discuss the importance of ergonomics in industry.

Or
18. What are the methods of job evaluation? Explain in detail.

19. What is acceptance sampling? How it differ from quality control.

Or
20. Explain the term control. How to draw process control charts.

(5 x 12 = 60 marks)

BTECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2013

Seventh Semester
Branch Mechanical Engineering
ME 010 704 L03 THEORY OF VIBRATION (ELECTIVE II)
Time: 3Hrs
Max Marks: 100
PART A
(Answer All Questions)

(3x5)

1. Give two examples each of the bad and the good effects of vibration.
2. What is the use of the logarithmic decrement?
3. Define the term transmissibility.
4. What is a node?
5. How does a continuous system differ from a discrete system in the nature of its

equation of motion?
PART B
(Answer All Questions)

(5x5)

6. Explain the beats phenomenon.

7. What is critical damping, and what is its importance?
8. Define the term magnification factor. How is the magnification factor related to the

frequency ratio?
9. What are principal coordinates? What is their use?
10. Find the wave velocity along a rope whose mass is 0.372 kg/m when stretched to a

tension of 444 N.
PART C

(12x5)

Module I
11. An unknown mass m is attached to one end of a spring of stiffness k having

natural frequency of 6 Hz. When 1 kg mass is attached with m the natural

frequency of the system is lowered by 20%. Determine the value of unknown
mass m and stiffness k.

Or

12. A body of mass 5 kg is hung on two helical springs in parallel. One spring is
elongated 1 cm by a force of 3 N; the other spring requires a force of 2 N for an
elongation of 1 cm. Calculate the natural frequency of vibration.
Module II
13. A body of mass 5 kg is supported on a spring of stiffness 1960 N/m and has a dash
pot connected to it, which produces a resistance of 0.98N at velocity 0.5 m/s. Find
Natural frequency of the system
Damping ratio
Displacement of the mass, 0.5 sec after it was displaced through 20mm and
released.
Or
14. A viscously damped system has a stiffness of 5000 N/m, critical damping constant of
0.2 N-s/mm, and a logarithmic decrement of 2.0. If the system is given an initial
velocity of 1 m/s, determine the maximum displacement of the system.
Module III
15. A vibrating system having mass 1 kg is suspended by a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m
and it is put to harmonic excitation of 10 n. Assuming viscous damping determine
(a) the resonant frequency
(b) the phase angle at resonance
(c) the amplitude at resonance
(d) the frequency corresponding to the peak amplitude and
(e) damped frequency.
Take C=40 N-sec/m
Or
16. Find the total response of a viscously damped single degree of freedom system
subjected to a harmonic base excitation for the following data: m = 10 kg, c = 20

Ns/m, k = 4100N/m, y(t) = 0.05cos(6t) with initial displacement 0.1m and initial
velocity 1 m/s.
Module IV
17. Find all the natural frequencies and mode shapes of the system shown below with
masses 20 kg and 40 kg respectively and the stiffness values 1000 N/m and 2000
N/m.

Or

18. A machine runs at 5000 rpm. Its forcing frequency is very near to its natural
frequency. If the nearest frequency of the machine is to be at least 20% from the
forced frequency, design a suitable vibration absorber for the system. Assume the
mass of the machine as 30 kg.
Module V
19. Find the natural frequencies and the free vibration solution of a bar fixed at one end
and free at the other.
Or
20. Determine the equation for the natural frequencies of a uniform rod in torsional
oscillation with one end fixed and the other end free

BTECH DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2013

Seventh Semester
Branch Mechanical Engineering
ME 010 704 L04 SALES AND MARKETING MANAGEMENT (ELECTIVE II)
Time: 3Hrs

Max Marks: 100

PART A

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

(3*5 = 15)

Differentiate between selling and marketing.

Define SBU.
Write a note on International marketing.
Explain the concept of buying center.
What are the objectives of sales management?
PART B

(5*5 = 25)

6. What is marketing mix? Explain the 4 Ps of marketing.

7. Explain the steps in strategic planning.
8. Explain the merits and demerits of online marketing.
9. What are the factors that influence the consumer behavior?
10. Explain the selling process.
PART C

(5*12 = 60)

11. What is market segmentation? What are its benefits? What is the basis of segmenting
consumer market?
Or
12. Explain the holistic marketing concept.
13. What is SWOT analysis? Explain.
Or
14. Illustrate the basic framework of decision support system for marketing.
15. What is product life cycle? Suggest appropriate marketing strategies for each of the
stages of product life cycle.
Or
16. Study chairs are to be developed by a company. Explain the steps for research,
development and testing.

17. Describe various buying situations. Analyze the situation in context of a newly
introduced product.
Or
18. What are the cultural, social, personal, and psychological factors that affect buying?
19. Write short notes on :a) Personal Selling
b) Sales territory
c) Sales quota
Or
20. Explain the theories of selling and basic selling styles.