BIOCHEMISTRY BLUE-PACOP

__ 1. What two enzymes are used to bypass the pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis?
I. pyruvate carboxylase
II. PEP carboxykinase
III. Fructose biphosphatase
IV. Glucose-6-phosphate
A. I & II
D. II & IV
B. III & IV
E. II & III
C. I &III
__ 2. Which of the following includes the main goals of Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
I. produce ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis
II. produce NADPH and NADP for oxidoreductive biochemical synthesis
III. to interconvert pentoses and hexoses
A. I & II
D. I, II & III
B. II & III
C. I & III
__ 3. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the secondary structure of
nucleic acids?
I. Guanine forms base pairs with cytosine via 2 hydrogen bonds
II. The B form of the DNA is the most common in biological systems
III. The breaking of H-bonds caused by high temperature is called melting
A. I,II & III
D. I & II
B. I & II
E. II only
C. II & III
__ 4. The phospholipid, phosphatidylinositol 4,5-biphosphate forms the potent secondary
messengers inositol triphosphate & diacylglycerol via what enzyme?
A. Phospholipase A
D. Phospholipase B
B. Phospholipase C
C. Phospholipase D
__ 5. Which of the following is not true regarding the four enzyme complexes of the electron
transport chain?
A.
Complex I is known as the NADH-CoQ Oxidoreductases
B.
Complex II is known as Succinate-CoQ Oxidoreductases
C.
Complex III is known as Cytochrome Oxidase
D.
Complex IV is known as Cytochrome Oxidase
__ 6. Glucose and mannose are epimers at:
A. Carbon 4
B. Carbon 2

C. Carbon 3
D. Carbon 5

__ 7. One important endogenous molecule for synthetic biotransformation of xenobiotics is

glucoronic acid. It is actually the most dominant conjugative biotransformation pathway due to the
readily available source of glucose. It is produce from glucose via:
A. Oxidation at carbon 1
C. Oxidation at carbon 6
B. Oxidation at carbon 2
D. Oxidation at carbon 1 & 6
__ 8. Which of the following is not true about protein structure determination?
A. NMR is the primary means of determining protein structure
B. Protein are difficult to crystallize, a disadvantage of x-ray crystallography
C. An advantage of the use of the NMR is that proteins analyzed are in their natural state

D. Large and very complex proteins can only be analyzed by x-ray crystallography
__ 9. Tertiary structures of proteins are primarily stabilized by
I.
H-bonds
II.
Hydrophobic interactions
III.
Ionic bonds
IV.
Disulfide bonds
A. I & III
D. I, II& IV
B. II & IV
E. II, III & IV
C. I,III & IV
__ 10. In an uncompetitive inhibition of enzymatic action :
A.
Inhibitor binds either to the free enzyme or the enzyme substrate complex
B.
Lineweaver-Burk plots of the enzyme alone (control) & the enzyme + inhibitor are
parallel to each other
C.
The apparent Km is raised
D.
The Vmax is unaffected
__ 11. Which biomolecule is not considered a biopolymer?
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates

D. Nucleic acids
E. Fat

__ 12. It is regarded as the universal biological energy currency

A. Adenosine triphosphate
C. Uncouplers
B. Guanosine triphosphate
D. Calories
__ 13. This is the final electron receptor of the electron transport chain
A. Complex I
C. Complex V
B. Complex II
D. Complex IV
__ 14. The most accepted hypothesis regarding oxidative phosphorylation is
A. Chemical coupling
D. Lock and Key Theory
B. Conformational coupling
E. Diffusion
C. Chemiostatic hypothesis
__ 15. This is a quantitative study of the energy transformationsin the living cell
A. Bioenergetics
C. Proteonomics
B. Thermodynamics
D. Metabolomics
__ 16. Which of the following hormones promotes rapid glycogenolysis in both liver and muscle
A. ACTH
C. Epinephrine
B. Glutemine
D. Prolactin
__ 17. Which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?
A. Thiamine
C. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
D. Panthotenic acid
__ 18. Bond between 2 amino acids
A. Glycosidic bond
B. N-glycosyl linkage
__ 19. Beta oxidation of fatty acids occurs in the
A. Cytosol
B. Mitochondria

C. Peptide Bond
D. Hydrogen bond

C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes

__ 20. The pentose phosphate pathway occur in the ________ of the liver, muscle and kidney.
A. cytosol
C. endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
D. ribosomes
__ 21. The isoelctric point is the
A.
pH where the alpha amino acid exist in its negatively charged form
B.
pH wherein the amino acid exist in zwitterionic form
C.
Temperature at which the amino acid denatures
D.
Pressure at which the amino acid hydrolyzes
__ 22. This is the only optically inactive amino acid
A. methionine
B. Lysine

C. Citrulline
D. glycine

__ 23. This level of protein structure is applicable only to those have several subunits
A. Primary
C. Tertiary
B. Secondary
D. Quaternary
__ 24. Arginine is the only metabolite of the urea cycle that does not accumulate because
A.
It is readily excreted
B.
It is used up by the body for protein synthesis
C.
There is no known deficiency in the enzyme that catabolizes it
D.
It can ve acquired from food
__ 25. This is the genetic condition characterized by deficiency of the enzyme branched chain
alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase
A. Maple syrup disease
C. Kwashiorkor
B. Hartnup disease
D. Marasmus
__ 26. These are compounds related to cerebrosides that contain sphingsine, long chain fatty
acids, hexoses (usually galactose or glucose) and neuramic acid
A. cephalins
C. cytolipins
B. gangliosides
D. lecithins
__ 27. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion fructose-6-P to fructose-1,6-bis-P
A. hexokinase
C. PFK
B. pyruvate kinase
D. glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase

__ 28. Which of the following is called transamination?

A.
Conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl groups
B.
Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
C.
Loss of ammonia from amino acids
D.
Formation of ammonium salts from ammonia
E.
__ 29. The sugar involved in the DNA
A. ribose
B. pentose

C. deoxyribose
D. xylose

__ 30. Thisis the reason why blood AB is considered as the universal recipient.
A.
It is the most common among the ABO blood types
B.
Blood type AB has neither A nor B substances
C.
Blood type AB has either anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
D.
All of the above
__ 31. Which one is true regarding the structures of lipids?

A.Eicosanopentanoic acid is a saturated fatty acid

B. They may exist as esters of cholesterol when they are enclosed in very low density
C. Linoleic acid is an omega-3 fatty acid
D. Capric acid contains 12 carbons
__ 32. This is the product of basic hydrolysis of fats and oils
A. fatty acid
B. triacylglycerol

C. soap
D. detergent

__ 33. The group of lipids is considered amphipathic

A. sterols
B. fatty acids

C. trans-fatty acids
D. phospholipids

__ 34. Which properly describes a liposome?

A.
It is a hollow sphere-like structure composed of a lipid bilayer enclosing an
aqueous cavity
B.
It is a lipid structure wherein the hydrophobic chains of the fatty acids are
sequestered at the core of the sphere with virtually no water in the hydrophobic interior
C.
It is a lipoprotein integrated in the phosphopolipid bilayer of the cell membranes
D.
It is a hollow sphere-like structure composed of a lipid monolayer enclosing a
hrdrophobic cavity
__ 35. It is the building block of essential fatty acids
A. Malonyl CoA
B.phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate

C. Acetyl CoA
D. HMG CoA

__ 36. The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the________.

A. mouth
B. stomach

C. small intestine
D. duodenum

__ 37. Cellular elements of the blood devoid of nucleus

A. RBC
B. WBC

C. thrombocytes
D. all of the above

__ 38. Conjugated proteins which are a combination of amino acids and carbohydrates
A. nucleoproteins
C. phosphoproteins
B. glycoproteins
D. chromoproteins
__ 39. Glucose is normally absent in the urine because kidneys normally completely reabsorb all
glucose. Which of the following is true?
A. Glucosuria confirms diabetes mellitus
B. Glucosuria necessarily means hyperglycemia
C. Glucosuria is solely attributed to insulin problem
D. Glucosuria may occur in other disease states
__ 40. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome which can cause acute confusion, ataxia and
opthalmoplegia, can be treated with which of the following?
A. riboflavin
C. thiamine
B. ascorbic acid
D. pantothenic acid
__ 41. This is the major excretory product of purine nucleotides
A. inosine monophosphate
B. uric acid

C. methylmalonyl CoA
D. tetrahydrofolate

__ 42. This is the phenomena of renaturation of nucleic acid after it has been subjected to high
then to room temperature

A. Hydrolysis
B. Polymerase chain reaction
__ 43. This is the base sequence for the start codon
A. UAG
B. UGA

C. annealing
D. hybridization
C. AUG
D. UAA

__ 44. This feature of bacterial cells confers selectivity of antibacterial agents targeting protein
synthesis to the bacteria and not to the host cell.
A. mRNA
C. lack of cell wall
B. 40s ribosomal subunit
D. 30s ribosomal subunit
__ 45. This is also known as the RNA-directed DNA polymerase
A. RNA polymerase II
B. Reverse transcriptase
__ 46. What essential amino acid is used in the synthesis of niacin?
A. Tyrosine
B. Methionine

C. DNA polymerase alpha

D. DNA polymerase II

C. tryptophan
D. Phenylalanine

__ 47. The cellular particles are often referred y their sedimentation coefficient value, for example
70s ribosomes that is expressed in terms of 10 -13 seconds. The abbreviation s stands for
A. subunit
C. Svedberg
B. Seconds
D. None of the above
__ 48. The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are
A. purinase
B. pyrimidines

C. fatty acids
D. a and b

__ 49. The following are pathological constituents of urine, except:

A. glucose
B. albumin

C. creatinine
D. blood

__ 50. Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their hydroxyl group at carbon 4.
Glucose and galactose are
A. diastereomers
C. epimers
B. enantiomers
D. anomers
__ 51. The chemical representation shows the most stable conformation of hexoaldopyranoses
A. Fischer projection
C. Haworth Formula
B. Boat conformation
D. Chair conformation
__ 52. It is the most abundant hexose inside the body
A. L-glucose
B. D-glucose
__ 53. Upon hydrolysis sucrose yields
A. glucose and galactose
B. xylose and glucose

C. L-ribose
D. D ribose

C. fructose and glucose

D. 2 glucose units

__ 54. This is the process of biosynthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors

A. glycolysis
C. gluconeogenesis
B. glycogenesis
D. glycogenolysis
__ 55. Which is most likely the effect of insulin in glucose metabolism
A. It promotes lipolysis in adipose tissue
B. It promotes exocytosis of glucose transporters in the skeletal muscles

C. Activates protein kinase A which eventually leads to inactivation of pyruvate kinase

D. It promotes the hormonal role of glucagon in glucose metabolism
__ 56. The activation of plasminogen requires
A. NaOH
C. acetic acid
B. bicarbonate
D. HCl
__ 57. Glucose,fructose and galactose all have the same chemical formula C6H12O6, through
this information, we can conclude that these substances are
A.
Anomers
C. enatiomers
B.
Epimers
D. isomers
__ 58. The end product in the hydrolysis of glycogen is
A. galactose
B. mannose

C. glucose
D. arabinose

__ 59. Ketoses can be differentiated from aldose by this test

A Molischs test
C. Seliwanoffs test
B. Benedicts test
D. Tollens test
__ 60. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The difference between intake and output of nitrogenous compounds is known as
hydrogen balance
II.
In a healthy adult, nitrogen balance is in equilibrium when intake equals
output
III.
Positive nitrogen balance ocuurs when dietary intake is less then excretion
of nitrogenous compounds
IV.
Negative nitrogen balance results when there is too much protein intake
A. 3 only
D. 2 & 4
B. 1 & 2
E. 1-4
C. 1 & 3
__ 61. The formation of purple ring at the junction of the acid and sugar layers in the Molischs
test detects the presence of ___________.
A. carbohydrates
C. lipids
B. proteins
D. nucleic acids
__ 62. The observance of a red colored solution in Seliwanoffs test detects the presence of
______________.
A. Aldoses
C. Pentoses
B. Ketohexoses
D. Saccharides
__ 63. This test distinguishes between reducing sugar monosaccharides and reducing
disaccharides based on the difference in the rate of reaction.
A. Barfoeds test
C. Osazone test
B. Benedicts test
D. Mucic acid test
__64. In xanthoproteic test, proteins with aromatic amino acids undergo _________ to give an
intense yellow colored solution in alkaline media.
A. condensation
C. nitration
B. Acetylation
D. oxidation
__65. Biuret test forms ______ colored complex with cupric ion in basic solutions of compounds
with 2 or more peptide bonds.
A. green
C. violet
B. red
D. yellow
__66. When starches are heated they produce

A.
Sugars
B.
Glycogen
__67. The principal end product of protein metabolism
A. carbon dioxide
B. ammonia

C. dextrin
D. disaccharides
C. hippuric acid
D. urea

__68. Myoglobin and hemoglobin possess a cyclic tetrapyrole, heme, as a prothetic group. Which
of the following is found centrally located in the heme?
A. Mg
C. Fe
B. Al
D. P
__69. The following are the components of DNA nucleosides except
A. phosphoric acid
B. sugar

C. adenine
D. cytosine

__ 70. The enzyme decarboxylase is an example of _________ enzyme.

A. hydrolase
B. ligase

C. racemase
D. lyase

__ 71. The spontaneous isomerization of two stereoisomers in aqueous solution that causes
specific rotation is known as
A. zwitterions rotation
B. micelle rotation
__ 72. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
A. dextrose
B. dextran

C. mutarotation
D. stereorotation

C. lactose

D. sucrose
__ 73. The substance that is isolated from the brain and produces fatty acid, galactose and
sphingosine upon hydrolysis is known as
A. sterols
C. glycolipids
B. phospholipids
D. saponins
__ 74. Which of the following is NOT a hydrolyzed product of lecithins?
A. fatty acid
C. phosphoric acid
B. glycerol
D. sphingosine
__ 75. Albumin is an example of a
A. simple protein
B. conjugated protein

C. derived protein
D. hydrolyzed protein

__ 76. This is the product of the complete reduction of oxygen

A. water
B. superoxide anions

C. hydrogen peroxide
D. hydroxyl radicals

__ 77. Which is not a B-complex vitamin?

A. folic acid
B. nicotinic acid

C. riboflavin
D. ascorbic acid

__ 78. Rotation of polarized light is caused by the solution of all the following amino acids except
A. alanine
C. leucine
B. glycine
D. valine
__ 79. What test can be used to differentiate galactose from lactose?
A. Benedicts test
C. Barfoeds test

B. Iodine test
__ 80. Alpha-naphtol reaction is also known as
A. Molischs test
B. Ninhydrin test

D. Mucic acid test

C. Phenylhydrazine test
D. Fehlings test

__ 81. Which of the following is not about PKU?

A.
It is a disease usually characterized by metal abnormalities
B.
A high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid is found in the urine
C.
It occurs due to excessive secretion of phylalanine hydroxylase enzyme
D.
A Guthrie test is normally used to detect it
__ 82. Sweet taste of a compound is generally attributed to
A. presence of H ions
B. presence of OH ions
__ 83. The rate of hydrolysis depends on
I. pressure
II. pH of the solution
III.
Temperature
A. I only
B. I & II only

C. presence of cations and anions

D. presence of alkaloids

C. II & III only

D. I, II & III

__ 84. Which of the following is NOT recommended to treat hypoglycemia induced by acarbose?
A. dextrose
C. glucagon
B. table sugar
D. glucose
__ 85. Which of the following is normally NOT found in the bacterial bit present in human cells?
A. golgi body
C. lysosome
B. mitochondria
D. endoplasmic reticulum
__86. This term refers to an intact enzyme with a bound co-facor.
A. holoenzyme
C. zymogen
B. apoenzyme
D. prosthetic group
__87. The color of the skin, hair and eyes is due to a pigment called
A. cytochrome
C. keratin
B. melanine
D. heparin
__88. Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid
A. tryptophan
B. threonine

C. tyrosine
D. alanine

__89. Keratin in hair and horny tissue, elastin in tendons and arteries, and collagen in skin and
tendons belong to what type of simple proteins?
A. glutelins
C. protamines
B. histones
D. albuminoids
__90. Nucleosides upon hydrolysis will yield
A. adenine + phosphate
B. quinine + phosphate

C. histones + ribose
D. cytosine + ribose

__ 91. Which of the following is/are true about lysozyme?

I. It is generally known as the power house of the cell.
II. It helps in the removal of damaged cell

III.
A. I only
B. I & II only

It contains a bactericidal agent such as lysozyme that kills bacteria before it

damages the cell.
C. II & III only
D. I, II & III only

__92. Which of the following is the rate limiting step in synthesis of RBC?
A. availability of pre-erythrocytes
C. oxygen transport capacity
B. availability of hemoglobin
D. presence of erythropoietin
__ 93. Which of the following helps in absorption of vitamin B12 ?
A. erythropoietin
C. hemoglobin
B. intrinsic factor
D. apoferritin
__ 94. Which of the following factors affect the solubility of solutes?
I. temperature
II. pH
III. Common ion effects
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 95. Which of the following factors affect the protein binding drugs?
I. pregnancy
II. Hypoalbuminemia
III. Uremia
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 96. Some serum enzymes are used in clinical diagnosis. Which of the following enzyme/s may
be used to diagnose myocardial infarction?
I. gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
II.
AST or SGOT
III.
Creatine phosphokinase
IV.
Lactate dehydrogenase
A. III only
C. I,II & III
B. II & IV only
D. II,III & IV
__ 97. Which of the following test is specific for amino acids and free amino group?
A. Biuret test
C. Ninhydrin test
B. Hopins cole test
D. Xanthoproteic test

__ 98. The following sugars are aldohexoses except

A. fructose
B. galactose

C. glucose
D. mannose

__ 99. Arrange the following secondary derived proteins from highest to lowest molecular weight.
A. peptides>peptones>proteoses
C. proteoses>peptones>peptides
B. proteoses>peptides>peptones
D. peptones>proteoses>peptides
__ 100. Is the sum total of all activities directed towards the maintenance of life
A. catabolism
D. photosynthesis
B. anabolism
E. fermentation
C. metabolism
__ 101. n protein, amino acids are joined covalently by
A. hydrogen bond
B. peptide bond

C. oxygen bond
D. disulfide bond

__ 102. The denaturation of protein can occur in the presence of

I. heat

II. strong acid

III.
organic solvents
A. I only
B. I & II only

C. II & III only

D. I, II & III

__ 103. Which of the following about sickle cell anemia is NOT true?
A. It is a genetic disorder resulting from the production of variant hemoglobin
B. It is characterized with pain, life long hemolytic anemia and tissue hypoxia
C. The replacement of leucine at the sixth position of the beta-globulin chain for glutamate
is generally responsible for causing it.
D. The form Hbs has an extremely low solubilityncompared to Hba which results into the
aggregation of molecules that form or create sickle shaped red blood cells.
__ 104. The enzyme withits cofactor is generally known as
A. coenzyme
B. holoenzyme

C. apoenzyme
D. prosthetic

__ 105. The process in which the release of energy rich molecules such as glucose and fatty
acid ocuurs in mitochondria is known as
A. oxidative decarboxylation
C. oxidative deaminatio
B. oxidative phosphorylation
D. oxidative dehydrogenation
__ 106. Hopkins cole is used to identify which of the following amino acids?
A. threonine
C. lysine
B. tryptophan
D. leucine
__107. ____________ stereoisomers of cyclized monosaccharide molecules differing only in
configuration of the substituents on the carbonyl group.
A. diastereomers
C. epimers
B. enantiomers
D. anomers
__ 108. Proteins digestin starts in the
A. mouth
B. small intestine

C. stomach
D. large intestine

__ 109. The sugar that yields only glucose when hydrolyzed is

A. galactose
C. fructose
B. maltose
D. sucrose
__ 110. What is the visible result of Molischs test?
A. green or blue green
C. cherry red color
B. brick red precipitate
D. purple ring at the junction
__111. The breakdown of complex molecules such as protein, lipid and polysaccharide into imple
molecules such as carbon dioxide, water and ammonia is knon as
A. aerobic glycolysis
C. anabolic reaction
B. catabolic reaction
D. gluconeogenesis
__ 112. What would be the end product of glycolysis in the cell with mitochondria?
A. glucose
C. pyruvate
B. glycogen
D. lactate
__ 113. Which of the following substance levels is found to be deficient in a patient G6PD
deficiency?
A. alpha-antitrypsin in reduced form
C. glutathione in reduced form
B. bradykinin in reduced form
D. trypsin in elevated form

__ 114. Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia in patients with G6PD deficiency?
I. oxidant ring
II. Ingestion of fava beans III. Certain types of infections
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 115. Which of the following should be classified as a disaccharide?
A. ribose
C. glycoprotein
B. lactose
D. glycosaminoglycans
__ 116. Which of the following accurately describes Barfoeds test?
A. general test for carbohydrates
C. specific test for galactose
B. test for ketoses
D. test to differentiate mono and disaccharides
__ 117. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Although cocoa butter is vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
II. Although cocoa butter is an animal fat, it is liquid at room temperature
III. Although cod liver is animal fat, it is liquid in room temperature
IV. Although cod liver oil is vegetable oil, it is solid at room temperature
A. III only
C. II & IV
B. I & III
D. II only
__ 118. This gives a negative result to Benedicts test.
A. glucose
B. sucrose

C. lactose
D. maltose

__ 119. The number of chromosomes in the human cell is

A. 41
B. 42

C. 43
D. 46

__120. A condition known as atherosclerosis results as an accumulation in the blood vessels

A. calcium
C. cholesterol
B. pathogens
D. ketones
__ 121. The pairs of structure that are mirror images of each other are known as
A. Isomers
C. epimers
B. Enantiomers
D. mutarotation
__ 122. In humans, the principle storage of glycogen is found in the
I. skeletal muscle
II. Liver
III. Spleen
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 123. Which of the following substances should be classified as a polysaccharide?
A. glucose
C. sucrose
B. hyaluronic acid
D. glycoprotein
__ 124. Which of the following agents acts as an emulsifying agent for metabolism of lipid in the
duodenum?
A. gastric lipase
C. pancreatic juice
B. bile salt
D. secretion
__ 125. Which of the following is a building block of membrane of nerve tissue?
A. prostaglandin
C. thromboxane
B. sphingomyelin
D. leukotriene
__ 126. The enzyme alpha-amylase cleaves________ to maltose and maltriose

A. chondroitin sulfate
B. cellulose
C. heparin
__ 127. Glycogen is an example of a
A. disaccharide
B. monosaccharide

D. amylopectin
E. amylase

C. polysaccharide
D. none of the above

__ 128. This is also known as protein-calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic
deficiency of calories, which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein
A. marasmus
C. hemochromatosis
B. Obesity
D. Kwashiorkor
__ 129. Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all the following amino acids except:
A. alanine
C. leucine
B. glycine
D. valine
__ 130. Butter becomesrancid upon exposure to air due to formation of
A. acetic acid
C. formic acid
B. butyric acid
D. propionic acid
__ 131. Which of the followingis considered protein deficient malnuturition?
I. Kwashiorkor
II. Marasmus
III. Steatorrhea
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 132. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin K?
A. cabbage and cauliflower
C. vegetable oils
B. fatty fish and liver
D. yellow and green vegetables and fruits
__ 133. Which of the following codons are generally known as stop or non sense codons?
I. UAG
II. UGA
III. UAA
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III only
__ 134. To find out if a substance carcinogenic, which of the following test should be performed?
I. Ames Test
II. Pyrogen Test
III. Biopsy of cells
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 135. The synthesis of proteins and lipids in cells is generally carried out by
A. mitochondria
C. golgi apparatus
B. endoplasmic reticulum
D. lysozymes
__136. Denaturation is a randomization of the conformation of a polypeptide chain. Chemical
agents like strong acids or bases, heat, ionic detergents, etc. are involved in this process. Which
of the following structures remain unaffected with denaturation?
I. Primary
II. Secondary
III. Tertiary
IV. Quaternary
A. I only
C. I, II & III
B. I & II
D. I, II, III & IV
__137.Which of the fallowing statements about amino acids is true?
A .Acidic amino acids bear a positive charge at pH 7.0
B. all amino acids have chiral carbon.
C. lysine and arginine are basic amino acids.
D. all of the above.

__138.Which of the fallowing is a codon for methionine?

A.UAG
C.UGA
B.AUG
D.UAA
__139.Which of the fallowing amino acids is not essential in mammals?
A.Phenylalanine
C.Tyrosine
B.lysine
D.methionine
__140.The chif end product of purine metabolism in man
A.CO
C.uric acid
B.urea
D.ammonia
__141.The growth of bacteria remains constant in which of the fallowing phase?
A.Lag phase
C.stationary phase
B.Log phase
D.decline phase
__142.When the transfer of genetic information from one cell to another cell is carried out by the
plasmid,it is known as
A.transformation
C.conjuction (conjugation)
B.transduction
D.transaction
__143. Which of the following are essential fatty acids in humans?
I. Linoleic acid
II. Linoleic acid
III. Arachidonic acid
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 144. The principal energy-carrying molecule in a cell is
A. AMP
C. ATP
B. ADP
D. NADP
__ 145. Which of the following enzymes is a rate limiting step in glycogenolysis?
A. glucose-6-phosphate
C. glycogen synthase
B. CAMP-dependent protein kinase
D. glycogen phosphorylase
__ 146. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is present only in the DNA?
A. Adenine
C. Cytosine
B. Thymine
D. Uracil
__ 147. Which of the following ions is cotransported with glucose in the small intestine?
A. K
C. Ca
B. Na
D. Mg
__ 148. Maltose, a disaccharide is composed of
A. glucose + galactose
B. glucose + fructose
__ 149. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
__ 150. IUPAC name of acrolein
A. pentenal
B. propenal

C. glucose + glucose
D. glucose + mannose

C. cytoplasm
D. lysosomes

C. hexanal
D. acetone

__ 151. Which of the major serum proteins is involved in protein binding of drugs?
A. alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
C. albumin
B. lipoprotein
D. beta-1 acid glycoprotein

__ 152. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

A. cod liver oil
C. citrus fruits
B. carrots
D. leafy vegetables
__ 153. The secondary structure of protein consist of
I. alpha helix
II. Beta sheet
III. Beta bend
A. I only
C. II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 154. The small and circular extrachromosomal DNA molecules that carry genetic information
for future generations in bacteria are known as
A. lysozymes
C. mitochondria
B. plasmids
D. cytoplasm
__ 155. Which of the following RNA types comprises 80% of RNA in the cell?
I. Ribosomal RA
II. Transfer RNA
III. Messenger RNA
A. I only
C II & III only
B. I & II only
D. I, II & III
__ 156. A reddish solution results after the addition to iodine TS to an unknown solution.
Subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solution
results to the formation of a precipitate. The results of the tests confirm the presence of
A. glycogen
C. starch
B. dextrin
D. lactose
__ 157. D-threose and L-threose are examples of
A. Anomers
B. enantiomers

C. diastereomers
D. conformational isomers

__ 158. This test is used to confirm the presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine
A. Ninhydrin test
C. Schiffs test
B. Anthrone test
D. Millon-Nasse
__ 159. The energy producing reaction
A. metabolic
B. catabolic

C. anabolic
D. all of these

__ 160. Which of hydrolysis product of starch is responsible for forming a dark blue complex with
iodine?
A. amylopectin
C. maltose
B. amylase
D. all of the above
__ 161. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues.
A. glycolysis
C. fructose catabolism
B. glycogenolysis
D. galactose catabolism
__ 162. These are esters of fatty acid and glycerol
A. fixed oil and fats
B. waxes
__ 163. The enzyme for glycolysis are found in the
A. mitochondrion
B. cytosol
__ 164. What is the positive result for Fehlings test?

C. sterols
D. phospholipids

C. ribosomes
D. nucleus

A. violet precipitate
C. green precipitate
B. brick red precipitate
D. amorphous crystals
__ 165. The cell markers which serve as basis for he ABO blood types are classified as what type
of biopolymers?
A. proteins
C. lipids
B. carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids
__ 166. Detect the presence of alpha amino acids
A. Biuret
B. Molisch

C. Ninhydrin
D. Hopkins cole

__ 167. None- protein molecules that are often associated with proteins called
A. prosthetic group
C. zwitterions
B. side chain
D. casein
__ 168. These stereoisomers are nonsuperimposable mirror image of each other. They are also
called optical isomers because they rotate polarized light in opposite directions.
A. enantiomers
C. anomers
B. diastereomers
D. both a and b
__ 169. The absence of this enzyme results to phenylketonuria
A. phenylalanine dehydrogenase
C. homogentisate oxidase
B. phenylalanine hydroxylase
D. either a or b
__ 170. Dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which
of the following amino acids serves as a precursor in the synthesis of these catecholamines?
A. tryptophan
C. tyrosine
B. threonine
D. alanine
__ 171. This refers to the spatial arrangements of amino acid residues close to one another in the
linear sequence of a polypeptide chain.
A. primary
C. tertiary
B. secondary
D. quaternary
__ 172. Which of the following is/are point mutations?
A. insertion
B. deletion

D. all of the above

E. only a and b

C. transition
__ 173. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a double stranded polynucleotide. The base content of DNA
displays three sets of equivalent pairs. Which of the following are equivalent base pairs?
I. A=T
II. C=G
III. A+G=T+C
IV. A+G is not always equal to T + C
A. III only
C. I, II & III
B. I & II
D. I II & IV
__ 174. Which carbon in the sugars is responsible for the difference between the two nucleic
acids?
A. carbon-1
C. carbon-3
B. carbon-2
D. none of the above
__175. The normal pH of the blood
A. 7.4-7.45
B. 6.6-6.9

C. 5.5-6.6
D. 4.8-8

__ 176. Fruity odor of the urine is indicative of ketone bodies, a diagnostic value in case of
acidosis in

A. diabetes insipidus
C. cretinism
B. porphyria
D. diabetes mellitus
__ 177. These are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized
during DNA replication.
A. enhancer
C. Okazaki fragments
B. operon
D. primer
__ 178. This DNA mutation occurs when a purine replaces a pyrimidine or vice versa
A. transitional
C. insertion
B. transversional
D frame-shift
__ 179. A purine replaces another purine in ___________ mutations.
A. transitional
C. insertion
B. transversional
D. frame-shift
__ 180. This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise:
A. muscle glycogen
C. lactic acid
B. amino acids
D. glucose
__ 181. This test is also known glyoxylic acid reaction
A. Millon-Nasse
B. Ninhydrin

C. Hopkins cole
D. None of the above

__ 182. This is caused by the inadequate intake of protein in the presence of adequate intake of
calories.
A. Marasmus
C. hemochromatosis
B. obesity
D. Kwashoirkor
__ 183. This hormone may sometimes be useful in the reversal of cardiac effects of beta-blocker
overdose because of its ability to increase cAMP production in the heart.
A. insulin
C. somatomedin
B. somatostatin
D. glucagon
__ 184. The cholesterol molecule is
A. an aromatic ring
B. a straight chain acid

C. a steroid
D. a tocopherol

__ 185. The proteinase that is found mostly in the gastric acid juice of young animals
A. rennin
D. ptyalin
B. pepsin
E. none of the above
C. steapsin
__ 186. The non sugar portion of glycosides is known as
A. aglycone
B. genin
C. glycone

D. Both a and b
E. both b and c

__ 187. Humans catabolize purine to__________.

A. urea
B. uric acid

C. allantoin
D. both b and c

__ 188. Principal digestive constituent of the gastric juice

A. trypsin
B. pepsin

C. gastrin
D. enterokinase

__ 189. This rare human disorder, which progresses to photosensitivity, caused by an inherited
excinuclease deficiency.
A. xeroderma pigmentosa
C. Fanconis anemia
B. Blooms syndrome
D. Hodgkins lymphoma
__ 190. The reagent present in Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction
A. sodium carbonate
C. sulfuric acid
B. magnesium stearate
D. NaOH
__ 191. Genetic information is stored and carried in all cells by
A. single-stranded DNA
C. double-stranded RNA
B. double stranded DNA
D. double-stranded circular DNA
__ 192. This is a general test for carbohydrates
A. alpha-napthol reaction
B. Molischs test
C. Phenylhydrazine reaction
__ 193. Lecithin is an example of
A. fixed oil and fats
B. waxes

D. both a and b
E. both b and c

C. sterols
D. phospholipids

__ 194. These are esters of high molecular weight, monohydric alcohols and high molecular
weight fatty acids.
A. fixed oil and fats
C. sterols
B. waxes
D. phospholipids
__ 195. Glutamine is a ___________ amino acid
A. neutral
B. basic

C. acidic
D. racemin

__196. In all phosphorylation reaction, this metal is an essential cofactor.

A. Cu
C. Mg
B. Fe
D. Al
__ 197. The glycosidic bond formed in glycosides is an example of
A. ester bond
B. ether bond

C. ketone bond
D. non covalent bond

__ 198. Actinomycin D, an antineoplastic drug, intercalates between two GC pairs in DNA. Which
of the following processes does it inhibit?
A. translation
C. DNA repair
B. transcription
D. replication
__ 199. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues.
A. glycolysis
C. fructose catabolism
B. glycogenolysis
D. galactose catabolism
__200. Lard is an example of what chemical class of lipid?
A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes

C. sterols
D. phospholipids

__201. These are alcohols containing the CPPP nucleus

A. fixed oils and fats
B. waxes

C. sterols
D. phospholipids

__ 202. What is wobble?

A. The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
B. An error in translation induced by streptomycin
C. Mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50s subunit of the ribosome
D. Thermal motions leading to a local denaturation of the DNA double helix
__203. These are organelles that contain the enzymes for pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle,
beta oxidation, oxidative phosphorylation, and ETC
A. golgi apparatus
C. nucleus
B. lysosomes
D. mitochondria
__ 204. Which of the following sugars form insoluble phenylhydrazone readily?
A. sucrose
C. arabinose
B. galactose
D. mannose
__205. Which of the following is an example of waxes?
A. cholesterol
B. ergosterol

C. spermaceti
D. lecithin

__ 206. Viruses are not cellular, but are rather termed as biological entities. The main reason
why viruses are considered acellular entities is because
A. A virus contains only one type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA
B. A virus is very small compared to bacteria
C. A virus is pathogenic
D. Scientist can not classify viruses under the 5 kingdoms Whittaker
__ 207. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids
B. Vegetable oils are generally liquid
C. Vegetable oils are generally solid
D. Both a and b
E. Both b and c
__ 208. What is the positive visible result for Liebermann-Burchard test?
A. yellow crystal
C. white amorphous precipitate
B. black precipitate
D. bluish-green color
__ 209. After digestion and absorption, all biopolymers are converted to the common product
_______________.
A. acetyl coA
C. citrate
B. pyruvate
D. any of the above
__ 210. The total net ATP produced in aerobic glycolysis is _____ ATPs per mole of hexose,
depending on which shuttle predominates in the transport NAD/NADH.
A. 4 to 6
C. 4 to 8
B. 6 to 8
D. 8 to 10
__ 211. The signs of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia (three Ds) and loss of
tongue papillae. Which of the following is/ are deficient in pellagra?
A. niacin
C. both a and b
B. tryptophan
D. Pellagra is not a deficiency state.
It is an autoimmune disorder
__212. Fibrous and globular proteins belong to what protein structure?
A. primary
C. tertiary
B. secondary
D. quaternary

__213. The isoelectric pH is the pH midway between pK values on either side o the electric
process. Which of the following equations gives an accurate estimate to isoelectric pH?
A.pl=pK1=pK2
C.pl=(pK1+pK2) x 2
B. pl=(pK1+pK2) / 2
D. pl=pK1>pK2
__ 214. Each end of the DNA double helix contains 5 end of one strand and the 3; end of the
other strand----- this statement describes what characteristic of the DNA structure?
A. complementary
C. semiconservative replication
B. anti parallel
D. base pairing
__ 215. The arrangement of polypeptide chains in relation to one another in a multi-chained
protein refers to what structure?
A. primary
C. tertiary
B. secondary
D. quaternary
__216. Which of the following statements below gives an accurate description of collagen?
A. It is fibrous protein
B. The basic unit of collagen is tropocollagen, a triple helix of three polypeptide chain
C. Vitamin A is important in catalyzing the hydroxylation of prolin
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B
__ 217. Random coils and triple helices are examples of what protein structure?
A. primary
C. tertiary
B. secondary
D. quaternary
__ 218. How many hydrogen bond is formed between cytosine and guanine?
A. 1
C. 3
B. 2
D. none
__ 219. The DNA structure is a double helix containing chains which are complementary. Which
of the following statements best describes complementarity?
A. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5 and of one strand and the 3 end of
the other.
B. Adenine binds to thymine, and cytosine binds to guanine
C. Several codons may code for the same amino acid
D. All of the above
__220. Which of the following amino acids possess a phenolic hydroxyl group?
A. serine
D. A and B only
B. threonine
E. All of the above
C. tyrosine
__221. Certain metals and trace elements are important as enzyme cofactors. What metal is
present in the enzyme glutathione peroxidase that replaces S in one cysteine active site?
A. Fe
C. Se
B. Co
D. Zn
__222. This immunoglobulin is responsible for mediating hypersensitivity by causing the release
of mediators from mast cells and basophils upon exposure to antigens or allergens
A. IgA
C. IgD
B. IgG
D. IgE
__223. The OH group on the penultimate or second to the last carbon atom determines
A. D(dextro) or L(levo), dextro pointing to the right and levo pointing to the left

B. D(dextrorotatory) or l(levorotatory), regarding optical activity

C. Both satements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect
__ 224. Which of the following is/are example/s of catabolism?
A. glycogenesis
D. both a and b
B. glycolysis
E. both b and c
C. beta oxidation of fatty acids
__225. How many ATPs are produced in the conversion of one mole FADH2 to FAD?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 12
__ 226. How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of NAD to NADH?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 12
__227. How many ATPs are produced for every oxidized acetyl CoA?
A. 10
C. 14
B. 12
D. 8
__228. The site of citric acid cycle
A. cytosol
B. mitochondria

C. ribosomes
D. any of the above

__229. Trimetophrim and Methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. The use of the
aforementioned drugs predisposes a person to develop:
A. nausea and vomiting
C. normocytic anemia
B. dermatitis
D. megaloblastic anemia
__230. One way of classifying proteins through their physical properties. Which of the following is
soluble in water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids?
A. prolamine
C. albumin
B. globulin
D. histones
__231.Using equation of pI, calculate the pI( isoelctric pH) of alanine. pK1(R-COOH)= 2.35;pK2
(R-NH3+)=9.69
A. 6.02
C. 24.08
B. 12.04
D. 5.0
__ 232. This type of mutation occurs when the codon containing the changed base may become
a termination codon
A. nonsense mutation
C. silent mutation
B. missense mutation
D. transitional mutation
__233. The result of a point mutation that occurs when UCA (coding for serine) is converted to
UCU (also coding for serine) is called
A. nonsense mutation
C. silent mutation
B. missense mutation
D. any of the above
__234. Which fibrous protein is an important structural component of arterial blood vessels and
ligaments.
A. keratin
C. elastin
B. collagen
D. fibronectin
__235. Which of he following are purine bases?
A. adenine and thymine

C. cytosine and thymine

B. adenine and guanine

D. cytosine and uracil

__236. Which of the following amino acids contain/s basic side chains
A. Histidine
D. All of the above
B. arginine
E. only a and b
C. leucine
__237. Which of the following aminoacids has an imino group?
A. phenylalanine
B. proline

C. tyrosine
D. threonine

__238. The overall arrangement and interrelationship of various regions or domains, and
individual amino acid residues of a single polypeptide chain is ___________.
A. primary
C. tertiary
B. secondary
D. quaternary
__239. a-helix and B-pleated sheets belongs to what structure?
A. primary
B. secondary

C. tertiary
D. quaternary

__240. Which of the following is/are example/s of essential amino acids?

A. tyrosine
C. tryptophan
B. threonine
D. Both a and b
E. both b and c
__241. Which of the following is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and
amino acids?
A. glycolysis
C. beta oxidation
B. pentose phosphate pathway
D. citric acid cycle
__ 242. What is the visible result for aminoguanidine reaction?
A. purple ring at the junction
C. brownish black precipitate
B. green
D. bright reddish purple
__243. Ascorbic acid, glucoronides, and some drugs act as reducing agents. How would these
substances affect Benedicts test result?
A. they may give false negative result
C. they would not affect the result
B. they may give false positive result
D. they would enhance the sensitivity
of the test
__244. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. The carbonyl carbon in aldoses is carbon 1
C. both statements are correct
B. The carbonyl carbon in aldoses is carbon 2
D. both statements are false
__245. Which of the following acts synergistically with Vitamin E?
A. Se
B. Co

C. Co
D.Mn

__246. Histamine, a chemical messenger mediates allergic and inflammatory reactions, gastric
acid secretion and neurotransmission of the brain. Which of the following amino acids, which
when decarboxylated yields histamine?
A. tyrosine
C. tryptophan
B. histidine
D. any of the above
__247. Among the fibrous protein listed below, which are the major proteins of the skin and hair?
A. keratin
C.elastin
B. collagen
D. fibronectin

__ 248. The coenzyme FMN and FAD is responsiblefor the oxidative deamination of amino acids.
Which of the following vitamins is related to these coenzymes?
A. B1
C. B3
B. B2
D. B5
__ 249. These are slightly longer, catalytically inactive forms of enzymes.
A. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
B. zymogen
D. both a and b
__250. Ninhydrin is widely used for detecting amino acids. What is the visible result for ninhydrin
test in the presence of proline and hydroxyproline?
A. purple
C. yellow
B. red
D. green
__251. Xanthoproteic test is for
A. free amino groups
B. arginine

C. cysteine
D. tyrosine

__252. What is the positive visible result for xanthoproteic test?

A. yellow color deepening into orange
B. violet color

C. bluish green
D. old rose

__253. This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkages

A. Ninhydrin
B. Biuret

C. Hopkins cole
D. Sakaguchi

__ 254. Pauly diazo test indicates the presence of

A. histidine
B. tyrosine

C. tryptophan
D. both a and b

__ 255. Specific test for arginine

A. Biuret
B. basic lead acetate
__ 256. Process of converting liver glycogen into blood glucose
A. glycogenolysis
B. glucogenesis
__257. The clinical test for the determination of cholesterol
A. Liebermann Burchard
B. Salkowski

C. Ninhydrin
D. Sakaguchi

C. glycolysis
D. glycogenesis

C. both a and b
D. none of the above

__258. What diet would you advice the childs mother with PKU to give to her baby?
A. rich in tyrosine, lacks phenylalanine
C. rich in phenylalanine,lacks tyrosine
B. equal quantities of tyrosine and phenylalanine
D. regular infant formula
__259. What important neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?
A. histamine
C. norepinephrine
B. acetylcholine
D.serotonin
__260. Which of the following are the branched-chain amino acids responsible for the
characteristic sweet smell of the urine of patients with Maple syrup urine disease
A. leucine, isoleucine and valine
C. lysine, alanine and valine
B. leucine, alanine and valine
D. lysine, isoleucine and valine
__261. This results from the oxidation of heme protein in hemoglobin resulting to increased
oxygen affinity, and therefore failure to adequately deliver oxygen to tissue

A. thalassemia
B. methemoglobinemia

C. sulfhemoglobinemia
D. sickle cell anemia

__ 262. Which of the following enzymes adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond?
A. kinase
C. phosphatase
B. phosphorylase
D. ligase
__263. What is the deficiency state of folic acid?
A. aplastic anemia
B. microcytic anemia

C. megaloblastic anemia
D. macrocytic anemia

__264. Cheilosis, glossitis, seborrhea and photophobia are manifestations of what deficiency
state?
A. thiamine
C. niacin
B. riboflavin
D. pyridoxine
__ 265. This immunoglobulin prevents the attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous
membranes. It is found in body secretions suchas tears, colostrum, saliva, sweat and small
intestines.
A. IgD
C. IgM
B. IgA
D. IgE
__266. Pepsinogen is an example of
A. apoenzyme
B. holoenzyme

C. cofactor
D. zymogen

__267. This enzyme adds hydrogen atoms to a molecule

A. reductase
B. oxidase

C. ligase
D. synthase

__268. Which of the following enzymes is an example of hydrolases?

A. esterase
B. racemase

C. aminotransferase
D. decarboxylase

__ 269. This type of enzyme cleaves a carbon to carbon bond to create an aldehyde group
A. esterase
C. aldolase
B. transferase
D. protease
__270. Mutarotation is a process of interconversion between tha alpha and beta forms, using the
open-chain structure as an intermediate. Which of the following undergoes mutarotation?
A. monosaccharides
C. polysaccharide
B. disaccharides
D. amino acids
__271. Which of the following presents a cyclic sugar structure?
A. Fischer projection
B. Haworth projection

C. chair conformation
D. boat conformation

__272. The deficiency of which of the following enzymes predisposes persons taking some
therapeutic agents (e.g. 4-aminoquinolone,sulfinamides, and propanthelin) to hemolytic anemia?
A. glucose-1-phosphate
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. glucose-6-phosphate
D. thymidylate synthase
__273. What type of glycosidic bond joins the dimmer of glucose to form maltose?
A. - 1, 4
C. - 1, 2
C. - 1, 4
D. - 1, 2

__ 274. Which of the following blood types is considered as the universal donor?
A. A
C. AB
B. B
D. O
__ 275. Which of the following is/are examples of glycosaminoglycans?
A. hyaluronic acid
D. all of the above
B. mucopolysaccharides
E. only a and c
C. chondroitin sulfate
__276. This is differentiating test for aldose and ketose sugars.
A. Seliwanoffs test
B. Fehlings test

C. Barfoeds test
D. any of the above

__277. This is known as the Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A. glycolysis
B. glucogenesis

C. glycogenesis
D. glycogenolysis

__278. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for catalyzing the reaction of glucose to
glucose-6-phosphate?
A. hexokinase
C. PFK
B. pyruvate kinase
D. glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase
__279. Which of the following enzymes is most important in controlling glycolysis?
A. . hexokinase
C. PFK
B. pyruvate kinase
D. none of the above
__280. Among the different cells in the body, only these lack mitochondria which renders them
incapable of TCA.
A. platelets
C. erythrocytes
B. leukocytes
D. brain cells
__281. This refers to aldose-ketose interconversion
A. tautomerization
B. mutarotation

C. glycogenesis
D. conjugation

__282. The citric acid cycle is an example of a/an ____________ metabolism.

A. anabolic
C. amphibolic
B. catabolic
D. none of the above
__283. These are esters of glycerol in combination with fatty acid, phosphoric acid and certain
nitrogenous compounds.
A. fixed oil and fats
C. sterols
B. waxes
D. phospholipids
__284. Which of the following statement is true when fats and fixed oils are heated strongly?
A. fats liquefy
C. decomposition occurs accompanied by
the production of acrid flammable vapors
B. oils becomes less viscous
D. any of the above
__285. These are lipids that contain carbohydrate ( galactose or glucose), one fatty acid and
sphingosine, but no phosphoric acid and glycerol.
A. cerebrosides
C. cytolipins
B. gangliosides
D. any of the above

__286. Gangliosides, cerebrosides and cytolipins are collectively called __________.

A. phospholipids or phosphatide
C. sulfolipids
B. glycolipids
D. lipoproteins
__287. This is the deposition of lipid plaques on the lining of the arteries
A. atherosclerosis
C. Tay Sachs disease
B. Gauchers disease
D. hyperlipoproteinemia
__288. The state of high serum levels of acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid is called
A. ketonemia
C. ketosis
B. ketonuria
D. ketoacidosis
__289. The following are glycolipids except
A. globosides
B. phosphatides

C. gangliosides
D. cerebrosides

__290. The parent compound of phospholipids

A. glycerol
B. phosphatidic acid

C. ethanolamine
D. none of the above

__291. ID test to detect the presence of glycogen

A. phloroglucinol
B. Molisch

C. Iodine
D. Seliwanoff

__292. The only sugar readily forms insoluble aszone crystals

A. Lactose
B. sucrose

C. mannose
D. glucose

__293. Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals
A. chondroitin
C. hyaluronic acid
B. heparin
D. chitin
__294. General term for a group of polysaccharides present on the primary cell wall
A. xanthan
C. pectin
B. mucilage
D. carrageenan
__ 295. Specific test for galactose, due to formation of highly insoluble crystals
A. phenylhydrazine test
C. mucic test
B. fermentation
D. Molisch
__296. Type of RNA which serves as a template for the amino acids sequence being synthesized
A. mRNA
C. rRNA
B. tRNA
D. none of the above
__297. The steps of central state
A. replication, translation and transcription
B. replication, transcription and transmission
__298. Reverse transcription takes place in
A. bacteria
B. virus

C. replication, transcription and translation

D. transcription, translation and replication

C. algae
D. molds

__ 299. The following are enzymes found in the pancreatic juice, except:
A. papain
C. chymotrypsin
B. trypsin
D. carboxypolypeptidase

__300. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharide, except:

A. heparin
C. glycogen
B. starch
D. maltose