CPL Question Bank Air Law

Question Bank CPL
Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh
Subject : Air Law
CPL
Chapter 02
1.
ICAO publishes:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Which annex covers carriage of cargo?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception
Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world
Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
International law
9
14
6
11
Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

a) 14
b) 11
c) 6
d) 18
4.
Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
Annex 11
Annex 10
Annex 14
Annex 15
What is cabotage?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country
Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC
An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country
7.
The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and
luggage?
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
To assist states to purchase aircraft

To help airlines set up
To assist with improving international aviation
To train pilots for international aviation
Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international
crew licences?
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
Annex 2
Annex 6
Annex 17
Annex 18
What is the objective of ICAO?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
Binding for all member states.
Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
Annex 9 - Facilitation
Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
Annex - 17 Security
Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Annex 9 Facilitation
Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods
Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Annex 15
Annex 16
Annex 17
Annex 18
15. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the
Council?
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
Annex 6
Annex 11
Annex 17
Annex 7
The Assembly
The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
The Council itself
The Air Navigation Commission
The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS) for personnel licensing is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Annex 2
Annex 12
Annex 11
Annex 1
21. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to
commit an offence, to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
26.
Disable him
Require passengers to assist in restraining
Request cabin crew to assist
Deliver the person to the appropriate authority
It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:
a)
b)
c)
d)
request the crew to detain the passenger

ask the passenger to disembark
order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
hand him/her over to the authorities
29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?
a)
b)
c)
d)
First freedom
Fourth freedom
Third freedom
Second freedom
30. The first freedom of the air allows:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Over-flight only
Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
Landing for technical reasons
Carriage of mail and cargo
33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?

a)
b)
c)
d)
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
39. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

Land for technical reasons
Cabotage
Over-fly a State without landing
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 2 International Agreements and Organizations

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
C
C
A
A
B
A
C
B
C
C
B
A
A
D
D
D
D
D
B
D
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
D
B
D
A
D
D
C
A
D
A
D
D
B
B
A
C
C
B
B
Chapter 05
1.
What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?

a) 18
b) 21
c) 16
d) 23
2.
When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL, how often are you required to have a medical
examination?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours
limited?
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations

Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations
Act as a flying instructor
Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation
When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
75 hours PIC
100 hours PIC or co-pilot
100 hours PIC
75 hours PIC or co-pilot
One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL licence?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
The 12 month period reduces to 6 months

after the 21st day of illness has elapsed

on the 21stday of the illness
after a month
after medical has expired
To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a)
b)
c)
d)
15 hrs
20 hrs
25 hrs
35 hrs
9.
What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
Class 2
As required by ICAO.
Class 1
None of the above.
with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
the flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority
For an ATPL how many night hours are required?

a) 30
b) 75
c) 100
d) 150
12.
For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?

a) 200
b) 100
c) 150
d) 250
14.
When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
Once you have passed a competency check

When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
When you have completed 100 hours solo
21 -60
21 -59
8-59
8-60
Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hours requirement for a CPL(A)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
100 hours PIC or SPIC

20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300
nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes
25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm and to
include 2 landings
10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings
18.
What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?

a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 21
22.
Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than
....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.
a) 100 15
b) 100 20
c) 100 25
d) 75 25
25.
According to CAR84, what classes of medical exist?

a)
b)
c)
d)
27.
The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:

a)
b)
c)
d)
28.
250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
A pilot with a CPL can act as:

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.
PPL with instructor rating

Have CPL with FI rating
CPL
ATPL
For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:

a)
b)
c)
d)
30.
date of issue
date of application received by the authority
date of skill test
date of medical examination
In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:

a)
b)
c)
d)
29.
Class 1 only
Classes 1, 2 and 3
Classes 1 and 2
Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4
PIC in commercial aviation

PIC in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
PIC of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation
From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a)
b)
The date of the assessment

The date the certificate delivered to the pilot
c)
d)
33.
The minimum age for a CPL holder is

a)
b)
c)
d)
34.
Annex 2
Annex 3
Annex 1
Annex 4
The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.
17 years
18 years
16 years
21 years
Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a
crew member's licence to be recognised by Contracting States?
a)
b)
c)
d)
36.
The date of licence issue

The date of the revalidation of the licence
100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command

75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command
A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:

a)
b)
c)
d)
150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time

150 hours flight time
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 5 Personnel Licensing

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
I1
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
A
A
C
B
D
B
A
B
C
C
C
A
C
B
B
C
B
B
C
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
B
C
C
D
C
B
A
A
B
A
C
A
B
B
C
A
C
B
D
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 6
4.
Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
Steady red
Steady green
Flashing green
White
What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V
6.
What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Return to start point

Clear to taxi
Clear to take off
Stop
You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
cleared to land
return for landing and await clearance to land
give way to other landing aircraft
land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron
You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does
it mean?
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
The same as class D
Rocking wings
Flashing lights
Cut across track
Breaking turn up and left
Which has priority to land?

a)
b)
c)
d)
A hospital flight
An emergency
A military flight
A VIP flight
14.
Which of these is not a distress frequency?

1.
121.5 MHz
2.
2182 KHz
3.
243.0 KHz
4.
2430 KHz
a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
"Cancelling my flight plan"

"Cancelling my flight"
"Cancelling my IFR flight"
"Cancelling my IMC flight plan"
What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.
B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position

A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
A has right of way if B is on the right
B has right of way if A is on the left
If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and
include the phrase:
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
Stop
Taxi clear of the landing area
Give way to approaching aircraft
You are not clear to take off
Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the CTR
without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
A/2000 + C
A/7500 + C
A/7600 + C
A/7700 + C
You are taxying an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the tower. What does it
mean?
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
4 only
2 only
2, 3 and 4
3 and 4
Waving the arms across the face

Drawing the palm across the throat
Clenching raised fists
Holding both arms up with palms facing forward
ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:
a)
b)
c)
d)
A 7600 Mode
A 0020 Mode
A 5300 Mode
A 7620 Mode
C
C
C
C
22.
For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a)
b)
c)
d)
23.
Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognised as an aircraft in distress?
a)
b)
c)
d)
24.
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not comply with
ATC instructions. You should:
a)
b)
c)
d)
26.
Code 7500
Code 7700
Code 7000
Code 7600
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
50 minutes before off-block time

60 minutes before departure
select code 7500 A on your transponder

ask ATC for different instructions
comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft
comply with ATC instructions
A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
clear to move forward

brakes off
remove chocks
clear to close all engines
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 6 R ule s o f T he Air

1C
6D
11D
16B
21A
26C
2D
7B
12B
17D
22B
3C
8B
13A
18B
23B
4B
9A
14D
19C
24A
5B
10B
15D
20C
25C
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 7 S ect io n 1
1.
Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a.
b.
c.
d.
World War I
The Korean War
World War II
The American War of Independence
2.
What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

a.
The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b.
All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c.
The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a
boundary with another state
d.
The airspace over a state and its territorial waters
3.
What law is applicable over the `high seas'?

a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to
obey the law of France ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
c.
d.
A regular series of flights from one place to another

Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral
agreement between the two states
Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance
Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air
Do any rules of the air exists over international waters (high seas areas)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
Yes at all times

No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France
Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh
Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he
should do
A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:

a.
b.
6.
International law
The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
The ICAO law
The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area
Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air

No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane
With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour

Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the Chicago
Convention
Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC)
Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR
17. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such an
offence?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interpol
The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
The Authority of the State of the Operator
ICAO through the International Court at The Hague
19. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?

a. 2000
b. 7777
c. 7600
d. 7500
20. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as commander?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The passengers
The Operator
The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane
25. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?

a.
b.
c.
d.
No
Yes, but only for single engine operation
Yes, but not in commercial aviation
Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over
27. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the licence.
What else must you carry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself

Your valid medical certificate
Your valid medical certificate or your passport
Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you
identity as stated on your licence
32. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication

Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure
The need to wear dark glasses
33. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical concerns.
One such situation is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient

Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days
Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days
Diagnosis of the need for spectacles to be used for reading
38.
It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is the aeroplane
required to be lit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
lights.You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect
that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?
a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
Yes but only because it is daylight
No because you are flying IFR
Yes
If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?
a.
b.
c.
d.
41.
Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated

Only if the engines are running
No
Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome
No, he only needs to be a qualified observer

No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make
Yes
No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you
incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying
Ìf you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed
traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome

If you are aware that the aerodrome is there
If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ)
Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ
42. When is a flight plan is required?

a.
b.
c.
d.
For all flights

For all IFR flights
For all VFR flights in controlled airspace
For all flights which require an air traffic service
43. When is a flight plan not required?

a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
For VFR flights crossing international boundaries

For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the
boundary
For VFR flights in advisory airspace
For flights over distances less than 50Km at night
A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is
submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is
required regarding the type of aeroplane?
a.
Wake turbulence category
b.
Optimum cruising mach number
c.
Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude
d.
Minimum equipment list
45. When is a flight plan `closed'?

a.
b.
c.
d.
When it is complete and ready for filing

When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing'
When the aeroplane arrives at the destination
On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome
46. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
If you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated
Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do?
a.
b.
c.
d.
51.
Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!)
You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be
reported by AIRPROX procedures
When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible

Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700
and make an approach to land
Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC
If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the
left, and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
52.
Prior to operating any controlled flight

Prior to entry into controlled airspace
Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several
aerodromes en route
At least 30 minutes prior to take off
If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
If the cloud ceiling is more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less
Unless authorised, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a. FL150(Correct)
b. FL245
c. FL200
d. FL 180
54.
When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m
radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?
a.
b.
c.
d.
En route outside of an ATZ

Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore
In class G airspace in daylight
Only where necessary for take off and landing
56.
You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC
much longer. What should you do'?
a.
b.
c.
d.
57.
You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking
avoiding action. What should you do?
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
In good VMC
Above 24 500 ft
Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique
If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
61.
What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC
How much day light is left
Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the
destination
When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A
airspace?
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared
You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before
making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?
a.
b.
c.
d.
59.
File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance

If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome
Get a Special VFR clearance and continue
Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the Air Traffic Controllers
sort it out.
No
Yes, always
Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
Yes if you are flying in IMC
If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Help
Mayday
Pan Pan
Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
62.
If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?
a.
b.
c.
d.
64.
You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower,
what does it mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
c.
d.
c.
d.
Glider flying is in progress

Take-off and landing are not restricted to the same direction
Right hand circuit in force
Non radio traffic is permitted to use this aerodrome
You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are
clear to continue taxiing
It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.
A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean?
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
The Tower controller is scaring the birds away

An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop
immediately
You have not acknowledged the clearance to land
Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being
You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC
watch. You see this yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?
a.
b.
67.
Give way to an approaching aeroplane

Return to the starting point
Stop
Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway
You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare fired
from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?
a.
b.
66.
The frequency in use

121.500 Mhz
119.100 Mhz
123.450 Mhz
I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane.

I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this
parking bay
This is your parking bay
Stop immediately
You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate tot
he marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first?
a.
Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing
to no 2 engine
b.
c.
d.
Raise a hand with two fingers extended

Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched
fist
Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting
73. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
NDB and ILS

VOR and NDB
VOR and DME
NDB and DME
74. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach

Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach
Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal
En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating
77. During the latter stages of an instrument approach, track accuracy is of paramount importance as it is the
major factor in defining the limits of the obstacle clearance zone which leads to calculation of DH. Which of the
following facilities is the most accurate for providing track guidance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
VOR
ILS localiser
ILS glide path
NDB
79. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
80.
Not less than 3.5%

3.5
About 300ft/km
Should not exceed 5%
Where does the initial approach segment end?

a.
At the start of the final approach segment
b.
At the FAF
c.
Overhead the facility upon which the procedure is based
d.
At the intermediate fix
81. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance my not be achieved
The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this
track may result in a collision with other approaching aircraft
The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane
The initialisation of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires
the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.
82. Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg?
a.
b.
c.
d.
86.
d.
When transiting the Aerodrome Traffic Zone

Within a zone if the aerodrome is within a CTR
When flying en-route in the vicinity of an aerodrome if regional QNH is below the subscale of
the altimeter
For terrain clearance during the final approach to a runway
If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight?
a.
b.
c.
d.
97.
As a flight level
It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter
As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending
It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep
When/where is the use of aerodrome QFE permitted?

a.
b.
c.
96.
All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area
To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area
To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area
2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of
the holding area on the holding side of the pattern
When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported?
a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
1 1/2 minutes starting over or abeam the fix

1 minute starting abeam the fix
It is determined by either distance or time, whichever is specified
Not less than 5nm
The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of
obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends:
a.
b.
c.
d.
89.
At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase

At the missed approach point (MAPt)
At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued
At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach
No, you must get if fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace
Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace
Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form
Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled
flights
What do the initials SRA mean?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Separated Radar Approach

Simplex Radar Application
Secondary Radar Approach
Surveillance Radar Approach
99. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing
facility providing the basis for an instrument approach?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Minimum Safe Altitude

Minimum Sector Altitude
Mandatory Safety Area
Maximum Speed Area
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 7

P r o ced u r e s fo r Air Na v i ga tio n Se r vic es / Air cr a f t Op er at io n s
Sec tio n - 1
Q
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
Ans.
C
D
B
A
B
A
A
D
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
A
B
B
D
B
B
D
B
C
C
Ref.
2.1.2
2.1.2.2
2.16.1/2
2.16.1
2.1.3.3a
6.1.1
2.1.4.1
2.2.3
2.3.1
2.6.2
2.7
2.7.1
2.8.1
2.3.1/9.1
2.10.4c
2.10.2
2.11.1
2.11.4
7.14.1
2.16.2
2.13.1
2.13.2aii
5.2.1.a
5.3.6
5.3.7
Q
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Ans.
B
D
C
A
D
C
C
D
D
A
B
A
A
D
C
D
D
C
A
D
A
B
D
B
A
Ref.
5.3.9
5.3.10
5.3.2
5.5.4
5.5.4.c
5.6.1
5.7.4.b
5.7.5.b
7.12.5
6.2.4
6.2.5d
6.2.6
6.2.12.b2
6.2.12.e
6.2.13.a2
6.2.14
6.2.15.al
6.2.15.a2
6.2.15.0
6.2.15.f
6.2.17
6.2.18
6.3.1
6.2.21.c2
6.2.21.c5
Q
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
Ans.
B
C
C
D
B
B
A
B
D
C
C
B
A
B
D
A
C
C
B
B
C
C
C
B
C
Ref.
6.7.4(l)
6.3.2
6.3.3.a(1)
6.3.3.c(l)
6.3.4
6.2.19
6.3.1
6.4.4.1
6.4.5
6.4.6.b
6.6.2
6.7.2.c
6.8.2
6.9.2
6.9.2
6.9.4.m
6.9.3.2
6.10.1
6.10.2
7.3.1.2
7.3.2.1
7.3.3
7.3.5
7.5.1.1
7.5.1
Q
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Ans.
D
B
B
D
D
D
B
B
A
C
B
C
A
B
C
D
B
A
D
B
D
D
A
B
C
Ref.
7.5.2
7.5.7.ai
7.5.7.2.ai
7.5.10
7.7.1
7.8.2
7.7.1
7.5.3.C
7.11.5
7.11.6
7.11.8
7.11.8.c
7.12.6
7.12.5
7.12.7
7.12.9
7.13.1.a
7.13.3
7.13.3
7.14.1
7.14.3.c
7.15.2
7.15.2.1.a
7.5.1.4
6.1.5
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 7 S ect io n -2
2.
Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
To the left
To the left then right
To the right
Procedure turn right then left
Rate of turn of 3 /sec

Rate of turn of 3 /sec or 20 bank whichever is lesser
Rate of turn of 30/sec or at a bank angle of 25 whichever is lesser
Bank angle of 25
What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided?

a) 25nm
b) 10nm
c) 15nm
d) 15km
6.
What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30 leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a
holding pattern?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft.
without special ATC clearance?
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
1 1/2 mins
2 1/2 mins
3 mins
30 secs -
230 kts
285 kts
250 kts
240 kts
What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a) 5.5%
b) 2.5%
c) 0.8%
d) 3.3%
12. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

a)
b)
c)
d)
An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information

An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an
ILS or a PAR
An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information
16.
In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:
a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
When carrying out a 45/180 procedure turn in Class C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45 leg be ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
1 minute
1 minute 15 seconds
1 minute 30 seconds
2 minutes
What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
21.
OCH/A
200ft
350ft
400ft
0.83 Mach
490 km/hr (265 kts)
315 km/hr (170 kts)
520 km/hr (280 kts)
What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from
the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
30
45
120
15
23. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6
24. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
a) DH
b) FAF
c) FAP
d) MAPT
25. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with
track reversal. This is called:
a)
Base Turn
b)
Procedure Turn
c)
Reverse Procedure
d)
Racetrack
28. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)?
a)
only determined for Cats A & B
b)
only determined for Cats C, D & E
c)
different for all Cats
d)
the same for all Cats
30. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2nm
1 nm
3nm
1/2 nm
32. Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern?

a)
b)
c)
d)
left
right
depends on w/v
depends on entry made
33. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome
setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Transition altitude
Transition level
300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher
within the transition layer
34. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways?

a)
b)
c)
d)
RVR 350m
RVR 200
RVR 200
RVR 300
DH
DH
DH
DH
not
not
not
not
below
below
below
below
100ft
100ft
200ft
200ft
35. When is OCH for an ILS approach complied with?

a)
b)
c)
d)
not
not
not
not
more
more
more
more
than
than
than
than
1/2 scale glide path and full scale localiser deflection

1/2 scale localiser deflection
1/2 scale glide path and 35 localiser deflection
full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localiser deflection
36. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance?
a)
b)
c)
d)
+/+/+/+/-
5
10
15
20
37. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 kms
3 runs
5 kms
5 nms
38. What is the width of the zone of flexibility regarding which procedure to execute when joining a holding
pattern?
a)
+/-5
b)
+/-10
c)
+/-15
d)
+/-20
39. What range would the radar service be normally terminated for an SRA?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 nm
1.5 nm
2 nm
4 nm
41. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Initial segment
Final segment
Arrival segment
Intermediate segment
42. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold of
the landing runway. What do you do?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Carry out the missed approach procedure

Turn through 90 and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference
Head towards the FAF
Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves
43. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision

Non-precision and Precision in general
Precision CAT I / II / III
Instrument precision and CAT 11/111
44. What is the transition level?

a)
b)
c)
d)
The first flight level above the transition altitude

The highest flight level available below the transition altitude
The top of the ATZ
The level at which 1013 is set
46. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the runway and
descent commenced?
a) Final
b) Initial
c) Intermediate
d) Arrival
48. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land:
a)
the same for Cat A and B aircraft
b)
Different for each category
c)
The same for Cats A, B and D
d)
The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D
50. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA?
a) Yes
b) Never
c) Sometimes
d) It depends on the flight conditions
51. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:

a) 3%
b) 3.3%
c) 5%
d) 2.5%
54. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Base turn
Procedure turn
Reversal procedure
Racetrack procedure
56. When following a SID, the pilot must:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it

Fly the heading without wind correction
Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind
58. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
a)
b)
c)
d)
From where a new instrument approach can be commenced

Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
Where a climb is established
At the missed approach point
59. Who determines OCA/H?

a)
b)
c)
d)
The operator
The flight operations department
The authority of the State
The Commander
63. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:
a)
b)
c)
d)
/4 scale deflection
1'/2 scale deflection
1 scale deflection
1/2 scale deflection
65. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable?
a)
Aircraft magnetic heading
b)
Aircraft true track
c)
Aircraft track over the ground
d)
Aircraft compass heading
66. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a heading of
232 magnetic. What type of join should you make?
a) Direct
b) Parallel
c) Offset or Parallel
d) Reciprocal
67. What is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold?
a) 5
b) 2.5
c) 10
d) 2
68. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?
a)
b)
c)
d)
When a height of 50m has been achieved and maintained

When established in the climb
When en-route either to the hold or departure
70. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy of.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1/4 scale
1/2 scale
1 scale
1 1/2 scale
71. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 1 10, the max IAS is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
170
240
230
280
kt
kt
kt
kt
72. The abbreviation OIS means:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Obstacle in surface
Obstruction in surface
Obstruction identification surface
Obstacle identification surface
74. Which of the following defines a standard holding procedure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft

Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft
Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14 000 ft
Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000ft
76. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing

Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach
Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach
Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing
78. In a category A aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air?
a)
45/180 procedure turn
b)
80/260 procedure turn
c)
Base turn
d)
Racetrack
79. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the
minimum obstacle clearance provided?
a)
b)
c)
d)
300m
At least 300m
150m
At least 150m
80. When conducting a procedure turn (45/180), for how long should the 45 leg be flown for a Cat A or Cat B
aircraft ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 minute 30 seconds
1 minute
1 minute 15 seconds
2 minutes
82. What are the phases of the Missed Approach Procedure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Initial, intermediate and final

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final
Initial and final
Arrival, intermediate and final
83. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the position
for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Visual Approach
Aerodrome traffic pattern
Visual Manoeuvring (circling)
Contact Approach
85. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
You are 50 ft above the nominal glidepath

The fix is passed no lower than the specified crossing altitude
You leave the intermediate approach altitude step-by-step until reaching the MAPt
The fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min.
87. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach:

a)
b)
c)
d)
conducted by a crew consisting of at least 2 pilots who are properly trained

which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information, provided that the pilot uses a flight
director or an autopilot and is certified to a height of 200 ft.
which uses azimuth, distance and elevation information
which uses azimuth and elevation information
89. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
15 nms (28 kms)

30 nms (55 kms)
25 nms (46 kms)
20 runs (37 kms)
90. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
a) 800m
b) 550m
c) 50m
d) 550ft
91. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
a)
b)
c)
d)
I minute 30 seconds
1 minute
2 minutes 30 seconds
2 minutes
92. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
At the IF
At the IAF
At the FAF
At the final en-route fix
93. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
94. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
a)
b)
c)
d)
When it seems possible to land

When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
When the tower is visible
98. Turns in a standard holding pattern are:

a)
b)
c)
d)
in a direction dependent on the wind

in a direction dependent on the type of entry
left handed
right handed
99. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound
aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to
a)
b)
c)
d)
make a step-down descent in approaching sequence

pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
pass a specific point
101.
Your transponder fails prior to departure and it is not practical to effect a repair.
ATC is required to:
a)
Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair
can be made
Permit you to proceed as normal
Forbid you from taking off
Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan
b)
c)
d)
103.
A visual circling approach procedure:

a)
b)
c)
d)
104.
can only be conducted under radar control

is a visual manoeuvre conducted under IMC
entails the radar controller providing separation
has to be conducted with visual reference to the ground
When can an aircraft descend below MSA?

1)
the airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so
2)
the aircraft is under radar control
3)
the underlying terrain is visible
4)
the aircraft is following an approach procedure
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4
1, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 7 P r o ced ur e s fo r Air Na v i ga tio n Ser v ic e s / Air cr a f t

Op er a tio n s Se ctio n -2
1A
2C
3C
4A
5A
6A
7C
8A
9B
10 A
11 D
12 C
13 B
14 B
15 B
16 A
17 C
18 C
19 B
20 C
21 C
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 B
26 C
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
A
C
B
A
D
B
B
A
B
A
D
A
C
A
B
A
A
A
C
A
B
B
B
A
D
A
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
A
B
D
D
B
C
C
A
D
D
D
B
A
C
A
B
A
B
C
D
B
A
D
B
C
B
79 B
80 B
81 B
82 A
83 C
84 A
85 B
86 A
87 D
88 C
89 C
90 A
91 A
92 B
93 A
94 C
95 D
96 A
97 C
98 D
99 B
100 D
101 A
102 B
103 D
104 A
1.
What is the definition of Distress?

a)
b)
c)
d)
An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires

immediate assistance
Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued
The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome
The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or
within sight
2.
What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)?

a)
A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and
imminent danger
b)
A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted
c)
A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety
d)
A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency
5.
In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted?
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of
approaching aircraft for at least
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
250 kts TAS

250 kts IAS
Not applicable
200 kts IAS
Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
7nms
5 rims
15 rims
20 rims
What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
D
E
A
B
Discrete VHF frequency only

Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR
VHF frequency or on ILS frequency
ILS only
Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
FIC or the relevant ATCU

The State and ATC
The Area Control and the RCC
RCC and the FIR
11.
What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
The Distress Phase

The Alarm Phase
The Alert Phase
A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase
Note : Although this is within the scope of Chapter 8, the reference is under Definitions contained in Chapter 18
of the Air Law Notes.
12.
FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:
a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service:

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
ATC clearance
Two way radio
ATC clearance
ATC clearance
and two way radio are required

not required
and/or two way radio are required
is required
Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
Radar, SAR and FIS

Area, Approach and Aerodrome
Radar, Procedural and FIS
Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.
For VFR flight in class E airspace:

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
C,D,E,F,G
F and G only
F
A,B,C,D,E,F,G
country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier

country identifier followed by P/D/R
P/D/R followed by the identifier
country identifier followed by numbers
Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway?

a)
b)
c)
d)
the State
the State + ICAO
ICAO
RAN
18.
In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other
VFR traffic?
a) B
b) BODE
c) BC
d) BCD
19.
What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.
What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?
a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome

The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace
The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace
The controlling of IFR traffic
control area
Air Traffic Zone
control zone
TMA
What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic?
a) C
b) D
c) C
d) F
23.
The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:

a) 300m
b) 150m
c) 200m
d) 500m
24.
How often is an ATIS updated?

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR

When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity
When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum
When there is a significant change in information.
RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route
would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a) 98%
b) 93%
c) 95%
d) 90%
26.
In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C; D and E
27.
The lower boundary of an UIR must be:

a)
An IFR flight level
b)
A VFR flight level
c)
Is not specified
d)
At any flight level
28.
List the services provided in a FIR:

a)
b)
c)
d)
30.
Who organises the RNP specification for airspace?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.
FIS only
FIS, advisory ATC, ATC
FIS, aerodrome control
FIS, alerting service
The State in which the airspace is located

ICAO
The State + ICAO
States who agree what the RNP should be
What is the upper limit of a CTA?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2,000 ft
3,000 ft
5,000 ft
A VFR Flight Level
33.
In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service
for separation?
a) F
b) E
c) G
d) D
35.
You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:

a)
b)
c)
d)
36.
separate
separate
separate
separate
you from all

you from all
you from all
you from all
traffic
IFR traffic
arriving traffic
VFR traffic
In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without a radio?

a)
b)
c)
d)
E&G
D
E, D
C, D, E
37.
In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR
separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
38.
In class C airspace, what flights are separated?

a)
All flights
b)
IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR
c)
IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR
d)
IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR
40.
An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing
and communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service
will be declared by the ATSU ?
a) DETRESFA
b) INCERFA
c) ALERFA
d) EMERGFA
41.
A Control Zone has to exist to at least:

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
20 rims from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Air Traffic Coordination Centres

Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres
Search and Rescue Coordination Centres
Air Traffic Control Centres only
44.
According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of lowlevel aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the FIR
concerned or sub-area thereof."
a)
b)
c)
d)
NOTAM
SIGMET Information
AIRMET Information
En-route Weather Report
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 8 Air T r a f fi c S er v ic es

1A
11 D
21 C
31 D
41 A
2C
12 A
22 D
32 A
42 B
3D
13 B
23 C
33 A
43 C
4D
14 B
24 D
34 B
44 C
5D
15 A
25 C
35 A
6D
16 B
26 C
36 A
7B
17 A
27 B
37 C
8B
18 A
28 D
38 D
9B
19 D
29 B
39 B
10 A
20 C
30 A
40 C
1.
When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1)
He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR
flight"
2)
He/she must request and obtain clearance
3)
ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4)
The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is
correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
4.
What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z
b) Y
c) I
d) V
What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
2 and 3
2 and 4
1 and 3
1 and 4
30 minutes
30 minutes
60 minutes
60 minutes
What is the standard ICAO position report?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time
Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time
Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time
7.
After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight?
a)
15 mins
b)
30 mins
c)
45 mins
d)
60 mins
8.
How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?

a)
Ground speed
b)
True airspeed
c)
Ground speed plus 10%
d)
Indicated airspeed
10.
You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do
you do?
a)
Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b)
Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c)
Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation
d)
Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours
11.
You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
Time from brakes off to overhead the destination

Time from brakes released to landing time
Time from take off to overhead the destination
Time from take off to landing
30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time

60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
30 minutes more than the estimated departure time
60 minutes more than the estimated departure time
What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?

a)
b)
c)
d)
present position and ETA

estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
ETA and endurance
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 9

P r o ced u r e s fo r Air T r a f f ic M a na ge me nt ( P AN S R AC D OC - 4 4 4 4 )
1C
11C
2B
12A
3B
13D
4A
14 A
5C
6A
7D
8B
9B
10C
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 1 0
1.
What types of separation do ATC apply?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
What is a strayed aircraft?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
If the pilot requests and the state approves

If the pilot requests and it is day time
If the pilot requests during day or night
Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted
Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is:

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
80 nm
60 nm
50 nm
20 nm
When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in
VMC maintaining own separation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
20 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
15 minutes
What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
One that has gone significantly off-track

One that is lost and has reported so to ATC
Both a and b.
One which its position has not been established by ATC
If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation
is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
Horizontal, longitudinal and timing

Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal
Horizontal , vertical and composite
Horizontal, vertical and lateral
80 nm
50 nm
80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type
20 nm
If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
5 nm
10 nm
15 nm
20 nm
9.
Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of
another aircraft. What is required?
a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920" What does this mean?
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
The flight must end by 0920

The slot time cannot be later than 0920
The next clearance will be issued at 0920
Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight hasn't commenced
What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval
You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night
You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre
In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal
10 nm where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
Two aircraft are using the Mach Number technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than
second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu
of time?
a)
b)
c)
d)
80 nm
60 nm
50 nm
25 nm
15.
Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is the
minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal
separation?
a) 150nm
b) 50nm
c) 80nm
d) 120nm
18.
A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed,
assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum is:
a)
b)
C)
d)
60 nms
80 nms
50 rims
20 nms
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 0 Ar ea Co n tr o l S er vi ce

1C
11D
2C
12B
3A
13A
4C
14B
5A
15C
6B
16B
7C
17D
8C
18B
9A
19D
10A
1.
At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what
change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
When the second aircraft reports leaving the level

When the second aircraft reports 1,000 ft out of the level
When the second aircraft reports at the cleared level
When the second aircraft reports through 500 ft from the original level
On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach:

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
5 minutes or more
10 minutes or more
1 minute or more
15 minutes or more
If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can
the first aircraft start descending to that level?
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
All arriving and departing controlled flights

All arriving IFR traffic
Traffic within the CTA
All VFR traffic
A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously
transmitted by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
2 minutes
Approach control is provided for:

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
10 kts
8 kts
3 kts
5 kts
after the FAF

with visual reference to the terrain
when the visibility is greater than 5km
after the MAP
A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach?
.
a)
when the controller will provide separation from other traffic
b)
the aircraft has passed the FAF
c)
with a met visibility at least 8kms
d)
the remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.
9.
Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What
separation should be provided?
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
2 mins
3 mins
5 mins
7 mins
On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least:
a) 45
b) 15
c) 30
d) 20
11.
When can normal separation be reduced?

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA?
a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
make a step-down descent in approaching sequence

pass the specified inbound fix at a given time
conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds
pass a specific point
According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a)
b)
c)
d)
18.
When it seems possible to land

When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights
When the tower is visible
The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of
inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
When the controller has both aircraft in sight

When the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it
When both pilots request it
When both aircraft are under radar control
before landing and taxi for take-off

in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60 N and South of 60 S
when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give an
AIREP
when the local variation is greater than 10East or West
What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second on departure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 mins
5 mins
10 mins
4 mins
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 1 Ap p r o ac h C o nt r o l Ser v ice

1D
2B
3A
4D
5A
6A
7B
8A
9A
10A
11B
12D
13B
14B
15C
16B
17A
18A
19A
1.
What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to
an aircraft on final approach?
a) 5nm
b) 3nm
c) 2nm
d) 4nm
2.
What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
Always
At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC
At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions
Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion
Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence?
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Separation
Helping when aircraft communications have failed
To assist pilots with technical problems
To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost
When must you operate your SSR transponder?

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
5 min
3 min
1 min
2 min
What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
It must be located within a CTR

It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
It must have a control tower and be in a CTR
It must be in controlled airspace
4 nms
2.5 nms
2 nms
3 nms
The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
40 kts
5 kts
10 kts
20 kts
11.
To whom is the alerting service provided?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means:
a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Degrees true, to be corrected for wind

Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind
Degrees true
Degrees magnetic
When should you use a SSR mode C transponder?

a)
b)
c)
d)
24.
in controlled airspace
when requested by ATC
in uncontrolled airspace
when under radar control
If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading:
a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
45
15
30 or more
a minimum of 25
When may the pilot operate the ìdent' switch on the transponder?
a)
b)
c)
d)
21.
5nm
3nm
10nm
15nm
A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned?
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
The pilot is responsible for own navigation

Radar vectoring is terminated
The pilot should contact next ATC unit
The pilot should contact the current ATC unit
What is standard radar separation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
All IFR traffic

All flight-planned aircraft
All hijacked aircraft
All traffic known to ATC
Only when directed by ATC

Always
Always in controlled airspace
Only in controlled airspace
What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy?

a)
2 mins
b)
3 mins
c)
4 mins
d)
5 mins
25.
What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?
a)
b)
c)
d)
5 nm
5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second
10 nm
20 nm
26.
The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation
applied as required is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
28.
If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a)
b)
c)
d)
30.
Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity

Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
Aircraft on the movement area only
Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only
On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence
separation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
33.
At pilots discretion
Dependant on weather conditions
At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC
Not less than 30
Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:

a)
b)
c)
d)
32.
A/2000 + C
A/7500 + C
A/7600 + C
A/7700 + C
During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be:

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.
6 nms
2.5 runs
4 nms
2 nms
5 nm
2.5 nm
2 run
1 nm
What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category
aircraft on final approach?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.5 run
3 nm
5 nm
6 nm
37.
The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in
distress are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
38.
A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway.
What wake turbulence separation will be applied?
a)
b)
c)
d)
41.
b)
c)
d)
the aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are
communicating with this radar facility
ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning
traffic until you are notified that contact is lost
your aircraft is identified on the radar screen
you receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or
radar service is terminated
The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified
take-off mass of an aircraft is less or equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
2 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
4 minutes
What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean?

a)
43.
3 minutes
2 minutes
5 minutes
1 minute
Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a
heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase

uncertainty phase, alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase
uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase
uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase
5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters

14,000 kg
20,000 kg
7,000 kg
If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector must
be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than:
a) 20
b) 30
c) 15
d) 25
.
45.
The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a)
light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b)
medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c)
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d)
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 2

Aer o d r o me Co ntr o l, R AD AR Ser v ice s, Ad vi so r y Ser v ice a nd Aler ti n g S e r v ice
1D
2B
3D
4A
5B
6B
7C
8B
9A
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 D
14 B
15 A
16 A
17 C
18 C
19 D
20 B
21 D
22 B
23 B
24 A
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 D
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 D
36 B
37 C
38 A
39 A
40 D
41 A
42 C
43 D
44 B
45 D
46 A
47 A
2.
In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures?
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) None
3.
An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

a) GEN
b) ENR
c) AD
d) COMMS
5.
Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
A check list for NOTAMs is issued:

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
every 5 days
every 28 days
every 18 days
at intervals of not more than one month.
AIP approach charts do not give information for Instrument Approach Procedures for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
GEN
COMMS
AD
AGA
OCA/H
Visibility minima
Obstacles protruding above the obstacle free zone
DME frequencies
AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this
respect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 yr
2 months
3 months
6 months
9.
AIRAC is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
What information is not on an aerodrome approach plate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
DME frequency
OCA
Dominant obstacles
Operating minima if the aerodrome is being used as an alternative
Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found?
a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
A breakdown service
Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP
A medical evacuation flight
An Army Air Corps publication
ENR
SUPP
AD
GEN
Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?
a) ENR
b) SUPP
c) AD
d) GEN
14.
What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.
Between. 1.0 and 0.25

Between 0.25 and 0.3
Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):

a)
b)
c)
d)
Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organisation

only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground
has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organisation, but the activities are neither
continuous or regular
can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 3 Aer o na ut ic a l I n fo r ma tio n S er vic e s

1A
11 C
2B
12 A
3A
13 A
4A
14 C
5A
15 D
6D
16 D
7B
17 C
8C
9B
10 D
5.
A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a
distance of at least:
a)
100 metres
b)
200 metres
c)
300 metres
d)
500 metres
7.
How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a)
02.03.04
b)
The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10
c)
The L and R runways will have differing QDM's
d)
`L' `C' `R'
9.
What is a stopway for?

a)
Stopping after landing distance
b)
Extending the Landing Distance Available
c)
Stopping after an aborted take off
d)
A runway extension for big aircraft
11.
A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:

a)
closed runway
b)
runway which is 2400 meters or longer
c)
displaced runway
d)
runway available for circling to land approaches
14.
The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is
prepared as a suitable area:
a)
To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b)
To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c)
To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d)
To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway
15.
Which of the following statements is correct?

a)
Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b)
Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways
c)
A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d)
The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters
16.
A PAPI system consists of

a)
2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformally spaced
b)
1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformally spaced
c)
d)
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 4 Aer o d r o me s
1B
11C
2D
12B
3A
13C
4D
14 A
5C
15B
6D
16B
7D
8D
9C
10 A
1.
How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
2.
Lead in lights are:

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
What colour are runway end lights?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
150 metres
200 metres
250 metres
300 metres
What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Omni directional green

Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach
Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach
Red uni-directional
On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
Unidirectional red
Unidirectional white
Omni directional red
Omni directional white
What is the colour of threshold lighting?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
Green at threshold across the runway

White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
Yellow
Steady white across the runway
Red or yellow
White
Yellow
Blue
An aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is:

a)
b)
c)
d)
blue
white
green
red
9.
What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
What is the colour of threshold lights?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.
Only flashing lights

A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway
Arbitrary number of green lights
Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway
On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway
and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft?
a)
b)
c)
d)
20.
Fixed showing blue

Fixed showing green
Fixed showing yellow
Flashing showing blue
Runway lead-in lights must consist of.

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.
Black on red, or red on black

Yellow on red, or black on yellow
Yellow on black, or black on yellow
Orange on black, or black on orange
Taxiway edge lights are:

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.
300 m
600 m
900 m
1200 m
Aerodrome information signs are:

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.
Steady white
Flashing white
Steady green
Flashing green
What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.
Flashing Green
Flashing Green and White
Steady Green
Flashing White
Under the approach glide path

Above the approach glide path
Precisely on the glide path
On or close to the approach glide path
The abbreviation "PAPI" stands for:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Precision Approach Path Index

Precision Approach Power Indicator
Precision Approach Path Indicator
Precision Approach Power Index
21.
What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only

White flashes only
Green flashes only
Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 5 Aer o d r o me Li g ht s a nd S i g n s

1A
2B
3A
4A
5B
6D
7B
8C
9A
10C
11C
12A
13A
14C
15A
16B
17B
18D
19D
20C
21A
22B
1.
What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are:

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
low intensity steady red lights

low intensity flashing red lights
medium intensity steady red lights
medium intensity flashing red lights
Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confides of an aerodrome?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
Green
Dayglo orange
A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green
White and red chequered
An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
9.
Flashing yellow
Flashing red
Flashing blue
Steady red
What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Flashing green
Flashing yellow
Steady red
Steady blue
What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome required to show?
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
Blue
Steady red
Yellow
Flashing red
No, providing the response time can be met

Yes
No
No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time of the aerodrome
The level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the aerodrome. What
factors determine this category?
a)
Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the largest
aircraft using that aerodrome
b)
The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered
c)
The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome
d)
The length of the longest runway and total area of hardstandings (including access roads)
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 6 Aer o d r o me Ob s tac le s a n d E mer g e nc y Ser v ice s

1B
2C
3A
4B
5A
6C
7C
8A
9A
10 C
5.
The General Declaration is signed by the:

a)
b)
c)
d)
The Pilot in Command only

The Pilot in Command or the Agent
Any flight crew member
The Operator
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 7 F aci li ta tio n

1B
2A
3B
4C
5B
2.
What does the SAR signal "X" on the ground mean?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
Wait for aircraft 3 to arrive

Aircraft 2 because he has good communications with ATC
Aircraft 2 until aircraft 3 arrives
Aircraft 1 until aircraft 2 arrives who then passes control to aircraft 3
Which of the following means `Require assistance'?

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
During the hours of operation of an FIR

On a 24 hour basis
hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR
During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR
Three aircraft are at the scene of an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2
arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft.
Who assumes responsibility ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
We need help
We are OK
We need medical supplies
We have gone away
Y
X
LL
V
When sighting a distress flare at night, you should:

a)
b)
c)
d)
Circle once
Flash landing lights or navigation lights
Rock wings
Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft
9.
Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.
What does the SAR ground signal "V" mean?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.
FIC and RCC

RCC and rescue sub-centres
FIC, RCC and ACC
ICAO through regional navigation plans
We have gone south

We need assistance
We need medical assistance
Yes
Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is:
a)
++
b)
LLL
c)
LL
d)
Y
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 8 S ear c h a nd Re sc u e

1A
2C
3C
4B
5D
6D
7B
8D
9B
10 B
I1 C
12 C
2.
In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean?

a)
To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference
b)
To safeguard international civil aviation operations
c)
To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hijacking
d)
To safeguard international civil aviation operations against terrorism
3.
ICAO Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at:
a)
all aerial locations within the FIR
b)
at each aerodrome serving international civil aviation
c)
all international airports
d)
all international and commercial airports
4.
Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to Unlawful Interference, to safeguard:
a)
Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights
b)
Passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public
c)
Crews only for international flights
d)
Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their discretion, all of these for
domestic flights
5.
If armed personnel are to be carried to ensure the safety of an aircraft, then:

a)
the PIC must be informed
b)
the state of departure must notify the state of arrival
c)
the state of departure must notify the airport of arrival
d)
all of the above
6.
According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended
to safeguard:
a)
civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
b)
international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
c)
international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
d)
aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"
7.
Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for the carriage of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Deportees and people under lawful custody

Deportees, people under lawful custody and inadmissibles
Only people under lawful custody when physically restrained
Only deportees and inadmissibles
8.
Airlines are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers confined to:
a)
Inadmissibles, deportees, persons in custody
b)
Persons in custody
c)
Inadmissibles, deportees
d)
Deportees, persons in custody
9.
An aircraft subjected to Unlawful Interference cannot be denied:

a)
Permission to land and fuel
b)
Air Traffic Services, permission to land and the use of navigational aids.
c)
Food and water for the occupants of the aircraft
d)
Air Traffic Services and fuel
10.
To whom does the National Security organisation of a state have to make available a written version of
its national security programme for civil aviation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
ICAO and ECAC

ICAO
ECAC
Other States
11.
For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be
taken among which is to:
a)
Embark after all other passengers
b)
Embark before all other passengers
c)
Embarking at the captain's discretion
d)
Embarking at the State's discretion
12.
An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is
never less than ............ metres from other parking positions:
a)
1,000
b)
2,500
c)
3,000
d)
100
13.
A national civil aviation security programme must be established by:

a)
ICAO and other organisations including the Contracting States concerned
b)
ICAO
c)
All Contracting States
d)
ECAC
14.
Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport of
undesirable passengers. These are seen as:
a)
None of the answers are correct
b)
Deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody
c)
Deportees and inadmissible passengers only
d)
Deportees and persons in custody
15.
The State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft subjected to
an act of unlawful interference until:
a)
the end of the subsequent investigation
b)
as such time as requested by the passengers and crew
c)
their journey can be continued
d)
they are returned to their country of origin
16.
A person found to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody of the operator who shall be responsible
for:
a)
transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator without redress.
b)
transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person
is admissible at the expense of the operator. However nothing precludes the operator from
recovering from such a person any transportation costs arising from his/her inadmissibility.
c)
returning such a person to their country of origin
d)
returning such a person to their normal residence
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 1 9 S ec ur it y

1B
11B
2A
12 D
3B
13 A
4B
14 B
5D
15 C
6B
16 B
7B
8A
9B
10 D
1.
According to ICAO, who is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident Investigation Board

(AAIB)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2.
An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage. Is
this:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3.
An ICAO (working) language

English
Major national language
Any language of a contracting state
The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:
a)
b)
c)
d)
6.
State of Occurrence
State or Registry
ICAO
Combination of A and B
In which language must an accident report be submitted to ICAO?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.
an incident
an accident
a serious incident
covered by normal operating procedures
Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.
State of Registry and state of aircraft manufacture

State of Registry, aircraft operator and state of operator
Any state which on request provides assistance or information to help the AAIB.
Any ICAO state
Apportion blame
Nothing else
To improve manufacturing design
To help judicial investigations
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a
nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where the aircraft is registered which says
that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
7.
Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride
into a pothole. The aircraft has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay
the departure:
a)
considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to be
taken is merely constricted to notification of the insurance company, the mechanic, the operator
and persons who are in charge of runways and taxiways
b)
This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures
c)
This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours
d)
This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the operator about the delay
caused by necessary repairs
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 2 0 Air cr a f t Ac cid e n t a nd I n cid e nt I n v e st i ga tio n
1C
2B
3A
4A
5B
6B
7B
1.
It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC
describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
What information concerning contaminants on an aerodrome is reported by SNOWTAM?

a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
The threshold
A temporary displaced threshold
A displace threshold
1000 ft from the end zone
What marks a runway holding position?

a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
White
Green
Yellow
Green/yellow
What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
50m
100 m
150 m
200 m
What colour is taxiway centre line markings?

a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
Clear ice, rime ice and snow

Light snow, heavy snow and blizzard
Snow, ice and standing water
Wet snow, dry snow and frozen snow
Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to
unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays?
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Wet
Damp
Not dry
Braking action poor
One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway

Occulting yellow `guard' lights
A red marker board either side of the taxiway
A red light stop bar
What colour are apron safety lines?

a.
b.
c.
d.
White
Red
Green
A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings
10.
Do all runways require centreline markings?

a.
b.
c.
d.
13.
A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance

provided they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
A stopbar
A pattern A runway holding position
Cat 1 holding point
A taxiway/runway intersection sign
For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign
positioned?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
6
5
4
3
Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
Notification of no smoking areas

Volcanic activity
Predicted volcanic eruptions
Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination
On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required?
a.
b.
c.
d.
18.
3
5
7
9
What is an ASHTAM used for?

a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
No, only paved runways

No, only runways over 50 m wide
No, only instrument runways
Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long
30 m
at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
60 m
A distance equal to twice the width of the runway
Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the

type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Length and max take-off mass

Max number of passengers and crew
Overall length and fuselage width
Max landing mass and max number of passengers
21.
What is the ICAO bird strike information system called?

a. IBSI
b. IBIS
c. IRIS
d. BSIS
22.
An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations are
carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
c.
d.
From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace
On a 24 hour basis
When a state of emergency has been declared
When the authority of the state deems necessary
What is the meaning of this SAR Nvisual signal when used by survivors on the ground?
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries

To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute
aerodrome
To replace the crew member's licence
To provide identification of aircrew
When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state?
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold

By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
By a yellow X
By white crosses evenly spaced
What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate?

a.
b.
26.
High intensity white flashing lights

Red flashing lights
Steady (non flashing) red lights
A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and 180 m.
Require assistance
Negative
Affirmative
Require medical assistance
25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the
runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Water patches
Flooded
Damp
Wet
33.
Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track
separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's
level?
a.
b.
c.
d.
35.
What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval of one
minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved?
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
d.
faster
faster
faster
faster
than the
than the
than the
than the
following aircraft
following aircraft
following aircraft
following aircraft
Wing span of 35m or more

Four turbojet engines
Take off mass of 145 000 kg
245 passenger seats
Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other
What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic
advisory service?
a.
b.
c.
d.
42.
be 20kts
be 40kts
be 50kts
be 60kts
What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?

a.
b.
c.
41.
The preceding aircraft must

What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
10
15
30
45
For a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track, what is
the required speed difference?
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
15 and a distance of 15 nm or more

15 and a distance of 15 Km or more
30 and a distance of 15 nm or more
30 and a distance of 15 Km or more
Keep clear of all notified advisory routes

Fly at VFR flight levels
File a flight plan
Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the service
An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service w ishes to cross an advisory route.
procedure shall be used to cross the route'?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL75: FL95 etc..

Cross at 90 to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level
Cross at 90" to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level
Such crossings ire only to be made at the base of the airway
What
45.
Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane to

which a service is to be given'?
a.
b.
c.
d.
47.
A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HFAVY category aircraft on a

radar vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied'?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
b.
c.
d.
When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently
maintained
An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance
Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the
landing is to be made
What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system within 60
m of the centre line?
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path
Distance from touchdown and advisory height information
Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH
Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line
Which of the following defines a visual approach?

a.
54.
Resume position reports

Squawk standby
Squawk A/2000
Leave controlled airspace
If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar
controller pass to you?
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
5 nm
4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained
6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold
There is no specified minimum for this case
You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must
you do?
a.
b.
c.
d.
51.
The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head
Observation of a SSR squawk
Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft
Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident
An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna

A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
The ILS glidepath antenna
The aerodrome boundary security fence
What colour are runway edge lights?

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. White
56.
Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the end of the runway
and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?
a. Blue
b. White
c. Red
d. Green
57.
Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?

a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?

a.
b.
c.
d.
61.
d.
Cloud base and ground visibility for take off

Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for take off
Cloud base and RVR for take off
Cloud ceiling and RVR for take off.
What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground visibility
They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m
Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
Fixed; uni-directional; red

Fixed, omni-directional; red
Fixed; uni-directional; green
Fixed; omni-directional; green
Generally, when and where are stop bars provided'?

a.
b.
c.
64.
No, only in the direction of the approach

Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
Yes but not vertically (limited to 15 above the horizontal)
Apron
Ramp
Stands
Parking Bays
What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose of
public transport of passengers or cargo?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A scheduled air service

A commercial air operation
An air transport operation
An airline
67.
What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the intermediate
approach track for a precision instrument approach?
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted

It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment
Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC
Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance and a high rate of descent
A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what
circumstances is this is permitted?
a.
b.
c.
d.
77.
Yes, but DH now becomes MDH

Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with
It depends if the descent on the GP has already been initiated
Yes if the flight is in VMC
Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
75.
At DH/MDH
At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
Over the threshold of the instrument runway
If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be continued?
a.
b.
c.
d.
74.
30
45
60
90
Where does the missed approach procedure start?

a.
b.
c.
d.
73.
Glide path
Final approach
Approach to landing
Go around/Missed approach
Flight visibility of 1500 m or more and cloud ceiling of 850ft or more

The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas
The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing runway
The obstacle height for that obstacle is not more than 10% higher than the OCH calculated
without consideration of that obstacle
A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180 mag. You are
approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Offset join (sector 2)

Reverse direct (sector 3)
Teardrop procedure (sector 2)
Sector 1 (parallel)
78.
You are required to carry out a sector 2 (offset) joining procedure to a holding pattern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound
end?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60
79.
It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute
duration. How long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft?
a.
b.
c.
d.
80.
How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area)
of a holding pattern?
a.
b.
c.
d.
81.
FL 10
FL 0
FL -10
You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea, therefore the question is totally academic!
After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level (FL 40 )
which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report you vertical position.
How would you do this?
a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
Yes
No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
No, where G/S is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long
The QNH is 1040 Mb and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the T/Alt is MSL) would
your flight level be?
a.
b.
c.
d.
84.
300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas)

150 m (500 ft)
90 m
(300 ft)
nil
Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
1'/2 minutes
2 minutes
21/2 minutes
not specified
As a height above the transition altitude

As an altitude AMSL
As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 Mb
Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to get there
anyway!)
Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?

a.
It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state
b.
The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft
c.
The transition altitude shall not be less than 3000 ft
d.
The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome traffic zone
91.
What is a controlled flight?

a.
b.
c.
d.
92.
What defines a danger area?

a.
b.
c.
d.
93.
b.
c.
d.
A skill test including oral examinations as required

A proficiency check including oral examinations as required
Theoretical knowledge tests both written and oral
A flying performance check and a written type technical examination
Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a.
b.
c.
d.
97.
During the hours of darkness

From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6 below the horizon
In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on the
type of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating?
a.
b.
c.
d.
96.
The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and lit objects
by night
Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the airwith reference to atmospheric
conditions
The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane
When does night exist?

a.
b.
c.
d.
95.
A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air

Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist
Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

a.
94.
A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate

A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance
A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR
A flight by a manned aeroplane
Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR
What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes
to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on to a normal taxiway?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rapid turn off lane

High speed exit lane
Rapid exit taxiway
Acute angle exit
99.
Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?

a.
b.
All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome

All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the
aerodrome
Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit.
Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.
c.
d.
100.
What is defined as: À control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with
radio navigation aids'?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A terminal manoeuvring area

An upper air route
An airway
A SVFR entry/exit corridor
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 2 1 N atio n al La w
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
A
C
B
B
C
C
A
C
D
A
B
C
C
B
D
A
D
B
B
C
B
A
D
C
D
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
B
A
A
B
B
A
A
C
D
D
A
B
C
B
B
C
B
D
B
D
A
A
C
D
A
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
B
B
A
A
D
C
B
A
A
A
C
D
D
D
A
C
C
A
B
C
D
C
B
A
B
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
B
D
B
A
D
C
C
B
C
A
A
A
B
C
C
B
D
D
D
D
B
C
C
B
C
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -1
1.
ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design.
Cabin baggage and checked baggage
Passenger baggage
Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control
Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud
base is lower than
a.
b.
c.
d.
1000 feet and less than 8 kms visibility

1500 feet or less than 5 kms visibility
4.
When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal
a.
Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b.
Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c.
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body.Then clench fist.
d.
Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.
5.
When doing a procedure turn (45/180) going outbound turned 45 off track, the time taken from the
beginning of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
1 minute 30 seconds
1 minute
1 minute 15 seconds
2 minutes
Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on
a. Heading
b. Track
c. Course
d. Bearing
7.
When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a.
b.
c
d
8.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre line
and when the decent is commenced is called
a
b
c
d
9.
Distance end of route

Departure end of runway
Distance end of runway
Departure end of route
What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure ?
a.
b.
c
d
13.
Intermediate approach segment

Initial approach segment
Arrival segment
Final approach segment
What does DER mean ?

a
b
c
d.
10.
Only use the word "wilco"

Only read back the code
Only use the word "roger"
Read back mode and code
Return to the aerodrome from which you departed

Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC
conditions
Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?

a.
b.
c.
d.
The State
The Operator
The Commander
The owner
14.
Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?
a
b
c
d.
16.
For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least
a.
b.
c.
d.
17.

An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a
b
c
d
18.
the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan

the Captain
the Operator of the aircraft
ATC
the last 2 nms of the approach

Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to
give the time within plus or minus
a
b
c
d
15 seconds of UTC
10 seconds of UTC
30 seconds of UTC
1 minute of UTC
22.
How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, who's aircraft on final approach follows a normal
PAPI defined glide-path ?
a
b
c
d
23.
A Clearway is a squared area that is established to

a
b
c
d
25.
2
none
3
1
protect aircraft during take-off and landing

to enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
to enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
to decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway
When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for
transportation away from the territory of the state
a
b
c
d
the operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her
inadmissibility
the operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is
refused
the operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person
the operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises
out of his/her inadmissibility
28.
A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus
a. 10%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 2%
29.
Concerning aircraft registration markings , no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for
a.
b.
c.
d.
30.
codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents

letter combinations beginning with Q
3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed `?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the heading

1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
33.
The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the

a.
b.
c.
d.
34.
Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a.
b.
c.
d.
36.
c.
d.
correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind
ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track
ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed as
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
circling is only permitted in VMC

recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is
situated.
prohibit a circling approach for the concerned runway
forbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located
If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to

a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
they operate outside controlled airspace

if asked by ATC
with are within controlled airspace
they operate a transponder with mode C
It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area
outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the
published procedure shall be
a.
b.
37
pilot in command
operator
ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
owner of the aircraft
altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude

flight level on or under the transition altitude
flight level on or under the transition level
altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude
A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction
to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
Base turn
Reverse track
Race track
Procedure turn
40.
The transition of altitude to flight level and visa versa is made

a.
b.
c.
d.
41.
Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit

a.
b.
c.
d.
42.
the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance.
he/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance
he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
The transition from IFR to VFR is done

a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers

Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices
Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Reporting offices
Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units
When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance

a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
At least 5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
At the transition level only
At the transition altitude only
on the Captain's initiative

whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
if told by ATC
at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
a.
b.
c.
d.

when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
when the local variation is greater than 10East or West
47.
The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same FL, where there is
enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20 kts
minimum is
a.
b.
c.
d.
49.
3 minutes
15 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway ?
a. 900m
b. 600m
c. 300m
d. 150m
50.
A PAPI must consist of

a.
b.
c.
d.
51.
Lights at the end of the runway shall be

a.
b.
c.
d.
52.
A row of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other

Two rows of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other
A row of 2 multiple at equal distance from each other
Two rows of 6 multiple at equal distance from each other
Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
Steady white lights with controllable intensity
Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway
An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if

a.
b.
c.
d.
The pilot follows the published approach procedures

The aircraft receives radar vectors
The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain
visual contact
All of the above
54.
The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the
each runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
3
2
2
3
minutes and
minutes and
minutes and
minutes and
not exceeding 4
not exceeding 3
not exceeding 4
not exceeding 5
end of
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms
outwards. What does this signal indicate ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
59.
8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of
cloud
8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
clear to move forward

brakes off
remove chocks
clear to close all engines
What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace ?

a.
b.
c.
d.
No flight plan required

Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not.
Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required
61.
A Type Rating is applicable to

a.
b.
c.
d.
62.
An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness

An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
An aircraft that requires additional skills training
If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept a ILS localiser, what is that maximum intercept angle ?
a. 45
b. 30
c. 15
d. 20
63.
What are the objectives of ATC Services

a.
b.
c.
d.
To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the

maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow
of air traffic.
To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of
air traffic.
67.
A TODA consists of
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of

a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
The State of Registration

The State of Registration ands the State of the Operator
The State of the Operator
The State of Registry and the State of Design
ATIS will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
The take-off run available excluding the clearway

The take-off run available including the clearway
The take-off run available excluding the stopway
The take-off run available only
3 000 ft
5 000 ft
When Cb's are present
When the cloud base is below MSA
Voice ATIS
1.
cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2.
cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3.
is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4.
is broadcasted on either a discreet VFH, VOR or an ILS frequency
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 only is correct
2 only is correct
4 only is correct
1, 2 and 3 are correct
76.
What is the meaning of the symbol LLL search parties ?

a.
b.
c.
d.
We have only found some personnel

We have found all personnel
Operation completed
Nothing found
83.
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a Cargo Manifest shall, apart from the
information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the
following items
a.
b.
c.
d.
85.
Airway bill number, and the number of packages only

Total weight and the number of packages only
Total weight and the nature of the goods only
Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to

a
b.
c.
d.
Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
Cargo
Dangerous Goods
Mail
86.
An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily
intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined
as a
a.
b.
c.
d.
87.
For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign
positioned ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
88.
Both a Pattern À' and `B' holding position

High intensity taxiway centerline lights only
Runway guard lights
Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights
ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when

a.
b.
c.
d.
91.
To a distance of the nearest Pattern À' holding position

At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
It depends on the Aerodrome Category
85 metres
What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of
less than 550m
a.
b.
c.
d.
90.
Clearway
Runway Strip Extension
Runway end safety area
Altimeter Operating Area Extension
they are below 2,500m

they are below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach
a.
b.
c.
d.
Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach
Land on the instrument runway
Initiate a missed approach
Return to the FAF
93.
When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to
a.
b.
c.
d.
95.
When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of
its own license, the validity shall
a.
b.
c.
d.
96.
each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO.
ICAO only
each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license.

not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
be at the discretion of ICAO
Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures ?
a. GEN
b. ENR
c. AD
d. AGA
97.
The loading limitations shall include:

a.
b.
c.
d.
98.
All limiting mass and centres of gravity

All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention.
102
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language

is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
103.
An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower.
This signifies that the aircraft must:
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
Let down
Descend
Descend for landing
You land
do not land because the airport is not available for landing.

give way to another aircraft.
return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Switching on and off three times the landing lights

The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
Switching on and off four times the landing lights
105.
The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

ATC availability and requirements.
availability of navigation aids.
airspace restrictions applicable and in force.
106.
One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a.
The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
b.
The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
c.
The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d.
The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
107.
If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any
particular holding pattern, he should:
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
The Transition Level:

a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
advise ATC as early as possible.

execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
follow the radio communication failure procedure.
only when directed by ATC.

unless otherwise directed by ATC.
only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
regardless of ATC instructions
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:

a.
Achieving separation between IFR flights
b.
Achieving separation between controlled flights
c.
Providing advisory service
d.
Providing flight Information Service
114. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace
below FL 290 is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
500 feet (150 m).

2500 feet (750 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be
reduced:
a.
b.
If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests

Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
c.
d.
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able
to maintain own separation
At the discretion of the air traffic controller
117.
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a
medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.
3 minutes
2 minutes
1 minute
4 minutes
119. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre
line have a length of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
124.
you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for
continuation of the flight;
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
you are not allowed to commence the flight
the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
250 m.
200 m.
150 m.
300 m.
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory
of the state, the operator:
a.
b.
c.
d.
shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his
(her) inadmissibility.
shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
125.
Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

a.
The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
b.
The Operators of the same aircraft type.
c.
The aircraft manufacturer.
d.
The State of design and manufacturer.
126.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the
a.
b.
c.
d.
127.
operational air traffic control centres

flight information or control organizations
air traffic co-ordination services
search and rescue co-ordination centres
An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies
a.
b.
c.
d.
121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz

129.
Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route segments of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
130
The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the
experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of
1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of
a.
b.
c.
d.
131.
The State
The Operator
The Commander
The owner
Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ?
a
b
c
d
134
Only use the word "wilco"

Only read back the code
Only use the word "roger"
Read back mode and code
Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ?

a.
b.
c.
d.
133.
100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a
synthetic flight trainer
100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic
instrument flight trainer
When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall

a.
b.
c
d
132.
1 00nms or more
75nms or more
60nms or more
50nms or more
the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan

the Captain
the Operator of the aircraft
TC
An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft
is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within
a
b
c
d
the last 2 rims of the approach

136.
The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the

a.
b.
c.
d.
137.
Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.

Air Traffic Service unit consists of

a.
b.
c.
d.
140.
they operate outside controlled airspace

if asked by ATC
with are within controlled airspace
they operate a transponder with mode C
Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit

a.
b.
c.
d.
139.
pilot in command
operator
ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace
owner of the aircraft
Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centres

Flight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices
Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centres and Traffic Air Services Reporting offices
Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units
with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
a.
b.
c.
d.

when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP
when the local variation is greater than 10 East or West
141.
A PAPI must consist of

a.
b.
c.
d.
146.
A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
Two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other
A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each
other
Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each other
Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as proscribed by
a.
b.
c.
d.
The Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union

The Acts in force of the General Postal Union
The Acts in force of the Warsaw Convention
The Acts in force of the International Postal Union
147.
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to

a
b.
c.
d.
148.
ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when

a.
b.
c.
d.
150.
Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that
normally applicable to other cargo
Cargo
Dangerous Goods
Mail

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by
the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to
a.
b.
c.
d.
each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained
as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
ICAO only
each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 2 2 Sp ec i me n Q ue s tio n s
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 2 2 Sp eci me n Q ue s tio n s
Sec tio n -1
1A
2C
3C
4C
5B
6A
7D
8D
9B
10 B
11 D
12 A
13 C
14 B
15 A
16 B
17 A
18 C
19 B
20 D
21 A
22 A
23 C
24 B
25 D
26 A
27 C
28 D
29 D
30 B
31 D
32 D
33 A
34 B
35 D
36 D
37 A
38 D
39 D
40 B
41 D
42 C
43 A
44 B
45 A
46 A
47 C
48 D
49 A
50 A
51 D
52 D
53 C
54 C
55 B
56 A
57 A
58 C
59 B
60 A
61 C
62 A
63 A
64 C
65 B
66 D
67 B
68 A
69 B
70 A
71 A
72 C
73 A
74 D
75 C
76 C
77 B
78 C
79
80 A
81 B
82 C
83 D
84 A
85 A
86 C
87 B
88 C
89 D
90 B
91 C
92 B
93 A
94 D
95 B
96 B
97 B
98 A
99 A
100 B
101 A
102 B
103 A
104 B
105 A
106 B
107 A
108 A
109 B
110 C
111 D
112 B
113 B
114 C
115 B
116 C
117 B
118 A
119 B
120 B
121 B
122 B
123 D
124 A
125 A
126 A
127 A
128 D
129 C
130 D
131 D
132 C
133 B
134 A
135 A
136 A
137 B
138 D
139 C
140 A
141 A
142 C
143 C
144 A
145 B
146 A
147 A
148 B
149 B
150 A
151 D
Q ue st io ns C hap t er 2 2 Sec tio n -2
The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered
a.
b.
c.
d.
Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
Binding for all member states
Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
Binding for all airline companies with international traffic
It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may
a.
request the crew to detain the passenger
b.
ask the passenger to disembark
c.
order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d.
hand him her over to the authorities
Which of the following is not permitted in the registration mark of an aircraft?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Four letter Q codes

Five letter international identification signals
Three letter international identification signals
Any number identifying an ICAO document
10
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a.
with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b.
in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence.
c.
the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d.
the flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority.
11.
For an ATPL(A), how many night hours are required:

a. 30
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150
12
When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a.
b.
c.
d.
14
Once you have passed a competency check

When you have completed 100 hours solo
What is the period of validity of a PPL class 2 medical in according to regulations?

a.
b.
c.
d.
24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months
thereafter
60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
16
A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed

a.
b.
c.
d.
21
What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a
CTR?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22
1000m
1500m
2000m
3000m
In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at:

a.
b.
c.
d.
25

Rate of turn of 3/sec

Rate of turn of 3/sec or 20 bank whichever is lesser
Rate of turn of 3/sec or at a bank angle of 25 whichever is lesser
Bank angle of 25
What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
a. 5.5%
b. 2.5%
c. 0.8%
d. 3.3%
27
In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than
a. OCH/A
b. 200ft
c. 350ft
d. 400ft
28
What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal
conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ?
a.
b
c
d
29
0.83 Mach
490 km/hr (265 kts)
315 km/hr (170 kts)
520 km/hr (280 kts)
For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance:
a. 30m
b. 100m
c. 50m
d. 120m
30
At what distance does an SRA normally terminate:

a. 2nm
b. 1 nm
c. 3nm
d. nm
31
What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways

a.
b.
c.
d.
33
RVR 300-450m
RVR 200
RVR 200
RVR 300
DH not below 100ft

DH not below 100ft
DH not below 200ft
DH not below 200ft
Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be
straight in?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 40
34
The 45 leg of a 45/270 procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
37
The Vth for a Category B aircraft is

a.
b.
c.
d.
38
Up to 91 kts
90 to 121 kts inclusive
When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length of the
track that may be used to intercept the localiser ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
40
1 min
1 min 15 seconds
1 min 30 seconds
Continued until interception of the glide slope
10 nms
5 nms
10 minutes
5 minutes
The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance if 300 metres within a certain radius from the
navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is
a.
b.
c.
d.
15 nms (28 kms)

30 nms (55 kms)
25 nms (46 kms)
20 nms (37 kms)
42
What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ?

a.
b.
c.
d.
43
What is the definition of the Emergency Phase ?

a.
b.
c.
d.
45
20 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
15 minute
If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one
of the two may commence a climb or descent'?
a.
b.
c.
d.
55
present position and ETA

estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance
ETA and endurance
If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is
a.
b.
c.
d.
54
country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier

country identifier followed by P/D/R
P/D/R followed by the identifier
country identifier followed by numbers
What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP ?

a
b
c
d
53
The Distress Phase

The Alarm Phase
The Alert Phase
A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the
Distress Phase
Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by

a.
b.
c.
d.
52
250 kts TAS

250 kts IAS
Not applicable
200 kts IAS
5 nm
10 nm
15 nm
20 nm
What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine
range from a beacon?
a.
b.
c.
d.
10 nm
10 nm
20 nm
20 nm
where the first aircraft speed is 40 kts faster than the second
56
The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for which
navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft
has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is
a.
b.
c.
d.
58
Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that
aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
59
5 minutes
6 minutes
10 minutes
3 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
2 minutes
On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately
after take-off at least
a. 45
b. 15
c. 30
d. 20
61
What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the
same runway?
a.
b.
c.
d.
62
Between two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided
for wake turbulence is
a.
b.
C.
d.
63
64
5 min
3 min
1 min
2 min
4 nms
2.5 nms
2 nms
3 nms
A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off.
What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off ?
a.
2 minutes
b.
3 minutes
c.
1 minute
c.
5 minutes
Radar separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft
providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within
a. 5nm
b. 3nm
c. 2nm
d. 1 nm
65
What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser?
a.
b.
c.
d.
68
A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final
approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change
must not be more than
a.
b.
c.
d.
69
5 nm
5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second
10 nm
20 nm
15 kts
8 kts
10 kts
20 kts
The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is
a.
b.
c.
d.
light aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 4 minutes

medium aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 2 minutes
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 3 minutes
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 2 minutes
70
An integrated aeronautical information package consists of

a.
AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins
(PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.
b.
AIP and amendment service NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs,
checklists and summaries.
c.
AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and
summaries.
d.
AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
79
An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by

a.
b.
c.
d.
82
Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service?

a.
b.
c.
d.
83
low intensity steady red lights

low intensity flashing red lights
medium intensity steady red lights
medium intensity flashing red lights
FIC and RCC

RCC and rescue sub-centres
FIC, RCC and ACC
ICAO through regional navigation plans
Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is
a.
b.
c.
d.
++
LLL
LL
Y
84
According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources
intended to safeguard
a.
b.
c.
d.
85
civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that
a.
b.
c.
d.
the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state
where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such
a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is
declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registered which
says that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state
where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is
still airworthy
An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 2 2 Sp eci me n Q ue s tio n s

Sec tio n -2
1C
2A
3D
4D
5D
6B
7B
8C
9C
10 C
11 C
12 B
13 C
14 C
15 D
16 B
17 C
18 C
19 B
20 D
21 B
22 C
23 A
24 C
25 B
26 B
27 A
28 C
29 A
30 A
31 A
32 A
33 C
34 B
35 A
36 D
37 D
38 A
39 D
40 C
41 D
42 B
43 D
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. C
48. B
49. A
50. C
51. A
52. D
53 B
54. C
55. B
56. D
57. D
58. B
59. A
60. A
61. D
62. A
63. A
64. D
65. A
66. D
67. D
68. D
69. D
70. A
71. C
72. D
73. A
74. B
75. C
76. A
77. B
78. A
79. A
80. C
81. A
82. B
83. C
84. B
85. B

CPL Question Bank Air Law

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CPL Question Bank Air Law

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Question Bank CPL

Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh

Subject : Air Law

Which annex covers carriage of cargo?

Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

To assist states to purchase aircraft

What is the objective of ICAO?

Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

request the crew to detain the passenger

30. The first freedom of the air allows:

33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?

39. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:

Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 2 International Agreements and Organizations

What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?

Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations

When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:

Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL licence?

The 12 month period reduces to 6 months

after the 21st day of illness has elapsed

What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

For an ATPL how many night hours are required?

For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?

At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?

Once you have passed a competency check

100 hours PIC or SPIC

What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?

According to CAR84, what classes of medical exist?

The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:

A pilot with a CPL can act as:

PPL with instructor rating

For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:

In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:

PIC in commercial aviation

The date of the assessment

The minimum age for a CPL holder is

The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:

The date of licence issue

100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command

A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:

150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 5 Personnel Licensing

What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

Return to start point

Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

Which has priority to land?

Which of these is not a distress frequency?

"Cancelling my flight plan"

What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?

B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position

Waving the arms across the face

121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

50 minutes before off-block time

select code 7500 A on your transponder

clear to move forward

An s wer s to Q u es tio n s C hap ter 6 R ule s o f T he Air

What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

What law is applicable over the `high seas'?