Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. Precose (acarbose)
1.
2. Glyset (migitol)
2.
1. GI upset
What are the possibile side effects from metformin? 2. Megalblastic anemia
3. Lactic acidosis
1. Edema
2. Anemia
What are the common AE of TZD drugs, ex: Actos, avandia?
3. wt gain
4. excerabation of CHF
MOA of Prandin (Repaglinide): To stimulate pancreatic beta-cells to secrete
What is the MOA of Prandin?
insulin
1) 1st Generation:
- Dymelor (acetohexamide)
- Diabinese (chlorpropamide)
- Tolinase (Tolazamide)
What are the examples of sulfonylurea diabetes drugs? - Orinase (Tolbutamide)
1) 1st generation?
2) 2nd generation? 2) 2ns generation
- Amaryl (glimeperide)
- Glucotrol (Glipizide)
- Diabeta, Micronase (Glyburide)
Glynase (Glyburide micronized)
What are the 2 classes of antidiabetes agents that can cause 1) weight gain 1) Sulfonylureas
and 2) hypoglycemia 2) Meglitinides
TZD (actose, avandia)+ oral contraceptive pills --> ? Need to increase estrogen dose
1. Renal
2. Liver,
3. serum B12
What are the monitoring parameters taking metformin? 4. folic acid
5. Hgb
6. Hct
7. CBC
Chlorpropamide + prednisone
hyperglycemia
--> ??? (DDI)
Glimepiride + itraconazole
Dcreased BG level
--> ??? (DDI)
Which insulin can be adminstered IV? Regular (clear); glargine is clear but it's low pH=4.0 (no IV)
Take Levothyroxine with or without food? Without food, take 30 mins before breakfast
what is thyroid storm? thyroid stormis life-threatening, fever, tachycardia, delirium, and coma
Androgens and anabolic steroids are NOT scheduled drugs. True or False? False; they are scheduled III
During postmenopausal,
1)Estrogen decreased
1)Estrogen decreased or increased?
2)Progesterone decreased
2)Progesterone decreased or increased?
3)FSH increased
3)FSH decreased or increased?
4)LH increased
4)LH decreased or increased?
1. Breast tenderness
What are the common adverse effects of ERT (Estrogen replacement 2. Heavy bleeding
therapy)? 3. Headache
4. Nausea
1. Depression
What are the common adverse effects of progestin therapy? 2. Irritability
3. Headache
1. breastfeeding women
When are "mini-pills" indicated?
2. Free CVD risks associated with estrogen-containing products
What is progestin's MOA in birth control pills? Block ovulation by increasing the thickness and atrophy of the endometrium
1. Camila
2. Ortho Micronor
3. Errin
List 3 Oral contraceptive pills are progestin only pills.
4. Nor-QD
5. Nora-BE
6. Ovrette
What much estrogen content in high-dose estrogen OC? 50 mcg; ex: Neocon 1/50, Ovcon50, Zovia 1/50
1. 3A4 inhibitors
List 3 drugs/classes can increase oral contraceptives level. 2. Atorvastatin
3. Vitamin C
what types of hormone imbalance from the finding "Spotting" and "Early, or
mid-cycle? breakthrough bleeding" Estrogen deficiency; increased estrogen levels
How do we adjust that?
what types of hormone imbalance from the finding "fatigue" "weight gain"
Progestin excess;
"acne or oily scalp" " depressoin" " increased appetite"?
decreased progestin levels
How do we adjust that?
Calcium 1000-1500 mg
what are the daily Calcium and Vit-D recommended?
Vitamin D 400-800 IU/day
Bisphosphonates; Binds to bone (hydroxyapatite) and incorporates into
What is the MOA of actonel, fosamax?
boneto increase and stablize bone mass
What is the MOA of SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulator, ex: Raloxifene (Evista; act as estrogen receptor agonist at the skeleton, decrease
Evista)? bone resorption and overall bone turnover
What is the MOA of Miacalcin? Inhibit bone resorption by binding to osteoclast receptors
Increased the rate of bone formation by increasing the birth rate of
What is the MOA of Forteo?
osteoblasts and preventing apoptosis, resulting improve bone density
What type of oral contraceptive pills you will recommend for a smoker
Progestin only (mini-pills)
woman over 35 years?
1. Pulmonary edema
2. acute rise of serum K+
What are the adverse effects of osmotic diuretics?
3. Blurred vision
4. Rash
1. Hypokalemia
What are the E- imbalances from Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics? 2. Hyponatremia
3. Hypercalcemia
1. Hypokalemia
2. Hypomagnesemia
3. Hyponatremia
What are the E- imbalances from loop diuretics?
4. Hyperuricemia
5. Hyperglycemia
6. Hypercalciuria
1 mg Bumetanide
A= 20 mg
= A mg Torsemide
B= 40 mg
= B mg Furosemide
What is the potential risk of administering iron IV? 1 Increased risk of infection
What are the signs of vitamin D intoxication and hypercalcemia? Weakness, headache, somnolence, nausea, vomiting, bone pain, polyuria
Hydromorphone Dilaudid
Fentanyl Sublimaze
Acetaminophen Tylenol
Ketorolac Toradol
Atitvan Lorazepam
Versed Midazolam
Diprivan Propofol
Pancuronium Pavulon
Norcuron Vecuronium
Cisatarcurium Nimbex
Dexmedetomidine Precedex
Nimodipine; calcium channel block give for 21 days; indicated for treating
Nimotop
abeurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage
Fondapariunx Arixtra
Tegretol Carbamazepine
Lamictal Lamotrigine
Keppra Levetiraccetam
Oxcarbazepine Trileptal
Tiagabine Gabitril
Zonisamide Zonegran
Pavulon Pancuronium
Nolvadex Tamoxifen
Faslodex Fulvestran
Aromasin Exemestane
Arimidex Anasrozole
Femara Letrozole
Casodex Bicalutamide
Avastin Bevacizumab
Erbitux Cetuximab
Hydrea MOA: inhibits DNA synthesis witout interfering with RNA and
Hydroxyurea
protein synthesis
Erlotinib Tarceva
Iressa Gefitnib
Sutent Sutinib
Sprycet Dasatiniib
Bortezomib
Velcade MOA: Inhibits the 26S proteasome; stabilizes regulatory proteins causing
apoptosis and disrupting cell proliferation
Dolasetron Anzemet
Granisetron Kytril
Palonosetron Aloxi
Compazine Prochlorperazine
Thorazine Chlorpromazine
Phenergan Promethazine
Emend Aprepitant
Iressa Gefitnib
Sutent Sutinib
Sprycet Dasatiniib
Bortezomib
Velcade MOA: Inhibits the 26S proteasome; stabilizes regulatory proteins causing
apoptosis and disrupting cell proliferation
Dolasetron Anzemet
Granisetron Kytril
Palonosetron Aloxi
Compazine Prochlorperazine
Thorazine Chlorpromazine
Phenergan Promethazine
Emend Aprepitant
What the hormones and antagonists can be used for both breast and prostate
LHRH agonists (Lupron, Eligar and Zoladex)and Ethinyl estradiol
cancer?
What knid of electrolyte imbalance Prograft (Tacrolimus)can cause? Could cause hyperkalemia
1. Hirsutism
2. Nephrotoxicity
Name 4 common adverse effects of cyclosporine.
3. Ginggival hyperplasia
4. Hyperlipidemia
Prograft does not need to monitor trough concentrations. True or False false
Prograft Tacrolimus
Azathioprine Imuran
Cholestyramine Prevalite
Nexium Esomeprazole
Prilosec Omeprazole
Prevacid Lansoprazole
Aciphex Rabeprazole
Protonix Pantoprazole
Tagamet Cimetidine
Zantac Ranitidine
Axid Nizatidine
Pepcid Famotidine
Methocarbamol Robaxin
Mesalamine Asacol
1. Aciphex
2. Preveacid
List 5 examples of PPI. 3. Prilosec
4. Protonix
5. Nexium
HOw does antacid the absorption of (azoles and sucrafate)? By increeasing gastric pH
Methotrexate + NSAIDs --> ??? (DDI) Fatal interaction. Severe bone marrow suppression
1. Hyoscyamine
List 2 drugs use to maange IBS (irritable bowel syndrome). 2. Dicyclomine
(anticholinergic and antimuscarine)
1. Infliximab
2. High-dose metronidazole
What can we use to manage fistula (of IBS)?
3. Ciprofloxacin
4. azathioprine
1) What is the most serious adverse effect of Plaquenil? 1. Vision loss (retinal damage)
2) Who are at high risk? 2. A cumulative dose of 800 g and age >70 years
1. 0.6 to 1.2 mg every 2 hours until pain relief, diarrhea or a max dose of 8
mg/day
What is the dose of colchicine when acute gouty attack?
2, Only effective when initiated within 12-36 hours of the attack
1. Probenecid (Benemid)
What are the 2 drugs used for gout prophylaxis by increasing uric acid
secretion?
2. Anturane (Sulfinpyazone)
What are the 2 drugs used for gout prophylaxis by ihbiting uric acid 1. Zyloprim (Allopurinol)
production? MOA: inhibits xanthine oxidase formation (XO)
Rash (may be as simple as a maculopapular eruption or as serious the
What is the most common side effect of allopurinol?
life-threating SJS.
1. Procainamide
2. Phenytoin
3. Chlorpromazine
List drugs that can cause SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus). 4. hydralazine
5. quinidine
6. methyldopa
7. Isoniazid
1) Naloxone (Narcan)
List 2 drugs are used to reverse opioid overdose.
2) Naltrexone (ReVia, Trexan) for alcohol dependent/narcotic addiction
1. Fentanyl
Most opioids are required dose reduction in severe liver disease. List drugs
2. Morphine
that need to reduce dose in renal disease.
3. Methadone
1. Propanolol
What 2 beta-blockers can be used for migraine as 1st line?
2. Timolol
Addiction is....
1. compulsive use of drug
1.
2. The use of a substance for psychic effects
2.
1) Analgesic
2) Possibile anti-inflammatory
What roles of Caffeine in Excedrin Migraine?
3) Increased gastric acidity and perfusion, enhancing the absorption of
aspirin
Anticholinergic effects
What is the rational behind TCA is most likely worsen opioid-induced
constipation?
(TCAs: Elavil,
1. Carbamazepine (DOC)
DOC for new onset seizures. 2. Phenytoin
3. Valproic acid
1. Carbamazepine
DOC for refractory seizures. 2. Phenytoin
3. Valproic acid
DOC for generalized seizures (if pt has both absence and generalized
Ethosuximide
tonic-clonic seizures)
DOC for generalized seizures (if pt > 2years old) Valproic acid
Phenytoin,
Carbamazepine
DOC for DOC tonic-clonic seizures.
Topiramate
Valproic acid
1. Carbapenem (Imipenem)
2. Meperidine (in patients with renal failure)
3. Local anesthetics (Lidocaine)
4. Metoclopramide
List drugs can cause seizures.
5. Theophylline
6. TCA
7. Anticonvulsants
(Carbamazepine, Ethosuximide, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital)
From chronic use of phenytoin
What is hydantoin facies?
1. Thicken subcutaneous tissues
2. Enlargement of nose and lips
1. Nausea
2. Vomiting
What is side effect of inititation of phenytoin?
3. Drowsiness and
4. Dizziness
1. Hepatic failure
What are the 2 life-threatening adverse reaction from Phenytoin?
2. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
1. Direct hepatotoxicity
What are the 2 Black Box Warning of Carbamazepine?
2. Aplastic anemia (if WBC<2000-3000, or Nu<1000-1500)
1. Fatal Hepatoxicity
What are the 3 Black Box Warning of Valproic acid? 2. Fetal hemorrhagic pancreatitis
3. Fetal teratogenic
How does Gabapentin eliminate? 100% renal
What are DOCs for acute simple or complex partial seizures? 1. Valium and Lorazepam (rectally)
1. Sedation
2. Dry mouth
What are S/Sx of anticholinergic effects? 3. Blurred vision
4. Constipation
5. Urinary hestitancy
2. Benzodiazepines
What is the treatment choice for akathisia reaction (from antipsychotic
drugs's side effects)?
3. clonidine
4. Anticholinergics
1. ER STAT
2. D/C antipsychotic
What is the treatment choice for Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
(from long-term use of antipsychotic drugs)?
3. Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)
1. Agranulocytosis
What are the adverse effects of Clozapine (Clozaril)? 2. Seizure (>600 mg/day)
3. Hypersalivation
1. Haloperidol or fluphenazine (IR) with Lorazpam 2 mg IM q4h prn
3. Ziprasidone
3.
--> reach steady state in 8-12 weeks ex: 10 mg QD --> 100 mg /4 weeks
5. EKG
7. Pregnancy test
1. ER STAT
2. D/C antipsychotic
What is the treatment choice for Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
(from long-term use of antipsychotic drugs)?
3. Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)
1. Agranulocytosis
What are the adverse effects of Clozapine (Clozaril)? 2. Seizure (>600 mg/day)
3. Hypersalivation
1. Haloperidol or fluphenazine (IR) with Lorazpam 2 mg IM q4h prn
3. Ziprasidone
3.
--> reach steady state in 8-12 weeks ex: 10 mg QD --> 100 mg /4 weeks
5. EKG
7. Pregnancy test
1. Corticosteroids
2. Oral contraceptives
4. Clonidine
5. Methyldopa
1. Orthostatic hypotension
2. Tachycardia
3. sedation
6. Weight gain
7. sexual dysfunction
2. Pregnancy
What are the CI with TCAs?
3. Lactation and
4. Narrow-angle glaucoma
1. Celexa (Citalopram) few drug interactions
Which SSRIs used in geriatric patients?
2. Zoloft (Sertrazline)
1. sedation
2. Increased appetite
3. WEight gain
What are the adverse effects of Mirtazapine?
4. Constipation
Benzodiazepines (BZD).
Which BZD are preferred in patients with hepatic dysfunction? and why? 2. Metabolized by conjugation but oxidation
1. Propranolol
What are DOCs for SAD (social anxiety disorder) or panic disorders?
2. atenolol
When hydroxyzine is DOC? for anxiety and in patients with substance abuse
1. Polyuria
What are the common side effects of initiating Lithium?
2. Polydispsia
3. Tremor
(later onset: WEight gain and mental dulling)
4. GI upset
What are the common adverse effects of SSRIs? Insomnia, GI upset, and headache
1. Benzoyl peroxide
2. Sulfur
What are the OTC products to treat acne?
3. Salicylic acid
4. Resorcinol
1. Burow's solution
2. Domeboro powder
List OTC products can use for Poison Ivy. 3. Calamine lotion
4. Kaolin
5. Zinc acetate
1. Decadron, Aristocort, Medrol dosepak
List Rx products for Poison Ivy.
2. IV 100 mg prednisone
What is DMEP (dimethyl ether and propane)? FDA approved for OTC removal of common warts and plantar warts
1. Phenylephrine
List 3 active ingredients are used in OTC oral decongestant.
2. Pseudoephedrine
3. Ephedrine
MOA: vaspconstrictors; constrict blood flow to nasal mucosa and decrease
edema
(alpha-adrenergic agoinsts)
1. Xylometazoline,
2) Phenylephrine
2. Phenylephrine,
3. Naphazoline,
4. Oxymetazoline
1. Xylometazoline,
4) Oxymetazoline
2. Phenylephrine,
3. Naphazoline,
4. Oxymetazolinie
Antihistamine
What is chlorpheniramine?
ex: (Chlor-Trimeton)Chlorpheniramine
1. Codeine (narcotic) for night cough
2. Dextromethorphan (DM)
List 4 active ingredients in antitussive/cough suppressants.
3. Diphenhydramine
4. Benzonatate
CI:
Mg(OH)2, osmotic laxative
1. Rena; failure
2. CHF
3. HTN
Lactulose
Which laxative is Rx only?
MOA: Nonabsorbed disacchardide, metabolized by bacteria in GI tract to
produce acetic and formic acid (it exerts osmotic effect)
1. Bulk-forming laxatives
2. Stool softeners
Which laxatives are recommended for pregnancy women?
- colace
- Surfak
- Recent MI
4 mg now and 2 mg after each loose stool. (max: 8 mg/dat OTC, if Rx: 16
What is MAX dose of Imodium AD?
mg/day)
Which hormone in pregnancy detection kit is used to detect? hCG in urine (within 1-2 weeks after conception)
Which ingredient try to test in UTI home testing device? Nitrites (and leukocyte esterase)
1. Depression
2. Anxiety
List St. John's wort 2 common uses.
** Potent 3A4 inducer**
Oral contraceptives + St. John's wort--> ??? (DDI) Decreased oral contraceptive effcts (by increased metabolism of OC)
Kava-Kava (root) is used for... for anxiety and stress
Dihydroepiandrgen
1. Depression
What is DHEA?
2. General anti-aging effects
3. OSteopoprosis
4. Antidiabetogenic
How much daily recommendation for Ca and Vit-D? Ca: 1000-1500 mg/day
Calcium carbonate vs. Calcium citrate (elemental Ca) Calcium carbonate vs. Calcium citrate = 40% vs.21%
1. Alendronate (Fosamax)
List 3 Bisphosphonate drugs are aprroved for use in osteoporosis.
2. Ibandronate (Boniva)
MOA: inhibits osteoclast activity
3. Risedronate (Actonel)
Fosamax (Alendronate)
Which bisphosphonate is indicated for male osteoporosis? and dose?
10 mg/day or 70 mg/week
What is FDA warning on Zometa and Aredia? Osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)
1. Postmenopausal osteoprosis
What are the indications of use injection Calcitonin (Miacalcin)? 2. Paget's disease
3. Hypercalcemia
BBW: Osteosarcoma
1. weight gain
2. Breast enlargement
What are the adverse effects of progestin? 3. Somnolence
4. Constipatin
5. Nausea
What is the indication of all oral estrogen products indicated for? Moderate-severe vasomotor symptoms
Which oral estrogen product is indicated for abnormal uterine bleeding? Premarin (0.3-2.5 mg)
Endometriosis
What is the unique indication of Aygesttin (norethindrone acetate)?
5 mg po QD for 2 weeks, increased by 2.5 mg Q 2 weeks to 15 mg/day
Insert 1 tab (25 mcg estradiol hemihydrate) QD for 2 weeks and then 1 tab
What is the dosage of Vagifem?
twice a week (14 + 4 = 18 tabs/month)
BBW: Osteosarcoma
What is the indication of all oral estrogen products indicated for? Moderate-severe vasomotor symptoms
Which oral estrogen product is indicated for abnormal uterine bleeding? Premarin (0.3-2.5 mg)
Endometriosis
What is the unique indication of Aygesttin (norethindrone acetate)?
5 mg po QD for 2 weeks, increased by 2.5 mg Q 2 weeks to 15 mg/day
Hormone Replacement Therapy
vs. Estrogen dose in HRT is much lower than birth control pills.
oral birth control pills
What is doseage of Femring (estradiol acetate)? Insert ring (0.05 mg/day or 0.1 mg/day) vaginally and replace after 90 days
Insert 1 tab (25 mcg estradiol hemihydrate) QD for 2 weeks and then 1 tab
What is the dosage of Vagifem?
twice a week (14 + 4 = 18 tabs/month)
1) Influenza
What the 2 vaccines are recommended for diabetets?
2) Pneumoniae
No live vaccine for age < 1 year beacuse ???? Maternal antibody
True
Meningococcal meningitis vaccine has both IM and SC forms. True and
False MPSV 4 (Menomune)
MCV 4 (Menactra)
1. Empty stomach
2. Water only
What are patient counseling points of Vivotif Berna?
3. Finish in 10 days
4. No ABX
Diphetheria-Tetanus Pertussis
1. 5-lipooxygenase inhibitor
What is MOA of Zyflo? Generic name? Class? 2. Zileuton
3. Leukotriene production inhibitors
Singulair
1) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
1) MOA
2) Montelukast, take at bedtime
2) Generic name
3) Headache, GI upset
3) ADR
Oxymetazoline > naphazoline > phenylephrine Afrin (LA)>Naphcon, Clear eye, Vasocon > Neo-synephrine
What is the rationale taking Singulair @HS? Leukotriene production is increased at nighttime
What is rationale that metoformin should avoid use in renal insufficiency
Due to increase risk of lactic acidosis
patients? (Scr for male >1.5, for female >1.4)
1. MEtallic taste
2. diarrhea
List side effects of metformin.
3. Lactic acidosis
4. folate and B12 deficiency
TZD (Thiazolidinediones)
Which class of anti-diabetic agents needs to avoid use in CHF patient?
ex: actos, avandia (can cause fluid retention)
Which 2 class of oral antidiabetes agents action site is in pancreas? (to 1. Sulfonylureas
stimulate secretion of insulin) 2. Meglitinides
Patient has elevated postprandial glucose. Which classes of antidiabetes are 1. Meglitinides
recommended? 2. alpha-glucosidase inhibitors