Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Reading 8 Worksheet-05
Part 2b of 2
Welding & NDT
API Recommended Practice 575, Inspection of Atmospheric and LowPressure Storage Tanks, Third Edition, April 2014
API Recommended Practice 577 Welding Inspection and Metallurgy,
Second Edition, December 2013
API Standard 650, Welded Tanks for Oil Storage, Twelfth Edition, March
2013 with Addendum 1 (September 2014), Errata 1 (July 2013), and Errata
2 (December 2014).
API Recommended Practice 651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground
Petroleum Storage Tanks, Fourth Edition, September 2014.
API Recommended Practice 652, Lining of Aboveground Petroleum
Storage Tank Bottoms, Fourth Edition, September 2014
API Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and
Reconstruction, Fifth Edition, November 2014.
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ASME IX
Qualification Standard for Welding and Brazing
Procedures, Welders, Brazers, and Welding and
Brazing Operators 2010
ASME IX
Welding Requirements Q1-Q50
Q5. Of the following which is not listed as a standard type of groove weld?
a) Single Vee groove weld
b) Single-U groove weld
c) Double-Vee groove weld
d) Double-flare-barrel groove weld
ANS: d
Q6. In what Article of Section IX are general requirements found?
a) Article I
b) Article II
c) Article III
d) Article IV
ANS: a
Q11. What is the purpose of the Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) and
the Procedure Qualification Record (PQR)?
a) The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that the weldment,
proposed for construction, is capable of having the required properties
for its intended application.
b) The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine the welders or
welding operators ability to deposit sound welds
c) The purpose of the WPS and PQR together is to provide direction to
the welder
d) The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to design the welded joint prior to
welding
ANS: a
Q12. One purpose of qualifying a WPS is to establish the skill of the
personnel performing the welding? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
ANS: b
Q17. Flat position with the plate in the horizontal plane and the weld metal
deposited from above is the description given in Section IX for which welded
plate position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
ANS: d
Q18. Horizontal position with the plate in a vertical plane and the axis of the
weld is horizontal is the description given in Section IX for which welded plate
position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
ANS: c
Q19. Vertical position with the plate in a vertical plane with the axis of the
weld vertical is the description given in Section IX for which welded plate
position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
ANS: b
Q20. Overhead position with the plate in a horizontal plane with the weld
deposited from underneath is the description given in Section IX for which
welded plate position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
ANS: a
Q21. Flat position with the axis of the pipe horizontal and the pipe is rolled
during welding so that the weld metal is deposited from above, is the
description given in Section IX for which welded pipe position?
a) 1G Position
b) 2G Position
c) 5G Position
d) 6G Position
ANS: a
Q22. Horizontal position with the axis of the pipe vertical and the axis of the
weld in a horizontal plane. The pipe shall not be rotated during welding.
a) 1G Position
b) 6G Position
c) 5G Position
d) 2G Position
ANS: d
Q23. A multiple position qualification with the axis of the pipe horizontal and
the welding groove in a vertical plane; welding shall be done without rotating
the pipe. This is a description of which welded pipe position?
a) 5G Position
b) 2G Position
c) 1G Position
d) 6G Position
ANS: a
Q24. A multiple position qualification with the axis of the pipe 45 to the
horizontal; welding shall be done without rotating the pipe. This is a
description of which welded pipe position?
a) 1G Position
b) 2G Position
c) 5G Position
d) 6G Position
ANS: d
Q29. Which of the following is not an acceptance criteria for tension tests for
procedure qualifications? The specimen shall have a tensile strength that is
not less than:
a) The specified minimum tensile strength of the base metal.
b) The specified minimum tensile strength of the weaker of the two if the
two metals of different strengths are used.
c) The specified minimum yield strength of the weld metal when the
applicable Section provides for the use of weld metal having lower room
temperature strength than the base metal.
d) If the specimen breaks in the base metal outside the weld or fusion line,
the test shall be accepted as meeting the requirements provided the
strength is not more than 5% below the specified minimum tensile
strength.
ANS: c
Q33. Open defects not exceeding ___ inches, measured in any direction on
the convex surface of the specimen after bending, are acceptable criteria for
guided bend tests?
a) 1/64th
b) 1/32nd
c) 1/16th
d) 1/8th (3mm)
ANS:
Q34. In guided bend test acceptance criteria, open defects on the corners of
the specimen during testing:
a) Shall be reason to reject the test
b) Shall not be considered unless there is definite evidence that they
result from internal defects
c) Shall not be considered unless there is definite evidence that they
result from external defects
d) Shall not be considered unless there is definite evidence that they
exceed 3/16th inch dimension in any direction
ANS: b
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
Q35. Where are the acceptance criteria for radiographic examination for
welder qualifications found in Section IX?
a) QW-321.2
b) QW-302.2
c) QW-191
d) Welders may not be qualified using radiographic examination
ANS: c
Q36. A welder qualifies by radiography on a 3/8 coupon. A 3/16 slag
inclusion is shown on the radiograph. Is the welder qualified? Why or why not?
a) No, the maximum slag inclusion allowed for this thickness is 1/8
b) Yes, slag inclusions are not to be considered in qualification
c) No, slag inclusion of any dimension is reason for qualification failure
d) Yes, the maximum slag inclusion allowed for this thickness is
ANS: a
Q44. According to ASME Section IX, the WPS shall be supported by and
make reference to which of the following documents?
a) The manufacturer's design drawings and calculations
b) The Welder's Performance Qualification Record (WPQR)
c) The Procedure Qualification Record (PQR)
d) The Welding Process Guide (WPG)
ANS: c
Q45. Changes to a WPS require re-qualification when all but which of the
following changes are made?
a) Changes to Supplemental Essential Variables (when they are required)
b) Changes to Essential variables
c) Changes of a Non-Essential Variable to suit production
d) Any change affecting the ability of the weldment to meet Code
requirements
ANS: c
Q46. A record of the welding data used to test a welded test coupon is a
definition of which of the following documents?
a) Procedure Qualification Record
b) Welders Performance Qualification Record
c) Welding Procedure Specification
d) Process Qualification Record
ANS: b
Q47. Those in which a change, as described in the specific variables, is
considered to affect the mechanical properties of the weldment and shall
require re-qualification of the WPS. This is a definition of what type of welding
variable?
a) Supplemental Essential Variable
b) Essential Variable
c) Non-Essential Variable
d) Supplemental Non-Essential Variable
ANS: b
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ASME IX
Welding Requirements Q51-Q113
Q54. If a variable is not monitored during the welding of the test coupon, must
it be recorded on the PQR?
a) It shall be recorded on the PQR
b) All variables monitored or not shall be recorded on the PQR
c) It shall not be recorded on the PQR
d) It shall be recorded in the fabrication guidelines
ANS:
Q55. It is the intent of Section IX that the full range of variables to be used in
production be qualified?
a) True
b) False
ANS:
Q61. The PQR shall be available, upon request, to which of the following?
a) The welder performing the production welds
b) The welding supervisor in charge of fabrication
c) The Authorized Inspector
d) The jurisdiction where the vessel, tank, piping system, or boiler will be
located
ANS: c
Q64. More than one PQR may be used to qualify a single WPS?
a) True
b) False
ANS: a
Q65. Can a single PQR support more than one WPS?
a) Yes
b) No
ANS: a
Q66. A procedure qualified for the root deposit only on a thick coupon may
be used to support a WPS for:
a) Base metal that is not more than thick
b) Procedures can only support a single WPS
c) Base metal thickness with a maximum thickness of 1
d) Any thickness of base metal
ANS: c
Q67. A procedure qualified for the root deposit only in which weld metal is
deposited may be used to deposit ___ thickness of weld metal in production?
a) 5/8th inch
b) inch
c) inch
d) 9/16th inch
ANS: b
Q68. Qualification for groove welds qualifies for all fillet welds except which of
the following?
a) Some P-34 metals
b) Some P-45 metals
c) Some P-8 metals
d) Some P-11 metals
ANS:
Q69. Can a procedure qualified on plate be used to weld on pipe in
production?
a) Yes
b) No
ANS: a
Q80. Which of the following is the most correct definition for P Numbers?
a) P Number assignments are based on comparable base metal
characteristics such as chemical composition, mechanical properties, and
weldability
b) P Number assignments are based on identical base metal
characteristics such as chemical composition, and weldability
c) P Number assignments are based on comparable base metal
characteristics such as mechanical properties, and weldability
d) P Number assignments are based on comparable base metal
characteristics such as chemical composition and mechanical properties
ANS: a
Q81. Define F Number
a) F - numbers are based on the usability characteristics of the base
metal and the electrode
b) F - numbers are based on the mechanical characteristics of the
electrode
c) F - numbers are based on the chemical composition of the electrode
d) F - numbers are based on the usability characteristics of the electrode
ANS: d
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
Q86. A repair organization has a WPS, which states it is qualified for P-8 to P8 material welded with either E308, E309, or E316 electrodes (SMAW
process). The PQR supporting this WPS states the weld test coupons were
SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS
properly qualified for the base material listed?
a) No, SA-240 Type 304L is not P-8 Material
b) Yes, SA-240 Type 304L is P-11 Material
c) No, SA-240 Type 304L is P-11 Material
d) Yes, SA-240 Type 304L is P-8 Material
ANS: d
Q87. A groove weld WPS is qualified using an 8 thick test coupon. The
testing equipment, for tensile and bend tests, is only capable of accepting
maximum size 1.5 X 1.5 specimens. Only one welding process, F-Number,
and base metal was used. How many tensile specimens are required?
(Assume the minimum number of tests are performed.)
a) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required 8 1.5
= 5.33 coupons. Since the minimum number of tests are performed, 6 X 4
= 24 Tension tests
b) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required 8 1.5
= 5.33 coupons. Since the minimum number of tests are performed, 6 X 6
= 36 Tension tests
c) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required 8 1.5
= 5.33 coupons. Since the minimum number of tests are performed, 6 X 2
= 12 Tension tests
d) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required 8 1.5
= 5.33 coupons. Since the minimum number of tests are performed, 6 X 1
= 6 Tension tests
ANS: a
Comment: all specimens will be 6x 6 =36
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
2+4 =6
2+4 =6
2+4 =6
2+4 =6
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
Q92. May a welder, who is qualified using a double groove weld, make a
single V-groove weld without backing with out re-qualification?
a) Yes, the welder is qualified with or without backing
b) No, the welder welded the second side of the weld with backing in
qualification
c) Yes, backing is not a welders variable
d) Yes, the type of joint is not a welders variable
ANS: b
Q93. A welder qualified with a P-1 test coupon (using SMAW E7018
electrodes). May the welder weld P-4 material using E-8028 electrodes in
production (Assume the P-4 procedure using E-8028 electrodes has been
qualified).
a) No, the welder is only qualified to weld P-1 to P-1 material
b) No, the welder must requalify using a WPS for P-1 to P-4
c) Yes, P numbers are not a welders variable
d) Yes, qualification with P-1 also qualifies through P-11 (P-15F)
ANS:P1 qualified P4/ F4 w/wo backing qualified F1 with backing
Note: F numbers suitability was not addressed
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
Q94. Under what conditions does the inspector have the right to call for requalification of welders or welding operators?
a) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding
operator's ability to make welds that meet the specification, all of the
welders qualifications shall be revoked
b) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding
operator's ability to make welds that meet the specification, the welders
qualification supporting the welding in question shall be extended an
additional three hours. All other qualifications not questioned remain in
effect.
c) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding
operator's ability to make welds that meet the specification, the
qualification supporting the welding in question shall be revoked. All other
qualifications not questioned remain in effect.
d) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding
operator's ability to make welds that meet the specification, the welder
shall be given the opportunity to regain his/her composure and re-weld
the joint.
ANS:c
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
Q95. In order for a welder to be qualified for all positions in pipe welding, what
minimum positions must he or she qualify in?
a) 5G and 1G
b) 5G and 2F
c) 5G and 1G
d) 5G and 2G
ANS: d
Q96. In performance qualification of pipe groove welds, which positions
require more than two guided bend tests for qualification?
a) 5G or 6G (4 bend tests)
b) 5G and 2G (6 bend tests)
c) 5G or 2G
d) 5G and 2F
ANS: a
Q97. Does qualification on groove weld qualify a welder for any size,
diameter and thickness of fillet weld?
a) Yes
b) No
ANS: a
Q98. A welder is qualified in the 5G pipe position. This welder is also qualified
for all but which of the following?
a) All positions of fillet welds
b) SP, F
c) F, H
d) F, V, O
ANS: b & c
Q99. Groove design is an essential variable for the SMAW, SAW, GMAW,
and GTAW processes.
a) True
b) False
ANS: b
Q100. SMAW procedure is qualified with backing. May the WPS indicate
welding with or with out backing? (or w/wo boths)
a) Yes
b) No
ANS: b
Q101. When are group numbers required to be documented on the WPS, for
an SMAW or a GTAW procedure?
a) Group numbers are never addressed on a WPS
b) Group numbers are only addressed on a PQR
c) When hardness tests are required
d) When impact testing is required
ANS: d
Q102. An SMAW procedure is qualified using a coupon, thick. What is the
widest base metal thickness range that can be listed on the WPS?
a) 1/16 to 1
b) 3/16 to 8
c) 3/16 to 1
d) 1/16 to 8
ANS: c
Q103. A GMAW procedure is qualified using a coupon, 3/4 thick. What is the
widest base metal thickness range that can be listed on the WPS?
a) 1/16 to 1
b) 3/16 to 1
c) 1/16 to 8
d) 3/16 to 8
ANS: b
Q104. An SMAW procedure is qualified using a coupon 1 thick. What is the
widest base metal thickness range that can be listed on the WPS?
a) 1/16 to 2
b) 3/16 to 4
c) 1/16 to 4
d) 3/16 to 2
ANS: d
Q111. In tension testing of plate, full thickness specimens are required for
thickness up to and including what dimension?
a) 1/2"
b) 3/4"
c) 1"
d) 1 1/4"
ANS: c
Q112. In tension testing of pipe, having an outside diameter greater than 3",
full thickness specimens are required for thickness up to and including what
dimension?
a) 1/2"
b) 3/4"
c) 1"
d) 1 1/4"
ANS: c
ASME
Nondestructive Examination
2010 ASME Boiler and
Pressure Vessel Code
ASME
ASME Section V NDE Requirements
Q9. The purpose of the lead letter B placed on the back of each film holder
during each exposure of a radiograph is to determine if backscatter radiation
is exposing the film.
a) True
b) False
ANS: a
Q10. What are the minimum dimensions of the lead letter B used to
measure backscatter?
a) in height and 1/16 in thickness
b) in height and 3/16 in thickness
c) in height and 1/16 in thickness
d) in height and 3/16 in thickness
ANS:
Q11. Which of the following is correct with regard to the identification for the
radiograph traceable to the weld or weld seam?
a) The identification must appear as a radiographic image
b) The identification shall be produced permanently on the radiograph
c) The identification shall be placed on the film holder
d) The identification need only be maintained until construction is
completed
ANS: b
Q12. What must be used to judge film density?
a) A radiographic mass spectrometer comparison light
b) A suitable black light specifically designed for radiographic film
evaluation
c) A green laser or fluorescent light viewing box
d) A densitrometer or step wedge comparison film
ANS: d
Q21. How are step wedge comparison films and densitrometers calibrated?
a) In accordance with paragraph 5 of SE-1079, Calibrated of
Transmission Densitometers, using a calibrated step wedge film
traceable to a National Standard.
b) In accordance with paragraph 5 of SE-2079, Calibrated of
Transmission Densitometers, using a calibrated step wedge film
traceable to a National Standard.
c) In accordance with paragraph 3 of SE-1079, Calibrated of
Transmission Densitometers, using a calibrated step wedge film
traceable to a National Standard.
d) In accordance with paragraph 3 of SE-2079, Calibrated of
Transmission Densitometers, using a calibrated step wedge film
traceable to a National Standard.
ANS:
Q22. What is the preferred exposure technique used for radiography?
a) Double-wall exposure b) Triple-wall exposure
c) Shear-wave exposure d) Single-wall exposure
ANS: d
Q43. What is the transmitted density limit between the body of the
penetrameter and the area of interest for single film viewing using a GammaRay source?
a) 1.8
b) 2.0
c) 0.2
d) 0.18
ANS: b
Q44. What is the maximum allowable transmitted density through the
radiographic image of the body of a hole penetrameter and the area of
interest?
a) 1.3
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 4.0
ANS: d
Q64. What three types of particles are used in Magnetic Particle examination?
a) Wet, Damp, and Fluorescent
b) Wet, Dry, and Fluorescent
c) Wet, Dry, and Red Iron Filings
d) Wet, Dry, and Gray Iron Filings
ANS: b
Q65. What is the maximum surface temperature, of the part being examined,
permitted for Magnetic Particle examination using dry particles?
a) 600F
b) 125F
c) 135F
d) 175F
ANS: a
T731:
(c) Temperature Limitations. Particles shall be used
within the temperature range limitations set by the manufacturer
of the particles. Alternatively, particles may be
used outside the particle manufacturers recommendations
providing the procedure is qualified in accordance with
Article 1, T-150 at the proposed temperature.
Q66. During Magnetic Particle examination using the dry particle technique,
the dry particles must provide a color contrast between the particles and the
part being examined? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
ANS: a
Q67. In Magnetic Particle examination, using the wet particle technique, the
particles need not provide a color contrast between the particles and the part
being examined? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
ANS: b
Q68. In Magnetic Particle examination, using the wet particle technique, what
is the maximum temperature of the wet particle suspension and the surface of
the part permitted according to ASME Section V?
a) 600F
b) 125F
c) 135F
d) 175F
ANS:
Q69. In Magnetic Particle examination using fluorescent particles, what is
another term used for ultraviolet light?
a) Infrared light
b) Blue light
c) Laser light
d) Black light
ANS: d
Q70. How long must the examiner be in the darkened room prior to
performing Magnetic Particle examination using the fluorescent particle
technique?
a) 10 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) There is no minimum time
d) 30 minutes
ANS: b
Q71. How often should the black light intensity be check for the fluorescent
particle technique of Magnetic Particle examination?
a) Every 8 hours and whenever the workstation is changed
b) Every 4 hours and whenever the workstation is changed
c) Every 4 hours and whenever the examiners are changed
d) Every 8 hours and whenever the examiners are changed
ANS: b
Q74. For Magnetic Particle, how often should magnetizing equipment with an
ammeter be calibrated?
a) Once a year or whenever the equipment has been subjected to major
electrical repair, periodic overhaul or damage.
b) Once each five years or whenever the equipment has been subjected
to major electrical repair, periodic overhaul or damage.
c) Once each six months or whenever the equipment has been subjected
to major electrical repair, periodic overhaul or damage.
d) Once each three months or whenever the equipment has been
subjected to major electrical repair, periodic overhaul or damage.
ANS: a (correct)
Q75. If, after calibration, Magnetic Particle equipment is stored for over a year,
must it be calibrated prior to the next use?
a) No, since the equipment was in storage, it should still be in calibration
b) Yes, if the equipment has not been in use for a year or more,
calibration shall be done prior to use
ANS: b
Q76. In Magnetic Particle examination, the units meter reading shall not
deviate by more than ___ of full scale, relative to the actual current value as
shown by the test meter.
a) The units meter reading shall not deviate more than 30%
b) The units meter reading shall not deviate more than 20%
c) The units meter reading shall not deviate more than 10%
d) The units meter reading shall not deviate more than 00%
ANS:
Q77. In Magnetic Particle testing using the prod technique, what type of
current and what are the current ranges in amps/in., required by Section V,
for materials or greater in thickness?
a) Direct or alternating magnetizing current shall be used and 90 amp/in.
(minimum) to 110 amps/in. (maximum) of prod spacing.
b) Direct or alternating magnetizing current shall be used and 100 amp/in.
(minimum) to 125 amps/in. (maximum) of prod spacing.
c) Direct or rectified magnetizing current shall be used and 90 amp/in.
(minimum) to 110 amps/in. (maximum) of prod spacing.
d) Direct or rectified magnetizing current shall be used and 100 amp/in.
(minimum) to 125 amps/in. (maximum) of prod spacing.
ANS: d
Q78. In Magnetic Particle testing using the prod technique, what are the
current ranges in amps/in., required by Section V, for materials less than
in thickness?
a) 90 amps/in. (minimum) to 110 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
b) 80 amps/in. (minimum) to 110 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
c) 90 amps/in. (minimum) to 125 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
d) 80 amps/in. (minimum) to 125 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
ANS: a
Q79. In the prod technique of Magnetic Particle testing, what is the maximum
prod spacing allowed?
a) 12 inches
b) 8 inches
c) 6 inches
d) 3 inches
ANS: b
Q80. In the prod technique of Magnetic Particle testing, prod spacing of less
than three inches is strongly recommended? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
ANS: b (b correct!)
Q81. The yoke technique of Magnetic Particle testing shall only be used to
detect what type of discontinuities?
a) Slight sub-surface discontinuities
b) Laminations
c) Discontinuities that are open to the surface
d) Lack of penetration
ANS: c
Q82. A.C. yokes are superior to D.C. yokes in Magnetic Particle testing for
materials greater than in thickness? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
ANS: b (?)
Q83. What are the lifting power requirements for A.C. yokes used in Magnetic
Particle testing?
a) They must lift 30 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
b) They must lift 10 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
c) They must lift 40 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
d) They must lift 20 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
ANS: b
Q84. What are the lifting power requirements for D.C. yokes used in Magnetic
Particle testing?
a) They must lift 30 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
b) They must lift 10 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
c) They must lift 40 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
d) They must lift 20 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
ANS: c
Q85. Localized surface irregularities due to machining marks may produce
false indications during Magnetic Particle testing?
a) True
b) False
ANS: a
Q86. How much overlap is required in Ultrasonic Testing for each pass of a
search unit?
a) 20% of the transducer dimension perpendicular to the direction of the
scan
b) 10% of the thickness of the part being examined perpendicular to the
direction of the scan
c) 20% of the thickness of the part being examined perpendicular to the
direction of the scan
d) 10% of the transducer dimension perpendicular to the direction of the
scan
ANS:
Q87. What is the maximum rate of search unit movement, permitted in
Section V, for Ultrasonic Examination?
a) 6/hr. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
b) 6/sec. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
c) 6/min. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
d) 6/sec. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
ANS: c
Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang
T-470 EXAMINATION
T-471 General Examination Requirements
(a) Each pass of the search unit shall overlap a minimum
of 10% of the transducer (piezoelectric element) dimension
parallel to the direction of scan indexing. As an alternative,
if the sound beam dimension parallel to the direction of
scan indexing is measured in accordance with Nonmandatory
Appendix B, B-466, Beam Spread measurement rules,
each pass of the search unit may provide overlap of the
minimum beam dimension determined.
T-471.2 Pulse Repetition Rate. The pulse repetition
rate shall be small enough to assure that a signal from a
reflector located at the maximum distance in the examination
volume will arrive back at the search unit before the
next pulse is placed on the transducer.
T-471.3 Rate of Search Unit Movement. The rate of
search unit movement (scanning speed) shall not exceed
6 in./s (150 mm/s), unless:
Q88. For contact examination, the temperature of the examination and basic
calibration block surfaces shall be within _____F
a) 50
b) 25
c) 15
d) 10
ANS: b
Q89. Ultrasonic search units may contain single or dual transducer elements?
(True or False)
a) True
b) False
ANS: a
Q90. For search units, with contoured contact wedges, how is calibration
accomplished?
a) Calibration shall be done with contact wedges of similar material as
those used during the examination
b) Calibration shall be done with basic calibration contact wedges
c) Calibration shall be done with contact wedges that are at least 75% of
the dimension as the contact wedges used during the examination
d) Calibration shall be done with the contact wedges used during the
examination
ANS: d
ANS:
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