Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. (Signature)
PAPER - I
OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................
(Name)
2. (Signature)
Roll No.
(Name)
D0 0 1 5
Time : 1 hours]
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
(In words)
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this
page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions,
out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty
(50) questions. In the event of candidate attempting more than
fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate
would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal/polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal/without polythene bag and do not
accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or
duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy
should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced
nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should
be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
(iv) The Series of this booklet is S, make sure that the Series
printed on OMR Sheet is same as that on this booklet. In case
of discrepancy in Series, the candidate should immediately
report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of the
Test Booklet/OMR Sheet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) and
(4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct
response against each item.
Example :
where (3) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet
given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your response at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any
mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted
for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use
abusive language or employ any other unfair means, such as change
of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render
yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with
you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to
carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet
on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.
S-00
Roll No.
DU U S U UU U
- U (60) , U
(50) U U mU
U U U mU
3. U U U, -S U U U
-S ,
U
(i) -S S U /
U SUU-U/
S SU U
(ii) U DU U U U -S DU
U U U U U U S
DU/ U UU
U U S SU U UUU
S U U -S U
U -S
U UQ
(iii) -S U OMR U U
UU OMR U -S U U
(iv) -S U$ S U
-S U$, OMR U$ U
U$ U U U$ -S/
OMR U U U
4. U U (1), (2), (3) (4)
U UU U
(3) U
U
5. U S U OMRU U
U OMRU U
S U U U , U
6. U U
7. (Rough Work) S DU U U
8. OMR U S , U U,
U q , U
U ,
U , U U S
U
9. U # U OMR U UU
U U # U U
U U # U -S OMR
UU
10. / U ZU S U
11. U (UU) U U
12. U U
13. U , U
1.
2.
P.T.O.
PAPER - I
Note :
This paper consists of Sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the
candidate would be required to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In the event of
candidate attempting more than Fifty (50) questions, the first Fifty (50) questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
50 Q x 2 M = 100 Marks
S-00
(2)
(3)
(4)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
- - I
U
- U (60) -U , U (50) U
U mU (50) U U U mU
(50)
50 x 2 = 100
U U 1 5 U
U U SU U U
, U U U U U S ,
U - U S
U U , U ,
U U - UU U
U UU U U U U U
, - U -U U U
U U U U U U
mU 1,000 U , 10 U
, U 13 19 U
U U 80% U
, 56% U U - U
U U
U U
, U ? -, U S U U
? c S S U
U S U (S), U U
M U
U
1.
S-00
?
(1) U UU U
(2) U S
(3) U U U U
(4) U U
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
P.T.O.
2.
When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like a rabbit in the headlight.
What does this phrase mean ?
(1) A state of anxiety
(2) A state of pain
(3) A state of confusion
(4) A state of pleasure
3.
4.
How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen ?
(1) 500
(2) 100
(3) 800
(4)
560
5.
According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit ?
(1) Sketching
(2) Reading
(3) Handwriting
(4) Photography
6.
Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis ?
(1) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(2) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.
(3) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(4) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
7.
8.
S-00
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
2.
U U SU U , U
?
(1) S
(2) S
(3) S
(4) S
3.
__________ -
(a) UU
(b)
(c) UUUU
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c)
(2)
(4)
(3) (b)
4.
(b) U (c)
(a)
(b)
U, U ?
(1)
500
(2)
100
(3)
800
(4)
560
5.
U, ?
(1) U (S)
(2)
(3) S
(4) U
6.
- U U ?
(1) U U
(2) U U
(3) U , U
(4) U , U
7.
U ?
(1) UU
(2) UU U
(3) M
(4) SU (UU)
8.
- U ?
(a) U
(b) U, -
(c)
(d)
U U
(1) (b), (c) U (d)
(2) (a), (b) U (d)
(4) (b) U (d)
(3) (b) U (c)
S-00
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
P.T.O.
9.
Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the
demand on the :
(1)
11.
Teacher
(2)
State
(3)
Family
(4)
Society
Diagnosis
(b)
Remedy
(c)
Direction
(d)
Feedback
12.
13.
S-00
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
9.
- ... M ?
(a) UU , UU U
(b) U U ( )
(c) S , UU U
(d) cU U
U U
(1) (c) U (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c) U (d)
(3) (a) U (b)
(4) (b), (c) U (d)
10.
S U ,
(1)
(2) U
(3) UU
(4)
11.
U - ?
(a)
(b) U
(c)
(d) cU
U U
(1) (b), (c) U (d)
(2)
(4)
(3) (a), (b), (c) U (d)
(c) U (d)
(a) U (b)
12.
S M S S $ U UU
(1) Z UU
(2) U UU U
(3) UU UU
(4) UU UU
13.
- ?
(1)
(2) g
(3) M
(4) U U
S-00
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
P.T.O.
14.
15.
Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple - choice type
questions ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
17.
Questionnaire
(2)
Schedule
(3)
Rating scale
(4)
Interview
(b)
Setting examples
(c)
(d)
Acknowledging mistakes
18.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R
as :
(1)
19.
(2)
Father
(3)
Son
(4)
Brother
Reception
(4)
Transmission
S-00
Uncle
Non-regulation (2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
Context
(3)
8
14.
- - U ?
(1) -U cU
(2) - cU
(3) - ScU
(4) ScU
15.
- ?
(a) U U U U h U
(b) U S U
(c) U U
(d) U UU U U
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c)
(2) (b), (c) U (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) U (d)
(4) (b) U (d)
16.
U U U
U U ?
(1)
(2)
(3) U
(4) U
17.
- U ?
(a) S
(b) U S U
(c) U U U U
(d) SU U
U U
(1) (a), (c) U (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c) U (d)
(3) (a), (b) U (d)
(4) (b), (c) U (d)
18.
P U Q
(1)
19.
S-00
R U S
(2)
P S Q R ?
(3)
(4)
U
(1) U-
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
(3)
9
(4)
U
P.T.O.
20.
21.
Utilitarian
(2)
Spurious
(4)
Critical
J56I
(4)
I62Q
22.
Confrontational (3)
Q62J
(2)
is :
J58Q
(3)
23.
27.
Deductive
(4)
Analogical
Stipulative
(2)
Persuasive
(3)
Lexical
(4)
Precising
18
(2)
24
(3)
12
(4)
14
1 rd
of students is found to be
3
60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will
be :
74
(2)
72
(3)
80
(4)
76
(2)
eye contact
(3)
(4)
Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a
wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled
8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is :
(1)
S-00
(3)
(1)
26.
Biological
A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one
son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in
the party is :
(1)
25.
(2)
A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called :
(1)
24.
Psychological
12 km
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
10 km
(3)
10
20 km
(4)
14 km
20.
21.
-U
(1)
(2) U
(3)
(4)
(3)
J56I
(4)
I62Q
o ?
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,
(1)
Q62J
(2)
J58Q
22.
U U
UU U , SU ,
, U U
U ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
23.
U -U U cU ,
(1) S U (2) U
(3) -
(4) Uh
24.
U , , , U , U
S U S ?
(1)
25.
18
210 U
(2)
24
(3)
?
(1)
74
(2)
72
1
U
3
(3)
12
(4)
14
60 U 78
80
(4)
76
26.
SU U
(1) U
(2) $U
(3)
(4) SU U
27.
U 6 .. U U
U U 12 .. U , U U
8 .. U U U ?
(1) 12 ..
(2) 10 ..
(3) 20 ..
(4) 14 ..
S-00
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
11
P.T.O.
28.
(b)
(c)
(d)
29.
(1)
(2)
(a) only
(3)
(4)
If the proposition No men are honest is taken to be false which of the following proposition/
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?
Propositions :
30.
31.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Para language
(2)
Delivery language
(3)
Physical language
(4)
Personal language
Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered
as :
(1)
32.
Impersonal
(2)
Irrational
(3)
Verbal
(4)
Non-verbal
Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given
below :
(A) : No man is perfect.
(R) : Some men are not perfect.
33.
(1)
(2)
(3)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(4)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
S-00
62
?
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
is :
72
(3)
12
50
(4)
57
28.
l mU g
(a) l U U U U
(b) U
(c) U
(d) U U U
U U
(1) (a), (b) U (c)
(2) (a)
(3) (a) U (b)
(4) (b), (c) U
(d)
29.
U /
M ?
(1) U U
(2) U
(3) U
(4) U U
30.
(1) U M
(2) U M
(3) UU M
(4) M
31.
, Z U M ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
32.
(A) U (R) U U U U U
(A) :
(R) : U
(1) (A) , U (R)
(2) (A) , U (R)
(3) (A) U (R) U (R), (A) S U
(4) (A) U (R) U (R), (A) S U
33.
o ?
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37,
(1) 62
S-00
?
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
72
(3)
13
50
(4)
57
P.T.O.
34.
35.
An explanation
(2)
A valid argument
(3)
An inference
(4)
An argument
Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true
although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code.
Propositions :
(a)
(b)
No priest is cunning.
(c)
(d)
Codes :
(1)
36.
37.
38.
(3)
(1)
Idea protocol
(2)
Mind mapping
(3)
Systemisation
(4)
Problem - orientation
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2)
Monitor
(3)
Microphone
(4)
Keyboard
Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ?
(1)
S-00
(2)
Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern
of ideas is referred to as :
(1)
39.
Tamil Nadu
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
West Bengal
(3)
14
Maharashtra
(4)
Rajasthan
34.
35.
U , U c U ,
(1)
ScUU
(2)
(3)
(4)
U l
? U
(a)
U U
(b)
(c)
(d)
U U
U
(1)
36.
37.
38.
(c)
(2)
(a) U (d)
(3)
(a) U (b)
(1)
U U
(2)
Sc
(3)
(4)
S-U
(4)
(c) U (d)
M S ?
(1)
(2)
cU
(3)
(4)
(U) U ?
SU
(2)
UU
(3)
(4)
(4)
US
U U U ?
(1)
S-00
U U L M
(1)
39.
(a)
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
(3)
15
UcU
P.T.O.
40.
41.
42.
Mozilla Firefox
(2)
Acrobat Reader
(3)
MS Word
(4)
Windows
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word ?
(1)
43.
44.
S-00
(2)
Mail merge
(3)
Mail join
(4)
Mail copy
(2)
not fixed
(3)
4 years
(4)
5 years
As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the
installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to :
(1)
45.
Mail insert
250 GW
(2)
350 GW
(3)
175 GW
(4)
200 GW
At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct
sequence.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
16
40.
41.
42.
UU ?
(1)
(2)
U UUU
(3)
..U
(4)
.....U.
(1)
- ..U.
(2)
-Z ..U.
(3)
..U.
(4)
-Z ..U.
.. U ?
(1)
43.
44.
S-00
(2)
(3)
(4)
U
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
65
UcU U M , U UU 2030 U S
?
(1)
45.
250 GW
(2)
350 GW
(3)
175 GW
(4)
200 GW
, ( U U/) ,
(1)
(3)
> M
> > U
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
(2)
(4)
17
P.T.O.
46.
Religion
(b)
Sex
(c)
Place of birth
(d)
Nationality
47.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b)
Wood stoves
(c)
Kerosene heaters
48.
(1)
(b) only
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b)
The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election
Commission.
(c)
(d)
The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
49.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
S-00
16 bits
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
10 bits
(3)
18
4 bits
(4)
8 bits
46.
S U U M ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
UcU
U U
47.
(1)
(a), (b)
(d)
(2)
(3)
(b), (c)
(d)
(4)
(a), (b)
(c)
(d)
U , U U / d /
(a)
(b)
(c)
^ UU
48.
(1)
(b)
(3)
(a)
U (b)
(2)
(a), (b)
(4)
U (c)
(b)
U (c)
- ?
(a)
(b)
U U mU U
(c)
SU-SU- SU
(d)
U S
49.
(1)
(a), (c)
(3)
(a)
(c)
(2)
(4)
(a), (b)
(c)
(3)
(d)
UU U
(1)
S-00
(d)
16
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
10
U
19
(4)
U
P.T.O.
50.
Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
(RUSA) ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
51.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b)
Google Talk
(c)
Viber
52.
(1)
(a) only
(2)
(3)
(4)
Assertion (A) : People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking
environmental degradation.
Reason (R) :
53.
54.
(1)
(2)
(3)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Landslide
(2)
Chemical contamination
(3)
Wildfire
(4)
Lightning
S-00
Lead
(2)
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
Ozone
(3)
20
Pesticides
(4)
Mercury
50.
UcU U (U....) g ?
(a) UU S U U
(b) U
(c) S l S U
(d) U l S l SU U
U U
(1) (a), (c) U (d)
(2) (a), (b) U (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) U (d)
(4) (a), (b) U (c)
51.
UU ?
(a) U
(b) U
(c) U
U
(1) (a)
(2) (a), (b) U (c)
(3) (a) U (b)
(4) (b) U (c)
52.
53.
- U U ?
(1) S
(2) U
(3)
(4)
54.
U U ?
(1)
(2) $
(3) U
S-00
M U O U
h U U O U
(R) :
U
(1) (A) , U (R)
(2) (A) , U (R)
(3) (A) U (R) U (R), (A) ScUU
(4) (A) U (R) , U (R), (A) ScUU
(A) :
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
21
(4)
U
P.T.O.
Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of
a country.
Year
Population (million)
1951
20
10
1961
21
20
1971
24
25
1981
27
40
1991
30
50
2001
32
80
2011
35
100
* 1 GW51000 million watt
Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 55 to 60.
55.
In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum ?
(1)
56.
(4)
1991-2001
400 W
(2)
500 W
(3)
100 W
(4)
200 W
~ 6.73%
(2)
~ 5%
(3)
~ 12.21%
(4)
~ 9.82%
37.28 million
(2)
36.62 million
(3)
40.34 million
(4)
38.49 million
600%
(2)
900%
(3)
100%
(4)
300%
1991-2001
(2)
2001-2011
(3)
-o0o-
S-00
1981-1991
By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011 ?
(1)
60.
(3)
Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021 ?
(1)
59.
1971-1981
58.
(2)
In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person ?
(1)
57.
2001-2011
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
22
1961-71
(4)
1971-81
U l
( )
l ( U)*
1951
20
10
1961
21
20
1971
24
25
1981
27
40
1991
30
50
2001
32
80
2011
35
100
*1
51000 U
U U 55 60 U
55.
, l ?
(1)
56.
57.
59.
60.
(2)
1971-1981
(3)
1951 , l ?
(1) 400 U
(2) 500 U
(3)
1981-1991
(4)
1991-2001
(4)
200
(4)
~ 9.82%
(4)
38.49
(4)
300%
(4)
1971-81
100
h U (%) ?
(1)
58.
2001-2011
~ 6.73%
(2)
~ 5%
(3)
~ 12.21%
h U U U 2021 ?
(1) 37.28
(2) 36.62
(3) 40.34
1951 2011
(1) 600%
l h ?
(2)
900%
(3)
100%
h U (%) ?
(1)
1991-2001
(2)
2001-2011
(3)
1961-71
-o0o-
S-00
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
23
P.T.O.
S-00
!D-0015-PAPER-I-SET-S!
24