Professional Documents
Culture Documents
d.) Ideally, the vaccine is administered before the first sexual contact.
4.) Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is the most commonly reported
in American women?
a.) Gonorrhea
b.) Syphilis
c.) Chlamydia
d.) Candidiasis
5.) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends which
therapy for the treatment of the HPV?
a.) Miconazole ointment
b.) Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
c.) Two doses of penicillin administered intramuscularly (IM)
d.) Metronidazole by mouth
6.) Which laboratory testing is used to detect the human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV)?
a.) HIV screening
b.) HIV antibody testing
c.) Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) counts
d.) Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8) counts
7.) Which treatment regime would be most appropriate for a client who has
been recently diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
a.) Oral antiviral therapy
b.) Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position
c.) Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside
d.) Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the healing progress
fishy odor and complaints of pruritus. Based upon these findings, which
condition would the nurse suspect?
a.) Bacterial vaginosis
b.) Candidiasis
c.) Trichomoniasis
d.) Gonorrhea
10.) The nurse should understand the process by which the HIV infection
occurs. Once the virus has entered the body, what is the time frame for
seroconversion to HIV positivity?
a.) 6 to 10 days
b.) 2 to 4 weeks
c.) 6 to 12 weeks
d.) 6 months
11.) Which STI does not respond well to antibiotic therapy?
a.) Chlamydia
b.) Gonorrhea
c.) Genital herpes
d.) Syphilis
12.) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is part of the normal vaginal flora in 20%
to 30% of healthy pregnant women. GBS has been associated with poor
15.) A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which
is the most important action the nurse should perform during the
assessment process?
a.) Obtain a history of the womans menstrual cycle lengths for the past
6 to 12 months
b.) Determine the clients weight gain and loss pattern for the previous
year.
c.) Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes.
d.) Explore the clients previous experiences with conception control.
16.) Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such
as Depo-Provera (DMPA) as a contraceptive choice?
a.) The ideal candidate for DMPA wants menstrual regularity and
predictability.
b.) The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
c.) The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral
contraceptives daily.
d.) The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care.
e.) Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization.
23.) The practice of the calendar rhythm method is based on the number of
days in each menstrual cycle. The fertile period is determined after
monitoring each cycle for 6 months. The beginning of the fertile period is
estimated by subtracting 18 days from the longest cycle and 11 days from
the shortest. If the womans cycles vary in length from 24 to 30 days, then
her fertile period would be day _____ through day ______.
24.) Which condition would be inappropriate to treat with exogenous
progesterone (human chorionic gonadotropin)?
a.) Thyroid dysfunction
b.) Recent miscarriage
c.) PCOD
d.) Oocyte retrieval
25.) What is the most common reproductive tract cancer associated with
pregnancy?
a.) Cervical
b.) Uterine
c.) Ovarian
d.) Fallopian tube
26.) A woman exhibits symptoms that may lead to a possible diagnosis of
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). While completing the initial assessment
of the client, which clinical finding would the nurse not anticipate?
a.) Anorexia
b.) Hirsutism
c.) Irregular menses
d.) Infertility
27.) What information is important for the nurse to include in planning for the
care of a woman who has had a vaginal hysterectomy?
a.) The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and
hostile.
b.) The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in
different stages of healing.
c.) Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises.
d.) She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.
37.) Which statement regarding human trafficking is correct?
a.) Human trafficking is a multibillion-dollar business that primarily exists
in the United States.
b.) Victims often experience the Stockholm syndrome.
c.) Vast majority of the victims are young boys and girls.
d.) Human trafficking primarily refers to commercial sex work.
38.) Which statement is the most comprehensive description of sexual
violence?
a.) Sexual violence is limited to rape.
b.) Sexual violence is an act of force during which an unwanted and
uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
c.) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
d.) Sexual violence includes degrading sexual comments and behaviors.
39.) Women with severe and persistent mental illness are likely to be more
vulnerable to being involved in controlling and/or violent relationships;
however, many women develop mental health problems as a result of longterm abuse. Which condition is unlikely to be a psychologic consequence of
continued abuse?
a.) Substance abuse
b.) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
c.) Eating disorders
d.) Bipolar disorder
40.) What are some common characteristics of a potential male batterer?
(Select all that apply.)
a.) High level of self-esteem
41.) Which nursing diagnoses would be most applicable for battered women?
(Select all that apply.)
a.) Loss of trust
b.) Ineffective family coping
c.) Situational low self-esteem
d.) Risk for self-directed violence
e.) Enhanced communication
42.) The nurse who is evaluating the client for potential abuse should be
aware that IPV includes a number of different forms of abuse, including which
of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.) Physical
b.) Sexual
c.) Emotional
d.) Psychologic
e.) Financial