\chievers MDS Academy India’s Leading Academy in MDS Entrance Examinations Complete Course 2016-17 Subject Test - GENERAL SURGERY 1 Question Booklet April 24, 2016 www.achieversmdsacademy.com +91 8758094554, +91 9974112761, +91 98506368661. Level 1 axillary lymph node are present: A. Lateral to pectoralis minor 8, Medial to pectoralis minor C. Lateral to pectoralis major D. Medial to pectoralis major 2. Throat pack true is: ‘A. Not used with cuffed endotracheal tubes B. Removed prior to extubation C. Well tolerated by awake patient D. Should be used even after surgery 3. All of the following can be accurately assessed by CVP and pulmonary wedge- pressure (PWP) except A. Tissue perfusion 8. Volume depletion C. Volume overload D. Myocardial function 4. All of the following factors delay wound healing except: A. Vitamin B12 deficiency 8. Ascorbic acid deficiency C. Vitamin A deficiency D. Infection 5, Most important step in cardiac resuscitation A. Bicarbonate administration B. Cardiac massage €. Ventilation D. Intracardiac adrenaline 6. Most appropriate statement for nasallRAE tubes: A. Can be used to keep the patient intubated in the post-operative period 8. Used most commanlyfor cleft lip and palate surgery C. Useful in basilar skull fractures D. Keeps the surgical field free during surgery 7. Wide scars occur due to: A. Early suture removal B. Excessive skin tension C. Use of subcutaneous absorbable sutures D. Excessive undermining of skin edges 8. All of the following may be premonitary symptoms of tetanus except A. Sleeplessness 8. Anxious expression €. Urinary Incontinence D. Headache 9. Radiolucent renal stones are composed of: A. Cystine 8. Struvite C. Uric Acid D. Calcium 10. Discontinuity of an epithelial surface Is seen in, A. Fistula B. Sinus C. Ulcer D. None 11, Androphonia can be corrected by.doing A. Type 1 thyroplasty B. Type 2 thyroplasty C. Type 3 thyroplasty D. Type 4 thyroplasty 12. A36 year female complains of abdominal pain & constipation since 5 ears. She has on & off rectal bleed when she tries to defecate forcefully. The most. probable diagnosis is A. Ulcerative colitis 8. Cros disease C. Tubercblous intestine 1D. Irsitable bowel syndrome 13, The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present times is: A. Transcranial. 8. Transethmoidal C. Transphenodial D. Transcallosal 14. In the healing of an ulcer, the epithelium that eventually will cover the defect is derived from A. Intact epithelium of ulcer margin B, Metaplasia of fibroblast to epithelial cells C. Transformation of fibrous exudate to epithelium D. Transformation of endothelial cells to epithelial cells 15. A patient with Ludwig's angina comes to the emergency with signs of difficulty in breathing. The emergency treatment in such a patient would involve: A. Incision and drainage B, Oropharyngeal intubation using fiber optic guidance C. Tracheostomy D. Cricothyrotomy ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 116, Rajesh, a 7 month old child, presents with failure of gaining weight & noisy breathing which becomes worse when the child cries. Laryngoscopy shows a reddish mass in sub glottis. Treatment modality may include all, except: A. Radiation B, Steroids C. Tracheostomy D. Carbon dioxide laser treatment 17. A dermatome is used A. To remove scar tissue B, To harvest skin grafts C. To abrade skin which is pigmented D. For pairing of lacerated tissue 18. Agent of choice in day care surgery: A. Propofol + fentanyl + isoflurane B. Propofol + fentanyl + halothane C. Thiopentone + isoflurane + pethidine D. Propofol + pethidine + halothane 19. Treatment of spreading streptococcal cellulites is A. Eythromycin B. Penicillin ©. Tetracycline D. Chioramphenicol 20. Most common cause of cold abscess of chest wall is A. Pott’s spine B. TB abscesses of chest wall C. TB of ribs D. intercostal lymphadenitis 21. A 25 year old male With roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearmiunder axillary block. On the second postoperativelday the patient complained of persistent numbhessand paresthesia in the right forearm and hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except ‘A. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves B. A tight cast or dressing C. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics D. Tounriget pressure 22. Neurogenic shock occurs due to blockage of A. Peripheral nervous system 8, Parasympathetic nervous system C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Cerebral tracts 23. Keloid scars A, Usually occur in the Caucasian race 8, Often occur in wounds which have healed perfectly without complications C. Surgical treatment as a single modality has the least recurrence D. Radiation should not be administered as itis a non-malignant condition 24. To control pain in long standing cancer cases, the recommended route of administration of analgesics i Ai B Subcutaneous Sublingual D. Oral 25. Chronic subdurallHematomia is caused by A Fracture skull bone B. Rupture of bridging veins Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. None 26. A'SOyear old male chronic smoker complains of hoatseness for the past 4 months. Micralaryngoscopic biopsy shaws it to be keratosis of tthe farynx. all are suggested treatment modalities for this condition, except: A. Laser vaporizer 8, Stop smoking C Stripping of vocal cord D. Partial laryngectomy 27. Cold abscess is related to A. Periapical pathology 8. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Streptococcus viridans D. None of the above 28, Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of following micro organisms ‘A. Gonococcus B. Enterococcus Streptococcus D. Staphylococcus 29. The most common cause of osteomyelitis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus 8, Salmonella Streptococcus D, Tuberculosis 30. Erysipelas is caused by wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 2‘A. Staph aureus 8. Staph albus C. Strep pyogenes D. Hemophilus 31, Which of the following structures is not removed in radical neck dissection A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Internal jugular vein C. Spinal accessory nerve D. Phrenic nerve +32. Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of: A. Endothelian cells. 8. Collagen fibers. C. Smooth muscle cells. D. Elastic fibers. 33. In extradural hematoma patient presents with ‘A, Slow bounding pulse and falling BP. B. Rapid thready pulse and falling BP. . Slow bounding pulse and rising BP. D. Rapid pulse and normal BP. 24. AS year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had running! nose, temperature 37°C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery? ‘A. Surgery should be cancelled. B. Can proceed for surgery if chest if tear arid there is no history of asthma. C. Should get x-ray chestbefore proceeding for surgery. D. Cancel surgery for'-’week and patient to be on antibiotic. 35. To replenish the inventory the Blood Banks routinely issue blood packets which are close to the expiry date. Which of the following will be the closest to expiry date according to the anticoagulant used and the method of storage of the packet: ‘A. CPDA, 27 days B. SAGM 25 days with irradiation C. SGAM 35 days D. ACD 14 days 36. Most common cause of postoperative shock is A. Hypovolemia 8. Cardiogenic C. Septive D. Air embolism, 37. Nerve repair in an infected wound should be A. primary B. Delayed primary C. secondary D. Not done at all 38, Saint Antony's Fire is a description given for A. Erysipelas B, Impetigo C. Scarlet fever D. Streptococcal tonsillitis 39. AS yr old child was administered local anesthesia for upper right deciduous centrallincisor. Following injection, the child started crying complained of burning sensation in the eye’on theisamesside and swelling in the lower eyelid. What is the most probable reason A. LA reached the lower eyelid after diffusing through infraorbital foramen B. Uncertain Course.of the middle superior alveolar nerve C. Routine crying, no need to worry D, CaUiSed due to preservative in LA, it will settle on its Own 40-A dome shaped skull with a high forehead in the infants with slight hydrocephalus (Olympian brow) is seenin A. Marasmus B. Congenital syphilis C. Rickets D. Arnold Chiari syndrome 41. Which of the following locations show collection of pus in ‘quinsy’ A. Peritonsillar space B. Parapharyngeal space C. Retropharyngeal space D. Within the tonsil 42. Cyst may be complicated by all except A. Infection B. Haemorrhage C. Resolution D. Torsion 43. A patient has Hemoglobin of 6gm%. Which of the following should not be administered: A. Fresh frozen plasma 8. Whole blood C. Random donor platelets D. Packed red cells ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 344, Anatomical landmarks for administration of posterior superior alveolar nerve block are mucobuccal fold, occlusal plane, coronoid process and: A. Anterior border of ramus 8. Mandibular 2nd premolar C. Pterygomandibular raphe D. Palatine tonsils. 45. Dilatation of the pupil In head injury is due to A. Cerebral Irritation B. compression of Ill cranial nerve €. pontine haemorrhage D. all of the above 46, Suture with least adhesion to tissues and high plasticity is: A. Nylon B. Prolene C. Polyglycolate D. PDS 47. Which of the following is the best indication for transfer of maternal blood components to an infant: A. Plasma to prevent ITP 8. RBCs to prevent TA-GVH C. Plasma to prevent NAIT (Neonatal Alloimmune Idiopathic thrombocytopenia) D. Platelets to prevent NAIT 48. 2% solution of copper sulphate followed by sodium bicarbonate application is needed for treating A. Alkali burns B. Acid burns C. Phosphorus burns\ D. Phenolic burns 49. Actinomycdsi8iis Sensitive to A. Streptomycin B. Nystatin C. Penicillin D. Lodox-uridine 50. True regarding Non accidental traumatic fractures all except: A. Costochondral joint fracture B, Sternal fracture C. Parietal fracture D. Metaphyseal corner fracture 51. Modern instruments used for harvesting only hard tissue graft from donor site without damage to nerves and vessels are based on principle of: A. Piezoelectric vibration 8 Cryosurgery C. Osteotome D. Electrosurgery 52. A trauma patient with bleeding in emergency is not able to maintain tongue position voluntarilyThe tongue is best managed by A. Deep suture and traction 8, Hold tongue with towel dip C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Intubation and definite airway '53. In cardio pulmonary resuscitation chest compressions are done’ A.On the upper part of sternum, B. On the xiphisterum, C.On the middle Of the Lower part of the sternum D. On the left side of the chest ‘54. Clotting capacity of blood after storage A. Improves @ Not altered it kept at 4°C ‘C)Not altered if used within 3days D. Diminishes 55. Dacron vascular graft is a: A. Nontextile synthetic. B, Textile synthetic C.Nontextile biologi D. Textile biologic. 56. After splenectomy patient becomes more prone to A. Gram 4ve & anaerobic B, Gram -ve & anaerobic C.Non-encapsulated D. Encapsulated organisms ‘57. In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms ‘over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This condition is called as ‘A. Delayed union B. Slow union C.Non union D. Pseudoarthrosis '58. In patient with prosthetic heart valves undergoing gingival surgery, which of the following is true: wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 4A. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended 8, Rinsing with 2% chlorohexidine mouthwash prior to surgery C. No specific measures D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended 59. Which of the following general anesthetic agentis given intravenously: A. Propofol 8. Sevoflurane C. Nitrous oxide D. Flumazenil 60. Nerve Injury leading to contusion of the nerve in which continuity of both epineura sheath and the axons is maintained is known as: ‘A. Neurotmesis B. Axonotmesis C. Neuroproxia D. Traumatic neuroma 61. Which of the following parts of the body is not affected by leprosy A. Testes 8. Ovary ©. Nasal mucosa D. Axila 62. Dercum’s disease is ‘A. Neurofibromatosis 8. Multiple lipoma C. Multiple warts D. dermoid cyst 63. Treatment of contaminated wound in Gas Gangrene Is ‘A. Debridement of wound! B. Systemic penicillin C. Metronidazole Administration D. Peroxide dressings 64. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre develops hoarseness of voice. The swelling also undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis is: A. Follicular carcinoma 8. Papillary carcinoma C. Medullary carcinoma D. Anaplastic carcinoma 65. Most commonly affected peripheral nerve in leprosy is A. Ulnar 8. Radial C. Medial D. Lateral Popliteal 66. Following are true of erysipelas except A. Streptococcal infection B. Contagious and infectious . Margin is distinct D. None of the above 67. Bed sores are A. Decubitus ulcers B. Meleny ulcers . Malignant ulcers D. None. 68. An abscess is A. Collection of pus B. Pyogenic membrane tavity With pus C. Mainly specific bacterialinfection D. All of theabove 69,An army récruit, smoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at postero medial'@spect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity The most likely diagnosis is: ‘A)Beareer's disease B. Gout C. Lurribar canal stenosis, D. Stress fracture 70. Features of hypovolemic shock are all except A. Oliguria B. Bradycardia C. Low BP D. Acidosis 71. Advantages of full thickness skin graft over split thickness graft are all except A. Better color matching B. Less contraction C. Less chances of injury after healing D. Large surface area can be covered 72. 3rd degree burns, all are seen except: A. Vesicles are absent 8. Painful C. Leathergy skin D. Charred & black 73. A patient with head Injury should be carried in which position A. Prone ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 5B. Supine C. Lateral D. Sitting 74, Standard treatment of verrucous carcinoma of lip: A. Surgery & radiotherapy B. Surgical excision C. Laser therapy D. Interferon 75. Which of these is the best method to check perfusion of free flap: A. Prick test. B. Pulse oxymetry C, Laser Doppler flowmetry D. Fluroscopy 76. The treatment of choice at a glottic cancer with stage TL NO MO is: A. Brachytherapy B. External beam radiotherapy C. Laryngectomy D. Chemotherapy 77. Incompatible blood transfusion leads to all except A. Increased plasma bilirubin B. Increased plasma prothrombin C. Jaundice D. Renal failure 78. Not True about oropharyngeal patk during surgery under general anesthesia: A. Should be given afterinduetionof anesthesia B, Should be removed after, cessation of anesthesia C. It prevents blood aspitation into trachea D. Given when pt isawake 79. Most common sit@of VIII cranial nerve schwannoma is: A. Intrapetrous B. Intraparotid C. Intracanalicular D. Cisternal 80. All are true regarding superior laryngeal nerve block except: A. Needle pierces through thyrohyoid membrane B. Sensory loss below level of vocal cords occurs C. Internal laryngeal nerve is anesthetized D. Thyroid notch is used as a landmark 81. Commonest complication of Immunosuppression Is ‘A. Malignancy B, Graft rejection C Infection D, thrombocytopenia 82. The cold water treatment of burns has the disadvantages that It Increase the chances of A.Pain B. Exudation Infection D. None of the above 83. False about tracheostomyiis: A, Decrease dead space B. Increase dead space Increases lining secretions) D. Work of breathing rediiced 84, Most cotrimon'sign of airway obstruction ‘A. Slow pounding pulse 8. Stertous breathing ‘G.Incféased pulse rate D. Decrease pulse rate 85,Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by: A. Increased blood 8. Elevated body temperature C. Increased atmospheric pressure D. Decreased volume of circulating blood ‘85. Which of the following is not a finding in classical hemophilia (hemophilia A) A. Bleeding into soft tissues, muscles, and joints 8, Decreased factor Vill Increase Prothrombin Time D. Increase Partial Thromboplastin Time 87. The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except ‘A. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life. B, The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline. Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice. D. The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue. 88. In Hashimoto's disease, serum antibodies are mainly against: A. Thyroid follicles 8. Thyroxin wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 6C. Thyroglobulin D. Iodine 89. Commonest cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm A. Atherosclerosis 8. Marfan’s syndrome C. Thrombosis D. Endocarditis 90. The most common level of thyroglossal cyst is A. Lingual 8. Infra-lingual (caecum) €. Supra-hyoid D. Infra-hyoid 91. Commonest manifestation of carcinoma of nasopharynx A. Nasal blockage B. Epistaxis C. Squint D. Secondaries in neck 92. A child who suffered from bilateral cleft lip and. palate is brought to your clinic Immediate treatment should be A. Posterior and anterior cross bite correction 8. Expansion of mand. arch which will cause maxilla to stretch C. Speech therapy D. Patient counseling and orthognathic surgery 93. Hynes pharyngoplasty is used tolimprove’a child's ‘A. Appearance 8. Teething . Speech D. Feeding 94, Preferred material forfemoro popliteal bypass A. Dacron 8. PIFE C. Saphenous vein D. Gortex 95. Rhytidectomy is ‘A. Removal of skin wrinkles 8, Alteration of nasal septum position C. Salivary gland excision D. Cheek augmentation 96. Chronic lymphedema predisposes to all except A. Lymphangiosarcorna B. Marjolins ulcer C. Recurrent Infections D. Thickening of skin 97. All are true about Raynaud’s phenomenon except A. Intense vasospasm of peripheral arteries B. More common in women C. Nifedipine is not useful D. Beta blockers and cold exposure avoided 98. Which of the following is not true about increased intracranial pressure A. Headache B. Nausea / vomiting , Muscle twitching D. Somnolence 99. In cases of medical'emergenties, an Invasive technique to deal with airway obstruction is A. Chest thrust B. Abdominal thrust, C. Mouth,tomouth resuscitation D. Laryngos¢ony 100, Endotoxie shock is initiated by: ‘A. Peripheral vasodilation B. Injury to endothelial cells © Inadequate blood volume (0) Failure of myocardial pump 101. A 15 year old boy is suffering from Hodgkin's disease which shows involvement of lymph nodes. Which of the following treatment will have high success rate A. Lymph node resection. 8. Chemotherapy C. Immunotherapy D. Surgery immunotherapy 102. When LA with adrenaline injection is administered intravenous, which of the following occurs: A. Hypertension and bradycardia B. Hypotension and bradycardia C. Hypertension and tachycardia D. Hypotension and tachycardia 1103. All of the following tests can be useful in identifying syncope except: A. Pet scan B. Table tilt test, C. Hollanders test D. Electrophysiology 104. AMPLE history involves all except: ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 7A. Personal history 8, Pregnancy C. History of allergy D. Last meal taken 105. Which of the following cannot be used as a criterion for diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea A. Tramline pattern B. Higher protein content C. Higher glucose content D. Presence of B2- microglobulin 106. A transplant of bone from one part to other part of body in the same individual A. Autogenous B, Homologous C, Heterogenous D. Alloplastic 107. Early stage of trauma is characterized by: A. Catabolism B. Anabolism C. Glycogenesis D. Glyconeogenesis only 108. Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing catgut suture A. Isopropyl alcohol B. Colloidal iodine C. Glutaraldehyde D. Hydrogen peroxide 109. Which of the following statement is true with reference to glasgow coma seale A. In the first 24 hrsfollowing\a head injury an overall score of 11 indicates'a good \prognosis B. An overall score of less than 9 indicates poor prognosis C. Gives an atcurate impression of the neurological status D. Cannot be assessed in an unconscious patient 110. Foaming liver is seen in A. Organophospliorus Poisoning B. Actinomycosis C. Gas gangrene D. Anthrax 111. Better levels of factor VIll are achieved by infusion of: A. Cryoprecipitate B. Desmopressin C. Fresh frozen plasma D. Fresh blood 112. CSF rhinorrhea is from the A. Fracture in cribriform plate B. Fracture petrous temporal bone Fracture of the posterior wall of the nose D. Fracture floor of the floor of the anterior cranial fosse 113. To assess the perfusion in a free flap, the best technique is: A. Pulse oximetry 8, Laser Doppler velocitometry .Fluorescine and dermal fluométry D. Prick test 114, Gut suturing material isabsorbed by A. Oxidation B. Hydrolysis C Fibrinolysis D. Proteolysis 118, Cryoprecipitate is a rich source of ‘A. Thromboplastin B. Factor VII © Factor (©)Factor VIII 116. To prevent excessive bleeding during surgery a patient with hemophilia A may be given ‘A. Whole blood B. Fresh frozen plasma Factor Vill concentrate D. Factor IX concentrate 117. Which is the correct statement regarding facial nerve palsy in temporal bone fractures: ‘A. More common with transverse fractures B, More common with longitudinal fractures Facial palsy is of immediate onset D. It is always associated with CSF leakage 118. Most common primary malignant tumor of long bones is: A. Osteosarcoma 8. Multiple Myeloma C. Ewings sarcoma D. Metastatic carcinoma 119. Which of the following does not Cause’ myocardial depression: A. Isoflurane B. Halothane wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page &C. Enflurane D. SeVofliirarie 120. Commonest cause of cellulites is A, Staphylococcus 8. Streptococcus C.E.coli D. Hemophilus 121. One of following is not seen in severe burns A. Hypovolemia B. Sepsis . Duodenal ulcer D. Hyperthermia 122. Leakage of nitrous oxide can be hazardous to the staff in the operatory. Detection of nitrous oxide is best done by? A. High speed suction B. Laminar flow C. Dosimeter D. Infrared spectrophotometer 123. A 24-year old man falls to the ground when he is, stuck in the right temple by a base ball. While been driven to the hospital he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with a dilated right pupil when he reached the emergency department. The most appropriate step in initial management is: ‘A. CT scans of the head B. Craniotomy C. Doppler ultrasound examination 6fthenetk D. X-ray of the skull and cervicalispine 124, In Cerebral concussion the pupils are: A. Constricted and réacting to light 8. Dilated and not reacting to light C. Dilated and feacting tollight D. Constricted and notireacting to light 125. Stage Ill lymphoma in Ann Arbour classification of lymphoma is: ‘A. Involvement of iymph node regions or lymphoid structures on both sides of the diaphragm 8. Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm C. Diffuse involvement of extra lymphatic lymph nodes D. Involvement of one lymph node or a single region 126. All the following are features of tetanus except: A. Vertebral fractures B. Survivors recover completely In 4 weeks C. Diagnosis is clinical and no microbiological tests are required D. Loss of consciousness occurs in moderately advanced case 127. Which is not true of carbuncle A. Infective gangrene of subcutaneous tissue B. Caused by staphylococcus C. Diabetics are more prone D. Caused by streptococcus 128. Delayed wound healing is seen in all except A. Malignancy. B. Hypertension C. Diabetes D. Infection 129. The following isithe commonest site for venous ulcer A. Instep of foot B. Lower 1/3 leg and ankle C. Lower 2/3\6f Lee D. Middle 1/3\of leg 130)All the statements are true about exostosis except ‘A)it occurs at the growing end of bone B. Growth continues after skeletal maturity C. Its covered by cartilaginous cap D. Malignant transformation may occur 181. Lucid interval is noted in A. Injury to head B. Injury to neck C. Injury to eye D. Injury to the abdomen 1132. The repair of cleft patate is primarily done for ‘A. Correction of speech B. Correction of esthetics C. Induce growth of maxilla D. Induce growth of mandible 133. Speech problems in cleft palate patients are due to A. Lisping of tongue B. Inability of soft palate to stop air to go into nasopharynx C. Inability of learning process D. All of the above 134, The virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma is ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 9A. Epstein Bar 8. Cytomegalo virus C. Hepatitis D. Herpes virus 135. Pregangrene is the combination of all except A. Rest pain B. Anesthesia C. Edema D. Color changes 136. The sequence of symptoms in pulmonary embolism is, A. Fever, pain, dyspnoea B. Fever, dyspnoea C, Dyspnoea, pain, haemoptysis D. Dyspnoea, cough, purulent sputum 137. Piere Robbin syndrome is, A. Cleft palate with syndactly B. Cleft palate with mand. hypoplasia and respiratory obstruction C. Cleft Lip with mandibular hypoplasia D. Cleft lip 138. Which of the following is not a complication af tracheostomy: A. Surgical emphysema B, Pneumothorax C. Carotid artery Injury D. Subgtottic stenosis 139. Secondaries In the neck with Rolobyious primary malignancy is most often dueto. A. Ca, stomach B. Ca. Larynx €. Ca, Nasopharynx, D. Ca. Thyroid 140. The ideal time of repair of cleft of hard palate is A. At birth B, Between 34 months of age C. Between 12-15 months of age D. After 2 years of age 141. The treatment of Buerger’s disease includes A. Reflex heating B. Bed rest C. Anticoagulant therapy D. Sympathectomy 142. Mickuliz's disease is A. An inflammatory disease B. Neoplastic disease An autoimmune disease D. Viral infection 143. Which of the Following shows lowest frequency of cleft lip and palate: A. Negroes B. Afganise C. American Indian D. Indian 144. A patient of burns Should be given: A.5% dextrose B. Hypertonic saline 0.9% C. Dextrose saline 1D. Human Albumin 4.5% 145. In a multi layered Wound the deep layer is sutured by chromic gut, This is done because chromic gut suturesihave; A Increased strength B. Increased ease,of use C Delayed resorption ‘D, Less'tissue irritation 146. A Patient with increased metabolic rate, hyperthyroidism. goitre and have deposits of calcium in capsule of thyroid, it can be due to: A Follicular Carcinoma of thyroid 8, Medullary carcinoma of thyroid C.De Quervain's thyroiditis D. Riedel's thyroiditis 147. Laryngocele arises as a termination of laryngeal mucus through the following membrane: A. Throhyoid 8, Cricothyroid .Crico-tracheal. D. Cricosternal 148. Which of the following hormones have greatest effect on granulation tissue in wound healing A.ADH B. Oestrogen .Cortisol D. Parathormone 149. Ina patient of head injury which is more important to note first: A. Pupillary light reflex 8. Pupillary size CC. Corneal reflex D. Ability to open eve wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 10150. General anesthesia and conscious sedation are indicated in all except: A. Patients with cerebral palsy B. Patients with mental retardation C. Controlled epilepsy D. Emotional and apprehensive patients 151. Contraindications to parenteral nutrition may include all except A. Cardiac failure 8. Uncontrolled diabetes C. controlled diabetes D. severe liver disease 152. A child with acute respiratory distress shows hyperinflation of unilateral lung in chest Xray. Most likely cause for above presentation A. Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Congenital lobar emphysema D. Foreign body aspiration 153. Thoracic extension of cervical goiter is usually approached through A. Neck 8. Chest C. Combined cervico-thoracic route D. Thoracoscopic 154, The most common malignant tumor Of adult males in India is ‘A. Oropharyngeal carcinoma 8. Gastric carcinoma. C. Colo-rectal carcinoma D. Lung cancer. 155. A Patient with trauma Suffers 15 % blood loss. The immediate\management is ‘A. No fluid transfusion 8. Blood and colldidaltransfusion C. Colloidal transfusion only D. Blood transfusion only 156. Cellulitis is caused by A, Streptococcus pyogenes 8. Staphylococcus aureus €. Clostridium welchii D. Bacteroids fragilis 157. The first and most important step in management of a case of trauma is: A. Supply large amount of oxygen 8. Start intravenous infusion C. Clearing the airway D. Call ambulance 158. First priority in management of burn injury is A. Exposure B. Fluid resuscitation €. Circulation D. Airway control 159. Buerger’s disease is caused by: A. Asbestosis B. Alcohol C. Cigarette smoking D. Drug abuse 160. Which of the following is the commonest source of extradural haemorrhage? A. Middle meningeahartery, B. Subdural venous situs C. Charcoat's artery D. Middlecerebrahartery 161, The most,common & earliest manifestation of ‘carcin6ma of glottis is A. Hoarseness 8. Hamaptysis ‘Cervical lymph nodes D. Stridor 162. Syncope is usually caused by A. Vasoconstriction B. Cerebral ischemia C. Cerebral hyperemia D. Decrease in vascular bed 1163. In Glasgow coma scale, rating is given to patient on the basis of his level of consciousness. The minimum score that can be given is: AO 8.3 cs Ds 164. A patient with an accident is presented in a casualty, what will be the least Glasgow Coma Index to measure his responsiveness: AT Boat C3 b.15 ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 11165. According to the rule of nine” In burns, what is the percentage of burns if both the upper limbs and lower Limbs are involved? A.0.24 B.0.06 C.0.54 D.0.72 166. Maximum concentration of LA for topical use is: A.0.02 8.0.05 c.01 D. 15%. 167. CPR should have a ratio of chest compression to mouth breathing of A. 12/31/1899 1:04:00 AM B. 12/31/1899 4:01:00 AM C. 12/31/1899 2:03:00 AM D. 12/31/1899 3:02:00 AM 168. Stertous breathing is indicative of: A. Cerebral concussion B. Cerebral death C. Cerebral compression D. Cerebral over activity 169. Which of the following is not a complication of. tracheostomy A. Surgical emphysema B, Pneumothorax C. Carotid artery injury D. Subglottic sten¢ 170. Most common ite oftCSE rhindrrhea is due to, fracture of: A. Ethmoid B. Maxilla C.C. Sphenoid D. Frontal sinus 171. Best vein fortotal parental nutrition is A, Subclavian vein B. Femoral vein C. Branchial D. Saphenous 172. A specimen for a biopsy should be from: A. Necrotic area. 8, Subdermal layer. C. Border of an ulcerated area. D. Centre of an ulcertaed area. 173. What do you understand by Isograft? A. Bone taken from same individual 8, Bone taken from genetically similar individual C.Bone taken from identical twin. D. Bone taken from same species 174, Limb salvage primarily depends on: A. Vascular injury B. Skin cover C. Bone injury D. Nerve injury 175, Rule of nines” In burns may beuséd to estimate ‘A. Body weight B, Dehydration C. Body surface area D.All of the above 176. Are accurate method of measuring fluid replacement following atute blood loss to check the A. Hematocrit B, Hemoglobin Blood pressure ©, Cefitfal venous pressure 177. S3¥donic grin is associated with "A)Rabies B. Tetanus .Bell’s palsy D. Hemiplegia 178. Cystic hygroma may be situated at A. Neck 8. Cheek CAxilla Dall 179. A child 10 year old has to undergo condylectomy with interpositional graft for treatment of TMJ ankylosis. The choice of intubation is: ‘A. Under topical anesthesia and sedation B. Tracheostomy C. Awake fiberoptic intubation D. Under GA 180. Graft from sister to brother is A Isograft B. Allograft C. Autograft D. Heterogratt 181. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 12A. Intermittent claudication 8B, Distal ischemia affecting the skin of toes C. Arteriovenous fistula D. Back pain 182, Mid palatal split following Le-Fort 1 osteotomy is done by moving the maxilla in which direction? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Antero posterior D. Transverse 183. Bed sores are predisposed by all except A. Dryness B. Pressure C. Anaemia D. Malnutrition 184, Deep skin burns is treated with A. Split thickness graft 8. Full thickness graft C. Amniotic membrane D. Synthetic skin derivatives 185. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister wha is an identical twin What type of eraft is it A. Xenograft B. Autograft C. Allograft D. Isograft 186. The tensile strength of a healingwaund depends upon: ‘A. Wound hormones 8. Adequate fluid intake . Activation of fibrinolysis D. Formation’ of collagen fibers 187. Which of following does not cause Vomiting ina post-operative patient: A. ingested blood 8.N70 C. Acetaminophen D. Opioids 188, Respiratory distress due to an anomalous arterial ring around the trachea is seen in all of the following conditions except: A. Double arch of aorta 8. Aberrant origin of the right subclavian artery from the left aortic arch C. Aberrant origin of the left subclavian artery from the right aortic arch D. Left pulmonary artery originating from right pulmonary artery 189. In tetanus Infection A. The disease is produced by the endotoxin of bacillus tetani B. The toxin travels along the nerves to CNS C.A child under the age of one year has an inborn immunity D. The spasm does not affect respiration. 190. During emergency when plaSma match s not available, all the following can'be given except A. Acan receive from 0. B, O can receive from AB C. Acan receive from AB. D. B can receive from AB 191. In a postoperative patient, 21 years old with 70 kg weight; 1 unitof packed RBC will raise the hematocrit by: Al B.3ito5 7 w10 os 192. In Haemorrhagic shock, hypotension occurs when blood loss is more than A. 10%-15% B, 15%-30% C. 30%-40% D. more than 40% 193. If rupture marks are to be avoided, skin sutures should be removed by A. 72 hours B. 1 week C. 2 weeks D.3 weeks 194. One unit of fresh blood raises the haemoglobin concentration by: A. 0.1 gm%, B. 1 gm%, C2em% D.2.2_gm% 195. Half-life of factor Vill Is A. 6 hours B. hours C.12 hours ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 13,D. 24 hours 196. Treatment of dehydrated child patient is: A. 0.9% normal saline B. 5% dextrose C. 10% dextrose D. 50% dextrose 197. In TNM classification T3 stands for tumour size: A.>2cm. B.>4.cm. C.<4em. D. > 4.cm with invasion of adjacent structure. 198. The most common cause of superficial thrombophlebitis A. Trauma B. Infection C. Varicosities D. Intravenous infusion 199. Premature synostosis of coronal sutures along with basal sutures shows which of the following features ‘A. Brachycephaly B. Oxycephaly C.Trigonocephaly D. Scandomocephaly 200. The examiner stands behind a patient and keeps his head upright and tilted to one side He is palpating ‘A. Submandibular gland B, Spasmodic rnasseter muscle cT™ D. Deep and superficial cervical L¥mph hodes Achievers MDS Academy India's Leading Academy in MDS Entrance ademy Year 2012-13 24 Selections Year 2013-14 58 Selections Contacts Us: 8758094554, 9974112761 MAXIMUM Number of Selections in All MDS Entrance Examinations in GUJARAT for last 4 YEARS If MDS is your dream Grab the Opportunity to Join the Best a www.achieversmdsacademy.com wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 14Achievers MDS Academy India’s Leading Academy in MDS Entrance Examinations Achievers MDS Academy as an unique idea was started in year 2012 with the goal of providing quality education to MDS Aspirants and prepare them to achieve success in the tough & competitive examinations of the country. It is one of the first Academy of its kind in Gujarat, which has expanded to the national level. Founders of this Academy, Dr. Amit Mendiratta & Dr. Jay Upadhyay, who themselves had cleared most of MDS Entrance Examinations in India, started this academy with the vision & aim to help students to better understand the methodology of preparation by sharing their profound knowledge & vast experience. Since its inception, the academy has been innovative in its methods and hence has been consistently successful in producing stellar results. Its panel of Experts includes toppers of AIPG, AIIMS, PGI, BHU, COMEDK and Entrance Exams of Various States, who are updated to most recent patterns of exams and guide students in preparation and help them clearing their queries. Results are the best measures of success. Academy has delivered fabulous results with more than 400 Selections in last four years, with 24 Selections (2013), 58 Selections (2014), 73 Selections (2015) & 223 Selections* (2016) [*still counting] in various MDS Entrance Exams in India such as AIPG, AIIMS, PGI, BHU, COMEDK and Entrance Exams of Various States. FOUNDERS & ACADEMIC DIRECTORS Dr. Amit Mendiratta ‘BDS, MDS, PhD (Std.) Rank 20 - AIPG 2009 Rank 5 - AIIMS May 2008 (Junior Residency) Dr. Jay Upadhyay BDS, MDS, PhD (Std.) Rank 15 - AIPG 2009 Rank 2- Gujarat State Dental PG Entrance 2009 Rank 2- Rajasthan State Dental PG Entrance 2008 Rank 5 - Gujarat State Dental PG Entrance 2008 Rank 52 - Comedk 2009 Rank 1— Gujarat PhD Entrance Exam 2015 Dr. Amit Mendiratta graduated from GDC Ahmedabad & completed his masters in Orthodontics from GDC Goa after securing 20" Rank in AIPG 2009. Along with that he also secured top ranks in AIIMS, Gujarat PG Entrance, Rajasthan PG Entrance & Comedk PGET. He has also cleared Public Service Commission Exams for Dental Surgeon (GPSC ‘& RPSC). He has been awarded with the Best Clinical Paper Presentation award at National Conference in 2011. He cleared Indian Board of Orthodontics (BO) Part Il exam in year 2012. In year 2015 He topped Gujarat University PhD Entrance Exam for Orthodontics and presently He is, pursuing PhD from Gujarat University. He has also worked as a resident doctor in AIMS, New Delhi. Rank 12 - AIMS Nov 2008 (Junior Residency) Rank 8- Gujarat State Dental PG Entrance 2008 Rank 60 - Comedk 2009 Rank 2— Gujarat PhD Entrance Exam 2015 Dr. Jay Upadhyay graduated from GDC Ahmedabad. Pursuing his dream for MDS, he has to his credit AIPG Rank 15 in year 2009; Guj CET Rank 2 & COMED-K Rank 60 among other notable performances in various reputed MDS Entrance Examinations in the country. He has done his Masters in Orthodontics and Dentofacial, Orthopaedics from Aligarh University (Ranked-2 in India) and is recipient of University Gold Medal Post MDS, He has cleared PhD Entrance Examination in year 2015 and is pursuing PhD from, prestigious Gujarat University. He has also cleared Public Service Commission Exams for Class | Dental ‘Surgeon (GPSC).