\chievers MDS Academy India’s Leading Academy in MDS Entrance Examinations Complete Course 2016-17 Subject Test - MICROBIOLOGY 2 Question Booklet April 10, 2016 www.achieversmdsacademy.com +91 8758094554, +91 9974112761, +91 98506368661. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis C. Treatment D. Epidemiological investigations 2. The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by: ‘A. Conjugation 8. Rarefaction ¢. Transduction D. Transformation 3, The temperature required for mycobacterium A. -2 degree B. O degree C.27 degree D. 37 degree 4, Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except A. Discharge from nasal mucosa B. From open sore ©. Through intact skin D. Through breast milk 5. Which of the following statements about Prions\s true: A. They are infectious proteins B. They are made up of bacteria and Virus C. They have rich nuclear material D. They can be cultured in cellfree media 6. Superantigens tru@is® A. They bind to the cleft ofthe MHC B. Needs to processed before presentation C. They are presentediby APC’S to T cells D. Directly attached'to lateral aspect of TCR chain. 7. True about bacteroides is all except A. Susceptible to most of the antibiotics B. Present mainly in mixed infection C. They are bile resistant anaerobes D.B. fragilis is most virulent 8, Infective dose of Salmonella Typhi is: ‘A. One bacillus 8, 1 to 10 bacilli ©, 102 to 105 bacilli D. 108 to 1010 bacilli 9. Which of the following statements about C. diphtheria is false: A. Toxin production is mediated by native chromosome B. Organism may be identified by tests for toxigenicity C. Toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis D. Toxin may affect the heart and nerves 10. Which of the following statements regarding Gamma-Release-Assays for diagnosis of Tuberculosis, is true: A. First Generation QuantiFERON—TB assay used ESAT —6 B. Second Generation QuantiFERON—T8 (Gold) assay used ESAT— 6 and CPF— 10) C. These tests can distinguish between M. tuberculosis and M.bovis D. None of the non-tubertulosis mycobacteria give 2 positive reaction withthe test 11,A viremia is characterized by which of the following? ‘A. Infétted cells are transformed. B. Infected cells are no longer releasing virus. ©. The Virus is most easily spread via gastrointestinal secretions. D. The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies. 12. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statement are true except? A. B.Frag the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples B. B.Fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole C. The lipo polysaccharide formed by B.Fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin: . Shock and DIC are common in Bacteroides bacteremia 13. Staphylococci typically occur in: A. Pairs. B. Chains C. Tetrads D. Irregular clusters 14. Visceral larva migrans is associated with: A. Strongyloids stereoalis B. Ancylostoma brazilensis C. Toxocara canis D. Visceral leishmaniasis ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 115. All of the following statements about carbohydrate antigens are true, except ‘A. Good memory response B. Poor immunogenicity C.T cell independent immunity D. Polyclonal response 16. Most common genital lesion in HIV patient is: A. Chlamydia B. Herpes C. Syphil D. Candida 17. ‘C’ in ‘C Reactive Protein’ stands for: A. Capsular Polysacharide in Pneumococcus B, Concanavalin-a ©. Calretinin D. Cellular 18. A fanner presents to the emergency department with painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and history of fever and flu like symptoms. Cliuical’examination reveals an ulcer in the leg Which of the following stains should be used to detect suspected bipolar stained organisms. A Albert's stain 8. Wayson’s stain C. Ziehl Nelson stain D. Mc Fayden’s stain 19. One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis A. FTAB B. Widal test C. Wasserman test D. Kahn test 20. Which typelof pathogens provide the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization? A. Bacteria B. Spore-forming C. Virus D. Fungi sensitive and rapid test for diagnosis of is A. Viral isolation from the intraocular fluid B. Nucleic acid detection from the intraocular fluid C. Viral antigen detection in vitreous D. Viral antibody detection in the blood by ELISA 22. The endotoxin pf the following gram negative bacteria doesn't play any part in the pathogenesis of the natural disease - AE. coli B Klebsiella . Vibrio cholera D. Pseudomonas 23. Amoebiasis is transmitted by all except - ‘A. Cockroach B. Faeco oral C. Vertical transmission D. Oro-rectal 24. What is the transport medium for.cholera A. Tellurfte Medium 8, Calyblairmedium C. Venkatramari - Ramaknshrian Medium D.B&C 25. Whichof following ‘Vibrios’ is most commonly associated with ear infections: A.V. Alginolyticus B.V. Patahemolyticus C. VaVulhifcus ©. Vibri6 fluvialis 26. All of the following statements about Pneumocystis Jiroveci are true Except A. Usually associated with CMV infection B, May be associated with Pneumatocele . Usually diagnosed by sputum examination D. Causes disease only in the immunocompromised host 27. Which of the following is not acceptable methods of sterilization in a small dental clinic? A.Steam B. Dry heat C Unsaturated chemical vapour D. Radiation 28. An abattoir worker presented with a malignant pustule on his hand that progressed to form an ulcer. ‘Smear was taken’ from the ulcer and sent to laboratory for investigation. The diagnosis ‘A. Cutaneous anthrax B. Carbuncle C. Ulcerating melanoma D. Infected rodent ulcer 29. Malabsorption caused by A/E - A Giardia wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 2B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides D. Capillaria philipensis 30. Which of the following may cause biliary obstruction: ‘A, Ancylostoma B. Entrobius C. Strongyloides D. Clonorchis 31L Streptococcus all are true except - A. Streptodornase cleaves DNA B. Streptolysin 0 is active in reduced estate C. Streptokinase is produced from serotype ACK D. Pyrogenic toxin A is plasmid mediated 32. The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called? A. Disinfection B. Cleaning C. Sterilization D. Wiping 33. For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity, It is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the: A. Lag phase B. Death phase C. Stationary phase D. Logarithmic phase 34, True statement about ETEC 4 A. Invades submucosa B. Common cause of acutewatery diarrhea in children in developing countries C. Spread by fomite,& person to person contact D. Not a common cause of traveller's diarrhoea 35. A farmer from the’sub-Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative agent is A. Trichophyton rubrum B. Cladosporiuni species C. Sporothrix schenkii D. Aspergillus 36, Most resistant to antiseptics A. Bacteria 8. Viruses C. Spores D. Prions 37. First chemical barrier encountered by microorganism for common exposed sites - A. Lysozyme: B. Acidic pH Skin D. Lactose 38. Bacteria with potent exotoxin is A. Clostridium tetani B. Pseudomonas C. Shigella D. Klebsiella 39, When a horse serum is injectéd intravenously into a rabbit and againvinto the skin two on three weeks later, what is the neéfotizingreaction that, occurs at the site of the SecOnd injection A. Atropy B. Anaphylaxis C. Serum siekness D. Arthus phenomenon 40,.Culture madium for Corynebacterium diphtheria ‘A.Loefflers serum slope B. Mcconkey © SaboFauds agar ‘© )Lowenstein Jensen Medium 41. Group A B-hemotytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by: A. Diphtheria B. Typhoid fever C. Rheumatic fever D. Syphilis 42. Normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer r animals Mat term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells? A. Protooncogenes B. Viral oncogenes C. Retroviral genes D. Analogous chromosomes 43, Which of the following statement is not true regarding Chlamydia Trachomatis: A. Elementary body is metabolically active B. It is biphasic C. Reticulate body divides by binary fission D. Inside the cell it evades phagolysome 44. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding, resistance to Methicillin in MRSA ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 3A. Resistance is produced as a result of alteration in, Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBP) B, Resistance is produced by production of 13 lactamase C. Resistance is mediated by plasmids D. Expression of Resistance is enhanced by incubating at 37°C during susceptibility testing 45, Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by A. Type 1 Dengue virus B. Reinfection with the same serotype of Dengue virus C. Reinfection with a different serotype of Dengue virus D. Infection in an immunocompromised host 46. Which of the following represents the BEST way to verity heat sterilization? ‘A. Using a chemical monitor B. Recording sterilizer pressure C. Recording duration of exposure D. Testing with biological indicator 47. Vaccines that contain a live virus whose pathogenicity has been attenuated are used against all of the following diseases, except: A. Measles B. Mumps C. Rabies D. Rubella 48. A patient with conjunctival infection, which lead to corneal perforation, vas positive for Gram- negative coccoid appearanceon Gram stain. Further investigation showed small translucent colourless organism which is oxidaSe positive. What could be the most probable causative organism A. Moraxella/catarrhalis B. Neisseria gonotrhea: C, Psedomonas aeruginosa D. Acinetobacter actinatus 49. Peptide binding site on class | MHC molecules for presenting processed antigens to CD8 T cells is formed by A. Proximal domain of a subunits B. Distal domain of a subunit C. Proximal domains of a and subunit D. Distal domains of a and Q subunit 50. Phage conversion is responsible for which of the following? A. Transformation of bacteria B, Production of beta galactose C. Production of pyrogenic toxin D. Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen 51. Which of the following organism contain both DNA and RNA? A. Bacteria B. Plasmid C. Prion D. Viriods 52. The role played by major histocompatibility ‘Complex-1 and -2 is to A. Transduce the signal to T cells following antigen recognition 8, Mediate immunoglobulin eas switching Present antigens for recognition by T cell antigen receptors D. Enhances the secretionof cytokines 53. A young\male patient presented to OPD with urethral discharge: On urine examination pus cells were found but not organisms. Which method would be the'best for culture - A. McCoy cell line & Thayét Martin medium ‘C)PPLO broth D. Cooked meat medium 54, Botulinum affects all except ‘A. Neuromuscular junction B, Preganglionic junction . Post ganglionic nerves D.CNS 55. True about meningococci vaccine is ‘A. Capsule polysaccharide act as a virulent factor for the production of antibody B, Conjugate vaccine not given in outbreaks Polysaccharide vaccine should be given to children below 2 years of age D. Vaccine with Polysaccharide B is immunogenic 56. Lymes disease all are true except - A. Borellia bourgdroferi replicates locally and invades locally B, Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity C. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningial involvement D. IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 457. A female presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of meningitis. MRI scan reveals a ring ‘enhancing lesion in the frontotemporal region while CSF grows gram positive bacilli. Other findings are minimally abnormal. Which of the following organisms is the most likely etiological agent: ‘A. Listeria Monocytogenes B. Hemophilus Influenza C. Pneumococcus D. Staphylococcud aureus 58, An eight year old child with history of pain and discharge from right ear presents with fever, neck rigidity and a positive Kerning's sign. Discharge was stained with gram stain which revealed gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely organism. AH. Influenzae B. Staphylococcus C. Pneumococcus D, Pseudomonas 59. Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces? A. Capsule 8. Flagella . Pill D. Mesosomes 60. Acellular pertusis vaccine contains & A. Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, tytotoxin, endotoxin 8. Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, fimbriae, endotox in C. Pertactin, cytotoxin, fimbriaeypertactin, D. Flagillary hemagglutinin, pertusis toxin, fimbriae 61. Brucella Is.transmitted by all expect: ‘A. Through the placenta of animals B. Aerosol transmission C. Person to person: D. Eating uncooked food 62. An abbatoir worker presented with a pustule on his hand that progressed to form an ulcer. Smear is taken from the ulcer and sent to laboratory for investigation. Which of the following is the best stain to determine the causative agent of the ulcer - A. Polychrome methylene blue 8, Kinyoun’s acid fast C. Periodic acid Schiff D. Calcoflour white 63. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to: A. Pteomorphism B, Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin C. Penicillin analogue production D. Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall 64, Gram stained periorbital exudates in severe panophthalmitis with cellulitis in an elderly diabetic, shows irregular branching aseptate and broad hyphae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnos A. Candida 8. Aspergillus C. Pencillium D. Apophysomyces sp, 65. All of the following statements about Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBR) are true, Except A. PBP'S are localized on the outer face of cell wall B. PBP's ar@essentialfor cell wall synthesis C. BP's act asicarboxypeptidases and traspeptidases D. Alteration in PBP's is the primary bases of resistance in MRSA 66. All are true about brucella except - 1B. abdrtus is capnophilic '6,)Transmission by aerosol can occur occasionally C. Pasteurisation destroys it D. 2ME is used to detect Iga 67. Immunoglobulin bound on the surface of bacteria mediates phagocytosis by (Phagocytosis causes complement activation by)- A. C3b and Fe B. Receptor mediated endocytosis C. Oxidase action D. Lysosmal burst 68. Which of following is correct about Prions A. Long incubation period B, Destroyed by autoclaving at 121: C. Nucleic acid present. D. Immunogenic 69. A farmer presents with pustules, which show Gram Positive Cocci on smear. Culture shows Beta hemolysis, and organisms are Catalase negative, To show that the identified organism is group A streptococci, which of the following test should be done? A, Bacitracin sensitivity B. Optochin sensitivity C. Novobiocin sensitivity ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 5D. Bile solubility 70, Endotoxins have all but one of the properties given below: A. Produced by gram negative bacteria 8. Produced by gram positive bacteria C. Not secreted outside the cell D. Cannot be toxoided 71. Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus ‘A. Mycobacterium bacilli B. Treponema pallidum C. Neisseria gonorrhea D. ALL of the above 72. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile ulcer. On Wright geimsa stain tiny organisms. of 2 microns within macrophages seen. What is the causative organism? A.LGV B. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis C. Neisseria D. Staph aureus 73. Bull-neck’ is seen in severe cases of which of the following? A. Diphtheria B, Tubercular lymphadenitis C. Mumps D. Goitre 74, A young woman complains of re€urrent *Hinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She also had history of allergy and asthma. On examination, multiple polyps with mucosal thickening and impatted\secretions are seen in nasal cavities. Biopsy wastaken and the material on culture showedimany hyphae with dichotomous branching typically at'45 degree. Which of the following is most likely organism responsible? ‘A. Rhizopus B. Aspergilus C. Mucor D. Candida 75. Which of the following is false about clostridium perfringes - ‘A. Food poisoning causing strains of cl. perfringes produce heat resistant Spores B, Show positive naegler reaction €, Most important toxin is hyaluronidase D. Cl. perfringes is the most common cause of gas gangrene 76. Which of the following statements about gram positive cocci is False: A Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes UTI in females B. Micrococci are oxidase positive C. Most Enterococci are sensitive to penicillin D. Pneumococci are capsulated 77. Vincent's angina, all are correct exce} A. Is associated with poor oral hygiene and concomitant viral infections 8. Is a polymicrobial infection with fusobacteria and spirochaetes C. May be associated with acute iilcerative gingivitis D. Can be cure by antibiotics alone 78. Which of the following cell types are the most potent activators of naive Ticells A.B cells B. FolliculatDendritiécells C. Mature Dendritic cells D. Macrophages 79. Which is not true about vibrio choera: A. Itis non halophilic & Grow on simple media ‘C)Man is the only natural host, D. Cannot survive in extracellular environment ‘80, Not used in leptospirosis - ‘A. Microscopic agglutination test B, Dark field illumination C. Macroscopic agglutination test D. Weil felix reaction 81. Which of the following is not a rapidly growing atypical mycobacteria causing lung infections A.M. chelonae 8, Mfortuitum C. Maabscessus D. Mkansasii 82. Lambda phage which of the following is true A. It causes mad cow disease B, Lysogenic to lytic conversion cannot occur, . Lysogenic inform incorporates in host DNA & remain dormant D. Lytic phase incorporates in host DNA, proliferate & causes rupture of cell ‘83. Which of the following chemical agents has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum of activity? A. Phenol wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 68. Ethanol C. Lsopropanol D. Glutaraldehyde 84, The most common site, where organisms are present ina typhoid carrier is: A. Spleen B. Gall Bladder C. Liver D. Salivary gland 85. Phase contrast microscopy is based on A. Light scatter B. Different refractive index B C. Light attenuation D. Different reflective index 86. Which of the following is not true about transmission A. Legionella may be transmitted through water aerosols B. Listeria may be transmitted through refrigerated food C. Leptospirosis may be transmitted through water contaminated with rat urine D. Tetanus may be transmitted thraugh dust and droplets. 87. An elderly patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough. Sputum cultured on, charcoal yeast medium, the organism is - ACH. influenza B. Moraxella catarrhalis C. Legionella D. Burkholderiacepacia 88. Which of the following\bacteria act by increasing cAMP A. Vibrio cholera 8. Staphyloccus aureus C. Lcoli heat stable D. Salmonella 89, Freund’s adjuvant is a mixture composed of: A. Mineral oll 8. Lanolin C. Killed mycobacteria D. All of the above 90. All of the following statements about El-Tor Vibrios are true, Except ‘A. Humans are the only reservoir 8. Can survive in ice cold water for 2-4 weeks C. Killed by boiling for 30 seconds D. Enterotoxin can have direct effects on other tissues besides intestinal epithelial cells. 91, False about Hemophilus influenzae is - A. In needs factor X and V for growth in culture media B. Protein capsule plays an important role in pathogenecity. C.It’s a rare cause of meningi of life D. Most common invasive manifestation is meningitis, in first two months 92. What will happen if a bacteria’acquires genes coding for restriction ehdonuclease & A. Bacteria will die as lacks methylase B. It will damage the hostcell C.Itwill have capacity to divide & multiple many times D. Enhances proof reading activity of that bacteria 93,Which of thé following statement regarding Enteroccoccus is False: ‘A, Coffimon species are E. faecalis and E. faecium B. Itis a cause for peritonitis © It is Universally susceptible to penicillin )itis a cause for intra abdominal abscess 94. All of the following statements about Parvovirus B- 19 are true, Except: A. <10% spread by transplacental route B, Respiratory route is the primary mode of transmission C.Itis a DNA virus D. Affects erythroid progenitors 95. Which of the following statement is true about bacteriophage A. Its a bacterium B. It helps in transformation C. It imparts toxigenicity to bacteria D. It transfers only chromosomal gene 96. Pseudomonas, true is all except A. It isa strict aerobe B, It grows in antiseptic solution It can cause endogenous infection D. Most common organism in burnt patient 97. HIV pt with malabsotion, fever, chronic diarrhoea, with acid fast positive organism. What- is the causative agent A. Giardia ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 7B. Microsporidia C. Isospora D.E. histolytica 98. Aerosol spread leading to epidemics is seen in infection with A. Legionella B. Hemophilus C. Influenza D. Mycoplasma 99. Which of the following viral diseases has the LONGEST incubation period? A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis B. Common cold C. Influenza D. Rabies 100. All of the following statements about Chlamydia ‘Trachomatis are true, Except A. Genital Chlamydial Infections are often Asymptomatic B. Can be cultured C. Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by C. Trachomatis, serotypes D — K D. Penicillin is the treatment of choice 101. Epstein Barr virus causes autoimmunity by: ‘A. Molecular Mimicry B, Release of Sequestrated Antigen C. Inappropriate Expression of MHC Class II Molecules: D. Polyclonal 8 cell Activation 102. Loss of capsule’in bacteria is generally associated with A. Decrease in virulence B. Loss of Infectivity, C. Inability tospréad through tissue D. Increase in invasiveness 103. Vaccinations based on the principle of: A. Agglutination B, Phagocytosis C. Immunologic Memory D, Clonal detection 104. A child presents with recurrent episodes of sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with polysaccharide rich capsules. Which of the following subclass deficiency of immunoglobulins s likely to cause such infections: Alea BIgG1 C IgG2 D.leA+lgG1 105. A child presents with recurrent episodes of sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with polysacharide rich capsules. Deficiency of which of the following immunoglobulin subclasses should be specifically investigated: Alga BigG! ClgG2 D. IgA + IgG2 106. Ovalbumin was injected into\a Rabbit, Which of the following classes of Antibiotics are likely to be produced initially: Ales BlgM Clee D.lgD 107, Which of the following is the proper time and ‘tempefature for dry heat sterilization? A. 320°F for 2 hours & 250°F for 20-20 minutes ‘€450"F for $ minutes D. 89°F for 30 minutes 108. Which of the following is not used as. disinfectant ‘A. 100% Alcohol B. 1.2% Cetrimide C. 10% Chloroxylene D. 2% Lysol 109. Which of the following statements about ‘campylobacter jejuni is false A.Commonest agent responsible for ‘campylobacterosis B. Poultry is a common source of infection C. Humans are important reservoirs of infection D. Associated with Guillain Barre Syndrome 110. Enteroviruses are associated with all of the following, Except A. Aseptic Meningitis, B, Pleurodynia C.Herpangina D. Hemorrhagic fever 111. Reassortment is seen in - A. Astronovirus wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page &8. Rotavirus C. Hepadnavirus D. Herpesvirus 112. prion - true is ‘A. evokes strong immunologic reaction 8. contains DNA/RNA C. have long incubation period D. sensitive to most chemical sterilization 113. Cancrum oris, wrong is: A. Is. a complication of mumps 8. Is more common in African populations C. Has malnutrition as a contributory factor D. May lead to gross disfigurement 114. All of the following agents have polysaccharide capsule related antigen antibody responses, exce} A. Pneumococcus 8B. Meningococcus C. Haemophilus Influenza D. Bordetella Pertusis 115. Neonatal sepsis is not caused by - A. Staphylococus aureus 8. E.coli C. Group B streptococci D. Acintobacter 116. Which component of Strep. Pyogenes has cross reactivity to Synovium of Humans tissues? ‘A. Capsular Hyaluronic Acid 8. Cell wall protein C. Group A carbohydrate Antigen D. Peptidoglycan 117. Gram -ve bacteria stain\during gram staining: A. Blue color B. Red color C. Green D. Colorless 118. Phage conversion is required for: A. Tularemia B. Diphtheria C. Gonorrhoea D. All of the above 119. Which of the following disinfectant is effective against herpes simplex viruses but NOT rhinoviruses? A. Phenolics B. Lodophores C. Glutaraldehydes D. 70% isopropyl alcohol 120. Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective for mosquito? A. Trophozoite B, Ookinete €. Gametocyte D. Sporozoite 121. Most sensitive test for Treponema - A. VDRL B.RPR C. FTA-ABS D. Kahn 122. A protoplast is best characterized as.a bacterial cell: A. With a cell wall but free\of a capsule B, Containing a cell wall and a capsule C. Free of icell wail and’a capsule D. Uniquely sénsitive to penicillin 123, Which of the following statement regarding disinféttants in not true: A. Hypochlorites are bactericidal and inactivated by ‘organic matter 6,)Glutaraldehyde is sporicidal and not inactivated by organic matter C. Formaldehyde is bactericidal, sporicidal and virucidal D. Phenol is bactericidal and readily inactivated by organic matter 124. Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and most viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups? A. Alcohol B. Chlorine C. Formaldehyde D. Phenol 125. Regarding IgE, which of the following is false? A. Causes anaphylaxis B. Immediate reaction C. Fix complement D. Cross placenta 126. NK CELL acts on viruses because A. Expression of MHC Ion cell surface receptor B, Non Expression of MHC Ion cell surface receptor . Expression of MHC II on cell surface receptor D.NON Expression of MHC II on cell surface receptor ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 9127. All are true regarding disinfectants except - A. Glutaraldehyde is sporicidal B, Hypochlorites are virucidal C. Ethylene oxide is intermediate disinfectant D. Phenol usually requires organic matter to act 128. Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in which of the following A. Excess of antibody B. Excess of antigen C. Equivalence of antibody and antigen D. Antigen Hapten interaction 129. Which of the following commonly produces a positive heterophile antibody test? A. Adenovirus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Parainhluenza virus 130. All of the following statements about staphylococcus aureus are true except A. Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people B. About 30% of general population is healthy nasal C. Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigen D. Methicillin resistance is chromosomally mediated, 131. All the following statements about Vicholera, 0139 are true Except: A. Clinical manifestations are similar 01 EttoP'Strain B. First discovered in Chennai C. Epidemiologically indistinguishable from 01 Eltor strain D. Produces 01 Lipo polysaccharide 132. A patient im an\ICU isjon central venous line for the past one week, His on ceftazidime and and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive coeti in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is, A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Virdans streptococci C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus 133. A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated showed beta hemolysis on blood agar, resistance to bacitracin, and a positive CAMP test. The most probable organism causing infection is: A.S. Pyogenes B.S. Agalacitae © Enterococcus 0.5. Pneumoniae 134. A young male presents with loose motions and ‘intermittent abdominal pain over the past ,1 year Wet mount stool specimen showed the presence of multiple ova which are more than 100 in diameter. ‘The causative organisms for the disease shall not include A. Fasciola gigantica B, Gastrodiscoides hominis . Echinostima ileocaanum: D. Opistorchis viverini 135. False about Staphylococcus lugdunensis A. Skin commensal B. Causes\infeetion of native valve C. Does not produce coagulase D. Susceptible|to antimicrobial 136, Which of the following statements about Hepatitiec is true "”AJDNA virus B. Most common indication for Liver transplantation C. Does not cause Liver cancer D. Does not cause coinfection with hepatitis 8 137. Isolation of Chlamydia from tissue specimen can be done by A. ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immune Assay) B. Yolk sac inoculation Direct Immunofluorescence Antibody test (DFA) D. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) 138, Synthesis of an immunoglobulin in membrane bound or secretory form is determined by: A. One turn to two turn joining rule B. Class switching C Differential RNA processing D. Alllelic exclusion 139. Alcohol requires which concentration listed below to kill bacteria given sufficient time? A. 10%-20% B. 30%-40% C.50%-60% D. 70%-95% wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 10140. Which of the following is the proper time and temperature for autoclaving? ‘A. 350°F for 1 hour B. 250°F for 15-20 minutes C. 450°F for 5 minutes D. 89°F for 30 minutes 141. When was HIV virus discovered? A. 1983 8.1976 c. 1969 D. 1992 142. The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is ‘A. Mannitol fermentation 8, Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes C. Detection of coagulase D. The catalase test 143. Which of the following is most resistant to antiseptics: A. Spore B. Prion C. Cyst D. Fungus 144, Which of the following is the most common fungal infection in immunocompetent patient! ‘A. Candida 8. Aspergillus C. Cryptococcus D. Penicillium 145. Sputum can be disinfected by all except: A. Autoclaving 8. Boiling C. Cresol D. Chlorhexidine 146. Diagnostic of Rabi A. Guarneri bodies B. Negri bodies C. Cowdry A body D. Bollinger bodies 147. Most common mode of transmission of Pasturella Multocida is: A. Animal Bites or scratches 8. Aerosols or dust C. Contaminated tissue D. Human to human, 148. Which of the following is a method for acquiring infection by Legionella pneumophila A. Consumption of contaminated water B. Breathing aerosols of environmental water sources such as air conditioning units €. Consumption of-contiminated meat and meat products D. Close contact with carrier of Legionella 149. With reference to antibiotic resistance all of following statements are true except - A. The most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes by bacteria B. Plasmid mediated resistance is'exclusively transferred vertically C. Complete elimination of farget isithe mechanism by which enterococci develop resistance to vancomycin D. Alteration of target lesions leads to development of resistance to antibioti¢s in Streptococcus pneumonia 150. All of the following statements are about Non ‘Typhoid Salmonella(NTS)are true , Except: A. Humans are the only reservoir 8 Transmission is most commonly associated with e228, paultry and undercooked meat C. Common in Immunocompromised individuals D. Resistance to fluroquinolones has emerged. 151. Which of the following represents the phenotypic expression of both alleles in a gene pair A. Penetrance B. Lyonization C. Codominance D. Hybridization 152. With regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are: A. Psychrophiles B, Mesophiles C. Giyophiles D. Thermophites 153. Which of the following has been shown to be the most effective antimicrobial agent for reducing plaque and gingivitis long-term? A. Stannous fluoride B. Phenolic compounds €. Chlorhexidine D. Quaternary ammonium compounds ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 11154, Primary Receptor for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is A.cD4 B.CDB Cc. CD56 D.cD3 155. All statements are true for Chylamydia psittacosis except: ‘A. Acquired from bird’s dropings B. Causes urethreitis, C. Causes pneumonia D. Treatments tetracycline 156. Which of the following statements about Pneumococcus is false: A. Capsule aids in virulence B. Commonest cause of Otitis media C. Causes mild forms of meningitis, D. Respiratory tract of carriers is most important source of infection 157. Quaternary ammonium compounds, which are widely used for skin antisepsis, are classified as: A. Nonionic detergents B. Anionic detergents C. Cationic detergents D. None of above 158. Group A streptococci is best diagnoséd by - A. Optochin sensitivity B. Bacitracin sensitivity C. Catalase negative D. Bile solubility 159. Organ of locomotion im\baeteria is A. Fimbria B. Flagella C. Capsule D. Cell wall 160. Legionnaire's disease - false is? A. Ab in urine is diagnostic B. Water borne disease C. Can infect amoeba intracellularly D. Human to human transmission is seen 161. Which of the following is true about staining? A. Hematoxylin and eosin stain DNA red or pink 8, Gomarri's methenamine silver stains fungi green C. Calcoflour white stains acanthamoeba black D. Gram negative bacteria stain red 162. Cholera toxin effects are mediated by stimulation of which of the following second messengers: ‘A. cAMP 8B. cGMP €.Ca’4- calmodulin D. 1P3/DAG 163. In plasma sterilization control used is, A. Bacillus subtilis B. Bacillus stearothermophilus C.C. Perfringes 0.C, tetani 1164. A boy with skin uléer on leg, culture reveals beta hemolysis. Cultures from school children with sore throat some days back also revealed beta hemolysis. What is the similarity between both A.Mec A gene isrelated toit B. M protein, is same: C. C carbohydrate antigen is same D. Strains causing both are same 165. Which of.the following complement component is the common link in the classical and alternate pathwai/of the complement system ACL B.C2 cc3 Dc4 166. A charachteristic infection of Nocardia Asteroides is: A. Diarrhea B. Secondary Dissemination to liver C. Brain Abscess D. Colonic Diverticulosis 167. All of the following species of borrelia are associated with Tick borne Relapsing Fever, Except: A. Borrellia Recurrentis B. Borrelia Hermsii C. Borrelia Turicatae D. Borrelia Duttani 168, All are true about non typhoid salmonella except - A. Poultry is source B, Can cause invasive disease in neonates Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture in gastroenteritis in adults D. Resistance to Fluoroquinolone has emerged c, wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 12169. Maltese Cross is a characteristic feature of A. Cryptococcus Neoformans 8. Babesia Microti C. Blastomycosis D. Pencillium Marfeni 170. A five year old child presents with pustular lesions on the lower legs. The culture from the lesion showed hemolytic gram positive coccii. Provisional, diagnosis of Group A streptococcal pyoderma can be done by: A. Catalase positivity 8. Optochicin sensitivity C. Bile solubility D. Bacitracin sensitivity 171. According to Koch's postulates, a causative agent must satisfy all of the following criteria except A. Bacteria should be able to be isolate s from diseased tissue 8, Bacteria may or may not cause disease in experimental animals C. Bacteria should be able to grow in pure culture from the lesions D. Bacteria should be able to be isolated from diseased tissue in experimental animals 172. A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive, cocci in chains and hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism) A. Bile solubility B. Optochin sensitivity C. Bacitracin sensitivity D. Catalase positive 173. A patient present8 with)signs of pneumonia. The bacterium obtained from'sputum was a gram positive cocii which showéd alpha hemolysis on sheep agar. Which of the following test will help to confirm the diagnosis? A. Bile solubility B. Coagulase test C. Bacitracin sensitivity D. CAMP test 174. A person presents with pneumonia. His sputum was sent for culture. The bacterium obtained was gram positive cocci in chains and alpha hemolytic colonies on sheep agar. Which of the following will help in confirming the diagnosis - ‘A. Novobioein B. Optochin C. Bacitracin D. Oxacillin 175. The indicator used in autoclave is - A. Clostridium tetani B. Bacillus stereothermophilus C. Bacillus pumilis D. Bacillus subtilisvarniger 176. One of the following is a zoonotic disease A. Anthrax B. Typhoid C. Baccilary dysentery D. Cholera 177. Varicella Zoster remainjiatentin A. Trigeminal Ganglion B.Tcells C.Beells D. Macrophages, 178eComponents of Innate immunity that are active against viral célls includes: ANK Cells B. Cytotoxic T cells © Bell ‘)Memory 8 cell 179. Aflatoxins are produced by A. Aspergillus.flavus B. Aspergillus niger C. Aspergillus fumigatus D. Candida 180. A patient presents to the emergency department with history of persistant fever and cough. Radiological features are suggestive of pneumonia. Sputum examination cultures reveal aerobic branching grain positive filaments that are partially acid fast. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent. A. Actinomyces Israeli B. Nocardia asteroides C. Aspergillus fumigatus D. Staphylococcus aureus 181. A diabetic patient present with bloody nasal discharge, orbital swelling and pain. Culture of periorbital pus showed branching septate hyphae. Which of the following is the most probable organism involved A. Mucor B. Candida ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 13,C. Aspergillus D. Rhizopus 182. Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E - A. Bone graft B, Suture C. Artificial-tissue graft D. Bronchoscope 183. During a Type | hypersensitivity reaction, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D are generated from which of the following? A. Thymus B. Histamine C. Arachidonic acid D. Bradykinin and other kinins 184. Which of the following features is not shared between 'T cells’ and 'B cells’ A. Positive selection during development B. Class | MHC expression C. Antigen specific receptors D. All of the above 185. Which of the following investigations should be, done immediately to best confirm a non matched, blood transfusion reaction A. Indirect Coomb's test B. Direct Coomb's test C. Antibody in patient's serum D. Antibody in donor serum 186. All of the following statements about Leptospirosis are true, Excepty, A. Infection acquired by direct contact with infected urine B, Mortality is 5 — 15%in severe cases. C. Antibodies ate usually detectable in the first weak D. IV penicillin is fecommended for treatment of severe cases. 187. All of the following are known to cause biliary obstruction, Except A. Clonorchis B. Ascaris C. Ankylostoma D. Fasciola 188. Actinomycosis is caused by: A. Fungus B, Acid fast. Non-motile bacillus C. Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria. D. Retrovirus 189. Not true about drug resistance mechanism? ‘A. Most common mechanism is production of neutralizing substances B.If plasmid mediated always transferred vertically C. Alteration of target in pneumococcal resistance D. Complete removal of target is cause of resistance ‘to vancomycin: 190. All about N. Gonorrhea is true except A. Exclusively found in humans B. In males it causes acute urethriris, C Allstains are sensitive to penicillin D. Wide spread causes disseminated gonococcal Infection 191. Farmer presents with the features of,high fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhoea and hypotension: Which stain will help in the diagnosis A. Neissepstain B. Wayson’s\stain C. Albert's stain D. MeFadyean's stain 192yAll are true about Widal test except one ‘A. Baseline titer differ depending an endemicity of the disease B. H agglutinins cannot differentiate between types agglutinins lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection D. Antibiotic treatment can modify results 193. ‘HS N1’ may be best described as a: A. Bird flu virus B, Vaccine for HIV C. Agent for Japanese encephalitis D. New strain of plasmodium falciparum 194. Each of the following represents a common ‘opportunistic infection associated with HIV EXCEPT ‘one Which one is this EXCEPTION A.Candidiasis B Hairy leukoplakia C Adenovirus conjunctivitis D. Cryptosporidium enterocolitis 195. Which one of the following is true A. Agar has nutrient properties B, Chocolate medium is selective medium. . Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media D. Nutrient broth is a basal medium wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 14196. All of the following are functions of CD4 helper cells except ‘A, Immunogenic memory B, Produce Immunoglobulins C. Activate macrophages D. Activate cytotoxic cells. 197. A person working in an abattoir presented with @ papule on hand, which turned into an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis, A. Trichrome Methylene Blue 8. Carbol Fuschin C. Acid Fast Stain D. Calcoflour White 198. Characteristic of bacilus cereus food poisoning is A, Presence of fever B. Presence of Pain in abdomen C. Absence of vomiting D. Absence of Diarrhoea 199. A 10-year old child presented with severe sore throat and a grey psueudomembrane over pharynx and tonsils. The organism causing this infection is most likely - A. Agram positive bacillus B. A gram negative bacillus C. A catablase-positive gram positive coccus that grows in clusters D. A single-stranded positive sense RNA virus 200. The only “cold sterilizer” solution capable of destroying bacterial spores, viruses, and vegetative bacteria js: ‘A. Quaternary ammonium compounds 8. Chlorhexidine C. 90% isopropyl alcohol D. 2% glutaraldehyde’ Sra srr: nse ==rrrTrn ee ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 15Page 16 wex3 Ilo DSdD - polea|D 9102 OdIV -MUeY UIP8L Le i 9L0Z MpewoD = - YUBY YZ ~Yey 9102 9!IND yuey js yeujyeg euysniy 1g a suoneulwexy souesjuy Sg ul Awapesy Bulpes7 s,eipuy AWapesy SGIN S19A01Y9\’Achievers MDS Academy India’s Leading Academy in MDS Entrance Examinations Achievers MDS Academy as an unique idea was started in year 2012 with the goal of providing quality education to MDS Aspirants and prepare them to achieve success in the tough & competitive examinations of the country. It is one of the first Academy of its kind in Gujarat, which has expanded to the national level. Founders of this Academy, Dr. Amit Mendiratta & Dr. Jay Upadhyay, who themselves had cleared most of MDS Entrance Examinations in India, started this academy with the vision & aim to help students to better understand the methodology of preparation by sharing their profound knowledge & vast experience. Since its inception, the academy has been innovative in its methods and hence has been consistently successful in producing stellar results. Its panel of Experts includes toppers of AIPG, AIIMS, PGI, BHU, COMEDK and Entrance Exams of Various States, who are updated to most recent patterns of exams and guide students in preparation and help them clearing their queries. Results are the best measures of success. Academy has delivered fabulous results with more than 300 Selections in last four years, with 24 Selections (2013), 58 Selections (2014), 73 Selections (2015) & 150 Selections (2016) in various MDS Entrance Exams in India such as AIPG, AlIMS, PGI, BHU, COMEDK and Entrance Exams of Various States. FOUNDERS & ACADEMIC DIRECTORS Dr. Amit Mendiratta ‘BDS, MDS, PhD (Std.) Rank 20 - AIPG 2009 Rank 5 - AIIMS May 2008 (Junior Residency) Dr. Jay Upadhyay BDS, MDS, PhD (Std.) Rank 15 - AIPG 2009 Rank 2- Gujarat State Dental PG Entrance 2009 Rank 2- Rajasthan State Dental PG Entrance 2008 Rank 5 - Gujarat State Dental PG Entrance 2008 Rank 52 - Comedk 2009 Rank 1— Gujarat PhD Entrance Exam 2015 Dr. Amit Mendiratta graduated from GDC Ahmedabad & completed his masters in Orthodontics from GDC Goa after securing 20" Rank in AIPG 2009. Along with that he also secured top ranks in AIIMS, Gujarat PG Entrance, Rajasthan PG Entrance & Comedk PGET. He has also cleared Public Service Commission Exams for Dental Surgeon (GPSC ‘& RPSC). He has been awarded with the Best Clinical Paper Presentation award at National Conference in 2011. He cleared Indian Board of Orthodontics (BO) Part Il exam in year 2012. In year 2015 He topped Gujarat University PhD Entrance Exam for Orthodontics and presently He is, pursuing PhD from Gujarat University. He has also worked as a resident doctor in AIMS, New Delhi. Rank 12 - AIMS Nov 2008 (Junior Residency) Rank 8- Gujarat State Dental PG Entrance 2008 Rank 60 - Comedk 2009 Rank 2— Gujarat PhD Entrance Exam 2015 Dr. Jay Upadhyay graduated from GDC Ahmedabad. Pursuing his dream for MDS, he has to his credit AIPG Rank 15 in year 2009; Guj CET Rank 2 & COMED-K Rank 60 among other notable performances in various reputed MDS Entrance Examinations in the country. He has done his Masters in Orthodontics and Dentofacial, Orthopaedics from Aligarh University (Ranked-2 in India) and is recipient of University Gold Medal Post MDS, He has cleared PhD Entrance Examination in year 2015 and is pursuing PhD from, prestigious Gujarat University. He has also cleared Public Service Commission Exams for Class | Dental ‘Surgeon (GPSC).