PTI Past Question and Answer Free Download For All Department

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PETROLEUM TRAINING INSTITUTE

P. M. B, 20
EFFURUN, DELTA STATE, NIGERIA
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION INTO DIPLOMA AND GENERAL
WELDING CERTIFICATE PROGRAMMES, 2015/2016 SESSION
DATE:
SATURDAY, 20 JUNE, 2015
TIME ALLOWED:
3 Hour* (10:00 ara^ 1:00
__
Please read the following Instructions carl

Y
1.
You are to SH^lft
when shading your answer on the1 answer sheet, use 2B pencil
only* DO NOT USE INK FOR THE SHAIKH* Light shading will render your answer
4
sheet invalid.
I
2
Part One which consists of Section A - General Paper and Section B ~ Mathematics is
compulsory for all candidates.
t
In additkra to tfcb, candidates are required to answer relevant questions in Part Two as specified
below.
-
3.
Candidates for Diploma in Petroleum Engineering, Mineral Resources Engineering,

Mechanical Engineering, Welding and Fabrication Engineering, Electrical Engineering and
General Welding Programmes are to answer questions in Physics.
4.
Candidates for Diploma in PMrofena and Natural Gas Processing, Science Laboratory
Technology and Industrial Safety Programmes are to answer questions in Chemistry.
5*
CaiKlidates for Diploma in Petroleum Marketing and Business Studies are to answer questions
in Business Studies.
6.
Any candidate who fails to answer questions in accordance with his or her choice of discipline as
stated above will automatically be disqualified^
7.
Each question is followed by five options A, 8, C, D and E, Candidates are required to shade the
correct answer on the answer sheet provided. No candidate should shade more than one option for
any given question. 2B pencil should be used. DO NOT USE INK*
8.
Four figure tables and non programmable electronic pocket calculators are allowed for the
examination,
9.
AH rough work must be done on the Question Paper, and no other forms of paper will be allowed
into the examination hall.
10.
Do not write anything on the answer sheet other than in the spaces provided for information.
Failure to comply with this instruction renders the answer sheet invalid.
11.
Candidate must ensure that he/she sign the in and out columns on the attendance sheet.
Scripts with mutilated Examination Numbers will be cancelled.
http://admission-charlisco.blogspot.com/2012/02/petroleum-training-institute-pti-form.html
/
PART ONE
SECTION A: GENERAL PAPER
(One Hour)
Instruction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it*
PASSAGE A
Karlie was concentrating hard trying to follow the speaks Something at the back of his
mind told hira that those were great words and he felt that they were true, whatever they meant.
The speaker paused for a moment and sipped water from a glass. Karlie sweated. The hot
Octobcr sun beat down mercilessly on the gathering. A burning sky with not the slightest vestige
of cloud over Table Mountain. The trees on the Grand Parade afforded little shelter and his
handkerchief was already soaking where he had placed it behind his shirt collar. Karlie stared
around him at the sea of faces. Black, brown, a few whites and the scattered red fezzes of
Malays. Near a car two detectives were taking shorthand notes. On the platform the speaker
began again.
4
It is up to us to challenge the status of any legislation which wilfully condemns anyone
to a servile position. We must challenge the rights of people who see fit to segregate human
beings solely on grounds of pigmentation. Your children are denied rights which belong to all by
birth. They are segregated socially, economically, educationally .. /
Karlie felt something stirring inside him. Something he had not bothered to explore
before. The man on the platform was preaching a new religion which said that he had certain
rights, his children should have certain rights, what rights? To live like a white man? To live like
Old Latcgan? The new ideas broke upon Karlie like an exploding cracker. A rush of feelings he
had not dared to explore overwhelmed him. Sitting in restaurants like those in town. Nellie and
himself in a bioscope where they served tea and ushers wore uniforms.
1.
Which of the following is true of the passage?

(A) Karlie clearly understood the message of the speaker.
(B) Karlie tried his best to understand the message of the speaker.
(C) The message of the speaker did not make any sense to Karlie.
(D) Karlie went to the scene out of curiousity.
(E) Karlie was the speaker at the occasion.
2.
The word 'pigmentation' in the passage is a reference to

(A) Denial of rights
(B) segregation
(C) Bad legislation
(D) colour
(E) The rights of the people
3.
From the passage, we can deduce that Karlie is

(A) Hurt by the message
(B) Put off by the message
(C) Interested in the message
(D) Confused by the message
(E) None of the above
4.
'The new ideas broke upon Karlie like an exploding cracker' is an example of
(A) Personification (B) simile (C) paradox (D) hyperbole (E) metaphor
5.
The speaker in the passage is against

(A) human rights (B) condemning people
(D) the new idea
(E) inequality
(C) the new religion
Instruction: Read the following passage carefully, and then answer the questions that
follow.
PASSAGE B
In 1968 Nigeria was the world's biggest producer of groundnuts (averaging 712,600
tonfies a year), the second producer of cocoa (203,600 tonnes) after Ghana, the fourth producer
of tin (13,264 tonnes) and the biggest producer of columbite. Oil palm, growing wild and in
plantations in the South, supplied half of the world's exports of palm kernels (407,200 tonnes)
and seventy percent of the world's export of palm oil (152,700 tonnes). Nigerian forests covered
some 310,800 square kilometres and produced about 1.132 million cubic metres of timber a year,
for export as logs, sawn timber or plywood sheets. Rubber was grown by peasant farmers and
increasingly in plantations: and was partially processed in local factories. The ancient livestock
industry of the north still supplies the whole country. About a million cattle are slaughtered
annually, and the trade is now being modernized and expanded.
As a by product of the northern livestock industry, there is an old and valuable trade in
hides and skins. As a matter of fact, the type of skin inaccurately called 'Moroccan leather'
comes from Nigeria.
6.
According to the passage, Nigeria used to be the world's biggest producer of

(A) Groundnuts (B) palm oil (C) rubber
(D) groundnuts and columbite
(E) palm kernel, groundnuts and cocoa
7.
Select the statement supported by the passage

(A) Ghana produced more cocoa than Nigeria
(B) Oil palm and timber were Nigeria's most important export
(C) The most important industry in Nigeria was the livestock industry.
(D) Nigeria forests covered 310,800 square kilometres and produced about 1.132 million
cubic metres of timber a year
(E) Oil palms and rubber trees are always grown in plantations.
8.
Indicate which is not supported by the passage.

(A) Columbite and groundnuts were Nigeria's most important export.
(B) In 1968 814,400 tonnes of palm kernel were exported
(C) Nigeria supplied more than half the world's palm oil. \
(D) Timber constituted a major export in Nigeria.
\
(E) "Moroccan leather" is incorrectly named.
\
9.
Timber can be made into

(A) columbite (B) plywood sheets
10.
\N
(C) hides
(D) leather
() concrete floors
The last sentence implies that

\
(A) there are several types of leather, one of which is "Moroccan leather"
(B) 'Moroccan leather' is insufficiently named
y
(C) a new type of skin
(D) the type of skin known as 'Moroccan leather' comes from Nigeria
(E) the type of skin called 'Moroccan leather' is incorrectly named
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Instruction: From tfie words or group of words lettered A to E, choose the word or group
of words that best complete each of the following sentences.
11.
Take your share and give them

(A) their
(B) there
(C) theirs
(D) there's
(E) yours
12.
The policeman tried to cash in

the driver's ignorance.
(A) under (B) against (C) with
(D) on
(E) by
13.
But for the timely intervention of the security officer, the thief would have been ........ by
the angry mob.
(A) linched
(B) lynched (C) littered
(D) lynchet
(E) lettered
14.
The author,
(A) which
book you are reading now, won the Nobel Prize for literature last year.
(B) whose
(C) that
(D) whom
(E) what
15. I'd give up smoking, if I

you.
(A) were
(B) am
(C) was
(D) are
(E) wasn't
Instruction: From the words or group of words labelled A to E below each of the following
sentences, choose the word of group of words that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word or group of words,
16.
I don't agree that the problem is intractable.

(A) easy
(B) insoluble
(C) baseless
(D) understandable
17. Her terse remarks brought the conversation to an end.

(A) curt (B) abusive
(C) studied
(D) gentle
18. The points he made are germane to the argument.
(A) irregular
(B) convincing
(C) helpful
19. I concede that 1 am wrong on this point.
(A) pledge
(B) declare
(C) conclude
(E) unusual
(E) polite
(D) unnecessary
(D) conceal
(E) relevant
(E) admit
20. 1 The principal explained that the clerk was dismissed for dereliction of duty.
(A) insurbordination
(B) irresponsibility
(C) laziness (D) dishonesty
(E) negligence
Instruction: From the options lettered A to E, consider the underlined sounds and choose the
odd one out
21.
(A) bead
(B) beak
(C) steel
22.
(A) pack
(B) pat
(C) sat
23.
(A) white
(B) wait
(C) take
24.
(A) thin
(B) that
25.
(A) bus
(B) buzz
(D) seat
(E) stead
(D) park
(E) man
(D) case
(E) pain
(C) think
(D) health
(E) tooth
(C) bees
(D) dogs
(E) zeal
Instruction: In each of questions 26 - 30, choose the most appropriate option opposite in
meaning to the wordfs) underlined.
26.
The paper carries many humorous cartoons on Saturdays.

(A) amorous
(B) funny
(C) hilarious
(D) grave
(E) none of the above
27.
All through his years in public office, he found his father's advice invaluable
(A) priceless
(B) hopeless (C) worthless
(D) helpful (E) disagreeable
28.
The lecturer was merely obfuscating the issue with his endless examples.
(A) complicating
(B) clarifying
(C) confusing
(D) summarizing
(E) diverting
29.
Such measures end up exacerbating the pain.

(A) aggravating (B) increasing (C) eliminating
(E) improving
30.
(D) alleviating
In a sentence, there must always be concord between a subject and its verb.
(A) breach
(B) departure
(C) annulment
(D) disagreement
(E) connection
Instruction: Fill the gap(s) with the most appropriate option from the list of options provided.
31.
The
which you
just picked
is
(A) pen
Charle's
(B)have
Charles'
(C)upCharless'
32.
It is clear to me that you won't visit Okoro this holiday, will you?
(A) Yes, I won't
(B) Yes, I will visit
(C) No, I won't
(D) No, I will not visit
(E) Yes, I do
33.
Sa'adatu as well as the maids

(A) like plantain chips
(B) are liking plantain chips
(D) likes plantain chips
(D) Charles's
(E) all of the above
(C) is liking plantain chips
34.
Measles
(A) is
no longer impossible to manage these days.

(B) are
(C) were
(D) was
(E) will
35.
People dislike Jobe because he is a

young man
(A) trickery
(B) tricking
(C) trickful
(D) tricky
(E) trickfully
Instruction: From questions 36 - 40 select the option that best explains the information
conveyed in the sentence.
36.
He is now the megaphone of the people's oppressors.

(A) He now speaks on behalf of the oppressors.
(B) He now carries the megaphone when the oppressors speak.
(C) He is now the oppressor with the loudest voice.
(D) He is the oppressor who now speaks with a megaphone.
(E) All of the above
37.
Here is Mr. Pam the tailor.

(A) He is the only person known as Mr. Pain and he is a tailor.
(B) He is one of those known as Mr. Pam and he is a tailor.
(C) He is the only tailor, and he is Mr. Pam
(D) He is one of many tailors, and he is Mr. Pam.
38.
One of the guarantors shall sign here.

(A) It is desirable that one of the guarantors signs here.
(B) It is reasonable that one of the guarantors signs here.
(C) It is obligatory that one of the guarantors signs here
(D) It is advisable that one of the guarantors signs here;
39.
John is a misogynist. This means He

(A) loves playing organ
(B) does not eat Spanish foods
(C) is a man who hates women
(D) misunderstands people easily
(E) is a sportsman
40.
Philip and Martha have become bourgeois since they got married. They
(A) suddenly become poor
(B) refused to acknowledge their friends
(C) hate capitalism
(D) are interested mainly in possession and social status
(E) have turned formers
Instruction: From the options given, choose the one that best answer the question.
41. The Governor of Central Bank of Nigeria is
(A) Mr. Sanusi Lamido Sanusi
(B) Prof. Charles C. Soludo
(C) Mr. Godwin Emefiele
(D) Alhaji Abdulkadir Ahmed
(E) Mr. Paul Ogumah
42. Nigeria became a Nation in
(A) 1960
(B) 1963
(C) 1956
( f t 1914
(E) 1900
43.
Which state produces the largest quantity of crude oil in Nigeria?

(A) Ondo (B) Delta
(C) Bayelsa (D) Rivers
(E) Edo
44.
The Nigerian civil war lasted for

(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
45.
46.
(D) 35
months.
(E) 40
The current African Cup of Nations Champion is

(A) Nigeria (B) Ivory Coast (C) Ghana
<D) Egypt
Petroleum Products Prices are regulated by
^NNPC
(B) PPPRA
(C) SPDC
(E) Algeria
in Nigeria.
(D) DPR
(E) PPMC
47.
48.
49.
50.
Which of these countries was not colonised in Africa?

(A) Ghana
(B) Morocco (fi) Ethiopia
(D) Nigeria
Which of these countries was not colonised in West Africa?
(A) Senegal 0 Liberia (C) Gambia
(D) Ghana
Nigerians started ruling Nigeria in
(A) 1914
(B) 1956
(C) 1960
(D) 1963
The United Nations headquarters is in

(A) London
(B) New York
(C) Paris
(E) Ivory Coast

(E) Nigeria
(E) 1966
(D) Geneva
(E) Pretoria
PART ONE
" SECTIONS: MATHEMATICS
(One Hour)
1.
At what rate per annum will W7,000 amount to N14,000 simple interest in 5 years?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 20%
(D) 40%
(E) 100%
2.
When a shirt is sold for N12,000.00 a loss of 20% is recorded. How much should it be sold
for to gain 20%?
(A) 144,800.00 (B)W24,000.00 (C)N18,000.00 (D)N15,000.00
(E)N9,600.00
3.
Two brothers shared a sum of money in such a way that the elder brother got ,000 more
than his junior brother. If the average sum received by the brothers was N2.500, how much
money did the brothers share?
(A) J41,500 (B)N3,000 (C) N3,500 (D)N4,500
(E) W5.000
4.
A father was 25 years older than his son, five years ago. If the product of the son and his
father's ages then was 900 years, how old is the son now?
(A) 30 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 45 years
(D) 20 years
(E) 50 years
5.
Two pots, similar in shape are respectively 21cm and 14 cm high. If the smaller pot holds
1.2 litres, find the capacity of the larger one.
(A) 2.05 litres (B) 4.05 litres
(C) 7.02 litres
(D^-7.49 litres
(E) 5.75 litres
6.
Make t the subject of the formula k = mj-
Ami**
M**
rft
Tfl
m
/
7.
8.
Convert 645g to binary

(A) lllOllOh
(B) llOOHOh
Simplify
(D> IOOIIIOI2
(E) HlOOlOh
'
v
2 | + (fx2i)
(B)i
9.
(C) 11101012
(C)|
(D)|
(E)|
Evaluate log* = 31ogl .2 + 21og^Vlo)-log0.96

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 3
(E) 9
10. The equation ax2 +7x + b leaves remainder 8 when divided by (x + 1) and remainder 10
when divided by (x + 2). Find a and b
( A ) a = 3,b = 3
(B) a = 3,b = 4
(C)a = 3,b = 7
( D ) a = 3,b=12
(E) a = 12,b = 2
11.
Find the values of x for which the expression

(4) 1, 4
(B) -1,-4
(C) 1,2
_ 5X + 4
(D) -1,-2
7
is undefined
(E) 1,-2
12.
13.
Evaluate l i m ^ - L ^ f _ . )
x -9
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 9
(D) 2
The value of
(A) 0.006
(E) -3
(q.013
(o.oo?)3
.. ,
. /
.
is
s
(0.013)" - (0.013)x (0.007)+(0.007)
(B) 0.002
(C) 0.02
(D) 0.0091
i) 0.00185
14.
If f{x) = (x29 - x25 + x13 -1), using Remainder's Theorem, then / ( x ) - (;*29 - x25 + x13 -1)
is divisible by:
(A) both (x - 1) and (x + 1)
(B) (x - 1) but not (x + 1) (C) (x + 1) but not (x - 1)
(D) neither (x - 1) nor (x + 1)
15.
The solution of x -M - (xVx) is

2
(B)
(A)
(C) 4
^ a \/aJ> f b \Kv (
16.
4
(D)
9
4
Simplify
V* J
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) -1
(E) x ^Vb+bc+ca
(D) x ^
17.
Solve log2(x +1)+ log 2 (x-2) = 2 for the positive values of x only.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
18.
Simplify
(A) 6 + ^2
(B) 6 + 4-y 2
(C)
(D)
(E) 2^2
19.
Find the value of x for which 3124 + 52x = 9oto

(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
(E) 4
20.
The 3rd and 6th terms of a geometric progression are 108 and -32 respectively. Find the
common ratio and the first term.
04)-2,/,243
(B)%,-243
(C) % , 2 4 3
(D) " % , 2 4 3
(E) ~J^,242
21.
The angles of a pentagon are xu, 2x, (x + 60~f, (x +1 Of, (x-1Of. Find the value of x
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 75
(D) 80
(E) 90
22.
A chord of a circle 8 cm long subtends an angle of 120 at the centre. Find the radius of the
circle.
(A) 6.95 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 3.46 cm
(D) 4.62 cm
(E) 3.56 cm
>1
23.
2x
C I ,
62j:+1 x 9* + rA
Evaluate
(A) 32*
24.
(B) 6
(D) 3(22x-1)
(E) 4X
In how many ways can the word MATHEMATICS be arranged?

W
v
2!2!
25.
(C) 1
(w b
)H
9!2!
(C)
9!2!3!
0)151
2D!
( E ) _LLL
2?2!2!
The following diagram shows the population of a town. If the population of the town is
720,i)00, then the number of Africans in the town is
(A) 30,000
(B) 40,000
(C) 50,000
26. Consider the following table

Diameter of heart (in mm) 120
122
121
Number of Persons
9
5
14
The median of the abovefrequencydistribution is
(A) 122 mm
(B) 123 mm
(C) 122.5 mm
(D). 66,000
123
8
124
5
(p) 122.75 mm
(E) 70,000
125
9
(Ey 121.5 mm
27.
The score of a group of 12 pupils in a test are as in the table be ow

30
40
50
10
120
Score
2
Number of Pupils
2
13
4
1
Find the average score of the pupils in the test.
(A) 25.3
(B) 26.3
(C) 27.3
(>) 28.3
(E)29.3
28.
What is the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers t, 2,3,4, 5,6,
7,8,9 is either an even or prime number?
(4) |
(B) |
(C)
(D) |
(E) 1
29. A basket contains 5 oranges and 7 grapes. What is the probability that if two items picked
at random one after the other with replacement, one is an orange and the other a grape?
7
12
35
(E)l
(B)
(A)
(C)
<P)
12
144
144
12
T le table below shows the age of 4 0 students in a lighsc 100I
17
16
14
15
Age
12
13
3
5
10
3
No. of students 5
12
9
18
2
30.
31.
32.
Use the table above to answer question 30 and 31

Calculate the median age of the students
(A) 13 years 6 months
(B) 14 years 3 months
(E) 15 years 3 months \
Calculate the modal age of the students
(A) 13 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 15 years
(C) 14 years
0 ) 16 years
(E) 17 years
The figure below is a circle centre O, such that ABC = CED ~ 130 and EDA = 40.
A
Calculate the size of A O C.

(A) 145
(B) 110
(C) 70
(D) 125
(E) 80
33. The line PQ is parallel to the line SR in the figure below, and QS bisects PSR, P 0 S = 65
and R P S = 20. FindPtf S.
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 35
(D) 48
. (E) 60
34.
Consider a cyclic quadrilateral in which PQ - PS. PT is a tangent to the circle and PQ

A
makes an angle of 50^ with the tangent as shown in the figure below. Calculate Q R S.
(A) 40
(B) 50\
(C) 70
(D) 100
(E) 80
JR.
10
3s
Consider the circle POR <3

A 1 4 5 0
so.
ind the value of x in the figure below
(A) 110
37.
8.
(D) 80
(E) 70
In the figure below, PQR is a straight line with QS = QR. If QT//SR and TQS = 3y,fmd
TPQ.
' \
(A) 58
(B) 90
(B) 64
(C) 52
(D) 41
In the given figure below if r r / u n
11
(E) 20.7
39.
In the given figure below, <ABC = 100, <EDC = 120 and AB//DE. Then <BCD is eqi
to
(A) 80
(B) 60
(C) 40
(Df 20
(E) 10
40.
In the given figure below AB//CD and <ALC = 60, EC is the bisector of <LCD at
EF//AB. Then <CEF is equal to
(A) 120
(B4T 140
(C) 150
(D) 160
41.
In the figure below, PQ//RS, <AEF = 95, <BHS - 110 and <ABC = x. Then the value c
xis
(A) 15
(B) 25
(C) 70
(D) 35
(E) 30
12
42.
In the figure below, the area of the shaded region (fa cm2) is
(A) 324
(B) 428
(C) 462
(D) 500
(E) 308
43.
After t seconds, a particle has travelled a distance of x metres, where

x = 18 - 21f + 24/2 - 2f 3 . When is the acceleration zero?
(A) 2 sees
(B) 3 sees
(( 4 sees
(D) 5 sees
(E) 6 sees
44.
Given S = / + ^at 1 , find u if S = 25, t = 2 and a = 4.

(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
(E) 24
2
45.
46.
1"
The determinant of the matrix 3 2 5 is

2 1 8
(D) -22
(A) 22
(B^JJl
^ S 20
(E) -21
i valuate
(A)
47.
(B)
(C)
(E)|
(D)
If ~ ( x 3 - x ) = ^ ( x 2 - l ) , f i n d x .
dx
(A)x = 1,-i
(B) x = -l,y
() x = l , - l
(D)x = 4 , i
(E) x = l,0
48.
Calculate correct to 2 significant figure^ the length of the arc of a circle of radius 3.5 cm
which subtends an angle of 75 at the centreW the circle. (Take x- -f-)
(A) 2.3 cm
(B) 4.6 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 16 cm
(E) 110 cm
49.
A cylindrical container closed at both ends has a radius of 7 cm and height 5 cm. Find the
total area of the container.
(C) 220 cm2
(p) 528 cm2
(E) 770 cm2
(A) 35 cmz
(B) 154 cm
50.
Find the value of

(A) 2&
2 - t a n 30"
2 +tan 30
(B) 4^3 + 1
(C)
13-4^3
11
13
(D)
-aS
(E)
, - 3 + 4-v/3
11
PART TWO
SECTION A: PHYSICS
(One Hour)
1.
2.
Which of the following is a fundamental unit of optics?

(A) Ampere
(B) Kelvin
(C) radian
(D) Candela
ML 2 T 2 is a dimension of
(A) Power
(B) Torque
(E) Pressure
(C) Momentum
(D) Force
3. ' The least possible error using a scale graduated in millimetres is

(A) 0.5 mm
(B) 0.1mm
(C) 0.05 mm
(D) 1.0 mm
(E) 2.0 mm
4.
A boy walks 5 km south and 3 km in the direction 60 west of south. How far is he from
the starting point?
(A) 10 km
(B) 15 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 9 km
(E) 7 km
5.
An object accelerates uniformly from rest at a 6m/s2 for 8 seconds and then retarded
uniformly to rest in the next 5 seconds. What is the magnitude of the retardation?
(A) 15 ms"2
(B) 9.6 ms'2
(C) 12.5 ms'2
(D) 8.6 ms'2
(E) 10 ms"2
6.
An object is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with velocity 10 ms"1. If it
takes 4 seconds for the ball to reach the ground. What is the height of the tower?
(g= 10m/s 2 )
(A) 40 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 45 m
(D)55m
(E)5m
7.
A girl of mass 40 kg stands on a weighing scale inside a lift As the lift starts to ascend
with an acceleration of 1.5 ms'2. What is the reading cm the scale?
(A) 50 kg
(B) 36 kg
(C) 46 kg
(D) 25 kg
(E) 60 kg
8.
Two simple pendula A and B make oscillations of 200 and 300 oscillations respectively in
equal times. If the period of A is 1.2s, the period of B is
(A) 2.0 S
(B) 1.3 S
(C) 2.5 S
(D) 0.8 S
(E)1.0S
9.
An object of mass M initially at rest splits into two. If one of the particles of mass Mi
moves with velocity V, what is the velocity of the second object?
OH a n
M
(B)
M-Ml
(W C
t 4
Vx
d ^ J V L
(BjJVL
M-M,
10. A uniform beam of length 4m and mass 30kg is supported at both ends. A boy of mass
40kg stands on the beam at a distance of 1.5m from one of tbetoupports. The reactions at
the supports are
(A) 250N, 350N
(B)350N,300N
(C)150N,250N
(D) 100N, 150N
(E) 25 ON, 200N
11. If M and R are the mass and radius of the earth respectively and G is the universal
gravitational constant, the earth's gravitational potential at an altitude H above the ground
level is
-GM
-GM
-GM
R+H
,
r
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) xNone
of the above
v
R-H
2H
R=H
GM
14
12. A block and tackle system made up of five pulleys is used to raise a load of 700N through a
height of 5m with an effort of 200N. If the efficiency is 70%, what is the work done
overcoming friction?
(A) 1500J
(B) 2500J
(C)2000J
(D)3000J
(E) 1000J
13. A wire of diameter 2.8mm supports a weight W. If the tensile stress in the wire is
2 x 107 Nm' 2 , the value of the weight is [ it = f ]
(A). 86.5N
(B) 128.4N
(C) 130N
(D) 180N
(E) 123.2N
14. A plastic object floats in water at room temperature. If the temperature of water is raised,
* the part of the plastic above the water level will
(A) increase because the density of water increases
(B) decreases because the density of water increases
(C) increases because the density of water decreases
(D) decreases because the density of water decreases
15. In which of the following is surface tension very important?
(A) Floating of a boat in water
(B) Floating of a balloon in air
(C) Floating of a plastic sphere in water
(D) Floating of a needle in water
(E) Floating of a ship in water
16. The distance between die fixed point of a Celsius thermometer is 20cm. What is the
temperature when the mercury level is 4.5cm above the lower mark?
(A) 40C
(B) 35C
(C) 30C
(D) 20C
(E) 22.5C
17. Which of the following is used to determine the relative amount of water vapour present in
the atmosphere?
(A) Hypsometer
(B) Thermometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Hygrometer
(E) Manometer
18. How does the rise in pressure affect the boiling and freezing points of water?
(A) lowers the boiling point only
(B) lowers the freezing point and increases the boiling point
(C) increases the freezing point only
(D) increases the freezing point and lowers the boiling point
19. A wire of length 100m at 30C has linear expansivity of 2x10"5 K"1. The length of the wire
at temperature - 10C is
(A) 99.92m
(B) 100.6m
(C) 98.82m
(D) 99.20m
(E) 100.2m
20. The pressure of a fixed mass of gas is reduced from 3 atmospheres to 1 atmosphere while
the temperature increases form -73C to 127C. the ratio of final volume of the gas to the
initial volume is
(A) 1:6
(B) 1:5
(C) 6:1
(D)2:3
(E) 3:2
15
21. Under which of the following conditions is work done?

(A) A man supports a heavy load above his head with his hands
(B) A woman holds a pot of water
(C) A boy climbs unto a table
(D) A man pushes against a stationary petrol tanker
(E) A bag of cocoa stands on a platform
1 ft ^
22/ A drop of oil of volume 1 0 m spreads out on water to make a circular film of radius
10"1 m. What is the thickness of the film?
(A) 3,2 xlO-9 m (B) 3.2x10"*m (C) 1.6x10"'m (D)1.6xlO- ,0 m
(E)3.l2xl0 9 m
23. A long rope is fixed at one end, and the free end is made to oscillate in one plane at right
angle to the rope with frequency of 4Hz. The successive crests are 0.6m apart. Calculate
the speed and frequency of the waves.
(A) 0.6 m/s, 8Hz
(B) 1.2 m/s, 8Hz
(C) 0.6 m/s, 12Hz
(D) 2.4 m/s, 8Hz
(E) 1.2 m/s, 16Hz
24. For a concave mirror to form a real, diminished image, the object must be placed
(A) behind the mirror
(B) between the mirror and its focus
(C) between the focus and centre of curvature
(D) at the centre of curvature
(E) at a distance greater than the radius of curvature
25. The speed of sound in air is directly proportional to
(A) The temperature on the celcius scale
(B) The square root of its temperature on the absolute scale
(C) The temperature on the thermodynamic scale
(D) The square of its temperature on the celcius scale
(E) The cube root of its temperature on celcius scale
26. Which of the following instruments gives a pure note when sounded
(A) Guitar
(B) Siren
(C) Vibrator
(D) Talking drum
(E) Tuning fork
27. A sonometer wire of linear density 0.08kg/m"3 subjected to a tension of 800N is plucked.
Calculate the speed of a pulse which moyes from one end of the wire to the other.
(A) 800 ms 1
(B) 150 ms"1
(C) 100 ms'1
(D) 25 ms 4
(E) 50 ms 1
28. Which of the following statements is correct about a progressive wave?
(A) The energy of the wave is conserved
(B) The amplitude of vibration of the particles are different
(C) Adjacent minimum and maximum points on the wave are in phase
(D) No points on the wave are permanently at rest
29. Which of the following instruments would a man in a submerged submarine use to view a
boat on the sea?
(A) Sexant
(B) Binoculars
(C) Telescope (D) Periscope
(E) Chronometer
16
30. Which of the following is the reason for using plane mirrors inclined to each other on a
theatre stage?
(A) produce lateral inversion
(B) produce multiple image
(C) magnified the actors
(D) increase the distance from spectators
(E) diminished the image of the actor
31. The speed of light in air and water are 3.0x10 ms 1 and 2.25 x10s ms'1 respectively.
Calculate the critical angle for water when light travels from water to air.
(A) 25.5
(B) 30.2
(C)40.5
(D)20.6
(E)48.6
32. In a pinhole camera, when the hole is large the image is
(A) small and bright
(B) bright and blurred
(C) dark and sharp
(D) small and dark
(E) bright and sharp
33. A converging lens has a focal length of 5cm. What is the power of the lens?
(A) +20D
(B) -20D
(C) -2D
(D) +2D
(E)+200D
34. Which of the following pairs of light rays shows the widest separation in the spectrum of
white light?
(A) Green and blue
(B) Red and yellow
(C) Blue and violet
(D) Orange and indigo
(E) Green and orange
35. A capacitor of capacitance 5{*F is subjected to a potential difference of 1000V across its
terminals. Calculate the energy stored in the capacitor.
(A) 2.5J
(B) 25J
(C) 250J
(D) 2500J
(E)25000J
36. Calculate the electric field intensity in a vacuum at a distance of 10cm from a charge Q of
5x10"^ (Take - = 9x10* Nm:C"J )
4 7CS0
-5
1
(A) 5xl0 NC* (B) 4.5xl0" s N/C
(C) 4.5xl0~'N/C
9
(E) 4.5x10" N/C
(D)4.5xl0" N/C
37. Find the magnetic force experienced by an electron projected into a magnetic field of flux
density 10 Tcsla with a velocity of 5 x 10"7 m/s and in a direction 90 to the magnetic field.
Assume charge on an electron = 1.6x10~19 C
(A) 1.6xl0~11 N
(B) 4xl0~ n N
(C)8xl0"nN
(D)12xlO- , l N
(E) 16x10"" N
38. A transformer has 500 turns in the primary coil and 300 tons in the secondary coil. If the
primary is connected to a 220V mains, what voltage will be obtained from the secondary
coil?
(A) 132 volts
(B) 166.6 volts
(C) 750 volts
(D) 75 volts
(E) 13.2 volts
17
39.
4jiF
2nF
3\xF
What is the effective capacitance of the circuit?
(A) 1.30 nF
(B)6.2hF
(C)1.56HF
(D) 3 ^F
(E) 4 jiF
40. The magnetic flux density is defined as the

(A) magnetic force exerted on a unit magnetic pole
(B) total number of magnetic lines of force surrounding a magnet
(C) number of magnetic lines of force per unit area normal to the magnetic field
(D) total number of magnetic field around a north pole
(E) the strength of the magnetic field surrounding a current carrying conductor
41. A point charge of magnitude 2\xC is moved through a distance of 0.02m against uniform
field intensity 25 Vm'1. Calculate the work done on the charge.
(A) l.OxlO-5 J (B) lOxlO"5 J (C) S.OxlO"5 J (D) 2.0xl0~5 J
(E) 5.0x10"* J
42. The voltage and current in the primary of a transformer are 200V and 2A respectively. If
the transformer is used to light ten 12V, 30w bulbs. What is the efficiency?
(A) 85%
(B) 65% (C) 90%
(D) 70%
(E) 75%
43. An inductor 10H carries a current of 0.2A. What is the energy stored in the inductor?
(A) 2.0J
(b) 1.0J
(C) 0.1 J
(D) 0.2J
(E) 20J
44. Which of the following electrical devices uses energy stored in a capacitor?
(A) Fuse
(B) Starter
(C) Motor
(D) Transformer
(E) Transistor
45. Which of the following is not a component of dry Leclanche cell
(A) Manganese dioxide (B) Ammonium paste (C) Carbon rod
(D) Copperplate
46. Which of the following is a semi conductor material?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Boron
(C) Arsenic
(D) Helium
(E) Germanium
47. The process of adding foreign materials to a semiconductor in order to improve its
electrical conductivity is
(A) Doping
(B) Donor
(C) Acceptor
(D) Conductor
(E) Insulator
48. A metal has work function of 4.375eV. What is the threshold frequency?
[/r 6.6x10"M JS, leV=1.6xKTu J]
(A) 1.65x10" Hz
(B) 1.06x10" Hz
(C) 2.0x10" Hz
(D)2.5xlOu Hz
(E) 3.0xl0 15 Hz
49.. Which of the following materials is used to control the rate of neutron production in a
nuclear reactor?
(A) Graphite rods (B) Aluminium rods
(C) Uranium rods
(D) Concrete shield
(E) Boron rods
18
Two radioactive elements A and B have half lives of 100 and 50 years' respectively.
Samples A and B contain equal number of atoms. What is the ratio of the number of
remaining atoms of A and B after 200 years?
(A) 4:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:1
(D)l:2
(E) 1:4
19
9.
Naphthalene when heated at 81C (354 k), at this temperature the molecules of naphthalene
(A) decompose into smaller molecule
(B) change their shape
(C) are oxidized by atmospheric oxygen
.
(D) becomes mobile as the inter-molecular forces are broken
(E) contract
10. If the cost of electricity required to deposit lg of magnesium is 24500, how much would it
cost to deposit lOg of aluminium?
(A) m0.0Q
(B) N27.00
(C)W66.57
(D) W33.33
(E) W44.44
11. The function of sulphur during the vulcanization of rubber is to
(A) form chains which bind rubber molecules together
(B) break down rubber polymer
(C) shorten the chain length of rubber polymer
(D) act as catalyst for the polymerization of rubber
(E) convert rubber from thermosetting to thermoplastic
12. The exhaust fumes from a garage in a place that uses petrol of high sulphur content are
bound to contain.
(A) CO and S0 3
(B) CO and SO2
(C) CO, SO2 arid SO3 (D) CO and H*S
(E) H2O and O2
13. The efficiency of petrol as a fuel in high compression internal combustion engines
improves with an increase in the amount of
(A) cycloaikanes
(B) halogenated hydrocarbons (C) straight chain alkanes
(D) cyclo butane
(E) branched chain alkanes
14. When pure aluminium metal is heated to red hot in the presence of nitrogen gas, the
compound formed is
(A) ALN
(B) AL2N2
(C) AL2N3
(D) AL3N2
(E) A13N3
15. If 24.83 cm3 of 0.15m NaoH is titrated to its end point with 39.45 cm3 of HC1, what is the
molarity of the HC1?
(A) 0.940M
(B) 0.094M
(C) 0.005M
(D) 1.500M (E) 0.150M
16. Which is the correct set of results for tests conducted respectively on fresh lime juice and
ethanol?
Ethanol
Fresh lime juice
Test
no gas evolved
gas evolved
(A) Add crystals of NaHC03
no change
turns colourless
(B) Test with methyl orange
sour
bitter
(C) Taste
hydrogen evolved
(D) Add a piece of sodium metal no gas evolved
nitrogen evolved
(E) Add a piece of sodium metal no gas evolved
17. A palm wine seller stoppered a bottle of his palm wine in his stall and after a few hours the
bottle exploded. Which of the following equations represents the reaction that occurred?
(A) C2H50H + diIH2S04-*C2H50S03H
(B) 2C6Ht206 -*Ci 2 H 22 0i3 ->H 2 0
(C) C6H1206
> 2C2H5OH +2C02(g) (D) C2H5OH ->CH2=CH2(g) + H20
(E) C2H5OH CH2 s CH<g) + H 2 0
21
PART TWO
SECTION B: CHEMISTRY
(One Hour)
The flame used by welders in cutting metal is
(A) kerosene flame
(B) acetyjene flame
(D) butane
(E) oxygen flame
(C) oxy-acetylene flame
If aii element has the electronic configuration IS2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P4 it is:
(A) a p-block element
(B) a transition element
(C) an s-block element
(D) a metal
(E) an alkaline-earth metal
Crude petroleum pollutant usually seen on some Nigerian creeks and water ways can be
dispersed or removed by
(A) heating the affected parts in order to boil off the petroleum
(B) Mechanically stirring
iii water
(C) Pouring organic solvents to dissolve the petroleum
(D) Cooling to freeze out the petroleum
(E) Spraying the water witij ^gtergent
Stainless steel is an alloy of
(A) carbon, iron and lead
(B) carbon, iron and copper
(C) carbon, iron and silver
(D) carbon, iron and chromium
(E) carbon and iron only
Which of the following separation processes is most likely to yield high quality ethanol
(>95%) from palm wine?
(A) fractional distillation
(B) fractional distillation with a dghydrant
(C) simple distillation with a dehydrant
(D) column chromatography
(E) evaporation
The cracking process is very important in the petroleum industry because it
(A) yields more engine fuel
(B) yields more asphalt
(C) yields more candle wax
(D) gives purer products
(E) yields more lubricant
A jet plane carrying 3,000 kg of ethane burns off all the gas, forming carbon dioxide. If all
the carbon dioxide is expelled and all the water formed is condensed and kept on board the
plane, then the gain in weight is
(A) 1,800 kg
(B) 900 kg
(C) 600 kg
(D) 1,200 kg
Sodium
chloride(B)
mayevaporation
be obtained from
by
(A) titration
(C)brine
distillation
22
(E) 2,400 kg
(D) decantation
(E) sublimation
18. Synthetic rubber is made by polymerization of

(A) 2 methylbuta - 1 , 2 - diene
(B) 2 methylbuta - 1 , 3 - diene
(C) 2 methylbut - 1 - ene
(D) 2 methylbut-2-ene
(E) 2 methylbut -2,3 yne
19.
1.34g of hydrated sodium tetraoxosulphate(VI) was heated to give an anhydrous salt

weighing 0.7 lg. the formula of the hydrated salt is
(A) Na 2 S0 4 .3H 2 0
(B) Na 2 S0 4 .7H 2 0
(C) Na 2 S0 4 .2H 2 0
(D) Na 2 S0 4 .H 2 0
(E) Na 2 S0 4
20.
An eruption polluted an environment with a gas suspected to be H2S, a poisonous gas. A

rescue team should spray the environment with
(A) moist SO*
(B) acidified KMn0 4 and water
(C) water, acidified KMn0 4 and oxygen
(D) water
(E) nitrogen
21. The existence of two or more forms of the same element in the same physical state is
known as
(A) isotopy
(B) hybridization
(C) resonance
(D) isomerism
(E) allotropy
22. Which of the following equations represent a neutralization reaction?
(A) 2Na + 2H2O ->2NaOH + H2
(B) NazCb + H2SO4 -> Na 2 S0 4 + H2O2
(C) H2SO< + KOH
KHSO4 + H 2 0
(D) CaCl2 + 2HC1
CaCl2 + Cl2 + H 2 0
(E) CuS0 4 + 2NaOH -> Cu(OH)2 + Na 2 S0 4
23. What volume of carbon(TV) oxide is produced at s.t.p. when 2.5g of CaC03 reacts with
excess acid according to the following equation? CaCCh + 2HC1 -CaCl 2 + H 2 0 + C0 2
[CaCOj =100; molar volume of a gas at s.t.p. = 22.4 dm3]
(A) 0.56 dm3
(B) 0.28 dm3
(C) 2.24 dm3
(D) 5.60 dm3
(D) 11.20 dm3
24.
Which of the following statements is not correct about electrolysis?

(A) Reduction occurs at the anode.
(B) Anions migrate to the anode.
(C) Positive ions migrate to the cathode.
(D) Concentration affects the discharge of ions.
(E) Electrolytes conduct electric current
25. Which of the following reactions do not take place in the smelting of iron in a blast
furnace?
(A) CaC0 3(s) H>CaO(s) + C0 2 t o
(B) SiO^s) + CaO(s) -> CaC03(s)
(C) C0 2U) + C(s)
3CO(g)
(D) C(s) + 02(g)
CC>2(g)
22
26. Which of the following substance would you use as an indicator in the titration of Na2C03
solution against HC1 (complete neutralisation)?
(A) phenolphthalein
(B) methylorange
(C) litmus paper
(D) universal indicator (E) none of the above
27. Which of the following substances are all made by the process of polymerization?
(A) nylon and soap
(B) Ethanoic acid, margarine and ethanol
(C) Nylon and artificial rubber
(D) Margarine and nylon
(E) Soap and butane
28. Which one of these compounds will NOT give an oxygen gas on heating?
(A) sodium nitrate
(B) zinc nitrate
(C) Ammonium nitrate
(D) Hydrogen peroxide
(E) manganese dioxide
29. The following reactions are stages in important industrial processes:
(I) Nau + SH^) 2NH2(g) AH is negative
(II) 2S02(g> + 02(g) ^ 2803(g) AH is negative
(IID N2(g) +02(g) - 2N0(g) AH is positive
Which of the above forward reactions is favoured by
(i) a decrease in the concentration of the product, and
(ii) an increase in temperature
(A) I
(B) H
(C) III
(D) I and II
(E) I and III
30. Which of die following statements is true? When the potassium atom forms its ion.
(A) it achieves electronic configuration of argon
(B) its atomic number decreases
(C) it loses one neutron
(D) it loses one proton
(E) it gains one electron
31. Helium atoms are chemically unreactive because
(A) there are no electrons around the nucleus
(B) the number of protons equals the number of electrons
(C) there are equal numbers of protons and neutrons in Use nucleus
(D) the atom contain only protons
(E) the outer electron shell is completely filled
32. Methanoic acid mixed with water in all proportions and has about the same boiling point
water. Which of the following methods would you adopt to obtain pure water frQtn
mixture of sand, water and methanoic acid?
(A) Fractional distillation
(B) Neutralization with sodium hydroxide followed by distillation
(C) Neutralization with sodium hydroxide followed by filtration
(D) Esterification with ethanol followed by distillation
(E) Filtration followed by distillation
23
33. In the extraction of aluminium from purified bauxite by electrolysis, Cryolite is used
because
(A) it makes bauxite melt at a lower temperature
(B) it makes aluminium purer
(C) it prevents aluminium from getting oxidized
(D) it protects the carbon electrodes used in the process
34. The empirical formular of an oxide of nitrogen containing 30.4 percent of nitrogen is
*
(A) NO
(B) N 2 0 2
(C) N 2 0 3
(D) N0 2
(E) N 2 0
35. Bronze is an alloy of
(A) copper, zinc and nickel
(B) copper and zinc
(C) tin and copper
(D) tin and zinc
(E) aluminium and copper
36. The solution of a sample in a test tube will be identified as a chloride if it gives
(A) a white precipitate on addition of AgNOj and barium chloride solution
(B) a white precipitate when acidified with dilute HC1 and then AgN0 3 solution added
(C) a white precipitate when acidified with dilute H2SO4 and then barium nitrate solution
added
(D) a pungent smell of chlorine gas when dilute HC1 and Mn0 2 are added
(E) a white precipitate when acidified with dilute HNO3 and then AgN03 solution added
37. Which of the following statements is an exception in die assumptions of the kinetic theory
of gases?
(A) Gases are composed of many elastic particles.
(B) The particles are of negligible size.
(C) The particles are in constant random motion.
(D) The particles are of negligible mass.
(E) The particles collide with each other.
38. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Metals do not conduct electricity.
(B) Metals have high density, non-metals have low density.
(C) Metals form basic oxides, non-metals form acidic oxides.
(D) Metals lose electrons while non-metals gain electrons during chemical reactions.
(E) In the electrochemical series, metals are above hydrogen while non-metals are below
hydrogen.
39. Chlorine, bromide and iodine resemble each other in that all
(A) react violently with hydrogen without heating
(B) dissolves in alkalis
(C) displace each other from solutions of their salt
(D) are gases
(E) are liquids
24
40. Which of the following is acceptable as the organic product of the reaction of methoic acid
and ethanol with an acid catalyst?
(A) Ethylethanoate
(B) Ethylmethanoate
(C) Butanoi
(D) Ethyhnethyl ketone
41. Hardening of an oil may be achieved by
(A) Boiling the oil with a catalyst.
(B) Treating the oil with sodium hydroxide,
(C) Distilling the oil under reduced pressure.
(D) Treating the oil with hydrogen and catalyst.
(E) Boiling the oil with water.
42. The best way of collecting chlorine is
(A) by downward displacement of air
(B) underwater
(C) over mercury
(D) by upward displacement of air
(E) over water
43. Detergents are more advantageous than soaps in hard water districts because
(A) on treatment with hard water they either form soluble calcium salts or do not react
with calcium ions
(B) on treatment with hard water they form insoluble calcium salts
(C) on treatment with hard water they form soluble sodium salts
(D) on treatment with bard water they are converted into soaps
(E) on treatment with hard water they form more lather than soap does
44. Which of the following reagents will confirm the presence of unsaturation in a compound?
(A) Bromine water
(B) Benedict's solution
(C) FeMing's solution
(D) Zinc nitrate solution
(E) Tollen's reagent
45. Which of the following is not a redox reaction? .
(A) 2HN0 3 + 2H1 2H2C + 2NO + I2
(B) Zn + H2SO4 * Z11SO4 + II2
(C) Ca(HC03)2
CaCOj + H 2 0 + C02
(D) 4Feo + Ch-+ 2Fe203
(E) 2Na + cl2 + 2NaCl
46.
Which of the following in aqueous solution is neutral to litmus?

(A) NaCl
(B) FeCl3
(C) Na2CG3
(D) NH4CI
47. Transition metals posses variable oxidation states because they have
(A) a variable number of electrons in tine p orbitals
(B) partially filled d orbitals
(C) electrons in the s orbitals
(D) electrons in the s and p orbitals
(E) electrons in d orbitals
25
48. Which of the following physical properties decreases down a group in the periodic table? .
(A) Electropositivity
N
(B) Ionic radius
(C) Atomic radius
(D) Both C and A
(E) Electronegativity
49. The volume occupied by l.58g of a gas at s.t.p. is 500 cm3, what is the relative molecular
mass of the gas? [G.M.V. at s.t.p. = 22.40 dm3]
(A) 48
(B) 32
(C) 44
(D)71
(E) 76
50. Which of the following compounds represents the polymerization product of ethyne?
26
PART TWO
SECTION C: BUSINESS STUDIES
(One Hour)
1.
The evolution of accountancy was as a result of

(A) Involvement of Europeans in trade.
(B) Increase in the volume of trade.
(C) Desire for self accountability in marketing.
(D) Employees' inclusion in business.
(E) None of the above.
2.
One essential element of book-keeping is that

(A) The books of account must be properly kept.
(B) The owner must be in control of all the books.
(C) The financial position either profit or loss can be determined.
(D) The records of the owner must be published.
(E) The trading activities must be displayed.
3.
To arrive at gross profit in the trade account, you can

(A) Divide sales by cost of goods sold.
(B) Subtract sales from cost of goods sold.
(C) Multiply sales by cost of goods sold.
(D) Subtract cost of goods sold from sales.
(E) Subtract cost of goods sold from sales and opening stock.
4.
Bad debt is
(A) A debt that is so bad
(B) A debt that could not be received.
(C) A debt that was received.
(D) A debt that was recovered but could not be used for anything.
(E) A foreign debt.
5.
When the owner takes money from the business, it is called

(A) Debit
(B) Credit
(C) Withdrawals
(D) Drawings
(E) Owner's right
6.
The President of the Institute of chartered Accountants of Nigeria is

(A) Dr. Mohammed Bello
(B) Prof. Idris Alooma
(C) Alhaji Sani Abubakar
(D) Alhaji Alkali Kabir Mohammed
(E) Mr. Jonah Otunla
7.
Ojo took Ml ,000 from cash and paid it into the bank. Such transaction is called
(A) Contra entry
(B) Double transaction
(C) Error of commission
(D) Principle of double entry
(E) Bank transaction
27
8.
A book of origiraal entry which functions both as book of original entry and a section of the
ledger is
(A) Purchase ixnvoice
(B) Sales invoiice
(C) Cash book
(D) Ledger
(E) Return Inward Day book
9.
The difference between the two column cash book and the three column cash book is
(A) Gash column
(B) Bank column
(C) Both cash and bank columns
(D) Discount column
(E) Cheque column
10. Another name for the Balance sheet is

(A) Statement of cash flows
(B) Statement of financial position
(C) Statement of comprehensive income
(D) End of reporting period
(E) No other name
11. If a woman buys an article for Ml 50 and sells it for N230, the N80 difference is her
(A) Profit (B) Net profit
(C) Contribution
(D) Loss
(E) Profit and loss
12. A company shares which gives legal right of being a shareholder is
(A) Preference shareholder
(B) Cumulative preference sharehold
(C) Ordinary shareholder
(D) Debencher holder
(E) Bondholder
13. Dividends refer to
(A) Loan given to a customer by a company.
(B) Loan raised by a company from the public.
(C) Total profit made divided by the number of people.
(D) Losses for shares held by a customer
(E) Profit for shares held by a customer.
14. The method of depreciation used to depreciate loose tools is
(A) Straightline method
(B) Diminishing balance method
(C) Annuity method
(D) Revaluation method
(E) Insurance Policy method
15. A motor van bought 1/1/2013 at 440,000 was to be depreciated at 2l/z% as 31/12/2015.
What will be the value of the vehicle as at that date?
(A) N3 8,000 (B) N40,000 (C) W1,000
(D) 2435,000
(E) W39.000
28
16. The partnership deed contains the following except"

(A) Name of the Partner.
(B) Tax clearance of each partner.
(C) Amount of capital contributed by each partner.
(D) How profit or Losses are to be shared.
(E) Method of dissolution or winding up.
17. Which of the following is a commercial service?
(A) Transporting
(B) Garri processing (C) Oil drilling
(E) Tailoring
18. The sole purpose of production is
(A) Employment
(B) Promotion
(E) Enterprise
(C) Consumption
(D) Lumbering
(D) Competition
19. Which of the following is concerned with obtaining raw materials from their natural
location?
(A) Extractive industry
(B) Manufacturing industry
(C) Construction industry
(D) Transport industry
(E) Engineering industry
20. In which of the following classes of occupation would you place a Commerce teacher?
(A) Commercial (B) Extractive (C) Direct service
(D) Manufacturing
(E) Construction
21. Turnover may be increased by
(A) increasing prices and product differentiation
(B) advertising and cutting prices
(C) refusing credits and customer services
(D) increasing the mark-up
(E) stocking very expensive goods
>
22. In winding-up a company, the assets of the company are vested in the hands of the
(A) receiver
(B) liquidator
(C) registrar of the companies
(D) directors of the companies
(E) the government
23. When more shares are applied for than are offered for sale the offer is said to be over
(A) issued (B) floated
(C) subscribed
(D) valued
(E) traded
24. Which of the following deals with the problems involved in the selling of a particular
" product?
(A) Market research (B) Market segmentation
(C) Market sharing
(D) Marketing research
(E) Merchandising
25. Patent right gives the owner the exclusive right to
(A) produce any type of goods
(B) his invention
(C) form a new business
(D) sell to other manufacturers
(E) produce the same goods with other manufacturers
29
26. The method by which insurance companies spread their risks to other insurance companies
is called
(A) double insurance (B) underinsurance
(C) re-insurance (D) over-insurance
(E) underwriting
27. The practice of selling goods in foreign markets at less than the cost price is known as
(A) Fair trading
(B) Over-invoicing
(C) Smuggling
(D) Hedging
(E) Dumping
28. The Act designed to reserve certain businesses exclusively for Nigerians is known as the
(A) Sale of goods Act
(B) Weights and measures Act
(C) Nigerian Enterprise promotion Act
(D) Standard organization of Nigeria Act
(E) Trade mark Act
29. Which of the following is a feature of cooperative societies?
(A) Each member has several votes during meetings.
(B) Profits are shared on the basis of shares held.
(C) All members have equal vote during meetings.
(D) Members are not involved in running the business.
(E) The welfare of members is not taken into consideration.
30. A customer is granted an overdraft by the bank subject to his operating a
(A) saving account
(B) fixed deposit account
(C) call-deposit account
(D) current account (E) loans account
31. The total assets acquired for permanent use in a business concern is called ,
(A) current assets (B) fixed assets
(C) call-up capital (D) working capital
(E) authorised capital
32. Which of the following is not a necessary document in incorporating a company?
(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Article of Association
(C) A statement of nominal capital
(D) A certificate of trading
(E) A state of minimum subscription
33. Who among the following is not a middleman?
(A) a retailor (B) broker (C) factor (D) consumer
(E) wholesaler
34. Scarcity in Economics means that resources

(A) are not enough to share among the producers of goods and services
(B) needed to satisfy human wants are limited
(C) are never enough to share among consumers of goods and services
(D) required to meet our essential wants are unlimited
(E) can be managed if those who use them behave rationally
35. The indicator of the value of money in the market is
(A) the general price level
(B) effective supply
(D) effective demand (E) consumers income
30
(C) the equilibrium price
36. Given that fixed cost is N500.00, variable cost is Ul,500.00 and output is 50 units. What
will be the average cost of producing one unit?
(A) U2,000.00 (B) N60.00 (C) N50.00
(D) W40.00
(E) N30.00
37. The notion of short-run and long-run periods is responsible for grouping costs into
(A) fixed and variable (B) implicit and explicit
(C) average and total
(D) capital and running
(E) money and opportunity
38. Which of the following are determinants of the rate of population growth?
(A) Birth rate, immigration and death rate
(B) Birth rate, death rate and emigration
(C) Migration and mortality rate
(D) Migration, large families and birth rate
(E) Death rate, birth rate and mortality rate
39. Under the ECOWAS agreement, a Nigerian can enter and stay in Ghana without a visa for
a period of
(A) 14 days (B) 30 days
(C) 60 days (D) 90 days
(E) 100 days
40. The supply of money in the economy includes
(A) bank notes only (B) bank notes and coins (C) bank notes and bank deposits
(D) bank notes, coins and bank deposits (E) none of the above
41. The indicator of the value of money is
(A) the general price level
(B) the equilibrium price
(D) the interest rate (E) all of the above
(C) consumers' income
42. Trade among nations is desirable because it

(A) enables people in a country to know those in other countries
(B) makes it possible for people in a country to enjoy the goods and services produced in
other countries
(C) enables residents in a country to understand the language of residents of other
countries
(D) makes it possible for a country to have the currencies of other countries
(E) makes people to know other countries
43. Invisible trade refers to trade in
(A) services (B) goods and services
(E) non oil related goods
(C) tangible goods
(D) crude oil
44. A tax which is expressed as a given absolute sum of money per unit of a commodity is
known as
(A) a specific tax (B) a direct tax (C) an indirect tax CD) a value added tax
(E) all of the above
45. Which of the following will have a more destabilizing effect on the economy?
(A) A tax on the prices of vehicles
(B) A tax on petrol
(C) Decrease in the supply of vehicles
(D) Moderate increase in wages
(H) None of the above
31
46. A market situation with a large number of firms selling closely related but differentiated
products is
(A) monopolistic competition
(B) perfect competition
(C) monopoly
(D) monopsony
(E) market structure
47. Production covers all the following except when
(A) utility is created
(B) a good is manufactured
(C) commodity is consumed
(D) individual wants are satisfied
(E) labour and materials are combined
48. One major aim of a cartel is to
(A) increase production
(B) regulate output through quota system
(C) have a joint account
(D) share profits equally
(E) increase supply of goods and services
49. Government expenditure on the construction of roads and bridges is
(A) recurrent expenditure
(B) capital expenditure
(C) supplementary expenditure
(D) variable expenditure
(E) fixed expenditure
50. What accounts for the U-shape of the short run average cost (AC) curve?
(A) The law of variable proportions.
(B) Increasing returns to scale.
(C) Decreasing use of inputs.
(D) Changing output during the production period.
(E) None of the above.
32
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PETROLEUM TRAINING INSTITUTE

SATURDAY, 20 JUNE, 2015

3 Hour* (10:00 ara^ 1:00

Please read the following Instructions carl

Candidates for Diploma in Petroleum Engineering, Mineral Resources Engineering,

Which of the following is true of the passage?

The word 'pigmentation' in the passage is a reference to

From the passage, we can deduce that Karlie is

The speaker in the passage is against

(C) the new religion

According to the passage, Nigeria used to be the world's biggest producer of

Select the statement supported by the passage

Indicate which is not supported by the passage.

Timber can be made into

The last sentence implies that

Depositor Name (your full name)

ATM, Mobile and Online Money transfer also accepted.

Take your share and give them

The policeman tried to cash in

15. I'd give up smoking, if I

I don't agree that the problem is intractable.

17. Her terse remarks brought the conversation to an end.

The paper carries many humorous cartoons on Saturdays.

(E) none of the above

Such measures end up exacerbating the pain.

Sa'adatu as well as the maids

(E) all of the above

(C) is liking plantain chips

no longer impossible to manage these days.

People dislike Jobe because he is a

He is now the megaphone of the people's oppressors.

Here is Mr. Pam the tailor.

One of the guarantors shall sign here.

John is a misogynist. This means He

Which state produces the largest quantity of crude oil in Nigeria?

The Nigerian civil war lasted for

The current African Cup of Nations Champion is

Which of these countries was not colonised in Africa?

The United Nations headquarters is in

(E) Ivory Coast

Make t the subject of the formula k = mj-

Convert 645g to binary

Evaluate log* = 31ogl .2 + 21og^Vlo)-log0.96

Find the values of x for which the expression

The solution of x -M - (xVx) is

Find the value of x for which 3124 + 52x = 9oto

In how many ways can the word MATHEMATICS be arranged?

26. Consider the following table

The score of a group of 12 pupils in a test are as in the table be ow

Use the table above to answer question 30 and 31

Calculate the size of A O C.

Consider a cyclic quadrilateral in which PQ - PS. PT is a tangent to the circle and PQ

Consider the circle POR <3

ind the value of x in the figure below

In the given figure below if r r / u n

After t seconds, a particle has travelled a distance of x metres, where

Given S = / + ^at 1 , find u if S = 25, t = 2 and a = 4.

The determinant of the matrix 3 2 5 is

Find the value of

Which of the following is a fundamental unit of optics?

(E) none of the above

3. ' The least possible error using a scale graduated in millimetres is