1.

The first microorganisms to colonize the gut of infants living in developed

countries is:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
2. Which human body site is NOT a favorable place for abundant microbial
growth because it is subject to periodic drying?
a. Skin surface.
b. Respiratory tract
c. Gastrointestinal tract
d. Urogenital tract
3. The most common fungi found on the skin are:
a. Staphylococcus spp
b. Propionibacterium spp
c. Malassezia spp.
d. Streptococcus spp
4. Incorporation of ________ into the calcium phosphate crystal tooth matrix
increases resistance to tooth decay.
a. Fluoride.
b. Nitrite
c. Bromide
d. Calcium
5. Intestinal microorganisms perform which of the following functions?
a. They absorb water from digested food material
b. They produce about half the nitrogen gas present in the atmosphere
c. They synthesize all the essential vitamins required by humans.
d. They modify bile acids into activated steroid compounds
6. The upper respiratory tract consists of all the following EXCEPT:
a. The oral cavity
b. The bronchi.
c. The nasopharynx
d. The pharynx
7. A local acidic environment in the vagina of adult women is maintained by
fermentation of:
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen.
c. Estrogen
d. Lactose
8. Structures involved in the specific adherence of a pathogen to host cell
surfaces include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Pili.
b. Fimbriae
c. Transferrin
d. Capsules
9. ________ probably occurs because nonvirulent or weakly virulent mutants
grow faster and, after successive transfers to fresh media, such mutants
are selectively favored.
1

a.
b.
c.
d.

Attenuation.
Invasiveness
Toxicity
Pathogenicity
10.
As with other pathogenicity islands, SPI-1 is a collection of virulence
genes flanked by sequences suggesting a(n):
a. Plasmid transfer
b. Transposable genetic element.
c. Virus insertion
d. Absence of transcriptional regulation
11.
What is the fibrinolytic substance produced by Streptococcus
pyogenes that dissolves fibrin clots and makes further invasion possible?
a. Streptokinase.
b. Coagulase
c. Lipase
d. Hyaluronidase
12.
Which of the following is NOT a host risk factor for infection?
a. Health status of the host
b. Stress
c. Age
d. Relative virulence.
13.
Growth of a microorganism after it has gained access to host tissues is called
. (infection)
14.
Most skin microorganisms are associated directly or indirectly with
the.. .
15.
Diets high in (sucrose) .especially promote dental caries.
16.
Probiotics.are live cultures of intestinal bacteria that, when
administered to a host, often confer a health benefit.
17.
Iron-chelating compounds that help many bacteria produce iron from the
environment are called .. Siderophore.
18.
Invasion.is the ability of a pathogen to grow in host
tissue in such large numbers that it inhibits host function.
19.
Coagulase..is a protein that functions in the clotting of
blood.
20.
Botulinum toxin consists of AB toxinthat are the most potent
biological toxins known.
21.
The host-parasite interaction is a dynamic relationship between the two
organisms, influenced by changing conditions in the pathogen, the host, and the
environment. True/ False
22.
In heavy plaque on the surface of the teeth, aerotolerant anaerobes such as
streptococci and lactobacilli may predominate. True/ False (In heavy plaque,
filamentous obligately anaerobic organisms such as Actinomyces may predominate.
Thus, dental plaque is a mixed-culture biofilm (Section 23.4), consisting of a
relatively thick layer of bacteria from several different genera as well as
accumulated bacterial products.
23.
In many cases, pathogenic microorganisms cannot colonize mucous
membranes because of the competitive effects of the normal flora. True/ False
2

24.
An iron solution given to an infected animal greatly decreases the virulence
of some pathogens. True/ False(a dietary iron supplement given to an infected
animal greatly increases the virulence of some pathogens.
25.
Endotoxins generally cause massive secretion of fluid into the intestinal
lumen, resulting in vomiting and diarrhea. True/ False
26.
Pathogens use all the following strategies to gain access to nutrients
in a host EXCEPT:
a. The production of a diverse microflora.
b. The production of unique growth factors and invasive enzymes
c. The production of potent biological toxins
d. The production of specialized attachment structures
27.
The ability of a parasite to inflict damage on a host is called:
a. Disease
b. Virulence
c. Pathogenicity.
d. Infection
28.
Microbial populations thrive on the surface of the skin at all the
following sites EXCEPT:
a. The umbilicus
b. The underarms
c. The nipples
d. The legs.
29.
Dental caries results from the production of locally high
concentrations of ________ by resident microflora.
a. Inorganic acids
b. Glycoproteins.
c. Hydrogen sulfide
d. Organic acids
30.
The most common single organism found in the stomach is:
a. Helicobacter pylori.
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bacteroides spp.
d. Clostridium spp.
31.
Antibiotic treatment may result in infection and the development of
colitis caused by overgrowth of antibiotic organisms such as:
a. Methanobrevibacter smithii
b. Bacteroides spp
c. Clostridium difficile.
d. Fusobacterium spp
32.
The microorganisms most commonly found on the mucosal surfaces
of the respiratory tract include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Gram-negative bacilli.
b. Diphtheroids
c. Gram-negative cocci
d. Staphylococci
33.
The relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease is called:
a. Virulence
3

b. Pathogenicity.
c. Infection
d. Disease
34.
Growth of Brucella abortus occurs very rapidly in the placenta of
infected cattle because the placenta is the only tissue that contains high
concentrations of:
a. Erythritol.
b. Lactoferrin
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen
35.
An organism that exemplifies the extreme of toxicity is:
a. Candida albicans
b. Legionella pneumophila
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Clostridium tetani.
36.
________ digests the intercellular matrix, enabling organisms to
spread from an initial site of infection.
a. Dnase
b. Coagulase
c. Lipase
d. Hyaluronidase.
37.
Diphtheria toxin is formed only by strains of Corynebacterium
diphtheriae that:
a. Contain a T plasmid
b. Are lysogenized by bacteriophage .
c. Are replicating in the presence of large concentrations of iron
d. Contain a mobile genetic element
38.
The organisms that colonize, invade, and damage the human body through
direct and indirect means are known as ..pathogens.
39.
Infections frequently begin at sites in the animal's mucous membrane
40.
Various environmental and host factors may influence the composition of the
skin microflora; these include the weather, the age of the host,
and..persional hygiene.
41.
The composition of the intestinal flora in humans varies considerably and is
somewhat dependent on . . Diet
42.
A loose network of polymer fibers extending outward from a cell is called a
glycocalyx
43.
.Attenuatedstrains are often used for production of vaccines,
especially viral vaccines.
44.
The genes that initiate the invasion process in Salmonella spp. Are contained
on the chromosomal.. Pathogenicity island 1 (SPI1).
45.
The three categories of exotoxins are thecytolytic toxin, the AB toxins,
and the superantigen toxins.
46.
Flagella can increase adherence to host cells.True/ False
47.
Neither Clostridium tetani nor Clostridium botulinum is very invasive, and
virtually all pathogenic effects are the result of neurotoxicity. True/ False

48.
A pathogen causes disease only in the absence of normal host
resistance.True/ False
49.
Saliva is a good growth medium because nutrients are present in high
concentrations and because it contains vanishingly low levels of antibacterial
substances. True/ False
50.
Bacteria make up about one-third of the weight of fecal matter.True/ False

Chapter: Control of microbial

1. When using heat sterilization, which type of cell is most likely to survive
conditions that are less than optimal, for example, an error that resulted
in heating of the solution to only 115 oc, and only for a few minutes?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Escherichia coli O157: H7
D. Endospores of Bacillus subtilis
E. More than one of the above
2. Which of the following kinds of cells might be resistant to a germicide
used in a hospital?
A. Salmonalla typhi
B. Escherichia coli
C. Endospores of Bacillus subtilis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. More than one of the above
3. What is the mode of action of sulfanilamide?
A. Blocking synthesis of protein
B. Blocking synthesis of the cell wall
C. Blocking mRNA synthesis
D. Blocking folic acid synthesis
4. What is the mode of action of penicillin?
A. Blocking synthesis of protein
B. Blocking mRNA synthesis
C. Blocking folic acid synthesis
D. Blocking synthesis of the cell wall
5. What is the mode of action of tetracycline?
A. Blocking synthesis of protein
B. Blocking folic acid synthesis
C. Blocking synthesis of the cell wall
D. Blocking mRNA synthesis
6. What is the mode of action of streptomycin?
A. Blocking folic acid synthesis
B. Blocking synthesis of the cell wall
C. Blocking synthesis of protein
D. Blocking mRNA synthesis
7. Which of the following would be considered a growth factor analog?
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin
C. Sulfanilamide
D. Streptomycin
E. All of the above
8. Which of the following would not be considered an antibiotic?
5

A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Sulfanilamide
D. Tetracycline
E. All of the above
9. Which of the following would be considered a narrow spectrum antibiotic?
A. Streptomycin
B. Kanamycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Vancomycin
10.
What is the mode of action of AZT?
A. Blocking synthesis of the cell wall
B. Blocking DNA synthesis
C. Blocking synthesis of protein
D. Blocking mRNA synthesis
11.
The antifungal drugs in the polyoxin group, based on their mode of
action, are most like that of the antibacterial drug __________.
A. Streptomycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Sulfanilamide
D. Penicillin
12.
Which of the following antibiotics might be dismissed immediately as
a way to treat a disease caused by a mycoplasma?
A. Streptomicin
B. Kanamycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Penicillin
13.
Most clinically significant antibiotic resistance results from _________.
A. Mutations in pathogen chromosomal genes
B. Development of an immune response in the microorganism
C. Acquisition of a plasmid encoding antibiotic resistance
14.
The process by which all living cells, viable spores, viruses, and
viroids are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat is called
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Sanitization
D. Antisepsis
E. The definition would apply to all of the above
15.
The correct conditions for an autoclave are
A. 15 psi of steam pressure and 121 oc
B. 5 psi of steam pressure and 100 oc
C. 35 psi of steam pressure and 212 oc
D. 30 psi of steam pressure and 180 oc
16.
If a soil sample were suspended in water, boiled for 20 minutes, then
plated on nutrient agar, and incubated aerobically, which of the following
would most likely grow on the plates?
A. Treponema pallidum (a spirochete)
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pelodictyon (a photosynthetic bacterium)
D. Clostridium botulinum
6

E. Bacillus subtilis
17.
A bacteriocidal agent could be distinguished from a bacteriostatic
agent by
A. Comparing total cell counts, and the viable cell counts following addition of
each agent.
B. Determining the influence of each on growth rate.
C. Determining the relative concentration required to inhibit growth.
D. Comparing the rate of protein synthesis in following inhibition of growth.
E. Determining the slope of the curve in the death phase.
18.
Agents that kill or destroy bacteria are said to be
A. Inhibitory
B. Bactericidal
C. Bacteriostatic
D. All of the above
19.
Compared with the decontamination, disinfection is
A. More aggressive
B. Less aggressive
C. Equally aggressive
D. Either more or less aggressive, depending on the situation in question
20.
The destruction of all life forms is called
A. Disinfection
B. Sterilization
C. Decontamination
D. Any of the above, depending on the circumstances.
21.
The time required for a 10-fold reduction in population density at a
given temperature is called the
A. Thermal death time.
B. Mean sterilization time.
C. Decimal reduction time.
D. Temperature dependent logarithmic death time.
22.
The process by which macromolecules lose their structures and abilities to
function is called
A. Denaturation
B. Sterilization
C. Thermal death
D. None of the above
23.
Which statement(s) is/are true about heat sterilization?
A. Some substances are sterilization more rapidly at high ph, others at low ph.
B. High concentrations of sugars and salt influence sterilization time.
C. The amount and safe of water in a substance is a major factor in heat
resistance.
D. All of the above
24.
Which of the following are classified as electromagnetic radiation?
A. Microwaves
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. X-rays and gamma rays
D. All of the above
25.
UV radiation is antimicrobial because
A. The radiation generates significant amounts of heat within the given cell.
B. The energy present causes breaks in the DNA molecules.
7

C. The radiation generates magnetic poles which denature the cellular

components.
D. All of the above
26.
The antimicrobial effectiveness of which of the following is limited to
exposed surfaces?
A. Microwaves
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. X-rays and gamma rays
D. Electrons
27.
When discussing radiation, the _________ is the radiation enery output
and the __________ is the absorted radiation dose.
A. Roentgen/rad
B. Rad/ Roentgen
C. Gray (Gy)/Roentgen
D. Rad (source)/rad (effective)
28.
For microbiological purposes, the two most commonly used
radioisotopes are isotopes of
A. Cobalt and potassium
B. Cesium and potassium
C. Cobalt and cesium
D. Cobalt and iodine.
29.
The type of filter most often used as a prefilter is a
A. Depth filter.
B. Membrane filter.
C. Nucleation track filter.
D. Microbistat filter.
30.
The type of filter most often used for basic sterilization is a
A. Depth filter
B. Membrane filter
C. Nucleation track filter
D. Microbistat filter
31.
The type of filter most often used in electron microscopy is a
A. Depth filter
B. Membrane filter
C. Nucleation track filter
D. Microbistat filter
32.
The type of filter most often using a vacuum or pump to force the
filtrate through is a
A. Depth filter
B. Membrane filter
C. Nucleation track filter
D. Microbistat filter
33.
The action of bacteriolytic chemical agents can be observed by
noting a(n)
A. Increase in the turbidity of the medium
B. Decrease in the turbidity of the medium
C. Change in the color of the medium
D. Change in the surface tension of the medium
34.
In the agar diffusion method of studying antimicrobial action, the
_________ is measured.
8

A.
B.
C.
D.

Diameter of the zone of inhibition

Diameter of the individual microbial colonies
Turbidity of the medium
Distance between the microbial colonies
35.
________ are applied to living tissues; _________ are used on inanimate
objects.
A. Disinfectants/sterilants
B. Antiseptics/sterilants
C. Antiseptics/disinfectants
D. Disinfectants/sterilants
36.
Cold sterilization is performed using
A. Exceptionally low temperatures.
B. Dry ice.
C. Compounds such as ethylene oxide
D. High pressure chambers.
37.
The vegetative cells of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are resistant to
many germicides because of
A. An extra membranous layer between the cell wall and the plasma membrane
B. The complex nature of the plasma membrane itself.
C. The complex nature of the cell wall.
D. The lattice work found in the glycocalyx.
38.
Water is most commonly sterilized with
A. Flourine.
B. Chlorine.
C. Bromine.
D. Iodine.
39.
Sulfanilamide is an analog of
A. Citric acid.
B. P-aminobenzoic acid.
C. Folic acid.
D. Sulfuric acid.
40.
The quinolones are synthetic antibacterial compounds that
A. Interact with bacterial DNA gyrase
B. Increase the supercoiling rate in the bacterial DNA.
C. Prevent the formation of pre-RNA segments.
D. All of the above.
41.
Of all the antibiotics that have been discovered only ________ have
been of practical value in medicine.
A. <1%
B. 8-10%
C. 18-20%
D.25-30%
42.
Semisynthetic antibiotics
A. Have a natural core and have been chemically modified in the laboratory.
B. Have an artificially constructed core that stimulates the production of natural
products.
C. Are found in nature but their rate of production is enhanced in the laboratory.
D. Are natural antibiotics that have been purified by artificial means.
43.
Chemotherapeutic agents (including antibiotics) are often grouped according
to
9

A.
B.
C.
D.

Chemical structure.
Target organisms.
Mode of action.
All of the above.
44.
Primary targets for antibiotic action include
A. Cell wall
B. Plasma membrane.
C. Nucleic acids.
D. All of the above.
45.
At presents, the penicillins and the cephalosporins account for _________ of all
the antibiotics produced and used worldwide.
A. Less than 10%
B. About 25%
C. Somewhat more than 50%
D.Well over 70%.
46.
The -lactam antibiotics
A. Inhibit plasma membrane synthesis.
B. Inhibit cell wall synthesis.
C. Inhibit protein synthesis.
D. Prevent chromosomal replication.
47.
For the treatment of tuberculosis, streptomycin has been supplanted by
synthetic chemicals because of
A. Serious side effects from the streptomycin.
B. Bacterial resistance to the streptomycin
C. Increased effectiveness of the synthetic chemicals
D. All of the above.
48.
The _______ antibiotics are considered reserve antibiotics used primarily when
other antibiotics fail.
A. Tetracycline
B. Aminoglycoside
C. Macrolide
D. Cephalosporin
49.
Erythromycin acts as a(n)
A. Protein synthesis inhibitor at the level of the 50S subunit of the ribosome.
B. Protein synthesis inhibitor at the level of the 30S subunit of the ribosome.
C. Nucleic acid enzyme inhibitor.
D. Inhibitor of ribosome production.
50.
61.The most successful agents used for antiviral chemotherapy are
A. Protein synthesis inhibitors.
B. Nucleoside analogs.
C. Nucleotide analogs.
D. ATP reductase inhibitors.
51.
Interferon is
A. Host specific.
B. Virus specific.
C. Both host and virus specific.
D. Neither host nor virus specific.
52.
The polyoxins interfere with
A. Cell membrane synthesis
B. Chitin biosynthesis
10

C. Fungal mitosis.
D. All of the above.
53.
You have just isolated a new antibiotic. At this time, you are unsure if the
agent is bacteriostatic, bacteriolytic or bacteriocidal. What experiments might be
conducted to determine which of the three terms applies to your new antibiotic?
54.
From a historic point of view, development of chemotherapeutic agents that
are effective against bacterial diseases has been much more successful than their
development of treatment of viral disease. Why?
55.
The antibiotic streptomycin binds to a ribosomal protein, and inhibits protein
synthesis.
56.
List three ways in which organisms could become streptomycin resistant.
57.
List 5 potential targets for the action of antibiotics
58.
List 5 mechanisms (not DNA acquisition) that would allow bacteria to become
resistant to an antibiotic (either plasmid encoded or chromosomally encoded
mechanisms).
59.
In pratice, sterility is often not attainable
A. True
B. False
60.
Microbial infectious diseases account for almost 20 million deaths each year
worldwide
A. True
B. False
61.
The purpose of decontamination methods is to eliminate microbial growth.
A. True
B. False
62.
Heat is probably the most widespread method for controlling microbial
growth.
A. True
B. False
63.
In genaral, vegetative cells are more heat resistant than bacterial
endospores.
A. True
B. False
64.
Small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs) and the water content of the protoplast
determine the heat resistance of the spore.
A. True
B. False
65.
Pasteurization is synonymous with sterilization; the only difference is that the
term pasteurization is used with heat-sensitive food.
A. True
B. False
66.
Electrons, because of their particulate nature, are not considered to be a form
of electromagnetic radiation
A. True
B. False
67.
The antimicrobial effects of microwaves are due, at least in part, to thermal
effects.
A. True
B. False

11

68.
Microorganisms are more resistant to ionizing radiation than are higher
organisms.
A. True
B. False
69.
At present, radiation is approved by the World Health Organization as a
decontamination measure for use in foods.
A. True
B. False
70.
Filter sterilization is used primarily to eliminate viruses from the filtrate.
A. True
B. False
71.
The term antimicrobial agent includes both fungicidal and fungistatic
agents
A. True
B. False
72.
Bacteriostatic agents inhibit bacterial growth but do not specifically kill the
organisms against which they are directed.
A. True
B. False
73.
Cell wall synthesis might be inhibited by bacteriolytic agents.
A. True
B. False
74.
Antiseptics may either kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
A. True
B. False
75.
A thermometer would probably be sterilized using a cold sterilization method.
A. True
B. False
76.
Phenols can be a major toxic waste problem.
A. True
B. False
77.
First widely used growth factors specifically designed to inhibit bacterial
growth were the sulfa drugs.
A. True
B. False
78.
88 (T20). Drug resistance to the sulfonamides has remained at a statistically
low level.
A. True
B. False
79.
Because of their effectivenes range, the flouroquinolones are used primarily
in treating gram positive infections.
A. True
B. False
80.
Isoniazid apparently interferes with the synthesis of the mycobacterialspecific mycolic acid cell wall material
A. True
B. False
81.
Growth factor analogs that resemble nucleic acids are widely used in the
treatment of viral infections.
A. True
12

B. False
82.
In general, gram-negative bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics than are
gram-positive bacteria.
A. True
B. False
83.
Semisynthetic penicillin are generally more broad-spectrum than are nonsemisynthetic penicillins.
A. True
B. False
84.
Cephalosporins contain a double -lactam ring, whereas the penicillins
contain a single -lactam ring.
A. True
B. False
85.
Many Neisseria gonorrhoeae strains have developed -lactamases that cleave
the -lactam ring.
A. True
B. False
86.
The tetracyclines are protein synthesis inhibitors.
A. True
B. False
87.
Most attempts at chemical control of viruses result in toxicity for the host.
A. True
B. False
88.
Uncontrolled microbial growth on or in living tissue, resulting in cell
destruction, is a process called _________.
89.
The technical term for the number of viable organisms present is ________.
90.
Antimicrobial activity is measured by determining the smallest amount of
agent needed to inhibit the growth of a test organism, a value called the ______.
91.
Pathogens are often encased and grow in large numbers as ________, covering
the surfaces of tissue with several layers of microbial cells.
92.
Specific chemical substances required in the medium because the organisms
cannot synthesize them are known as _________; substances that block the
utilization of these substances are known as _________.
93.
Penicillin is produced by the organism _________.
94.
The _______ act by inhibiting protein synthesis at the 30S subunit of the
ribosome.
95.
The ________ is the substance found in most fungal cells that replaces the
cholesterol found in the membranes of other eukaryotic cells.

13