Physics 11 Fall 2012

Practice Problems 8 - Solutions

1. An ultrasonic transducer, of the type used in medical ultrasound imaging, is a very thin
disk (m = 0.10 grams) driven back and forth in SHM at 1.0 MHz by an electromagnetic
coil.
(a) The maximum restoring force that can be applied to the disk without breaking it
is 40,000 N. What is the maximum oscillation amplitude that wont rupture the
disk?
(b) What is the disks maximum speed at this amplitude?

Solution
(a) Since the displacement of the oscillator obeys the expression x(t) = A cos (t + ),
then the acceleration is a = 2 A cos (t + ), and so the maximum acceleration
occurs when the cosine is -1. Thus, amax = A 2 . The force associated with this
acceleration is F = ma, and so the maximum amplitude is
A=

F
F
= 2 2,
2
m
4 mf

where f is the ordinary frequency. Plugging in the numbers gives

A=

F
4 2 mf 2

4 2

40000
= 105 meters, or 10 microns.
104 (106 )2

(b) The maximum speed is found in the same way as the acceleration and gives
vmax = A = 2f A, and so
vmax = 2f A = 2 106 105 = 20 63 m/s.

2. While grocery shopping, you put several apples in the spring scale in the produce
department. The scale reads 20 N, and you use your ruler (which you always carry
with you) to discover that the pan goes down 9.0 cm when the apples are added. If
you tap the bottom of the apple-filled pan to make it bounce up and down a little,
what is its oscillation frequency? Ignore the mass of the pan.

Solution
The oscillation frequency is
r
k
1
.
f=
2 m
We know the mass is m = 20/9.8 = 2.04 kg. We just need k. We can find this by
equation the gravitational force, mg, down to the spring force pulling back up, kx,
where x is the 9 cm that the pan sagged. So, k = mg/x = 20/0.09 = 222 N/m. Thus,
r
r
1
k
1
222
f=
=
= 1.66 Hz.
2 m
2 2.04

3. An object of mass m is suspended from a vertical spring of force constant 1800 N/m.
When the object is pulled down 2.50 cm from equilibrium and released from rest, the
object oscillates at 5.50 Hz.
(a) Find m.
(b) Find the amount the spring is stretched from its unstretched length when the
object is in equilibrium.

Solution
(a) The oscillation (angular) frequency of a spring 0 =
quency is f = 0 /2. Thus, the mass is
m=

p
k/m. The ordinary fre-

k
1800
= 2
= 1.51 kg.
2
2
4 f
4 (5.50)

(b) Attaching the mass to the spring stretches it by applying a gravitational force,
mg, which is compensated by the string force kx. Setting these two equal gives
x = mg/k, so
mg
1.51 9.8
x=
=
= 8.2 mm.
k
1800

Chapter
14
14824. Show
that the

total energy of a simple pendulum undergoing oscillations of small

amplitude 0 (in radians) is E = 12 mgL20 . Hint: Use the approximation cos 1 21 2
. that the total energy of a simple pendulum undergoing
for small
Show

64

oscillations
of small amplitude 0 (in radians) is E 12 mgL 20 . Hint: Use the

approximation cos 1 12 2 for small

.
Solution
Consider the pendulum shown in the diagram to
right.
The energy
the bob
is just the
Picturethethe
Problem
The offigure
shows
kinetic plus potential energy, E = KE + P E.
the simple
pendulum
The initial
energy is justatduemaximum
to its initial gravitational
potential
energy,
mgh
i . From
angular displacement 0. The
totalthe diagram, hi = L L cos 0 , and so Etot = mghi =
energy mgL(1
of thesimple
pendulum
equal
cos 0 ). Now,
for small is
oscillations,

to its initial gravitational1 potential

cos 1 2 ,
energy. We can apply
the definition
of
2
gravitational
and so potential energy and use



the small-angle approximation
mgL 2
1 2 to show

.
=
Etot mgL
1

0
2
2 0
that E 12 mgL02 .

L cos 0

m
h

So, we find that the total energy of a pendulum

is E = 12 mgL02 , as claimed (weve just called the
angle , instead of , but the results are the same).

Ug = 0

E = U max displacement = mgh

Express the total energy of the

simple pendulum at maximum
displacement:

h = L L cos 0 = L(1 cos 0 )

Referring to the diagram, express h

in terms of L and 0:

E = mgL[1 cos 0 ]

Substituting for h yields:

cos 1 12 2

From the power series expansion for

cos, for << 1:

E = mgL 1 (1 12 02 ) =

Substitute and simplify to obtain:

1
2

mgL02

65 [SSM] A simple pendulum of length L is attached to a massive cart

that slides without friction down a plane inclined at angle with the horizontal, as

5. You have designed a cat door that consists of a square piece of plywood that is 1.0 in
thick and 6.0 in on a side, and is hinged at its top. To make sure the cat has enough
time to get through it safely, the door should have a natural period of at least 1.0 s.
Will your design work? If not, explain qualitatively what you would need to do to
make it meet your requirements.

Solution
This is a physical pendulum, where we have to worry about the moment of inertia, I.
The period of a physical pendulum is
s
I
,
T = 2
M gD
where I is the moment of inertia, M is the mass of the door, and D is the distance of
the center of mass from the pivot point. We need to determine the moment of inertia
of the door. Consulting the moments in Table 9-1 we see that the moment of inertia
1
M (a2 + b2 ), where a is the distance on the side
of a solid box about the center is I = 12
(6 inches in our case), and b is the thickness (1 inch). To make the door pivot about
the edge we use the parallel-axis theorem, adding M (a/2)2 + M (b/2)2 to I to find
1
Idoor = M (a2 + b2 ).
3
So we just now need to plug in everything, noting that D = a/2 is the distance to the
center of mass. So,
s
s
2M (a2 + b2 )
2(a2 + b2 )
T = 2
= 2
.
3M ga
3ga
Now, recalling that there are 2.54 centimeters (0.0254 meters) per inch, then b = 0.0254
meters, and a = 6 0.0254 = 0.152 meters. So, we can determine the period,
s
s
2(a2 + b2 )
2((0.0254)2 + (0.154)2 )
= 2
= 0.652 seconds.
T = 2
3ga
3(9.8)(0.154)
So, your design wont work! You should make the height at least 9 1/2 inches in order
for the period to be one second.

6. A pendulum clock keeps perfect time on Earths surface. In which case will the error
be greater: if the clock is placed in a mine of depth h, or if the clock is elevated to a
height h? Prove your answer and assume that h  RE .

Solution
The period of a pendulum depends on the acceleration due to gravity, g. This depends
on how far away we are from the center of the Earth. If we are underground, then the
gravitational force depends directly on how far we are from the center of the Earth,
Fg = Cr, where C is a constant which we can easily determine, r is the distance from
the center, and the minus sign comes because the force is attractive.
To determine the constant we recall that at the surface, r = RE , then Fg = mg, where
g is the usual acceleration due to gravity, and so mg = CRE C = mg/RE , or
Fg =

mg
r,
RE

if were inside the Earth. So, the gravitational field at a depth h is F (RE h)/m, or


g
h
gin =
(RE h) = g 1
.
RE
RE
Now, above the surface of the Earth the gravitational force is Fg = GME m/r2 , where
ME is the mass of the Earth. So, at a distance h above the surface, r = RE + h, and
so


GME
1
mg
GmME
= m

,
Fg =
2
2
2
(RE + h)
RE
(1 + h/RE )
(1 + h/RE )2
2
where we have recalled that g = GME /RE
. So, the gravitational acceleration outside
reads

2
g
h
.
gout =
= g 1 +
(1 + h/RE )2
RE

Now, as long as h/RE is small, then

gout


2


h
h
= g 1 +
g 1 2
.
RE
RE

(If you dont like this, then pick a value for h, say RE /2, and compare the results). So,
gin is closer to g than is gout . So, elevating the pendulum will create more error than
dropping it down.

7. A straight tunnel is dug through Earth, as

shown in the figure. Assume that the walls
of the tunnel are frictionless.
(a) The gravitational force exerted by
Earth on a particle of mass m at
a distance r from the center of
Earth when r < RE is Fr =
3
(GmME /RE
) r, where ME is the
mass of Earth and RE is its radius.
Show that the net force on a particle of mass m a distance x from
the middle of the tunnel is given by
3
Fx = (GmME /RE
) x and that the
motion of the particle is therefore
simple harmonic motion.
(b) Show that the period of the motion is
independent of the length ofpthe tunnel and is given by T = 2 RE /g.
(c) Find its numerical value in minutes.

Solution
E
r sin , where sin = x/r. So,
(a) From the figure we see that Fx = Fr sin = GmM
R2
E

Fx = m
x=

GmME
x.
2
RE

So, the force is proportional to the distance along the tunnel (the force is F x),
so the motion is simple harmonic.
p
2
E
(b) We see that x = GM
x,
which
is
gives

=
GME /RE
, and so the period is
2
0
RE
s
2
2
RE
T =
= 2
.
0
GME
q
2
Recalling that g = GME /RE , then the period is T = 2 RgE .
(c) Plugging in the values RE = 6.37 106 meters, and g = 9.8 m/s2 gives
s
r
RE
6.37 106
T = 2
= 2
= 84.4 minutes.
g
9.8
This means that if you dug a tunnel from one spot on Earth, to any other spot
on Earth you could travel between them in 42 minutes, just by falling!