MCEM MCQ Anatomy

1. Mandible Injuries
(a) The angle of the mandible is the most common area to be fractured.
(b) Marfans syndrome increases the likelihood of mandibular dislocation
(c) Most dislocations ( >70% ) are traumatic
(d) With dislocation patients are unable to close their mouths completely and have
difficulty speaking.
(e) Plain radiographs are usually unhelpful in dislocation of the mandible.
2. The following are true:
(a) Calcaneal fracture is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone.
(b) The mechanism of injury of calcaneal fracture is axial loading.
(c) Over 20% of calcaneal fracture patients suffer associated injuries of the spine,
pelvis or hip.
(d) Internuclear opthalmoplegia occurs when there is failure of adduction of one
eye and nystagmus in the opposite eye.
(e) Quadriceps tendon rupture is most common is individuals under 40 years of
age
3. The Subclavian Artery:
(a) On the left the Subclavian artery arises directly from the aorta but on the right
it is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk
(b) Behind and above the subclavian artery are the roots of the brachial plexus.
(c) At the outer border of the third rib the subclavian artery changes it?s name to
the axillary artery.
(d) The internal thoracic artery is a branch of the subclavian artery.
(e) The scalenus anterior separates the subcalvian vein in front from the
subclavian artery behind.
4. Chest drain insertion:
(a) Normal position is between the 4th and 5th IC spaces.
(b) Between the anterior and mid-axillary line
(c) The point at which the anterior axillary fold meets the chest wall is a useful
guide.
(d) If the chest drain initially yields 1000ml of blood, or subsequently drains
>200ml/hr there should be urgent referral to a cardiothoracic surgeon.
(e) Lateral chest wall to the apices is a reflection of tube length for drainage of a
pneumothorax.
5. Regional Anaeasthesia
(a) The radial nerve provides sensation to the lateral two thirds of the dorsum of

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

the hand
(b) 1% lignocaine has a concentration of 1mg/ml
(c) The median nerve is anaesthetised by injecting local between the flexor carpi
radialis and the palmaris longus.
(d) The median provides sensation to the lateral two thirds of the palm of the
hand, palmar surfaces of the lateral three and one half digits, and their fingertips
(e) At the wrist the ulnar nerve is blocked by injecting local anaesthetic between
the ulnar artery and the flexor carpi ulnaris.
6. Ruptured Achilles ( calcaneal ) tendon
(a) Pain has a gradual onset while running or jumping.
(b) The rupture usually occurs about 1 cm above the tendon insertion.
(c) Pain may be perceived as a kick.
(d) It is impossible to walk after an achilles tendon rupture.
(e) It is impossible to plantar flex the foot after an achilles tendon rupture.
7. Primary motor and sensory cortices
(a) Motor=precentral gyrus
(b) Auditory=Superior temporal lobe
(c) Olfactory=fontal lobe
(d) Somatosensory=postcentral gyrus
(e) Visual= Calcarine sulcus
8. The Brachial Plexus:
(a) Behind the clavicle each trunk divides into the anterior and posterior cords.
(b) The posterior divisions of the upper and middle trunk make up the lateral cord.
(c) The roots of the brachial plexus emerge into the posterior triangle in front of
the scalenus anterior and the scalenus medius.
(d) The root of the ventral ramus of T1 makes the middle trunk of the brachial
plexus
(e) The brachial plexus is sequentially divided into the roots, the trunks , the
divisions, and the cords.
9. The following are true regarding the vertebral column:
(a) There are seven cervical vertebrae
(b) There are 12 thoracic vertebrae.
(c) There are five lumbar vertebrae
(d) There are three sacral vertebrae.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(e) There are three coccygeal vertebrae.
10. Neck Trauma
(a) Penetrating neck trauma rarely causes multiple injuries.
(b) Strangulation may cause the formation of petechiae in the subconjunctivae.
(c) Strangulation may cause the formation of petechiae below the level of injury.
(d) Major vessel injury may simulate an acute stroke.
(e) Vascular injury is most common with blunt trauma.
11. The 2nd Cranial Nerve:
(a) Normal visual acuity is present when the line on the snellen chart marked 6 can
be read from 6 metres away.
(b) Migraine is a cause of sudden blindness in both eyes
(c) The fibres from the optic chiasm concerned with vision travel in the optic tract
to the medial geniculate body.
(d) Fibres from the optic radiation pass through the anterior part of the internal
capsule and finish in the visual cortex in the occipital lobe.
(e) Fibres serving the lower quadrants course through the parietal lobe while fibres
serving the upper quadrants traverse the temporal lobe.
12. Joints
(a) Patellofemoral dislocation is the commonest large joint dislocation.
(b) Glenohumeral dislocation is the second commonest large joint dislocation
(c) Elbow dislocations are the third largest large joint dislocation in the body.
(d) The majority of elbow dislocations are posterior.
(e) The most common mechanism of injury during elbow dislocation is direct
trauma to the olecranon when a person falls on a flexed elbow.
13. Aortic Dissection
(a) The vast majority of patients have physical signs suggestive of dissection.
(b) Sudden onset chest pain is present in 99% of cases
(c) D-Dimers are usually not raised on acute thoracic dissection
(d) Most chest X Ray's do not show an abnormality
14. Ovarian Cysts
(a) Are present in about 6% of asymptomatic post menopausal women
(b) May present with urinary retention
(c) Can be most accurately diagnosed by trans abdominal ultrasound as malignant

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(d) After the menopause are best managed by a wait and see policy
(e) Standard surgical treatment is to remove all cysts over 5cm in diameter
15. The following are true of the sensory supply to the hand
(a) The radial nerve supplies sensation to the dorsal surface of the hand in the
region of the little finger.
(b) The median nerve is the only sensory supply to the anterior surface of the ring
finger.
(c) The ulnar nerve supplies part sensation to the posterior surface of the ring
finger.
(d) Sensation to the dorsal tip of the index finger is supplied by the radial nerve.
(e) The radial nerve has no anterior hand sensory fibres.
16. Regional Anaesthesia
(a) The total volume of the anaesthetic agent should not exceed 8 mL for a digital
nerve block.
(b) The sural nerve is blocked between the lateral malleolus and the Achilles
tendon.
(c) The sural nerve lies just anterior to the short saphenous vein.
(d) The saphenous nerve is blocked between the lateral malleolus and the anterior
tibial tendon.
(e) The posterior tibial nerve is blocked by injecting the local anaesthetic between
the posterior tibial artery and lateral malleolus.
17. Finger injuries:
(a) The mallet finger deformity is produced by avulsion of the flexor tendon from
its insertion.
(b) If a fracture of the distal phalanx effects more than 1/3 rd of the the joints
articular surface the joint may become unstable.
(c) Hyperextension of the finger at the base of the metacarpophalangeal joint may
result in a transverse fracture at the base of the proximal phalanx.
(d) Fracture of the metacarpal neck with volar displacement of the head is
commonest in the 4th metacarpal.
(e) A Salter-Harris type II epiphyseal fracture of the base of the little finger
proximal phalanx is commonly from an abduction injury.
18. Hand Injuries
(a) A boxers fracture is the most common metacarpal fracture
(b) Crush injuries to the hand are not at risk of compartment syndrome
(c) Treatment of non-displaced middle phalanx fractures includes a gutter splint in
the position of function and referral

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(d) Treatment of non-displaced proximal phalanx fractures includes a gutter splint
in the position of function and referral
(e) If more than one third of the articular surface of the distal phalanx is involved
in a fracture internal fixation is recommended
19. Trapezium Fracture
(a) Results in painful ring finger movements
(b) Tenderness is present at the base of the hypothenar eminence
(c) Treatment consists of an above elbow backslab and orthopaedic referral.
(d) Patients usually complain of a painful and weak pinch.
(e) Trapezial fractures usually result from a direct blow to the dorsum of the hand
or from a fall on a radially deviated closed fist
20. Testis, epididymis and spermatic cord:
(a) A hydrocele occurs when there is watery fluid between the parietal and visceral
layers of the tunica vaginalis ( a serous sac of peritoneal origin )
(b) The testicular artery is a direct branch of the abdominal aorta which arises just
above the renal arteries and descends in the spermatic cord to the posterior
aspect of the testes.
(c) The ductus deferens ascends on the lateral side of the epididymis.
(d) The epididymis is on the posterior aspect of the testes and is 3 m in length.
(e) The head of the epididymis lies on the upper pole of the testis where it is joined
by the efferent ducts.
21. Maxillofacial Radiographs
(a) Should be assessed by tracing cambells lines
(b) The first of cambells lines runs from the zygomaticofrontal suture above the
orbital margins and across the glabella.
(c) The second of cambells lines runs along the inferior orbital margins
(d) A teardrop sign is associated with an orbital margin fracture
(e) Soft tissue swelling is a direct sign of maxillary fracture
22. Proper tracheal tube placement: Auscultation
(a) Breath sounds should be checked for at the lateral chest wall bilaterally.
(b) Breath sounds should be checked for at the anterior chest wall bilaterally.
(c) Breath sounds are normally louder on the right side of the chest wall.
(d) Gastric bubbling noises are heard over the epigastrium.
(e) Chest expansion is often greater on the right hand side.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

23. The phrenic nerve is involved in
(a) pulling the diaphragm down on inspiration
(b) raising intra abdominal pressure to assist in micturition
(c) helps in weight lifting
(d) Assists in return of blood to the right side of the heart
(e) Assists in initiation of movement
24. The Femoral Triangle:
(a) The femoral vein is medial to the femoral nerve.
(b) The femoral canal is on the lateral side of the femoral artery in the femoral
triangle.
(c) The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery and lies midway
between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle.
(d) In the femoral triangle the femoral vein is on the lateral aspect of the femoral
artery.
(e) The femoral nerve is medial to the femoral artery in the femoral canal.
25. Glenohumeral dislocation
(a) Anterior dislocations usually occur with excessive external rotation with the
arm in abduction.
(b) Recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation becomes increasingly frequent with
age.
(c) About 10% of people with anterior dislocations will also have compression
fractures of the upper aspect of the humeral head.
(d) Fractures of the greater tuberosity of the humerus occur in 15% of people with
anterior dislocation.
(e) Posterior dislocations are typically associated with anteromedial fracture of the
humeral head.
26. Aortic Dissection
(a) 2/3rds of tears occur in the descending aorta
(b) Mortality is highest at 2-3 days.
(c) If the right coronary ostium is involved the ECG may give an inferior infarct
pattern.
(d) Is associated with cocaine use, pregnancy and hypertension.
(e) Medical therapy is indicated for uncomplicated dissection of descending aorta.
27. Central Venous Access:
(a) The internal jugular vein ( IJV ) runs antero-laterally in the carotid sheath,
parallel to the carotid artery and deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(b) The needle to cannulate the IJV is inserted 0.5cm medial to the carotid artery.
(c) The needle is inserted 1 cm above the mid clavicular point to cannulate the
subclavian vein
(d) The femoral vein is cannulated lateral to the femoral artery.
(e) The right side of the neck should be used where possible to decrease the risk of
thoracic duct damage.
28. The Thorax:
(a) The inferior angle of the scapula is at T9
(b) The IVC goes through the diaphragm at T6
(c) The start of the arch of the aorta is at T2/T3
(d) The sternum runs from T2 to T4
(e) The upper border of the liver is usually at T6
29. Simple ankle strain(with damage to a few fibres of a ligament only)
(a) Slight swelling
(b) Bruising
(c) Joint instability
(d) Discomfort over the ligament
(e) Dramatic pain relief with cold compresses.
30. The following are true:
(a) Hip extension is performed by the femoral nerve.
(b) The femoral nerve is composed of L1 and L2 nerve roots.
(c) The inferior gluteal nerve is composed of L5,S1,S2 nerve roots.
(d) Hip extension is performed by the gluteus maximus muscle.
(e) Hip abduction is performed by gluteus medius and minimus.
31. With regard to neck trauma the following are true:
(a) Penetrating injuries to the neck zone 1 extends from the clavicle to the cricoid
cartilage.
(b) Penetrating injuries to the neck zone 2 extends from the cricoid cartilage to the
hyoid bone.
(c) Penetrating injuries to the neck zone 3 extends from the hyoid bone to the base
of the skull.
(d) Breach of the platysma is an indication for emergency surgical exploration.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

32. Myocardial Contusion
(a) Is usually caused by blunt trauma to the chest
(b) On ECG may be represented by bundle branch block pattern
(c) On ECG may be represented by dysrhythmia's
(d) On Trans Thoracic two dimensional echo may be represented by focal or
regional wall motion abnormalities
(e) Dysrhythmias should be managed conservatively
33. Tendon Reflexes
(a) The biceps are innervated by the radial nerve
(b) The biceps reflex main nerve roots are C5-6
(c) The triceps is innervated by the radial nerve
(d) The supinator reflex is innervated by the radial nerve
(e) The knee jerk tests knee flexion
34. The scaphoid bone
(a) The scaphoid only articulates with the radius, lunate, capitate, and trapezoid.
(b) A small portion of the surface is covered by hyaline cartilage
(c) Vessels enter away from the sites of ligamentous attachment.
(d) The ulnar artery provides the blood supply to the scaphoid bone.
(e) The scaphoid lies at the ulnar border of the proximal carpal row

35. Gastrointestinal Bleeding:

(a) About 40% of duodenal bleeds will re-bleed within 24 -48 hours.
(b) A Mallory weiss tear occurs in the distal oesophagus due to a tear in the
mucosa usually from repeated vomiting, but may also occur secondary to sneezing
(c) In lower GI bleeding, not from haemorrhoids, the most common aetiologies are
adenomatous polyps.
(d) Angiodysplasia is more common in patients with aortic regurgitation.
(e) PUD causes about 30% of all upper GI bleeds.
36. Ottawa Ankle Rules:Indication for X Ray
(a) Posterior edge of lateral malleolus bone tenderness.
Posterior edge of lateral malleolus bone tenderness is an indication for X Ray.
(b) Tip of lateral malleolus bone tenderness.
Tip of lateral malleolus bone tenderness is an indication for X Ray
(c) Posterior edge of medial malleolus bone tenderness.
Posterior edge of medial malleolus bone tenderness is an indication for X Ray.
(d) Tip of medial malleolus bone tenderness.
Tip of medial malleolus bone tenderness is an indication for X Ray.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(e) Base of the 5th metacarpal.
Base of the 5th metatarsal tenderness is an indication for X Ray.
http://www.bmj.com/cgi/content/full/326/7386/417#F1
37. The following are true with regard to lower vertebral levels:
(a) The bifurcation of the aorta occurs at the vertebral level of L4
(b) The sacral dimples are at the vertebral levels of S2
(c) The posterior superior iliac spine is at the vertebral level of S1
(d) The dural sac ends at the vertebral level of S1
(e) The rectum starts at the vertebral level of S3
38. Eye Emergencies
(a) Herpes Simplex Virus can involve eyelids, conjunctiva and cornea.
(b) Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus frequently involves a concurrent iritis
(c) Hyphema is not associated with rebleeding.
(d) Peri-orbital cellulitis is associated with painful eye movements.
39. The Spinal Cord:
(a) There are 29 pairs of spinal nerves.
(b) There are 8 pairs of cervical nerves.
(c) There are 11 pairs of thoracic nerves.
(d) There are 4 pairs of sacral nerves.
(e) There are 4 pairs of coccygeal nerves.
40. Tract Dysfunction
(a) Corticospinal tract injury is characterised by contralateral motor deficits
(b) Spinothalamic tract injury is characterised by ipsilateral pain and temperature
sensation loss
(c) Posterior Column injury is characterised by ipsilateral proprioception loss
(d) Cervical Spine injury may present with hypotension and bradycardia
(e) Cervical spine injuries may present with pain above but not below the clavicle
41. Anatomical considerations:
(a) The origin of the coeliac axis is at T8
(b) L3 is crossed by the transpyloric plane of addison ( half way between the
suprasternal notch and the symphysis pubis.)
(c) The vagi pierce the diaphragm at T8 along with the oesophagus
(d) The aortic opening in the diaphragm is anterior to the median arcuate ligament
and transmits the azygous and hemiazygous veins

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(e) The aortic opening transmits the thoracic duct.
42. Carotid Sinus Syndrome may be caused by
(a) Trauma
(b) Carotid artery aneursym
(c) Posterior Communicating Artery Aneursym
(d) Nasopharyngeal tumor spread
(e) Wegeners Granulomatosis
43. The following is true with regard to rupture of the biceps tendon:
(a) It most often affects 20 to 40 year old men.
(b) May cause a popping sound during some activity.
(c) Shoulder aching may be worse at night.
(d) May cause a visible mass between the shoulder and the elbow.
(e) The treatment of choice is surgical repair.
44. Clavicle fractures
(a) Account for 1 in 20 adult fractures
(b) Are usually caused by a direct blow to the clavicle
(c) Non displaced fractures are almost always seen on AP views.
(d) Lateral 1/3 rd of the clavicle are the most common site for fracture.
(e) Non displaced lateral 1/3rd clavicular fractures should be treated
conservatively.
45. Haemorrhagic shock
(a) Class I patients usually do not have any mental anxiety
(b) Class II shock usually do not have any mental anxiety
(c) Class III patients usually have some anxiety
(d) Class IV patients are usually alert and not confused
(e) Class II patients are usually confused
46. Appreciation of the gross anatomy of the testis:
(a) The ductus deferens ascends on the medial side of the epididymis.
(b) The epididymis is on the posterior aspect of the testes and is 6 m in length.
(c) The head of the epididymis lies on the lower pole of the testis where it is joined
by the efferent ducts.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(d) A hydrocele occurs when there is watery fluid between the parietal and visceral
layers of the tunica albuginea.
(e) The testicular artery is a direct branch of the abdominal aorta which arises just
below the renal arteries and descends in the spermatic cord to the posterior
aspect of the testes.
47. Traumatic Brain Injury
(a) The majority of cases of epidural haematoma have a loss of consciousness
followed by a lucid interval followed by neurological decline.
(b) 80% of cases of epidural haematoma have a skull fracture that lacerates
meningeal arteries.
(c) A fixed and dilated pupil because of a epidural haematoma is an early sign.
(d) Contralateral hemiparesis in epidural haematoma is an early sign.
(e) A common mechanism for subdural haematoma is an accelerationdeceleration injury
48. Vertebrae
(a) The vertebral arch is made up of two pedicles, two laminae, and seven
processes
(b) Each disk consists of a peripheral annulus fibrosus and a central nucleus
pulposus
(c) The annulus fibrosus is composed of fibrocartilage
(d) The nucleus pulposus is made of water and cartilage fibers.
(e) With increasing age the proportion of fibrocartilage to fluid decreases.
49. Testes, Epididymis and Spermatic Cord:
(a) The cremasteric fascia containing the cremasteric muscle is derived from the
rectus abdominis muscle.
(b) The external spermatic fascia is derived from the aponeurosis of the
transversalis fascia.
(c) The round ligament terminates in the fibrofatty tissue of the labium majus.
(d) The deep inguinal ring transmits the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
(e) The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the internal oblique.
50. Intracranial bleeding
(a) Extra dural haematoma is often due to bleeding from the anterior branch of the
middle meningeal artery after a temporal bone fracture
(b) An acute rise in intracranial pressure may manifest as a falling pulse rate.
(c) An acute rise in intracranial pressure may manifest as a rising blood pressure.
(d) Amnesia for events >15min before the head injury is an indication for CT Brain
Scan.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(e) An acute rise in intracranial pressure may manifest as a central respiratory
depression.
51. Abdominal structures corresponding to vertebral levels:
(a) The renal arteries originate at the vetebral level of L1/2.
(b) The spinal cord ends in adults at the level of L1/2.
(c) The azygous and hemiazygous veins are formed at L4 vertebral level.
(d) The ligament of treitz is at the level of the upper border of the L4 vertebra.
(e) The umbilicus is at the vertebral level of L3/4.
52. Gunshot Wounds:
(a) Temporary cavitation is caused by a sonic shock wave in high velocity injuries.
(b) Solid organs such as liver resist cavitation more than softer tissues such as
lung
(c) High velocity injuries usually have less bacterial contamination
(d) Abdominal gunshot wounds invariably require laparotomy.
(e) Cranial gunshot wounds invariably require ventilation.
53. With regard to innervation of the ear
(a) The anterior half of the ear is supplied by the auriculotemporal nerve which is a
branch of the mandibular portion of the trigeminal nerve.
(b) The posterior half of the ear is supplied by branch of the trigeminal nerve.
(c) The posterior part of the ear is supplied by 2 nerve branches derived from the
cervical plexus.
(d) The vagus nerve has no role in the inervation of the ear.
(e) The vagus nerve supplies the external auditory canal.
54. Elbow Dislocation
(a) On lateral X Ray the radius and the ulna are most commonly displaced
posteriorly.
(b) The most frequent neurological injury is to the median nerve.
(c) On clinical exam the olecranon process is commonly not prominent.
(d) On clinical exam the elbow is commonly flexed at 90 degrees.
(e) Vascular complications occur in about 10% of elbow dislocations.
55. Structure Function and Mechanics of the Vertebral Column:
(a) Flexion and extension of the vertebral column is extensive in the cervical and
thoracic regions but limited by the lumbar region.
(b) The cervical vertebrae normally have a posterior convexity while the thoracic

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

region has a posterior concavity.
(c) There is normally 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar
vertebrae, and 5 sacral vertebrae, and 4 coccygeal vertebrae.
(d) Rotation ( twisting movement ) of the body is least extensive in the cervical
region.
(e) Lateral flexion of the body is restricted by the cervical section of the vertebral
column

1. Maxillofacial radiographs

(a) Orthopantomogram view can be used to assess the frontal bones

(b) Submentovertical projection is used to assess the zygomatic arch
?
(c) Occiptomental views are used to assess the maxilla
(d) Occipitomental views are used to assess the orbital floors
(e) Occipitomental views are used to assess the zygomatic arches
2. Surface Anatomy:

(a) The pharynx becomes the oesophagus at C6

(b) C7 is the first clearly palpable spinous process.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(c) The superior border of the scapula is at T3
(d) The suprasternal notch is at the level of T2/3
(e) The end of the oblique fissure of the lung is at the spine of T3
3. Surface Anatomy of the Anterior Forearm:

(a) The brachial artery divides into the radial and ulnar arteries just below the line of the elbow joint.
(b) The radial artery lies in a groove between the flexor carpi radialis and the anterior border of the radius.
.
(c) The radial artery can be palpated on the lateral side of the trapezium in the anatomical snuff box.
(d) In the area of the wrist and hand the ulnar artery is covered by the palmer aponeurosis.
(e) The pulsations of the ulnar artery are recognised lateral to the pisiform bone.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

4. Radial Head Fractures

(a) Radial head fractures are the most common fractures of the elbow
(b) The radial head articulates with the trochlea
.
(c) The radial head serves as a stabiliser against forces away from the midline.
(d) Radial head fractures are usually the result of a fall on an outstretched hand causing the radial head to
be driven into the trochlea
(e) Are associated with medial epicondyle avulsion fractures.
5. Anatomical Considerations of the thoracic vertebrae:

(a) The start of the arch of the aorta is at T4/T5

(b) The sternum runs from T5 to T8
(c) The upper border of the liver is usually at T9
(d) The inferior angle of the scapula is at T3
(e) The IVC goes through the diaphragm at T8
6. the ulnar nerve is interrupted at the wrist the following muscles are not innervated.

(a) Palmaris brevis .

(b) Opponens pollicis
(c) Flexor pollicis brevis
.
(d) Abductor pollicis brevis
(e) Flexor carpi ulnaris

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

7. Neuroanatomy

(a) The fibers of the pyramids cross in the pons.

(b) The cerebral peduncles largely contain motor fibers.
(c) Motor and somatosensory information travel through the anterior limb of the internal capsule.
(d) In the motor cortex the lateral side of the gyrus controls the hands and face.
8. The following headaches usually have associated focal abnormal neurology

(a) Migraine
(b) Ca channel blocker associated headache
?
(c) Nitrates associated headache
(d) CO poisoning headache
?
(e) Temporal Arteritis
?
Other headaches without associated neurology include tension, and analgesic
9. During initial management of a multiply injured patient:

(a) Shock management is the first priority. False

?
(b) Cervical spine control is usually necessary. True
?Cervical spine control is usually necessary.
(c) External haemorrhage should be ignored. False
?
(d) Pulse oximetry is usually unhelpful. False
?The results of pulse oximetry should be interpreted with particular caution in the presence of abnormal
haemoglobins(the pulse oximetry reading represents a summation of oxyhemoglobin and
carboxyhemoglobin and in cases of carbon monoxide poisoning or in chronic, heavy smokers, a falsely
reassuring pulse oximetry reading may mask arterial desaturation), nail polish, deeply pigmented skin,
hypoperfusion, anemia, venous congestion, or when certain vital dyes (such as methylene blue,
indocyanine green, fluorescein, indigo carmine, and isosulfan blue) are used for clinical purposes.
(e) Ischaemic limbs demand immediate attention. False
?

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

10. Chest drain insertion is usually indicated in patients with the following conditions:

(a) Mediastinal traversing wounds. True

?
(b) Flail chest. True
?Flail chest occurs when three or more adjacent ribs are each fractured in two places, creating one floating
segment comprised of several rib sections and the soft tissues between them. This unstable section of
chest wall exhibits paradoxical motion (ie, it moves in the opposite direction of the uninjured, normalfunctioning chest wall) with breathing, and is associated with significant morbidity from pulmonary
contusion. Abnormal motion can be difficult to detect making the diagnosis difficult. Initial management of
flail chest consists of oxygen and close monitoring for early signs of respiratory compromise, ideally using
both pulse oximetry and capnography in addition to clinical observation. Use of noninvasive positive airway
pressure by mask may obviate the need for endotracheal intubation in alert patients. Patients with severe
injuries, respiratory distress, or progressively worsening respiratory function require endotracheal intubation
and mechanical ventilatory support.
?
(d) Ruptured diaphragm.
?
(e) Surgical emphysema.
11. Major Trauma:

(a) Pelvic fractures in children are rare and clinically apparent, making the routine screening pelvic X Ray
obsolete.
?
(b) Hypertonic saline is beneficial in hypotensive patients with head injury.
?
(c) Steroids are beneficial in patients with head injury and GCS <15
?http://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140673604171882/abstract.
(d) Patients intubated without the need for anaesthetic drugs had a survival rate of about 2%
?
(e) A post traumatic head injury seizure is an indication to request a CT brain scan immediately according
to the NICE guidelines.
?http://www.nice.org.uk/nicemedia/pdf/CG56QuickRedGuide.pdf
One New Zealand study of 347 children who had a pelvic X Ray found only 1 fracture and this fracture was
clinically apparent. The authors recommend not X Raying. In the CRASH trial steroids in patients with head
injury showed more harm than good.
http://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140673604171882/abstract

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

12. Regarding fracture classifications:

(a) The Neer classification refers to distal radial fractures.

(b) The Frykman classification refers to proximal humeral fractures.
(c) The Schatzker classification refers to tibial plateau fractures.
(d) Type II is the most common type of Salter-Harris fracture presentations.

13. The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX):

(a) Arises in the pons.

(b) Leaves the skull through the jugular foramen
(c) Is the efferent pathway of the gag reflex
(d) Supplies taste fibers to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
(e) Supplies the stylopharyngeal muscle.
14. The following statements are true

(a) The median nerve supplies the interossei of the hand

(b) The radial nerve supplies the abductor pollicis brevis
?The radial nerve does not supply any of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
(c) The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the one and a half ulnar digits
?
(d) The extensor muscles of the forearm are supplied by the radial nerve
?
(e) The biceps muscle is supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve
?

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

15. The following are true in relation to common root compression syndromes produced by lumbar disc
disease:

(a) An S1 root lesion will produce weakness of plantar flexion of the ankle and toes.
(b) An S1 root lesion will cause loss of the knee jerk reflex.
(c) An L4 root lesion will cause sensory loss at the anteromedial shin.
(d) An L5 root lesion will cause sensory loss over the sole of the foot.
16. The Ear

(a) The cochlea contains the auditory sensory receptors.

(b) The vestibular labyrinth contains the balance receptors.
(c) Blood supply to the inner ear is from the internal carotid artery.
(d) The anterior vestibular artery to the cochlea
(e) The anterior vestibular artery provides the blood supply to the anterior and horizontal semicircular
canals
17. Colles Fracture

(a) Is a fracture of the radius within 1 cm of the wrist.

(b) The distal fragment is displaced anteriorly.
(c) The angulation of the distal radius normally has a 5 degree forward tilt on the poximal carpal bones as
seen on the lateral X Ray
(d) Colles fracture is associated with flexor pollicis longus rupture in the weeks following injury.
(e) Colles fracture usually follows a fall onto a flexed wrist

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

18. Radiograph Interpretation

(a) The right heart border is formed by the outer border of the right ventricle
(b) The left heart border is formed by the outer border of the left ventricle.
(c) The left margin of the right ventricle lies about a thumbs breath in from the left heart border.
(d) Valve calcification is best seen on the AP view.
(e) A large pulmonary artery will cause hilar enlargement.
19. The facial nerve

(a) The nerve emerges on the anterior surface of the brain between the pons and the medulla and it enters
the internal acoustic meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve.
(b) The greater petrosal nerve arises from the nerve at the geniculate ganglion.
(c) Passes through the posterior fossa.
?
(d) On reaching the medial wall of the middle ear the nerve swells to form the sensory geniculate ganglion.
?
(e) Emerges from the temporal bone through the stylo-mastoid foramen.
?
The facial nerve arises in the medulla and emerges between the pons and medulla. It then passes through
the posterior fossa and runs through the middle ear before emerging from the stylo-mastoid foramen and
running through the parotid.
20. The Forearm:
(a) The radial artery can be palpated on the medial side of the scaphoid in the anatomical snuff box.
(b) The pulsations of the ulnar artery are recognised lateral to the lunate bone.
(c) The radial artery lies in a groove between the flexor digitorum profundus and the anterior border of the
radius.
.
(d) In the area of the wrist and hand the ulnar artery is covered by the palmer aponeurosis.
(e) The brachial artery divides into the radial and ulnar arteries just below the distal third of the humerus.

21. With regard to innervation of the scalp

(a) The frontal part of the scalp is innervated by branches of the opthalmic part of the trigeminal nerve.
(b) The frontal part of the scalp is innervated by the supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(c) The posterior part of the scalp is innervated by branches of the first division of the trigeminal nerve
(d) The posterior part of the scalp is innervated by branches of the cervical plexus.

22. Muscles of the hand

(a) Flexor pollicis brevis flexes the MCP joint of the thumb.
(b) Flexor pollicis brevis is innervated by median nerve
(c) Flexor pollicis longus flexes proximal phalanx of thumb
(d) Extensor pollicis longus extends the IP and MCP joints of the thumb
?
(e) Extensor pollicis brevis forms anterior border of the anatomical snuff box.
23. Penetrating injuries of the diaphragm

(a) The arching domes of the diaphragm highest point is the level of the 6th rib
(b) If a penetrating injury is just below the level of the nipples one should not be suspicious of a penetrating
injury to the diaphragm
(c) The left dome of the diaphragm is higher than the right dome in normal people.
(d) The right dome of the diaphragm is higher than the left dome in normal people.
(e) The right dome of the diaphragm is more likely to suffer a penetrating injury.
24. Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery causes

(a) Paralysis of the opposite leg

?
(b) Perseveration
(c) Urinary incontinence
?
(d) Grasp reflex in the opposite hand
?
(e) Wernickes(receptive/fluent) dysphasia
?
25. In the alert patient with evidence of blunt abdominal trauma:

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(a) Peritoneal lavage is helpful if the patient is stable.
?100,000 RBC/mm3 or 500 WBC/mm3 is considered a positive peritoneal lavage and reflects intraabdominal bleeding.
(b) Peritoneal lavage is indicated if the patient is unstable.
(c) With FAST scanning free fluid visible in the abdomen implies at least 500ml of fluid.
(d) CT Scanning will visualise retroperitoneal injuries well
(e) Laparotomy is usually necessary in the shocked patient
.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

26. Ottawa ankle rules: The following require X Ray

(a) Tenderness at the base of the 5th metatarsal.

?
(b) Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or tip of the medial malleolus
?
(c) Bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the fibula or tip of the lateral malleolus
?
(d) Bone tenderness at the navicular bone (for foot injuries).
?
(e) Pregnancy is an exclusion criteria.

27. Mandibular Fractures

(a) Usually occur on one side of the mandible only

?
(b) The most common area of fracture is the angle of the mandible
(c) May present with bony crepitus
(d) May present with malocclusion
(e) May present with limited ROM
28. The following are true

(a) Biceps is innervated by musculocutaneous

?
(b) Brachioradialis is innervated by musculocutaneous
(c) Elbow flexion is initiated by nerve roots C5 and C6
?
(d) Triceps are innervated by C7
?
(e) Finger flexion is mediated by the radial nerve

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

29. The Hand

(a) The median nerve enters the hand through the carpal tunnel, deep to the flexor retinaculum, between
the tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis and the flexor carpi radialis.
(b) To anaesthetise the median nerve local anaesthetic is injected between the tendon's of the flexpr carpi
radialis and palmaris longus.
(c) At the wrist the ulnar nerve is blocked by injecting local anaesthetic between the palmaris longus and
the flexor carpi ulnaris
(d) The ulnar nerve supplies cutaneuos sensation to the volar surface of the middle finger.
(e) About 5 ml's of 2% lignocaine is required to anaesthetise the ulnar nerve.
?
30. Left common carotid artery

(a) Lies postero-laterally to the left vagus nerve in the neck

(b) Lies anteriorly to the prevertebral fascia in the neck.
(c) Gives off the left inferior thyroid artery.
(d) Is a direct branch from the aortic arch.
31. Haemorrhagic Shock

(a) Pulse <100 is consistent with class I shock

?
(b) Pulse 100-120 is consistent with class II shock
(c) Pulse 120-140 is consistent with class III shock
?
(d) Pulse >140 is consistent with class IV shock
(e) Pulse 120-140 is consistent with class IV shock
?
ATLS classification. <100 class I, <120 class II, <140 class III, >140 class IV

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

32. The Lumbar Plexus:

(a) The femoral nerve originates from the lumbar plexus from L2, L3 and L4.
(b) The obturator nerve originates from L1 and L2 and supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh.
(c) The femoral nerve supplies the skin on the posterior aspect of the leg and foot.
(d) The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the cremaster muscle.
.
(e) The femoral nerve supplies the skin on the medial surface of the thigh only.
33. Lower vertebral levels:

(a) The dural sac ends at the vertebral level of S3

(b) The rectum starts at the vertebral level of S1
(c) The bifurcation of the aorta occurs at the vertebral level of L5
(d) The sacral dimples are at the vertebral levels of S1
(e) The posterior superior iliac spine is at the vertebral level of S2
34. Compartment syndrome:

(a) The pain is characteristically mild.

?
(b) The pain is characteristically well localised.
?
(c) Palpation of the affected compartment will exacerbate the pain.
(d) Passive stretching of muscles in the affected compartment will exacerbate the pain.
(e) Paraesthesia is a feature before pain.
?

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

35. Lymphatic drainage of the thoracic wall.

(a) The skin drains to the axillary lymph nodes.

(b) The intercostal spaces drain to the internal thoracic nodes.
(c) The posterior spaces drain to the posterior intercostal nodes.
(d) The posterior intercostal spaces drain to the para aortic nodes
(e) The skin on the posterior surface drains to the para-aortic nodes
36. Characteristic features of repetitive strain injury:

(a) Pain felt deep in the wrist.

(b) Marked oedema of fingers and hand
.
(c) Symptoms worse at night
(d) Raised ESR.
(e) Good response to NSAIDs.
37. The Brachial Plexus:

(a) The dorsal scapular nerve is a branch of C7.

(b) The medial cord supplies the extensor structures on the posterior aspect of the limb.
(c) The anterior division of the lower trunk forms the medial cord.
(d) The posterior cord may contain neurons from all the spinal nerves contributing to the brachial plexus
(e) In the axilla the posterior divisions unite to form the lateral cord

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

38. The Vertebral Column:

(a) Lateral flexion of the body is restricted by the thoracic section of the vertebral column.
(b) Rotation ( twisting of the body ) of the body is least extensive in the lumbar region.
(c) Flexion and extension of the vertebral column is extensive in the cervical and thoracic regions but
limited by the lumbar region.
(d) The cervical vertebrae normally have a posterior convexity while the thoracic region has a posterior
concavity.
(e) There is normally 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar vertebrae, and 5 sacral
vertebrae, and 4 coccygeal vertebrae
39. The thorcic spine:

(a) Has an increased amount of flexibility afforded by it's articulation with the rib cage.
(b) The thorcic spine is the most commonly injured part of the spine.
(c) The spinal canal is wider than that found in the cervical spine.
(d) When spinal cord injury does occur they are mostly neurologically complete
(e) The thoracolumbar junction (T11-L2) is considered a transitional zone between the fixed thoracic and
mobile lumbar regions
40. The following muscles and nerve root supply are correctly paired:

(a) Deltoid:C5
(b) Wrist Extensors:C6
(c) C7:Elbow Extension
(d) T1:Abductor Digiti Minimi

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

41. Hip Fractures

(a) Extracapsular fractures are more likely to compromise blood supply to the femoral head than
intracapsular fractures.
?
(b) Isolated femoral head fractures are most commonly associated with hip dislocations. ?
(c) Non displaced neck fractures are treated with pin fixation.
?
(d) Displaced fractures are treated with open reduction or prosthesis placement.
?
(e) Overall mortality for intertrochanteric hip fractures is 50%

42. Classification of shock

(a) Class I shock is when blood loss is <10% of blood volume

?
(b) Class II shock is when blood loss is <20% of blood volume
?
(c) Class III shock is when 20-40% of blood volume is lost
(d) Class IV shock is when >40% blood volume is lost
?
(e) Class V shock is when >50% of blood volume is lost
?
Class I = <15%, Class II = <30%, Class III = <40%, Class IV = >40%

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

43. NICE Guideline: Selection of Adults for CT Brain

(a) GCS < 13 when first assessed in ED CT brain should be requested immediately according to the NICE
guidelines after head injury.
(b) If GCS < 15 when assessed 2 hours after presentation in ED CT brain should be requested.
(c) A suspected skull fracture is not an indication to request a CT Brain scan.
(d) 'Panda' eyes are not an indication to request a CT Brain scan
(e) A collection of blood in the middle ear space is not an indication to request a CT Brain scan.
44. Openings in the diaphragm

(a) The aortic opening lies anterior to the body of T10

(b) The aortic opening transmits the aorta,the thoracic duct, the azygous vein, and the vagus nerve.
(c) The esophageal opening is at the level of T12
(d) The esophageal opening transmits the phrenic nerve
(e) The caval opening transmits the inferior vena cava at the level of T8

45. With regard to the nervous system

(a) Dorsal columns carry proprioception and vibration sense

(b) The dorsal columns decussate in the medulla T
(c) The sensory cortex is in the parietal lobe
(d) The spinothalamic tract decussates at the level of the brainstem.
(e) The muscles of mastication are innervated by the facial nerve

46. The sternal angle lies at the level

(a) The sternal angle lies at the level of the second intercostal space.
(b) The sternal angle lies at the level of the intervertebral disc between the 5th and 6th thoracic vertebrae
(c) The sternal angle lies at the level of the junction of the ascending aorta and the aortic arch but not at the
junction between the descending aorta and the aortic arch.
(d) The sternal angle lies at the level of the junction between the superior and inferior mediastinum.
(e) The sternal angle lies at the level of the bifurcation of the trachea.

47. Abnormal JVP:

(a) Giant 'v' waves are seen in tricuspid regurgitation. True

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

?Giant 'v' waves are seen in tricuspid regurgitation.
(b) No 'a' waves are seen in A Fib.
(c) Inspiratory filling is normal.
(d) Renal Failure may cause an abnormal JVP.
(e) Cannon waves are seen in ventricular tachycardia.
48. Cervical Spondylosis

(a) When severe most commonly effects C5/C6

(b) Causing pain in the neck requires neck immobilisation
(c) May produce symptoms of vertebrobasilar insufficiency
(d) Myelopathy is best treated with manipulation.
(e) Radiculopathy rarely recovers completely.

49. The following are causes of spinal cord compression:

(a) Spondylosis. True

?
(b) Lymphoma.
?
(c) Abscess.
?
(d) Syringomyelia.
?
(e) Haematomyelia.
?

50. Veins of the Upper Limb:

(a) All veins in the upper limb possess valves.

(b) The cephalic vein originates from the medial side of the venous network on the dorsum of the hand.
(c) The cephalic vein passes upwards along the lateral border of the forearm anterior to the head of the
radius
(d) In the upper arm the cephalic vein ascends on the lateral aspect of the biceps brachii to the groove
between the deltoid and pectoralis major

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(e) The basilic vein begins on the medial side of the venous network on the dorsum of the hand.
51. Pelvis X Rays:

(a) The urethra and bladder lie close to the pubic symphysis are damaged by a majority of traumatic
injuries to this area.
(b) For the pubic bones to separate by over 2.5 cm one or both of the ligaments have to be torn.
(c) It is only possible to obtain the correct diagnosis in 50% of cases from AP views of the pelvis alone.
(d) The pelvic brim is often disrupted in only one place
(e) Lateral compression fracture causes a disruption of the ala of the sacrum and a horizontal fracture of
the ipsilateral pubic symphysis
52. The following joints are often subluxed/dislocated in ehlers-danlos syndrome:

(a) Patella
(b) Shoulder Joint
(c) The temporomandibular joint
.
(d) The subtalar joint

53. Diagnostic Peritoneal lavage is positive when

(a) RBC's >1,000 cells/mm3

(b) WBC's >100 cells/mm3
(c) Food Particles
?
(d) Bile True
?
(e) Faeces
?

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

54. Brachioradialis:

(a) Flexes arm at the elbow.

(b) Supinates the forearm.
(c) Brings forearm into midprone position.
.
(d) Brachioradialis is innervated by ulnar nerve.
(e) Overlies ulnar artery.
55. The Optic Nerve:

(a) A bitemporal hemianopia may be caused by a pituitary tumor or a sella meningioma.

(b) A homonymous hemianopia is caused by a lesion of the optic tract to the occipital cortex.
(c) An incomplete lesion of the optic tract is associated with a central scotomata.
(d) An upper quadrant homonymous hemianopia is associated with a parietal lobe lesion.
(e) A lower quadrant homonymous hemianopia is associated with a temporal lobe lesion.
56. Thoracic vertebrae:

(a) The top of the arch of the aorta is at the level of T3/4
(b) The manubrium sterni encompasses levels T3 and T4
(c) The azygous vein enters the SVC at T6
(d) The angle of louis is at the level of T4/5
(e) The bifurcation of the trachea is at the level of T4/T5

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

57. Wound Evaluation

(a) Diffuse bleeding most often occurs from the subdermal plexus and superficial veins
(b) Povidone-iodine based skin disinfectant suppress bacterial growth on intact skin.
?
(c) Povidone-iodine based skin disinfectant should be used in the wound itslf to suppress bacterial growth.
(d) Chlorhexidine based skin disinfectant should be used in the wound itslf to suppress bacterial growth.
(e) In well perfused tissues (e.g., scalp) wounds closed without prior hair removal heal with an increase in
infection.
58. The circle of willis is supplied by

(a) External carotid arteries

(b) Basilar arteries
(c) Union of vertebral arteries
?
(d) Brachial Artery
?
(e) Axillary artery
?
59. Central Vein Cannulation Complications include:

(a) Arterial laceration.

(b) Tension pneumothorax.
(c) Haemothorax is increased with IJV cannulation when compared to the subclavian route. False
(d) Cardiac Tamponade.
(e) Air Embolism.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

60. Hand Infections

(a) The hand position of function for splinting includes the MCP joint being at 50 to 90 degrees flexion.
?
(b) Midpalmer space infection occurs from spread of a flexor tenosynovitis or from a penetrating wound to
the palm causing infection in the radial or ulnar bursa of the hand.
(c) Paronychia is an infection of the lateral nail fold.
?
(d) Flexor tenosynovitis is suggested by tenderness over the flexor tendon sheath.
?
(e) Closed fist injury ( human bite wound above the MCP joint resulting from punching an individual ) be be
explored, irrigated and allowed to heal by secondary intention.
?
61. Eye Trauma:

(a) A hyphema is not a reflection on the degree of trauma sustained

(b) Restricted upward gaze suggests a blow out fracture with entrapment of the inferior rectus.
(c) A ruptured globe is implied by a flat anterior chamber.
(d) The sensation of the inferior orbital nerve is tested below the eye and on the ipsilateral side of the nose.

62. An ulnar nerve lesion may be represented as follows:

(a) Hyperextension at the MCP joint of the little and ring fingers accompanied by flexion of the
interphalangeal joints.
(b) Clawing of the hand is more pronounced with a more proximal lesion.
(c) Froments sign tests thumb adduction.
(d) The ulnar nerve supplies the sensory component to the medial half of the ring finger
63. The following are true:

(a) Knee flexion is performed by the quadriceps.

(b) The hamstrings are innervated by the obturator nerve.
(c) The sciatic nerve innervates the quadriceps.
(d) The obturator nerve is composed of fibers from L2,L3 and L4.
(e) The sciatic nerve is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion

64. Ureters

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(a) Each ureter measures approximately 10cm in length
?Each ureter measures approximately 25cm ( 10 inches ) in length
(b) Pass into the anterior surface of the urinary bladder
(c) Ureteric stones frequently arrest where the renal pelvis joins the ureter.
(d) Are supplied in the inferior end by the renal arteries.
(e) Lymph drainage is to the lateral aortic and iliac nodes.
65. Lumbar Plexus:

(a) The lumbar plexus is formed by the anterior rami of the upper four lumbar nerves.
(b) It is situated within the psoas muscle
(c) The femoral nerve originates from the lumbar plexus from L1 and L2.
(d) The obturator nerve originates from L1 and L2.
(e) The obturator nerve innervates the adductors of the thigh and the skin on the medial surface of the
thigh.
66. The following are correct:

(a) The oesophageal opening in the diaphragm is at the level of T8

(b) Branches of the right gastric vessels go through the diaphragm at T10
(c) The left phrenic nerve pierces the diaphragm lateral to the central tendon at the level of T6
(d) The right phrenic nerve pierces the diaphragm with the IVC at T6
(e) The sternoxiphisternal joint is at the level of T8/9
67. The Brachial Plexus:

(a) The ulnar nerve is largely made up from C6 and C7 fibres.

(b) The axillary nerve is given off by the posterior cord.
(c) The musculocutaneous nerve is made up from C5 , C6 , and C7
(d) The medial cord and the lateral cord form the median nerve
(e) The dorsal scapular nerve ( C5 ) supplies the serratus anterior muscle.
68. The following are true in relation to common root compression syndromes produced by lumbar disc
prolapse:
(a) An L5 root lesion will cause pain from the buttock to the lateral aspect of the leg and on the dorsum of
the foot.
(b) An L4 root lesion will cause pain from the lateral aspect of the thigh to the medial side of the calf.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

(c) An S1 root lesion will cause sensory loss on the sole of the foot and the posterior calf.
(d) An L5 root lesion will cause sensory loss on the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral aspect of the leg.
69. The Brachial Plexus:
(a) In the axilla the posterior divisions unite to form the posterior cord True
?In the axilla the posterior divisions unite to form the posterior cord
(b) The lateral cord supplies the extensor structures on the posterior aspect of the limb. False
?The posterior cord supplies the extensor structures on the posterior aspect of the limb.
(c) The posterior division of the lower trunk forms the medial cord. False
?The anterior division of the lower trunk forms the medial cord.
(d) The posterior cord may contain neurons from all the spinal nerves contributing to the brachial plexus
True
?The posterior cord may contain neurons from all the spinal nerves contributing to the brachial plexus
(e) The dorsal scapular nerve is a branch of C5. True
?The dorsal scapular nerve is a branch of C5
70. Fissure In Ano
(a) Cause painless rectal bleeding
(b) In most cases occur in the midline anteriorly
(c) Discomfort is constant between bowel motions.
(d) Are associated with sentinel pile's
(e) Patient's should increase dietary bran
?
71. Lumbar Puncture:
(a) The plane of the iliac crest runs through L1-L2.
(b) The spinal cord in the adult ends at the level of L1-2.
(c) When performing a lumbar puncture the 'give' is felt when passing through the interspinous ligament.
(d) The opening pressure is usually <10 cm of CSF.
(e) The CSF protein content is usually 0.15 to 0.45g/L.

MCEM MCQ Anatomy

72. Haemorrhagic shock classification
(a) Class I loss is usually <750 ml
(b) Class II loss is usually < 2000 ml
(c) Class III shock is <2.5L blood loss
(d) Without intervention, a classic bimodal distribution of deaths is seen in severe hemorrhagic shock.
(e) Lower doses of Dopamine predominantly stimulate dopaminergic receptors that in turn produce renal
vasodilation and cardiac stimulation.
Class I = <750ml, Class II = <1.5L, Class III= <2L, Class IV = >2L