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IIT-JEE 2008

Answers by

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)

PAPER-I : CODES
Q.No. χ-0 χ-1 χ-2 χ-3 χ-4 χ-5 χ-6 χ-7 χ-8 χ-9
01. B C C C A C B B C C
02. C B B C B C A C B A
03. A C A B C B C C C B
04. B B B A C A C C C C
05. C A C B C C B B A B
06. C C C C B B C A B C
07. B,D A,D B,C A,B,C,D A,D B,D B,C A,B,C,D A,B,C,D A,D
08. B,C A,B,C,D B,D A,D B,C A,D A,D B,D A,D A,B,C,D
09. A,D B,D A,B,C,D B,C B,D A,B,C,D A,B,C,D B,C B,D B,D
10. A,B,C,D B,C A,D B,D A,B,C,D B,C B,D A,D B,C B,C
11. B D A B B D A B D B
12. D A B A A B B A A D
13. A B B D B A D B B B
14. B B D B D B B D B A
15. D B B D B B D B D B
16. A A C A A C A A A C
17. D D D D D D D D D D
18. B B D B B D B D B B
19. A C A C C A C A A A
20. D D D D D D D D D D
21. B D B B D B B B B D
22. C A A A A A A C C A
23. D D D D D D D D D D
24. B C C C B C B A C C
25. C A B A B C B B A B
26. B C B C C A C C C B
27. A B A B C B C C C C
28. C B C B C C A B B A
29. C C C C A B C C B C
30. A,D A,C,D B,D A,B A,C,D A,D B,D A,B A,B A,C,D
31. B,D A,B A,D A,C,D A,D A,C,D A,B A,D A,C,D A,B
32. A,C,D A,D A,B B,D B,D A,B A,C,D B,D A,D A,D
33. A,B B,D A,C,D A,D A,B B,D A,D A,C,D B,D B,D
34. B A D A B A D A A B
35. A D A D D B B D D A
36. D A B A A D A B B A
37. A B A B A A A A A D
38. D C B D C B D C D B
39. B C B B C B B C B B
40. B A C B A C B A B C
41. C B D B B D B D C C
42. C B B B B B B B C C
43. A C B C C B C B A A
44. B D C C D C C B B D
45. B B C C B C C B B B
46. C B A A B A A C C B
47. B A A A B C B B C A
48. A B B C B A B C B B
49. B C B B A B A A A B
50. B B B B C B A A A C
51. A B C B A A B B B B
52. C A A A B B C B B A
53. A,D A,B B,C,D A,C,D A,B A,D B,C,D A,C,D A,C,D A,B
54. B,C,D A,C,D A,D A,B B,C,D A,B A,B A,D A,B A,C,D
55. A,B A,D A,C,D B,C,D A,D A,C,D A,C,D B,C,D A,D A,D
56. A,C,D B,C,D A,B A,D A,C,D B,C,D A,D A,B B,C,D B,C,D
57. C C B D C C B D C C
58. C B D B B C C B B C
59. B D C C D B C C C D
60. D C C C C D D C D B
61. D C D D C D D C D D
62. A C B A C B A C A B
63. C B B C B B C B C B
64. C D D D D D D D C C
65. C B A B B A B A C C
66. B B C B B C B C B B
67. D D C C D C C D D D
68. B A C C A C C B B A
69. B C B B C B B B B C

Though every care has been taken to provide the answers correctly but the Institute shall not be
responsible for error, if any.

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TOP RANKERS ALWAYS FROM AAKASH


IIT-JEE 2008 ANALYSIS
Topic-wise Analysis of Mathematics IIT-JEE 2008 (Paper-1 & 2 Combined)
3D Geometry Calculas Trigonometry Coordinate Algebra Vector
Easy 3 1 1 3 5 0 13
Medium 1 4 0 7 4 2 18
Tough 11 1 0 2 0 14
4 16 2 10 11 2 45

XI Qs 19 XII Qs 26

Marks-Wise 15 56 7 37 42 6 163

XI Marks 74 XII Marks 89

Distribution of Level of Questions in Topic-Wise Distribution of Questions in Maths


Maths 3D Geometry

29% 4% 9%
31% 24%
Calculas

Trigonometry

37% Coordinate

22% 4% Algebra

40% Vector
Easy Medium Tough

Topic-Wise Distribution of Marks in Maths


Percentage Portion asked from Class XI & XII
3D Geometry
4% 9% Calculas
26%
42%
Trigonometry

34% Coordinate
58%
23% 4% Algebra

Vector
XI Qs XII Qs

Percentage Portion asked (Marks-wise) from


Class XI & XII

45%

55%

XI Marks XII Marks


Topic-wise Analysis of Physics IIT-JEE 2008 (Paper-1 & 2 Combined)
Pro. of
Heat & Modern Wave Wave
Electricity Mechanics matter/Unit &
Thermodynamics Physics optics motion
dimension
Easy 5 4 3 1 1 14
Medium 4 2 6 3 1 1 3 20
Tough 1 2 7 1 11
10 4 17 6 3 2 3 45

XI Qs 26 XII Qs 19

Marks-Wise 34 17 62 22 16 6 6 163

XI Marks 94 XII Marks 69

Distribution of Level of Questions in Physics Percentage Portion asked from Class XI & XII

24%
31%
42%

58%
45%

Easy Medium Tough XI Qs XII Qs

Topic wise distribution of Questions in Physics


Topic wise distribution of Marks in Physics

4% 7% 4% 4%
22% 10% 21%
7%

13% 13%

9% 10%

38% 38%

Electricity Heat & Thermodynamics Electricity Heat & Thermodynamics


Mechanics Modern Physics Mechanics Modern Physics
Wave optics Pro. of matter/Unit & dimension Wave optics Pro. of matter/Unit & dimension
Wave motion Wave motion

Percentage Portion asked (Marks-wise) from


Class XI & XII

42%

58%

XI Marks XII Marks


Topic-wise Analysis of Chemistry IIT-JEE 2008 (Paper-1 & 2 Combined)

Organic Chemistry Inorganic Chemistry Physical Chemistry


Easy 1 7 8 16
Medium 5 5 8 18
Tough 10 1 11
16 12 17 45

XI Questions 14 XII Questions 31

Marks-Wise 59 43 61 163

XI Marks 51 XII Marks 112

Distribution of Level of Question in Chemistry Topic wise Distribution of Questions in Chemistry

24%
36% 37% 36%

40% 27%

Easy Medium Tough Organic Chemistry Inorganic Chemistry Physical Chemistry

Percentage Portion asked from Class XI & XII Topic wise Distribution of Marks in Chemistry

38% 36%
31%

26%
69%

XI Questions XII Questions Organic Chemistry Inorganic Chemistry Physical Chemistry

Percentage Portion (Marks-wise) asked


from Class XI & XII

31%

69%

XI Marks XII Marks


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Solutions to IIT-JEE 2008


Time : 3 hrs.
PAPER - I (Code - 0) Max. Marks: 246

Instructions :
1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I : Mathematics, Part II : Physics, Part III : Chemistry). Each
part has 4 sections.
2. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
3.
)
Section II contains 4 multiple correct answer type questions. Each question hasLt4d.choices (A), (B), (C) and
s
(D), out of which one or more answers are correct. i ce
4. Section III contains 4 Reasoning type questions. Each question
e rv
l S contains STATEMENT-1 and
n a
STATEMENT-2. ti o ca
u
Ed is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2
h
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE AND
a kasSTATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1. of A n
isioSTATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and
v
(D i
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
5. Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked-Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by 3 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
6. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(–1) mark will be awarded.
7. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark for all other cases. It may be noted that there is no
negative marking for wrong answer.
8. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark
will be awarded.
9. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark
will be awarded.

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MATHEMATICS
PART-I
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

1. Consider the two curves


C1 : y2 = 4x
C2 : x2 + y2 – 6x + 1 = 0
then,
(A) C1 and C2 touch each other only at one point
(B) C1 and C2 touch each other exactly at two points
(C) C1 and C2 intersect (but do not touch) at exactly two points
(D) C1 and C2 neither intersect nor touch each other
Answer (B)
Hints : For the points of intersection of the two given curves C1 : y2 = 4x and C2 : x2 + y2 – 6x + 1 = 0

(1, 2)

(0, 0) (3, 0)
Lt d. )
s
rv i ce
l Se
(1, –2)
a
We have
c a ti o n
u
x2 + 4x – 6x + 1 = 0
h Ed
⇒ x – 2x + 1 = 0
2
a k as
⇒ (x – 1) = 0
of A
2

⇒ x = 1, 1 equal real roots o n


⇒ y = 2, –2 D i visi
(
Thus the given curves touch each other at exactly two points (1, 2) and (1, –2).

2. If 0 < x < 1, then


1
1 + x 2 .[{ x cos(cot −1 x ) + sin(cot −1 x )} 2 − 1] 2 =

x
(A) (B) x (C) x 1 + x 2 (D) 1+ x 2
1+ x 2
Answer (C)
Hints : We have 0 < x < 1,
Let cot–1x = θ
⇒ cotθ = x
√ 1 + x2
1 1
⇒ sin θ = = sin(cot −1 x )
1+ x 2 θ
x
x
and cos θ = = cos(cot −1 x )
2
1+ x

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Now 1 + x 2 [{ x cos(cot −1 x ) + sin(cot −1 x )} 2 − 1]1/ 2

1/ 2
⎡⎧ ⎫
2 ⎤
⎪ ⎪
1 + x 2 ⎢⎢⎨x · ⎥
x 1
= + ⎬ − 1⎥
⎢⎣⎪ ⎪
2
⎩ 1+ x 1+ x 2 ⎭ ⎥⎦

1/ 2
⎡⎛ 2 ⎞
2 ⎤
2 ⎢⎜ 1 + x ⎟ − 1⎥
= 1+ x ⎢ ⎥
⎜ 2 ⎟
⎢⎣⎝ 1 + x ⎠ ⎥⎦

= 1 + x 2 [1 + x 2 − 1]1/ 2 = x 1 + x 2

3. The edges of a parallelopiped are of unit length and are parallel to non-coplanar unit vectors aˆ, bˆ, cˆ such that

1
aˆ . bˆ = bˆ . cˆ = cˆ . aˆ =
2
Then, the volume of the parallelopiped is

1 1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2 3
Answer (A)
. )
Hints : The volume of the parallelopiped with coterminus edges as aˆ, bˆ, cˆ is given byL[tad
ˆ bˆ cˆ ] = aˆ · (bˆ × cˆ )

r vi ce s
e
1 1 al S
aˆ · aˆ aˆ · bˆ aˆ · cˆ
1
2 2 at i on
Now [aˆ bˆ cˆ ] = bˆ · aˆ bˆ · bˆ bˆ · cˆ =
2 1
1
1 1
= E du c
cˆ · aˆ cˆ · bˆ cˆ · cˆ
2 2 2
k a sh
1 1
1 fA a c
2 2
io no b
ˆ
⇒ [aˆ b cˆ ] =
1
(D i vi s a
2

1
Thus the required volume of the parallelopiped = cubic units.
2

4. Let a and b non-zero real numbers. Then, the equation


(ax 2 + by 2 + c)(x 2 – 5xy + 6y 2) = 0
represents
(A) Four straight lines, when c = 0 and a, b are of the same sign
(B) Two straight lines and a circle, when a = b, and c is of sign opposite to that of a
(C) Two straight lines and a hyperbola, when a and b are of the same sign and c is of sign opposite to that
of a
(D) A circle and an ellipse, when a and b are of the same sign and c is of sign opposite to that of a
Answer (B)
Hints : Let a and b be non-zero real numbers.
The equation (ax2 + by2 + c)(x2 – 5xy + 6y2) = 0 implies either
x2 – 5xy + 6y2 = 0
⇒ (x – 2y)(x – 3y) = 0

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⇒ x = 2y and x = 3y
⇒ x2 – 5xy + 6y2 = 0 represents two straight lines passing through origin.
or ax2 + by2 + c = 0
When c = 0 and a and b are of same signs then
ax2 + by2 + c = 0 ⇒ x = 0 and y = 0
which is a point specified as the origin.
When a = b and c is of sign opposite of that of a, ax2 + by2 + c = 0 represents a circle.
Hence the given equation (ax2 + by2 + c)(x2 – 5xy + 6y2) = 0 may represent two straight lines and a circle.

( x − 1)n
5. Let g ( x ) = ; 0 < x < 2, m and n are integers, m ≠ 0, n > 0, and let p be the left hand derivative
log cos m ( x − 1)
of |x – 1| at x = 1. If lim g ( x ) = p, then
x →1+

(A) n = 1, m = 1 (B) n = 1, m = –1 (C) n = 2, m = 2 (D) n > 2, m = n


Answer (C)

n
( x − 1)
Hints : We have, g(x) = , 0 < x < 2, m ≠ 0, n are integers
m
log cos ( x − 1)

⎧ x − 1; x ≥ 1
and x − 1 = ⎨
⎩1 − x ; x < 1

The left hand derivative of x − 1 at x = 1 = p = –1


Lt d. )
s
Also lim g ( x ) = p = –1
rv i ce
l Se
x →1+

n ti o na

(1 + h − 1)
= –1 u ca
lim
h →0 m
log cos (1 + h − 1) h Ed
k as
f Aa

h
n
i o no
lim
h →0 m
= –1
i vi s
log cos h (D
hn
⇒ lim = −1
h →0 m log cos h

n ⋅ h n −1
⇒ lim = −1
h →0 1
m ( − sin h )
cos h
⎛ n ⎞ h n −2
⇒ lim ⎜ − ⎟ ⋅ = −1
h →0 ⎝ m ⎠ ⎛ tan h ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ h ⎠

h n −2
⇒ ⎛⎜ ⎞⎟ lim
n
=1
⎝ m ⎠ h →0 ⎛ tan h ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ h ⎠
n
⇒ n = 2 and =1
m
⇒ m=n=2

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6. The total number of local maxima and local minima of the function
⎧(2 + x )3 , − 3 < x ≤ −1

f (x) = ⎨ 2 is
⎪⎩ x 3 , −1< x < 2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Answer (C)
Hints : We have,

⎪(2 + x )3 ; − 3 < x ≤ −1
f (x) = ⎨ 2 / 3

⎩ x ; −1< x < 2

⎧3( x + 2)2 ; − 3 < x ≤ 1



⇒ f ′( x ) = ⎨ 2 − 1
⎪ x 3 ; −1< x < 2
⎩ 3

(–2,0)
(–3,0) (–1,0)

Clearly f ′(x ) changes its sign at x = –1 from +ve to –ve and so f(x) has local maxima at x = –1.
.)
td f(x) has a possibility of
Also f ′(0) does not exist but f ′(0 −) < 0 and f ′(0 + ) > 0 , it can only be inferred s Lthat
e
a minima at x = 0.
e r vi c
Hence the given function has one local maxima at x = –1 and one local S
al minima at x = 0.
at i on
E du c
sh - II
SECTION
ka
f Aa Answers Type
Multiple Correct
no
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s)
i v isio type questions. Each Question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. (D
7. A straight line through the vertex P of a triangle PQR intersects the side QR at the point S and the circumcircle
of the triangle PQR at the point T. If S is not the centre of the circumcircle, then
1 1 2 1 1 2
(A) PS + ST < (B) PS + ST >
QS × SR QS × SR
1 1 4 1 1 4
(C) + < (D) + >
PS ST QR PS ST QR
Answer (B, D)
Hints : Let a straight line through the vertex P of a given ΔPQR intersects the side QR at the point S and the
circumcircle of ΔPQR at the point T.
Points P, Q, R, T are concyclic, hence P

PS . ST = QS . SR
PS + ST
Now ≥ PS ⋅ ST
2
Q
1 1 2 2 S
and + ≥ =
PS ST PS ⋅ ST QS.SR R
T

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SQ + SR
Also ≥ SQ ⋅ SR
2

QR
⇒ ≥ SQ ⋅ SR
2

1 2
⇒ ≥
SQ ⋅ SR QR
2 4
⇒ ≥
SQ ⋅ SR QR

1 1 2 4
Hence + ≥ ≥
PS ST QS ⋅ SR QR

8. Let P(x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2), y1 < 0, y2 < 0, be the end points of the latus rectum of the ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 4.
The equations of parabolas with latus rectum PQ are
(A) x 2 + 2 3 y = 3 + 3 (B) x 2 − 2 3 y = 3 + 3

(C) x 2 + 2 3 y = 3 − 3 (D) x 2 − 2 3 y = 3 − 3
Answer (B, C)
Hints : The equation x2 + 4y2 = 4 represents an ellipse with 2 and 1 as semi-major and semi-minor axes and
3 ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
eccentricity . Thus the ends of latera recta are ⎜ 3 , ⎟, ⎜ 3 , − ⎟, ⎜ − 3 , ⎟ and ⎜ − 3 , − ⎟.
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

(0, 1) Lt d. )
s
rv i ce
na l Se
ti o
u ca
(–2, 0) h Ed (2, 0)
s
ka A
o f Aa
–1ion
–1
s Q 3,
P – 3, vi 2
(D i 2
(0, –1)
A′

⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
According to the question, P ⎜ − 3 , − ⎟ and Q ⎜ 3 , − ⎟.
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

PQ = 2 3

⎛ − 1+ 3 ⎞ ⎛ ⎞
Thus the coordinates of the vertex of the parabolas are A ⎜ 0, ⎟ and A′ ⎜ 0, − 1 − 3 ⎟ and
⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
corresponding equations are

⎛3 ⎞
(x – 0)2 = 4 ⋅ ⎜ y + 1− 3 ⎟

2 2 ⎟⎠

3 ⎛⎜ − 1 − 3 ⎞⎟
and (x – 0)2 = 4 ⋅ ⎜
y−

2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
i.e., x2 + 2 3 y = 3 – 3

and x2 – 2 3 y = 3 + 3

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n n −1

∑n ∑n
n n
9. Let Sn = and Tn = , for n = 1, 2, 3, ..... then,
k =1
2
+ kn + k 2
k =0
2
+ kn + k 2

π π π π
(A) Sn < (B) Sn > (C) Tn < (D) Tn >
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

Answer (A, D)
Hints : We have

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
n−1 n−1 n −1
1 1⎜ 1 ⎟
Sn = ∑n 2
n
= ∑
1 ⎜
⋅⎜ ⎟ lim
2 ⎟ < n →∞ ∑ ⎜
n⎜ k ⎛k ⎞
2 ⎟

+ kn + k 2 n k k k =0 + + ⎜ ⎟
k =0 k =0 ⎜⎜ 1+ + 2 ⎟⎟ ⎜ 1
n ⎝n⎠ ⎟
⎝ n n ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

1 1
⎡ 2
1 −1 ⎛ 2 ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎞⎤
= ∫ 2
dx = ⎢
⎢⎣ 3
tan ⎜⎜ ⎜ x + ⎟ ⎟⎟⎥
⎝ 3 ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎠⎥⎦
0 1+ x + x 0

2 ⎛π π⎞ π
= ⋅⎜ − ⎟=
3 ⎝3 6⎠ 3 3

π
i.e., Sn <
.)
Ltd
3 3
ce s
π e r vi
Similarly Tn > .
al S
i on
3 3
at
10. Let f(x) be a non-constant twice differentiable functionEdefined on (–∞, ∞) such that f(x) = f(1 – x) and du c
s h
⎛ 1⎞ a ka
f ′⎜ ⎟ = 0. Then,
⎝4⎠ n of A
v isio
(D i ⎛ 1⎞
(A) f′′(x) vanishes at least twice on [0, 1] (B) f ′⎜ ⎟ = 0
⎝2⎠
1
1
2
⎛ 1⎞ 1

2
f ⎜ x + ⎟ sin x dx = 0 πt

∫ f (t )e ∫
sin πt
(C) (D) dt = f (1 − t )e sin dt
1 ⎝ ⎠
2
− 0 1
2
2
Answer (A, B, C, D)
Hints : We have
f(x) = f(1 – x)
⇒ f′(x) = –f′(1 – x); differentiating it w.r.t. x we get

1
Let us put x =
2

⎛ 1⎞
⇒ 2f ′⎜ ⎟ = 0
⎝2⎠

⎛ 1⎞
⇒ f ′⎜ ⎟ = 0
⎝2⎠

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⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
Since f ′⎜ ⎟ = 0 and f ′⎜ ⎟ = 0
⎝2⎠ ⎝4⎠
⇒ f′′(x) = 0 at two points in (0, 1)

1
2
⎛ 1⎞
Now ∫1 f ⎜⎝ x + 2 ⎟⎠ sin x dx =0

2
⎛ 1⎞
as f ⎜ x + ⎟ sin x is an odd function which is clear from the following explanation
⎝ 2⎠

⎛ 1⎞
g ( x ) = f ⎜ x + ⎟ sin x , say,
⎝ 2⎠

⎛1 ⎞ ⎛ ⎛1 ⎞⎞ ⎛1 ⎞
g ( − x ) = f ⎜ − x ⎟ sin( − x ) = − sin xf ⎜⎜1 − ⎜ − x ⎟ ⎟⎟ = − sin xf ⎜ + x ⎟ = −g ( x )
⎝2 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝2 ⎠⎠ ⎝2 ⎠

1
1 2

∫1f (1 − t )e ∫
sin( πt )
Moreover dt = f (u )·e sin πu ·du
− 0
2

Considering 1 – t = u.

SECTION - III Lt d. )
s
Reasoning Type rv i ce
l Se
The section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question hason4achoices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
i
ONLY ONE is correct. ca t du
E
11. Let f and g be real valued functions defined aon as h
k interval (–1, 1) such that g′′(x) is continuous, g(0) ≠ 0,
g′′(0) ≠ 0, g′′ (0) – 0, and f(x) = g(x)sinx. of A
io n
[g ( x ) cot x − g(D
i vi s
(0)cosec x ] = f ′′(0).
STATEMENT-1 : xlim
→0

and
STATEMENT-2 : f′(0) = g(0).
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (B)

g ( x ) cos x − g (0) ⎡ 0 ⎤
Hints : We have lim ; ⎢ ⎥ form
x →0 sin x ⎣0⎦

g ′( x ) cos x − g ( x ) sin x
= lim
x →0 cos x
=0

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f ( x ) = g ( x ) sin x

f ′( x ) = g ′( x ) sin x + g ( x ) cos x

f ′′( x ) = g ′′( x ) sin x + 2g ′( x ) cos x − g ( x ) sin x

⇒ f ′′(0) = 0

Thus xlim [g ( x ) cos x − g (0)cosec x ] = 0 = f ′′(0)


→0

⇒ Statement–1 is true.
Statement–2. f ′( x ) = g ′( x ) sin x + g ( x ) cos x

⇒ f ′(0) = g (0)
Statement–2 is not a correct explanation of Statement–1.

12. Consider three planes


P1 : x – y + z = 1
P2 : x + y – z = –1
P3 : x – 3y + 3z = 2
Let L1, L2, L3 be the lines of intersection of the planes P2 and P3, P3 and P1, P1 and P2, respectively
STATEMENT-1 : At least two of the lines L1, L2 and L3 are non-parallel.
and
STATEMENT-2 : The three planes do not nave a common point.
.)
Ltd
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a e rv explanation for STATEMENT-1
correct
i ce s
al S
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
at i on
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True E du c
k a sh
Answer (D) a
Hints : The given equations are n of A
v isio
x–y+z=1 (D i
x + y – z = –1
x – 3y + 3z = 2
The system of equations can be put in matrix form as Ax = B

⎡1 − 1 1 ⎤ ⎡ x ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
i.e. ⎢1 1 − 1⎥ ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢− 1⎥
⎢⎣1 − 3 3 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎦

⎡1 − 1 1 ⎤ ⎡ x ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ R2 → R 2 − R1
~ ⎢0 2 − 2⎥ ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢− 2⎥
⎢⎣0 − 2 2 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 1 ⎥⎦ R3 → R3 − R1

⎡1 − 1 1 ⎤ ⎡ x ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
~ ⎢0 2 − 2⎥ ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢− 2⎥
⎢⎣0 0 0 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ − 1⎥⎦

which is inconsistent as ρ( A : B ) ≠ ρ( A)
⇒ The three planes do not have a common point.

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⇒ Statement–2 is true.
Since planes P1, P2, P3 are pairwise intersecting, their lines of intersection are parallel.
Statement–1, is false.

13. Consider the system of equations


x – 2y + 3z = –1
–x + y – 2z = k
x – 3y + 4z = 1
STATEMENT-1 : The system of equations has no solution for k ≠ 3.
and

1 3 −1
STATEMENT-2 : The determinant − 1 − 2 k ≠ 0, for k ≠ 3.
1 4 1
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (A)
Hints : The given system of equations can be expressed as
⎡ 1 − 2 3 ⎤ ⎡ x ⎤ ⎡− 1⎤
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
⎢ 1 − 3 4 ⎥⎢y ⎥ = ⎢ 1 ⎥ Lt d. )
s
⎢⎣− 1 1 − 2⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ k ⎥⎦
rv i ce
Applying R2 → R2 − R1, R3 → R1 + R3 na l Se
ti o
u ca
⎡ 1 − 2 3⎤ ⎡ x ⎤ ⎡ − 1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ h Ed
~ ⎢0 − 1 1⎥ ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢ 2 ⎥ k as
⎢⎣0 − 1 1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣k − 1⎥⎦ f Aa
i o no
i vi s
⎡ 1 − 2 3⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎡x ⎤ ⎡ − 1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
(D
~ ⎢0 − 1 1⎥ ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢ 2 ⎥ by R3 → R3 – R2
⎢⎣0 0 0⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣k − 3⎥⎦

When k ≠ 3 , the given system of equations has no solution.


⇒ Statement 1 is true. Clearly statement–2 is also true as it is rearrangement of rows and columns of
⎡ 1 −2 3 ⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎢ 1 −3 4 ⎥
⎢⎣ − 1 1 − 2 ⎥⎦
Hence option (A) is correct.

14. Consider the system of equations


ax + by = 0, cx + dy = 0, where a, b, c, d ∈ {0, 1}.
3
STATEMENT-1 : The probability that the system of equations has a unique solution is .
8
and
STATEMENT-2 : The probability that the system of equations has a solution is 1.

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(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (B)

a b
Hints : The number of all possible determinants of the form = 2 4 = 16
c d
Out of which only 10 determinants given by

1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0
, , , , , , , , ,
1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0

vanish and remaining six determinants have non-zero value.


6 3
Hence the required probability = =
16 8
⇒ Statement–1 is correct.
Statement–2 is also correct as the homogeneous equations have always a solution and Statement–2 does not
explain the explanation of Statement–1.

SECTION - IV
Linked Comprehension Type
.)
Ltd have to be answered.
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions
s
e
vi c
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
r
a l Se
Paragraph for Question Nos. i15
c a t on to 17
u
A circle C of radius 1 is inscribed in an equilateral triangle PQR.
h Ed The points of contact of C with the sides PQ,
a kasequation ⎛3 3 3⎞
QR, RP are D, E, F respectively. The line PQ is givenf by A the 3 x + y − 6 = 0 and the point D is ⎜⎜ , ⎟.
o
n C are on the same side of the line PQ. ⎝ 2 2 ⎟⎠
si o
vi
Further, it is given that the origin and the centre of
15. The equation of circle C is (D i
2
⎛ 2 1⎞
(A) ( x − 2 3 ) + ( y − 1) = 1
2 2 (B) ( x − 2 3 ) + ⎜ y + ⎟ = 1
⎝ 2⎠

(C) ( x − 3 )2 + (y + 1)2 = 1 (D) ( x − 3 )2 + (y − 1)2 = 1

Answer (D)
Hints : Let centre of C be (h, k)
Then,

3h + k − 6
=1
3 +1

⇒ 3 h + k − 6 = 2, − 2
⇒ 3h + k = 4 ...(i) (Rejecting '2' because origin and centre of C are
on the same side of PQ)

The point ( 3 , 1) satisfies equation (i)

∴ Equation of circle C is ( x − 3 )2 + ( y − 1)2 = 1.

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16. Points E and F are given by

⎛ 3 3⎞ ⎛ 3 1⎞
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
(A) ⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟, ( 3, 0) (B) ⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟, ( 3, 0)
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

⎛ 3 3 ⎞ ⎛ 3 1⎞ ⎛ 3 3 ⎞ ⎛ 3 1⎞
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
(C) ⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟, ⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟ (D) ⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟, ⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
Answer (A)
Hints :

3
−1
2 1
Slope of line joining centre of circle to point D is = (makes an angle 30° with x-axis)
3 3 3
− 3
2

∴ Points E and F will make angle 150° and – 90° with x-axis.
∴ E and F are given by E
D
x− 3 y −1 x− 3 y −1
= = 1, and = =1 30°
cos 150 ° sin150 ° cos( −90°) sin( −90°)
( 3, 1)
⎛ 3 3⎞
∴ E =⎜ , ⎟
⎜ 2 2⎟
⎝ ⎠
F
F = ( 3 , 0) Lt d. )
s
rv i ce
17. Equations of the sides QR, RP are
na l Se
ti o
2 2 u ca 1
(A) y = x + 1, y = − x −1 (B)Edy =
h
x, y = 0
k as
3 3 3
f Aa
(C) y =
3
x + 1, y = −
3
x −1 i o no
2 2 i vi s (D) y = 3 x, y = 0
(D
Answer (D)
Hints : Clearly, point E and F satisfy the equations given in option (D).

Paragraph for Question Nos. 18 to 20


Consider the functions defined implicitly by the equation y3 – 3y + x = 0 on various intervals in the real line. If
x ∈ (–∞, – 2) ∪ (2, ∞), the equation implicitly defines a unique real valued differentiable function y = f(x). If x ∈ (–2, 2),
the equation implicitly defineds a unique real value differentiable function y = g(x) satisfying g (0) = 0.

18. If f ( −10 2 ) = 2 2 , then f ′′( −10 2 ) =

4 2 4 2 4 2 4 2
(A) 3 2 (B) − 3 2 (C) 3 (D) −
7 3 7 3 7 3 7 33
Answer (B)

Hints : At x = −10 2, y = f(x)

d 2y
∴ f ′′( x ) =
dx 2

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dy dy
y 3 − 3 y + x ⇒ 3.y 2 −3 +1= 0 ...(i)
dx dx

⎛ d 2y ⎞ 2 2
⇒ 3y 2 ⎜ ⎟ + 6 y ⎛⎜ dy ⎞⎟ − 3 d y = 0 ...(ii)
⎜ dx ⎟
2
⎝ dx ⎠ dx 2
⎝ ⎠

At x = −10 2 , y = 2 2

Substituting in (i),

dy dy
3( 2 2 ) 2 . −3⋅ +1= 0
dx dx

dy −1
⇒ =
dx 21

Substituting in (ii)
2
d 2y ⎛ − 1⎞ d 2y
3(2 2 )2 ⋅ + 6( 2 2 ).⎜ ⎟ − 3 ⋅ =0
dx 2 ⎝ 21 ⎠ dx 2

2
⇒ 21. d y = 12 2
dx 2 (21)2

d 2y − 12 2 −4 2 .)
⇒ = =
s Ltd
ce
2 3 3 2
dx (21) 7 .3
e r vi
n al S
u c atio and the lines x = a and x = b, where
19. The area of the region bounded by the curve y = f(x), the x-axis,
–∞ < a < b < –2, is d E
k a sh
b
x fA a b
x
(A) ∫ 3[(f ( x )) 2
− 1]
dx + bf (b ) − af (a )
io no (B) − ∫ 3[(f ( x )) 2
− 1]
dx + bf (b ) − af (a )
a
(D i vi s a

b b
x x
(C) ∫ 3[(f ( x ))
a
2
− 1]
dx − bf (b ) + af (a ) (D) − ∫ 3[(f ( x ))
a
2
− 1]
dx − bf (b ) + af (a )

Answer (A)
b b

Hints : Given area = ∫a



ydx = f ( x )dx
a

b
= [f ( x ).x ]a − f ′( x ).x dx

b

a
b


= bf (b ) − af (a ) − f ′( x )xdx
a
b
xdx
= bf (b ) − af (a ) + ∫ 3((f ( x ))
a
2
− 1)

dy −1 −1
as f ′( x ) = = =
dx 3( y 2 − 1) 3((f ( x ))2 − 1)

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1

20. ∫ g′( x )dx =


–1

(A) 2g(–1) (B) 0 (C) –2g(1) (D) 2g(1)


Answer (D)

Hints : I = ∫ g ′(x )dx = [g (x )]


–1
1
–1
= g(1) – g(–1)

Since y3 – 3y + x = 0 ...(i)
and y = g(x)
hence (g(x))3 – 3g(x) + x = 0 by (i)
at x = 1, (g(1))3 – 3 g(1) + 1 = 0 ...(ii)
at x = –1 (g(– 1))3 – 3 g(–1)–1 = 0 ...(iii)
(ii) + (iii)
(g(1))3 + (g(–1))3 – 3 (g(1) + g(–1)) = 0
(g(1) + g(–1)) (g(1)2 + (g(–1)2) – g(1)g(–1) – 3) = 0
⇒ g(1) + g(–1) = 0
g(1) = – g(–1)

⇒ I = g(1) – g(–1) = g(1) – (–g(1)) = 2g(1)


Lt d. )
e s
ic
erv23
Paragraph for Question Nos. 21 to
lS
on a
Let A, B, C be three sets of complex numbers as defined below
a ti
A = {z ; Imz ≥ 1}
E du c
B = {z : |z – 2 – i| = 3}
k a sh
a
C = {z : Re((1 − i )z ) = 2 }.
n of A
21. The number of elements in the setDAiv ∩ B ∩ C is
isio
(
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) ∞
Answer (B)
Hints : Let z = x + iy
Set A corressponds to the region y ≥ 1 ...(i)
2 2
Set B consists of points lying on the circle, centred at (2, 1) and radius 3, i.e. x + y – 4x – 2y = 4 ...(ii)
Set C consists of points lying on the x + y = 2 ...(iii)
y

P
0, 2
(2, 1)
y=1
x
2, 0

Clearly, there is only one point of intersection of the line x + y = 2 , and circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y = 4

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22. Let z be any point in A ∩ B ∩ C. The | z + 1 – i |2 + | z – 5 – i |2 lies between

(A) 25 and 29

(B) 30 and 34

(C) 35 and 39

(D) 40 and 44

Answer (C)

2 2
Hints : z + 1 – i + z–5–i

= (x + 1)2 + (y – 1)2 + (x – 5)2 + (y – 1)2

= 2(x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y) + 28

= 2(4) + 28 (∵ x 2
+ y 2 – 4 x – 2y = 4 )
= 36

23. Let z be any point in A ∩ B ∩ C and let w be any point satisfying | w – 2 – i | < 3. Then, | z | – | w | + 3 lies
between .)
s Ltd
(A) –6 and 3 rv i ce
a l Se
(B) –3 and 6 ti o n
a
E du c
(C) –6 and 6
k a sh
a
n of A
isio
(D) –3 and 9
v
Answer (D)
(D i

Hints : w – (2 + i ) < 3

⇒ |w | – |2 + i | < 3

⇒ −3 + 5 < w < 3 + 5

⇒ –3– 5 <– w <3– 5 ...(i)

Also, z – (2 + i ) = 3

⇒ –3+ 5 ≤ z ≤3+ 5 ...(ii)

∴ – 3 < |z| – |w| +3 < 9

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PHYSICS
PART- II

Useful Data:

Planck’s Constant h = 4.1 × 10–15 eV.s

Velocity of light c = 3 × 108 m/s

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
24. Student I, II and III perform an experiment for measuring the acceleration due to gravity (g) using a simple
pendulum. They use different lengths of the pendulum and / or record time for different number of oscillations.
The observations are shown in the table.
Least count for length = 0.1 cm
Least count for time = 0.1 s

Length of the Number of Total time for (n)


Student Time period (s)
Pendulum (cm) oscillations (n) oscillations(s)
I 64.0 8 128.0 16.0
II 64.0 4 64.0
Lt d. ) 16.0
III 20.0 4 36.0 ice
s 9.0
l S e rv
a
t i on
⎛ Δg
If EI, EII and EIII are percentage errors in g, i.e., ⎜⎜ × 100
d uc⎞⎟⎟afor students I, II and III respectively,
⎝ gsh E ⎠
a ka
(A) EI = 0 (B) EI is minimum
n of A (C) EI = EII (D) EII is minimum
Answer (B) v isio
(D i
Δg ΔT Δl
Hints: = 2 +
g T l
For student 1, T = 128.0, ΔT = 0.1 s. This has the least error.
25. Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3 V battery. If the power dissipated
by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3, respectively, then
Figure :


1Ω 1Ω 1Ω
1Ω 1Ω 3V
3V 1Ω

3V 1Ω 1Ω

1Ω 1Ω 1Ω

R1 R2 R3
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P1 > P3 > P2 (C) P2 > P1 > P3 (D) P3 > P2 > P1

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Answer (C)

Hints :

R1 = 1 Ω (Balanced wheat stone bridge)

R2 = 0.5 Ω

R3 = 2 Ω

V2 1
As P = ⇒P∝
R R

26. Which one of the following statements is WRONG in the context of X - rays generated from a X-ray tube?

(A) Wavelength of characteristic X-rays decreases when the atomic number of the target increases

(B) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the atomic number of the target

(C) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the electrical power given to the X-ray tube
(D) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends on the energy of the electrons in the X-ray tube

Answer (B)

hc
Hints : Cut off wavelength λc = , where V is the accelerating voltage.
eV

27. Two beams of red and violet colours are made to pass separately through a prism (angle of the prism is 60°).
In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of refraction will be .)
s Ltd
(A) 30° for both the colours
rv i ce
(B) Greater for the violet colour a l Se
ti o n
a
(C) Greater for the red colour
E du c
(D) Equal but not 30° for both the colours k a sh
a
Answer (A) n of A
v isio
(D i A
Hints : Angle of refraction at minimum deviation is .
2

28. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is

1 2
(A) (B)
T T

3 4
(C) (D)
T T
Answer (C)

Hints : PT2 = constant, Also PV = nRT

⎛T ⎞ 2
⇒ ⎜ ⎟ T = constant or V ∝ T3
⎝V ⎠

ΔV 3ΔT ΔV 3
= ⇒ V ΔT =
V T T

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⎧ρ0 for r ≤ R
29. A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a mass density ρ = ⎨
⎩0 for r > R

Where ρ0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo circular motion under the influence of the gravitational field
of particles. Its speed V as a function of distance r (0 < r < ∞) from the centre of the system is represented
by

(A) V (B) V

R r r
R
(C) (D)
V V

R r R r
Answer (C)
Hints : For r ≤ R, F = kr.
mv 2

r
= kr ⇒ v ∝ r
Lt d. )
s
k mv 2 k 1 rv i ce
l Se
For r > R, F = 2 ⇒ = 2 ⇒v∝
r r r r
ti o na
SECTIONEd- II
u ca
sh
aka Answers Type
Multiple Correct
of A
i si on type questions. Each Question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s)
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.iv
(D
 
30. Two balls, having linear momenta p1 = piˆ and p2 = piˆ , undergo a collision in free space. There is no external
 
force acting on the balls. Let p′1 and p′ 2 be their final momenta. The following option(s) is (are) NOT
ALLOWED for any non-zero value of p, a1, a2, b1, b2, c1 and c2.
 
(A) p′1 = a1iˆ + b1 ˆj + c1kˆ (B) p′1 = c1kˆ
 
p′2 = a2 iˆ + b2 ˆj p′2 = c 2 kˆ
 
(C) p′1 = a1iˆ + b1 ˆj + c1kˆ (D) p′1 = a1iˆ + b1 ˆj
 
p′2 = a2 iˆ + b2 ˆj – c1kˆ p′2 = a2 iˆ + b1 ˆj
Answer (A, D)

Hints : ∑
Pinitial = 0

⇒ ∑P final =0

→ → → →
For (A), p1' + p2' can never be zero for non-zero C1. For (B) p ' + p ' can never be zero for non zero b1.
1 2

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31. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as shown in the figure.
Use this plot to choose the correct choice(s) given below.
Figure :
B/A
8
6

4
2

A
100 200
(A) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the range of 1 < A < 50 will release energy
(B) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the range of 51 < A < 100 will release energy
(C) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range of 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken into two
equal fragments
(D) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass range of 200 < A < 260 will release energy when broken into two
equal fragments
Answer (B, D)
Hints : When BE/necleon increases, energy is released.
If final product has atomic number between 100 and 200, energy will be released.
32. A particle of mass m and charge q, moving with velocity V enters Region II normaltdto .) the boundary as shown
in the figure. Region II has a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane s L of the paper. The length of
i c e
the Region II is l. Choose the correct choice(s). er v
al S
Figure : i o n
at
IIucRegion III
Region d
Region I E
X XshX X

f A akaX X X
X
0
i o n o XX XX XX XX
vi s V
(D i X X X X
l
qlB
(A) The particle enters Region III only if its velocity V >
m
qlB
(B) The particle enters Region III only if its velocity V <
m
qlB
(C) Path length of the particle in Region II is maximum when velocity V =
m
(D) Time spend in Region II is same for any velocity V as long as the particle returns to Region I
Answer (A, C, D)
Hints:
When radius r > l, particle will move to region III.
mV q Bl
>l⇒V>
qB m
q Bl
when V = , the particle moves in the biggest semicircle possible in region II.
m
πm
Time spent t = q B in region II, provided particle returns to region I.

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33. In a Young's double slit experiment, the separation between the two slits is d and the wavelength of the light
is λ. The intensity of light falling on slit 1 is four times the intensity of light falling on slit 2. Choose the correct
choice(s).
(A) If d = λ, the screen will contain only one maximum
(B) If λ < d < 2λ, at least one more maximum (besides the central maximum) will be observed on the screen
(C) If the intensity of light falling on slit 1 is reduced so that it becomes equal to that of slit 2, the intensities
of the observed dark and bright fringes will increase
(D) If the intensity of light falling on slit 2 is increased so that it becomes equal to that of slit 1, the intensities
of the observed dark and bright fringes will increase
Answer (A, B)
Hints:
At centre, Δx = 0 for which maxima is obtained. The path difference at a large distance from the screen
Δx → d.
When d = λ, the path difference is between 0 to λ.
Only central maxima exists in that case
when λ < d < 2λ, Δx lies between 0 to 2λ. So more than one maxima will be obtained.
When both the slits give same intensity, dark fringes are perfectly dark.

SECTION - III
Reasoning Type
The section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

34. STATEMENT-1 : In a Meter Bridge experiment, null point for an unknown resistanceLt d. )
is measured. Now, the
c e s
unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a highervitemperature. The null point can be
e r
obtained at the same point as before by decreasing the value of the
l S
standard resistance.
ti o na
u ca
and
STATEMENT-2 : Resistance of a metal increases with Ed
h increase in temperature.
k as
Aa STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
of
n
siois True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2
i vi
(D
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (B)
Hints:
R1 l1 R1
=
R2 l 2 . To keep l1 and l2 same, R2 = constant.
If one resistance increases/decreases, the other must also be increased/decreased. Now, the unknown
resistance can have positive or negative temperature coefficient for resistance.
35. STATEMENT-1 : An astronaut in an orbiting space station above the Earth experiences weightlessness.
and
STATEMENT-2 : An object moving around the Earth under the influence of Earth's gravitational force is in a
state of 'free-fall'.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

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Answer (A)
Hints : An object in a state of free fall i.e. moving under the action of gravity alone experiences weightlessness.

36. STATEMENT-1 : Two cylinders, one hollow (metal) and the other solid (wood) with the same mass and identical
dimensions are simultaneously allowed to roll without slipping down an inclined plane from the same height.
The hollow cylinder will reach the bottom of the inclined plane first.
and
STATEMENT-2 : By the principle of conservation of energy, the total kinetic energies of both the cylinders are
identical when they reach the bottom of the incline.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (D)
Hints : The body with a greater moment of inertia experiences lesser acceleration.
In pure rolling, energy is conserved. So, both objects have same total kinetic energy.

37. STATEMENT-1 : The stream of water flowing at high speed from a garden hose pipe tends to spread like a
fountain when held vertically up, but tends to narrow down when held vertically down.
and
STATEMENT-2 : In any steady flow of an incompressible fluid, the volume flow rate of the fluid remains constant.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1

.) for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False s Ltd
rv i ce
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
a l Se
Answer (A)
ti o n
a
Hints : As volume flow rate is constant, A × v = constant. du c
hE
k as
When jet moves up, v decreases and A increases.
of
When jet goes down, v increase and A decreases
Aa
n
i v isio
(D
SECTION - IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 to 40

⎛ 5⎞
A small spherical monoatomic ideal gas bubble ⎜ γ = ⎟ is trapped inside a liquid of density ρl (see figure).
⎝ 3⎠
Assume that the bubble does not exchange any heat with the liquid. The bubble contains n moles of gas. The
temperature of the gas when the bubble is at the bottom is T0, the height of the liquid is H and the atmospheric
pressure is P0 (Neglect surface tension).
Figure :

P0
Liquid
H
y

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38. As the bubble moves upwards, besides the buoyancy force the following forces are acting on it
(A) Only the force of gravity
(B) The force due to gravity and the force due to the pressure of the liquid
(C) The force due to gravity, the force due to the pressure of the liquid and the force due to viscosity of the
liquid
(D) The force due to gravity and the force due to viscosity of the liquid
Answer (D)
Hints : The force due to pressure of liquid is Buoyont force. Besides this, gravity and viscous force act on the bubble.

39. When the gas bubble is at a height y from the bottom, its temperature is
2/5 2/5
⎛ P0 + ρ l gH ⎞ ⎛ P0 + ρ l g (H − y ) ⎞
(A) T0 ⎜⎜ ⎟
⎟ (B) T0 ⎜⎜ ⎟

⎝ P0 + ρ l gy ⎠ ⎝ P0 + ρ l gH ⎠

3/5 3/5
⎛ P0 + ρ l gH ⎞ ⎛ P0 + ρ l g (H − y ) ⎞
(C) T0 ⎜⎜ ⎟
⎟ (D) T0 ⎜⎜ ⎟

⎝ P0 + ρ l gy ⎠ ⎝ P0 + ρ l gH ⎠
Answer (B)
Hints : As no heat exchange takes place, gas expands adiabatically.

P 1 − γT γ = constants
1− γ
⎛ P1 ⎞ γ
T2 = T1 ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ P2 ⎠
Lt d. )
s
T1 = T0, P1 = P0 + ρl gH; P2 = P0 + ρl g(H – y); γ =
5
rv i ce
3
na l Se
ti o
1− 5 / 3
u ca
⎡ P0 + ρ l gH ⎤
⇒ T2 = T0 ⎢ ⎥
5/3
h Ed
⎣ P0 + ρ l g (H − y ) ⎦ a k as
n of A
40. isio is (Assume R is the universal gas constant)
The buoyancy force acting on the gasivbubble
(D
(P0 + ρ l gH )2 / 5
(A) ρ l nRgT0
(P0 + ρ l gy )7 / 5

ρ l nRgT0
(B)
(P0 + ρ l gH ) 2 / 5 [P0 + ρ l g (H − y )]3 / 5

(P0 + ρ l gH )3 / 5
(C) ρ l nRgT0
(P0 + ρ l gy )8 / 5

ρ l nRgT0
(D)
(P0 + ρ l gH ) 3/5
[P0 + ρ l g (H − y )]2 / 5
Answer (B)

Hints : Buoyont Force = Vρ l g

nRT nRT2
V = =
Now P [P0 + ρl g (H− y )]

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 41 to 43
In a mixture of H – He+
gas (He+ is singly ionized He atom), H atoms and He+ ions are excited to their respective
first excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He+ ions (by collisions).
Assume that the Bohr Model of atom is exactly valid.
41. The quantum number of n of the state finally populated in He+ ions is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer (C)

− 13.6 ⎛ − 13.6 ⎞
Hints : The total excitation energy of H atom is first axcited state is 2
− ⎜ 2 ⎟ = 10.2 eV
( 2) ⎝ 1 ⎠
He+ ion absorb this energy and move to nth quantum number state

+ 13.6 13.6 ( 4 ) ⎛ − 13.6 2 ⎞


So 10.2 = 2
( 4) − 2
⎜∵ E n = z ⎟
2 n ⎝ n2 ⎠
⇒ n=4

42. The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He+ ions after collisions with H atoms is

(A) 6.5 × 10 –7 m

(B) 5.6 × 10 –7 m

(C) 4.8 × 10 –7 m
.)
(D) 4.0 × 10 –7 m
s Ltd
Answer (C) r vi ce
e
al S+
Hints : The wavelength of visible region is between 400 nm to 700 nm.
ionHe ion can show transition from n = 4 to
tot n = 3 will lie in visible region
n = 1 in different manners. Out of these, transition from n = 4ca
E du
1 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
ak as h
= R z2 ⎜ 2 − 2 ⎟
fA
Now ⎜n ⎟
λ ⎝ 1 n2 ⎠ no
i v isio
1 ⎛ 1 1⎞ (D
=R×4⎜ − ⎟
λ ⎝ 16 9 ⎠

36 36
λ= = × 912 ≈ 4.8 ×10 – 7 m
7R 7

43. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2 electron for the H atom to that of He+ ion is

1 1
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 2
4 2
Answer (A)
Hints : Kinetic energy ∝ v2

z
v = vo 2
⇒ K ∝ z2
n

KH 1
⇒ =
K He + 4

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 44 to 46
A small block of mass M moves on a frictionless surface of an inclined plane, as shown in figure. The angle of the
incline suddenly changes from 60° to 30° at point B. The block is initially at rest at A. Assume that collisions
between the block and the incline are totally inelastic (g = 10 m/s2)
Figure :

A M

60° B

30° C

3m 3 3m

44. The speed of the block at point B immediately after it strikes the second incline is

(A) 60 m / s (B) 45 m / s (C) 30 m / s (D) 15 m / s


Answer (B)
Hints : The speed of block at point immediately before it strikes the second incline is

V1 = 2gh1 = 2 × 10 × 3 = 60 Lt d. )
s
Aice
rv
As collision is inelastic so component of velocity
l Se
a
perpendicular to BC will vanish and velocity of the block
a t ionh1 = 3m L
after collision will be along BC
uc
h Ed 60°

V2 = V1 cos 30° k as 30°


f Aa
B
o 30°
3 i si on
= 60 ×
(D iv h2 = 3m
2 30°
C
= 45

45. The speed of the block at point C, immediately before it leaves the second incline is

(A) 120 m / s (B) 105 m / s (C) 90 m / s (D) 75 m / s


Answer (B)

Hints : If velocity at C is V3, then

V32 = V22 + 2gh2

V32 = 45 + 2 × 10 × 3

⇒ V3 = 45 + 60 = 105

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46. If collision between the block and the incline is completely elastic, then the vertical (upward) component of the
velocity of the block at point B, immediately after it strikes the second incline is

(A) 30 m/s (B) 15 m / s (C) 0 (D) − 15 m / s

Answer (C)
Hints : In elastic collision, laws of reflection is obeyed. So, block rebounds horizontally
60

30° 60°
60°
60

30°

CHEMISTRY
PART- III
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
.)
Ltd (C) and (D), out of which
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
s
ONLY ONE is correct. ic e
rv
47. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of the following orbitals a l Se
ti o n
a
E du c
(A) σ – σ (B) σ – p ashp – p
(C)
k (D) π – π
Answer (B) o f Aa
n
i v isio
Hints : Hyper conjugation involves σ-p conjugation.
(D
48. The major product of the following reaction is

Me Br

F – +
PhS Na
dimethylformamide

NO2

Me SPh SPh
Me Me Br Me SPh

F F SPh SPh
(A) (B) (C) (D)

NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2


Answer (A)
Hints : SN 2 mechanism occurs in polar aprotic solvent hence inversion of configuration takes place.

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49. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives
(A) Na2S4O6 (B) NaHSO4 (C) NaCl (D) NaOH
Answer (B)
Hints : Na2S2O3 + 4Cl2 + 5H2O → 2NaHSO4 + 8HCl

50. Native silver metal forms a water soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Argon
Answer (B)
Hints :
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2

4Na [Ag (CN)2] + 4NaOH

51. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm–3 of a substance becomes half in
⎛ k1 ⎞
40 seconds and 20 seconds through first order and zero order kinetics, respectively. Ratio ⎜⎜ k ⎟⎟ of the rate
⎝ 0⎠
constants for first order (k1) and zero order (k0) of the reactions is
(A) 0.5 mol–1 dm3 (B) 1.0 mol dm–3 (C) 1.5 mol dm–3 (D) 2.0 mol–1 dm3
Answer (A)

0.693
Hints : k1 = t1/2
Lt d. )
s
0.693
rv i ce
l Se
k1 = (first order kinetics) ....(1)
40
na
1.386
k0 = 2 × 20 (zero order kinetics) ....(1)duc
a ti o
E
ak as h
k1 fA
–1 3
k 0 = 0.5 mol dm . no
i v isio
(D
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each Question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

2 2
52. 2.5 mL of M weak monoacidic base (Kb = 1 × 10–12 at 25°C) is titrated with M HCl in water at 25°C.
5 15
The concentration of H+ at equivalence point is (Kw = 1 × 10–14 at 25°C)
(A) 3.7 × 10–13 M (B) 3.2 × 10–7 M (C) 3.2 × 10–2 M (D) 2.7 × 10–2 M
Answer (C)
Hints : At equivalence point

N1V1 = N2 V2
(base) (acid)

2 2
2.5 × = ×V
5 15

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V = 7.5 ml
∴ Milli equivalents of salt = 1

1 1
pH = 7 – pkb – log C
2 2
1 1
=7–6– log
2 10
= 7 – 6 + 0.5 = 1.5
(H+) = 10–1.5 = 3.2 × 10–2 M

53. The correct statement(s) about the compound given below is (are)

Cl H
CH3
H3C
Cl H
(A) The compound is optically active (B) The compound possesses centre of symmetry
(C) The compound possesses plane of symmetry (D) The compound possesses axis of symmetry
Answer (A, D)
Hints : Since configuration is R, R
∴ Optically active and possesses axis of symmetry.
54. The correct statement(s) concerning the structures E, F and G is (are)
.)
s Ltd
H3C
O H3C OH H3C CH3
r vi ce
e
al S
H3C CH3 H3C CH3 H3C OH
at i on
E du c
(E) (F) (G)
k a sh
a
(A) E, F and G are resonance structures
n of A (B) E, F and E, G are tautomers
(C) F and G are geometrical isomers v isio (D) F and G are diastereomers
Answer (B, C, D)
(D i
Hints : Compound E, F and E, G are keto-enol tautomers.
(F) & (G) show cis trans isomerism and these are also diastereomers.
55. A solution of colourless salt H on boiling with excess NaOH produces a non-flammable gas. The gas evolution
ceases after sometime. Upon addition of Zn dust to the same solution, the gas evolution restarts. The
colourless salt(s) H is (are)
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) NH4Cl (D) (NH4)2SO4
Answer (A, B)
Hints :

All ammonium salt evolves NH3 with NaOH but only NO 3− and NO 2− ions restarts evolution of NH3 again with
zinc dust.
(A) → NH4NO 3 + NaOH ⎯⎯→ NaNO 3 + NH3 + H2 O
Zn / NaOH
NaNO 3 + 8[H] ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→ NaOH + NH3 + 2H2O
(B) → NH4NO 2 + NaOH ⎯⎯→ NaNO 2 + NH3 + H2 O
Zn / NaOH
NaNO 2 + 6[H] ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ ⎯→ NaOH + NH3 + H2 O

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56. A gas described by van der Waals equation
(A) Behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large molar volumes
(B) Behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large pressures
(C) Is characterised by van der Waals coefficients that are dependent on the identity of the gas but are
independent of the temperature
(D) Has the pressure that is lower than the pressure exerted by the same gas behaving ideally
Answer (A, C, D)

⎛ a ⎞ a
Hints : Because V is very large, so in Van der Waal’s equation ⎜ P + 2 ⎟ (V – b) = RT, 2 and b are neglected
⎝ V ⎠ V
and equation becomes PV = RT. Coefficients depends on the identity of the gas but are independent of the
temperature. Real gas exert lower pressure than the same gas behaving ideally due to intermolecular force
of attraction.

SECTION - III
Reasoning Type
The section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
57. STATEMENT-1 : Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1,4-dibromobenzene as the major product.
and
STATEMENT-2 : In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more dominant than the mesomeric
effect in directing the incoming electrophile.

d. )
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
Lt
ces explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct
r vi
e
al S
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
at i on
du c
hE
Answer (C)
a s
Hints : In bromobenzene, inductive effect is responsible ak for dectivating the benzene nucleus and has no effects on
f Adirective
directive influence. Mesomeric effect governed
n o influence.
s i o
4+
58. STATEMENT-1 : Pb compounds are
D i vi stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds.
(
and
STATEMENT-2 : The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier memberes
of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (C)
Hints : Statement (2) is false
As we go down the group stability of higher oxidation state decreases and stability of lower oxidation state
increases due to inert pair effect hence Pb+2 is more stable than Pb+4 state.
59. STATEMENT-1 : The plot of atomic number (y-axis versus number of neutrons (x-axis) for stable nuclei shows
a curvature towards x-axis from the line of 45° slope as the atomic number is increased.
and
STATEMENT-2 : Proton-proton electrostatic repulsions begin to overcome attractive forces involving protons and
neutrons in heavier nuclides.

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(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (B)
Hints :

Z (At no.)
45o
no. of neutrons

Elements with higher atomic number are more stable if they have slight excess of neutron as this increase the
attractive force and also reduces repulsion between protons.
60. STATEMENT-1 : For every chemical reaction at equilibrium, standard Gibbs energy of reaction is zero.
and
STATEMENT-2 : At constant temperature and pressure, chemical reactions are spontaneous in the direction
of decreasing Gibbs energy. .)
Ltd
cesexplanation for STATEMENT-1
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct
r vi
S e
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOTl a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
a
a t i on
du c
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True sh E
Answer (D) f A a ka
i o no
Hints : ΔG = ΔG° + RT ln Q
i vi s
at equilibrium ( D
ΔG = 0
Q = Keq
∴ ΔG° = –RT ln Keq

SECTION - IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63

In the following reaction sequence, products I, J and L are formed. K represents a reagent.
1. Mg/ether
1. NaBH4 2. CO2 K H2
Hex-3-ynal I + J Me Cl L
2. PBr3 3. H3O Pd/BaSO4
quinoline
O

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61. The structure of the product I is

(A) Me Br (B) Me
Br

(C) Me Br (D) Me Br

Answer (D)
62. The structures of compounds J and K, respectively, are

Me OH
(A) COOH
and SOCl2 (B) Me and SO2Cl2

Me COOH
(C) Me and SOCl2 (D) and CH3SO2Cl
COOH
Answer (A)
63. The structure of product L is

(A) Me CHO

(B) Me CHO

CHO
(C)
Me
Lt d. )
s
(D) Me CHO
rv i ce
Answer (C)
na l Se
Hints: ti o
u ca
O
h Ed
k as
CHf2 Aa C
(1) NaBH4
H3C CH2 C C H
o (2) PBr3
i si on
(D iv
CH3CH2 C C CH2 CH2Br
(I)
(1) Mg/Ether
(2) CO2
+
(3) H3O

CH3 CH2 C C CH2 CH2COOH


(J)
SOCl2 (K)

Me Cl

O
H2/Pd, BaSO4, quinoline
(Lindlar’s calatyst)

CHO

(cis product) (L)

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 64 to 66
There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth's crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water. Nitrates
are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia forms large number
of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridization easily explains the ease of sigma donation capability
of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white phosphorus.
64. Among the following, the correct statement is
(A) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(B) Between nitrates and phosphates, are less abundant in earth's crust
(C) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth's crust
(D) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil
Answer (C)
Hints : Since nitrates are more soluble in water.
∴ nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust.

65. Among the following, the correct statement is


(A) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical s orbital and is less directional
(B) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3
orbital and is more directional
(C) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3
orbital and is more directional
(D) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical
s orbital and is less directional t d. )
e sL
r vi c
Answer (C)
Hints : lS e
o n a
i
NH3 is strong Lewis base than PH3 because in NH3, lone pair cofatelectron present in more directional sp3 hybrid
u
Edis non-directional.
orbital while lone pair of e– in PH3 reside in s orbital which
k a sh
66. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives A
o f PHa 3 as one of the products. This is a
n
(A) Dimerization reaction
i v isio (B) Disproportionation reaction
(C) Condensation reaction (D (D) Precipitation reaction
Answer (B)
Hints :

Oxidation

0 –3 +1
P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O PH3 + 3NaH2PO2
Reduction

Paragraph for Question Nos. 67 to 69


Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure solvent change when solute
molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are called colligative properties. Applications of
colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day life. One of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and
water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in the radiator of automobiles.
A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole fraction of ethanol in the mixture is 0.9.
Given : Freezing point depression constant of water (Kfwater) = 1.86 K kg mol–1
Freezing point depression constant of ethanol (Kfethanol) = 2.0 K kg mol–1
Boiling point elevation constant of water (Kbwater) = 0.52 K kg mol–1

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Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol (Kbethanol) = 1.2 K kg mol–1
Standard freezing point of water = 273 K
Standard freezing point of ethanol = 155.7 K
Standard boiling point of water = 373 K
Standard boiling point of ethanol = 351.5 K
Vapour pressure of pure water = 32.8 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of pure ethanol = 40 mm Hg
Molecular weight of water = 18 g mol–1
Molecular weight of ethanol = 46 g mol–1
In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute solutions and solutes to be
non-volatile and non-dissociative.

67. The freezing point of the solution M is


(A) 268.7 K (B) 268.5 K (C) 234.2 K (D) 150.9 K
Answer (D)

0 .1 1000
Hints : ΔTf = kfm = 2 × × = 4.83
0 .9 46
ΔTf = T°f – Tf
Tf = 155.7 – 4.83 ≈ 150.9

68. The vapour pressure of the solution M is


(A) 39.3 mm Hg (B) 36.0 mm Hg (C) 29.5 mm Hg (D) 28.8 mm Hg
Lt d. )
Answer (B) s
rv i ce
l Se
Hints : Water is solute

ti o na
u ca
0
P − PS
0 = Xsolute
h Ed
P
k as
f Aa
40 − PS
i o no
40
= 0.1
i vi s
(D
PS = 36 mm of Hg
Here ethanol is considered as non-volalite solute as given in statement of paragraph.

69. Water is added to the solution M such that the mole fraction of water in the solution becomes 0.9. The boiling
point of this solution is
(A) 380.4 K (B) 376.2 K (C) 375.5 K (D) 345.7 K
Answer (B)
Hints : Here, water is solvent and ethanol is solute.
ΔTb = kb × m

0.1× 1000
= 0.52 ×
0.9 × 18
= 3.2084
Now, B.P. of solution = 373 + 3.2084
= 376.2084

  
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