IES - Objective Paper I II El

I.E.
S-(OBJ) 1997 1 of 16
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. A charge distribution is shown in the given The electric field Eat any point Z is given
figure: by
r ρ Z r
Which of the following expressions for the a. E = az
∈0 |Z |
displacement flux density D due to the
r ρ Z r
given charge distribution is correct? b. E = az Z > 0 = 0, Z = 0
1. D = − ρ 0 aix for x < − a ∈0 |Z |
r ρ Z r
2. D = − ρ 0 ( x + a ) ix for − a < x < 0 c. E = az | Z |> 0 = 0, Z = 0
∈0 |Z|
3. D = + ρ 0 ( x − a ) ix for 0 < x < a
r ρ |Z | r
4. D = + ρ0 aix for x > a E= az , Z < 0
∈0 Z
Select the correct answer using the codes
ρ |Z| r
given below: d. =− az , Z < 0
a. 1 and 4 ∈0 Z
b. 2 and 3 = 0, Z = 0
c. 1,2 and 3 4. A magnetic field B and an electric field E
d. 2,3 and 4 are at right angles to each other along the
2. Two concentric metallic spheres of radii ‘a y-axis and x = axis respectively as shown
and ‘b’ carry charges + Q and – Q in the given figure. the path of an electron
respectively as shown in the given figure. which starts at the origin will be
Potential at the centre ‘P will be
a. Straight along the y-axis

b. Cycloidal along the x-axis
a. Zero c. Straight along the z-axis
Q d. Cycloidal along the z-axis
b.
4π ∈0 b 5. An infinitely long conductor carrying a
−Q current I in a region permeability μ 1 and
c.
4π ∈0 a in the vicinity of another region of
Q ⎛1 1⎞ permeability μ 1 is shown in the given
d. ⎜ − ⎟
4π ∈0 ⎝ a b ⎠ figure for calculating the field in the first
region, the effect of discontinuity is
3. An infinite plane surface carries a uniform
replaced by an image I’ and with μ 1 < μ2
charge density p/m2 as shown in the figure.
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which one of the following statements is D. Identically zero magnetic field outside
correct in this regard? a coaxial cable
List II
1. Magnetic Polarization
2. Maximization of magnetic lines of
force
3. Work done along a closed path is equal
to total current flow
a. I and I’ have the same strength and 4. Force between magnetic elements
direction A B C D
b. I and I’ have opposite direction but the a. 3 1 2 4
same strength b. 4 1 2 3
c. 1 and I’ have the same direction but c. 3 2 1 4
different strength d. 4 2 1 3
d. I and I’ have opposite direction and 9. Two point charges Q and – Q are located
different strength on the surface of a sphere of radius R as
6. The image of the dipole of moment P in shown in the figure. The average electric
the grounded sphere shown in the given field in the volume of the sphere is
figure is
a. Infinite
2Q r
2 (
a. A dipole of moment P b. −n )
4π ∈0 R
b. A dipole of moment PR/d
2Q r
2 (
c. A dipole of moment PR2/d2 c. +n )
d. Not a dipole 4π ∈0 R
7. If two concentric square loops A and B d. Zero
shown in the given figure carry equal 10. A flat slab of, dielectric ( ∈r = 5 )is placed
currents in the same sense, then the normal to a uniform field with a flux
magnetic field at ‘O due to the two loops density D = 1 Coulomb/m2. The slab is
A and B will be in the ratio uniformly polarized. Polarization V in the
slab (in Coulomb/m2) will be
a. 0.8
b. 1.2
c. 4.0
d. 6.0
11. A parallel plate capacitor with air as
a. 1: 2 dielectric is charged and then disconnected
b. 1 : 1 from the supply. The force between the
c. 2 :1 plates is F. If the cap actor is now
d. 2 : 1 immersed in a liquid dielectric of dielectric
8. Match List-I (Phenomena) with List-Il constant e, then the force between the
(Reasons) and select the correct answer plates will be
using the codes given below the lists: a. ∈2 F
List I b. ∈ F
A. Force on a unit north pole due to c. F
current d. F / ∈
B. Flux density intensity relation in a 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the
magnetic material correct answer using the codes given
C. Force of attraction between a current below the Lists: (Symbols have the usual
carrying conductor and a magnetic slab meanings)
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List I c. Occurs along the line of the array
A. Poisson’s equation d. Could occurat any angle to the line of
B. Laplace’s equation the array
C. Joule’s equation 17. At a certain frequency ‘f’ a uniform plane
D. Helmholtz’s equation wave is found to have established a
List II wavelength λ in a good conductor. Of the
1. ∇ 2φ = 0 source frequency is doubled, then the
wavelength would change to
2. ∇ 2 E + K 02 E = 0 where K 0 = ω μ0 ∈0
λ
ρ a.
3. ∇ φ = −
2
2
∈0
b. 2λ
dP c. 2λ
4. = U j = E. J
dV d. 4λ
A B C D 18. Two loss-less transmission lines 1 and .2
a. 2 1 4 3 shown in the given figure have each a
b. 3 4 1 2 characteristic impendence Z. Line 1 is
c. 3 1 4 2 charged to a voltage of V and line 2 to a
d. 2 4 1 3 voltage of 2 V. Then both of them are
13. A circular loop has its radius increasing at discharged through resistances Z as
a rate of 2m/s. The loop is placed shown. If line 1 gets fully discharged in
perpendicular to a constant magnetic field time T, then line 2 will fully discharged in
of 0.1 Wb/m2. When the radius of the loop time
is 2 m, the emf induced in the loop will be
a. 0.8π V
b. 0.4π V
c. 0.2π V
d. Zero
14. Kirchhoff’s current law for direct currents a. T/4
is implicit in the expression b. T/2
r
a. V .D = ρ c. T
r d. 2T
b. ∫ J .n ds = 0
r 19. As the temperature of a ‘p’ type
c. V .B = 0 semiconductor is gradually and
∂D continuously increased, the Fermi level
d. ∇ × H = J + will move
∂t
15. A rectangular loop in the x-z plane a. Into the valence band
bounded by the lines x = 0, x = a, z = 0 b. Into the conduction band
and z = b, is in a time-varying magnetic c. Towards the middle of the forbidden
field given by gap
d. Into the region between the acceptor.
B = B0 cos ωt a y
level and the valence band
Where B0 is a constant, ω is the angular 20. Which one of the following polarization
frequency and ay is the unit vector in the mechanisms/ sets of mechanisms
y– direction, the emf induced in the loop is contribute (s) to the static dielectric
given by constant of a homopolar neutral dielectric?
a. abB0 cos ωt a. Electronic
b. abB0ω sin ωt b. Electronic and ionic
c. Electronic, ionic and dipolar
c. B0 ω sin ωt d. Electronic, and dipolar
d. Zero 21. Consider the following materials:
16. In a broadside array, the maximum 1. Pure silica
radiation 2. Bakelite
a. Occurs at 90° to the line of the array 3. Hard rubber
b. Occurs at 450 to the line of the array 4. Paraffin
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The correct sequence of the a. Perfect diamagnetism
DECREASING order of loss angle (60 b. Partial diamagnetism
Hz) these dielectric materials is c. Perfect paramagnetism
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 d. Partial paramagnetism
b. 1, 4, 3, 2 27. The magnetic susceptibility of a
c. 4, 1, 2, 3 paramagnetic material is
d. 4, 3, 1, 2 a. Less than zero
22. Which one of the following materials is b. Less than one but positive
piezoelectric? c. Greater than one
a. Pb2Au d. Equal to zero
b. Ba Ti O3 28. Magnetostriction is phenomenon whereby
c. Mg A12O4 the magnetization of a ferromagnetic
d. Ni Fe2O4 material leads to a change in
23. The residual resistivity of metals a. Relative permeability
a. Is essentially independent of b. Physical dimensions
temperature c. Spontaneous magnetization
b. Increase linearly with increasing d. Magnetic susceptibility
temperature 29. Match List - I with List-Il and select the
c. Decrease linearly with increasing correct answer
temperature List I (Type of magnetic material)
d. Initially increases linearly with A. Ferromagnetic
temperature and then remains constant. B. Anti-ferromagnetic
24. Consider the following metals: C. Ferromagnetic
1. Zinc. List II (Orientation of individual dipole
2. Gold. moments)
3. Silver. 1. ↓ ↑ ↓ ↑
4. Copper. 2. ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓
The correct sequence of the increasing 3. ↑ Ì É Ë
order of their resistivities is 4. ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
a. 4, 3, 1, 2 A B C
b. 3, 4, 2, 1, a. 4 2 1
c. 4, 3, 2, 1 b. 1 2 4
d. 3, 4, 1, 2 c. 2 1 3
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the d. 4 2 3
correct answer: 30. Match List-I with List-LI and select the
List I (Class of material) correct answer
A. Ferromagnetio List I (Application)
B. Superconductor A. Power transformer
C. Semiconductor B. Audio transformer
D. Piezoelectric C. Pulse transformer
List II (Material) D. Welding transformer
1. YBa2 Cu2 O7 List II (Core material)
2. LiNbO3 1. Si-Fe alloy
3. Co 2. Permalloy
4. InGaAsP 3. Ferrite
A B C D 4. Supermalloy
a. 3 1 2 4 5. Hypersil
b. 3 1 4 2 A B C D
c. 1 3 2 4 a. 1 2 4 5
d. 1 3 4 2 b. 2 3 4 5
26. A type I superconductor maintained at a c. 1 2 3 4
temperature T<Tc is subjected to a d. 2 3 5 4
magnetic field H<Hc. The superconductor 31. Two initially identical samples A and B of
will exhibit pure germanium are doped with donors to
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concentrations of l × 1020m-3 and 3 ×l020 b. 100 V; 900
m -3 respectively. If the hole concentration c. 200 V; – 90°
in A is 9 ×1012 m-3, then the hole d. 200 V; 90°
concentration in B at the same temperature 37. From a sinusoidal voltage source Vs of
will be impedance Z s = Rs + jX s , power is drawn
a. 3 ×1012 m −3 by a load Z L = RL + jX L .The condition for
b. 7 ×1012 m −3 maximum power in ZL is given in List – II
c. 11×1012 m −3 for the constraints shown in List – I. Match
d. 27 ×1012 m −3 List - I with List - II and select the correct
32. Consider the following statements: answer using the codes given below the
Pure germanium and pure silicon are Lists:
examples of List I
1. Direct band-gap semiconductors. A. Xs = zero
2. Indirect band-gap semiconductors. B. XL = zero
3. Degenerate semiconductors. C. RL fixed
Of these statements D. XL fixed
a. 1 alone is correct List II
b. 2 alone is correct 1. Z L2 = RS2 + X s2
c. 3 alone is correct 2. Z L = RL − jX s
d. 1 and 3 are correct
3. Z L = Rs − jX s
33. Consider the following statements:
In a semiconductor, the measurement of 4. Z L = Rs
2 1/2
5. Z L = RS2 + ⎡( X s + X L ) ⎤ + jX L
Hall coefficient provides quantitative
information on ⎣ ⎦
1. Density of carriers. A B C D
2. Polarity of carriers. a. 4 1 2 3
3. Effective mass of the carriers. b. 2 3 4 5
4. Mobility of the carriers. c. 4 1 2 5
Of these statements d. 1 3 4 5
a. 1 and 2 are correct 38. For the networks shown in figures A and B
b. 2 and 3 are correct to be duals, it is necessary that R, L’ and C
c. 1 and 3 are correct are respectively equal to
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
34. Silicon carbide reinforced aluminum metal
matrix- composites find application in
a. The manufacture of transformer cores
b. The manufacture of cutting tools.
c. The manufacture of standard resistors
d. Aerospace industry
35. GaAsLEDs emit radiation in the
a. Ultra-violet region
b. Violet-blue-green range of the visible a. 1/R, C and L
region b. 1/R, I/L and 1/C
c. Visible region c. 1/ R, 1/L and C
d. Infra-red region d. R, L and C
36. A series RLC circuit, consisting of R = 10 39. The impedance Z (s) of the one-port
ohms, XL = 20 ohms and Xc = 20 ohms is network shown in the figure is given by
connected across an ac supply of 100 V
(rms). The magnitude and phase angle
(with reference to supply voltage) of the
voltage across the inductive coil are
respectively
a. 100 V; 90°
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L R b. 1 and 4 are correct
s2 + s + 1 c. 2 and 3 are correct
a. C LC
1 d. 2 and 4 are correct
s+ 42. The circuit shown in the given figure is in
LC
L + R1 R2C R1 + R2 steady-state with, switch ‘S’ open. The
s2 + s + switch is closed at t = 0. The values of
Vc ( 0+ ) and Vc ( ∞ ) will be respectively
R2 LC R2 LC
b. L
1
s+
R2C
L + C R1
s2 + s +
R1 R2 LC
c. L
1 a. 2 V, 0 V
s+
R1C b. 0V,2V
L + R2C R1 + R2 c. 2V,2V
s2 + s + d. 0V,0V
R1 LC R1 LC
d. 43. After closing the switch ‘S’ at t = 0, the
1
s+ current i(t) at any instant ‘t’ in the network
R1C shown in the given figure will be
40. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true of the circuit shown in the given
figure?
a. 10 + 10e100t
1. It is a first order circuit with steady-
b. 10 − 10e100t
5 5
state values of V = V , I = A c. 10 + 10e−100t
3 3
2. It is a second order circuit with steady d. 10 − 10e−100t
state values of V = 1 V; I =1 A 44. The pole-zero configuration of a network
3. The network function V(s) /I(s) has transfer function is shown in the given
one pole. figure. The magnitude of the transfer
4. The network function V (s) /I(s) has function will
two poles.
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 alone a. Decrease with frequency
d. 1 alone b. Increase with frequency
41. In addition to the condition that Y (s) is c. Initially increase and then decrease
real when ‘s’ is real, for an admittance with frequency
function Y (s) to be positive real, which of d. Be independent of frequency
the following conditions are to be 45. Consider the following statements:
satisfied? 1. The two-port network shown below
1. Re Y ( s ) ≤ 0 for Re s ≥ 0 does NOT have an impedance matrix
representation.
2. Re Y ( s ) ≥ 0 for Re s ≥ 0
3. | Arg Y ( s ) |≤| Arg s | for | Arg s |≤ π / 2
4. | Arg Y ( s ) |≥| Arg s | for | Arg s |≤ π / 2 2. The following two-port network does
Select the correct answer using the codes NOT have an admittance matrix
given below: representation
a. 1 and 3 are correct
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a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
3. A two-port network is said to be d. 1,2 and 3
reciprocal if it satisfies z12 = z21 49. Match List-I with List-II and select the
Of these statements correct answer:
a. 1 and 2 are correct List I (Function)
b. 1, 2 and 3 are correct A. Unit tamp
c. 1 and 3 are correct B. Unit step
d. None is correct C. Unit impulse
46. Match List - I with List - II for the two- D. Unit doublet
port network shown in the given figure and List II (Laplace transform)
select the correct answer. 1. s
List I 2. 1
A. Z11 3. 1/s
B. Z12 4. 1/s2
C. Z21 A B C D
D. Z22 a. 4 3 2 1
List II b. 3 4 1 2
1. R c. 4 3 1 2
2. R+L d. 3 4 2 1
3. R-Ls 50. A system is represented by
4. R+Ls dy
+ 2 y = 4tu ( t )
dt
The ramp component in the forced
response will be
a. Tu (t)
b. 2t u(t)
A B C D c. 3t u(t)
a. 1 2 1 4 d. 4t u(t)
b. 2 1 1 3 51. The Laplace transform of the function i (t)
c. 1 1 1 4 10 s + 4
is: I ( s ) = its final
s ( s + 1) ( s 2 + 4s + 5 )
d. 2 1 3 4
I : Any function in ‘s’ which can be value will be
expressed as a ratio of any two arbitrary a. 4/5
polynomials in ‘scan be realized s a b. 5/4
driving- point function of a passive c. 4
network. d. 5
II: Any function in ‘s’ which can be 52. If the unit step response of a network is
expressed as a ratio of two arbitrary (1 − e−α t ) , then its unit impulse response
polynomials in ‘s’, is a positive ,real
will be
function.
Of these statements a. α e−α t
a. both I and II are true b. α e− t /α
b. I is true but 11 is false 1 −α t
c. e
c. both I and II are false α
d. I is false but II is true d. (1 − α ) e−α t
48. Consider the following polynomials:
53. In the network shown in the given figure,
1. s 4 + 7 s 3 + 17 s 2 + 17 s + 6 if the voltage v at the time considered is 20
2. s 4 + 11s 3 + 41s 2 + 61s + 30 V, then dv/dt at that time will be
3. s 4 + s 3 + 2 s 2 + 3s + 2
Among these polynomials, those which are
Hurwitz would include
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have magnitude equal to 0.707 at an
angular frequency of
a. 1 V/s
b. 2 V/s a. zero
c. -2 V/s b. RC rad/s
d. zero c. 1/RC rad/s
54. Which one of the following pairs of poles d. 1 rad/s
and responses is correctly matched? 58. The phase angle of the current ‘I’ with
Poles Response respect to the voltage V1 in the circuit
a. shown in the figure is:
b.
a. 0°
b. +45°
c. – 45°
c. d. – 90°
59. A second order system is given by
d2y dy
+ 12 + 100 y = 0
dt 2 dt
The damped natural frequency in rad/sec is
d.
a. 100
b. 10
c. 44
d. 8
60. An alternator is delivering power to a
55. The impulse response of an R-L circuit is a balanced load at unity power factor. The
a. Rising exponential function phase angle between the line voltage and
b. Decaying exponential function the line current is
c. Step function a. 90°
d. Parabolic function b. 60°
56. A pulse of unit amplitude and width ‘a’ is c. 30°
applied to a series RL circuit as shown in d. 0°
the figure. The current i (t) as ‘t’ tends to 61. Eoa EOb and Eoc are three phase voltages
infinity will be while Eab , Ebc and Eca are the line voltage
of a balanced three-phase system having a-
b-c phase sequence. In relation to Eoc Ebc
would
a. Lag by 30°
b. Lead by 30°
c. Have the same phase
a. Zero
d. Have no definite phase relationship
b. 1 A
62. For loop 1 of the network shown in the
c. A value between zero and one
given figure, the correct loop equation is:
depending upon the width of the pulse
d. Infinite
57. The sinusoidal steady-state voltage gain of
the network shown in the given figure will
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1. Linearity is more important than
sensitivity
2. High precision indicates high accuracy.
3. Accuracy cannot be better than
resolution.
Of these statements
d a. 1, 2, and 3 are correct
v ( t ) = Ri1 ( t ) + L1 ⎡i1 ( t ) − i2 ( t ) ⎤⎦
dt ⎣ b. 1, and 2 are correct
a. c. 2 and 3 are correct
di2
− M 12 (t ) d. 1 and 3 are correct
dt 66. What voltage would a voltmeter with
d
v ( t ) = Ri1 ( t ) + L1 ⎣⎡i1 ( t ) − i2 ( t ) ⎦⎤ impedance 20,000 Ω and range 0–1V
dt show in the circuit given below?
b.
di2 di
− M 12 ( t ) − M 23 2 ( t )
dt dt
d ⎡ di
L1 ⎢i2 ( t ) − i1 ( t ) + ( L2 + L3 ) 2 ( t )
dt ⎣ dt
c.
di di
= 2 ( M 12 + M 23 ) 2 ( t ) − M 12 2 ( t ) a. 82 mV
dt dt b. 100 mV
d ⎡ di
L1 ⎢i2 ( t ) − i1 ( t ) + ( L2 + L3 ) 2 ( t )
c. 118 mV
dt ⎣ dt d. 5V
d. 67. Match List-I with List-II and select the
⎛ di di
= ⎜ M 12 1 ( t ) − 2 ( M 12 + M 23 ) 1 ( t ) correct answer:
⎝ dt dt List I
63. Consider the following statements: A. Cesium
In the circuit shown in the figure, if the B. Manganin
equivalent impedance between x-x is Zeq C. Standard voltage
then D. IEEE 488
List II
1. Standard resistance
2. Atomic clock
3. Instrument interface
4. Josephson Junction
1. Z eq = 2 + j 5 A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
2. Z eq = 2 + j 3 b. 2 1 4 3
3. I1 = − I 2 c. 1 2 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
4. I1 = I 2
68. The limiting errors of measurement of
Of these statements power consumed by and the current
a. 1 alone is true passing through a resistance are ± 1.5%
b. 2 and 4 are correct and ± 1% respectively: The limiting error
c. 2 and 3 are correct of measurement of resistance will then be
d. 1 and 4 are correct a. ± 0.5%
64. The residues at the pole of Y (s). of an R– b. ± 1.0%
C network are c. ± 2.5%
a. Real and negative d. ± 3.5%
b. Real and positive 69. Horizontal deflection in a CRO is due to E
c. Complex with positive real part sin ωt while vertical deflection is due to E
sin (ωt + θ ) with a positive θ . Consider the
d. Complex with negative real part
In a measuring instrument, following patterns obtained in the CRO.
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c. 180°
d. 183°
74. Modem electronic multimeters measure
resistance by
a. Using a bridge circuit
b. Using an electronic bridge
compensator for nulling
The correct sequence of these patterns in c. Forcing a constant current and
increasing order of the value of θ is: measuring the voltage across the
a. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 unknown resistor
b. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 d. Applying a constant voltage and
c. 2, 3,5, 1,4 measuring the current through the
d. 2,3,5,4, 1 unknown resistor
70. Which of the following until axe present in 75. In the case of power measurement by two-
a spectrum analyzer? wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase
1. Mixer. system with a pure inductive load,
2. Saw-tooth generator. a. Both the watt meters will indicate the
3. Local oscillator. same value but of opposite sign
Select the correct answer using the codes b. Both the watt meters will indicate zero
given below: c. Both the watt meters will indicate the
a. 1, 2 and 3 same value and of the same sign
b. 1 and 2 d. One wattmeter will indicate zero and
c. 1 and 3 the other will indicate some non-zero
d. 2 and 3 value
71. For the voltmeter circuit shown in the 76. Many modem capacitance meters measure
given figure, the basic D’ Arsonval meter capacitance by making the unknown
used has full-scale current of 1 mA and capacity an element in a charge amplifier.
meter resistance (Rm ) of 100 ohms. The A schematic f the same is given below. If
values of the series resistance R1 and R2 the maximum permissible output voltage is
required for 10V range and 50 V range limited to 1Vpeak’ due to slew rate
will be respectively constrainst, then the maximum Cx, with be
a. 10 pF
a. 9.9kΩ and 40 kΩ b. 100 pF
b. 10 kΩ and 50 kΩ c. 1000 pF
c. 20 kΩ and 30 kΩ d. 10 nF
d. 200 kΩ and 250 kΩ 77. A 230 V, 10 A, single-phase energy meter
72. Electronic voltmeter provides ore accurate makes 90 revolutions in 3 minutes at half
readings in high resistance circuits as load rated voltage and unity pf. if the
compared to a non-electronic voltmeter meter constant is 1800 revolution, kWh,
because of Its then its error at half load will be
a. High V/ohm ratings a. 13.04% slow
b. High ohm/ratings b. 13.04% fast
c. High meter resistance c. 15% slow
d. Low resolution d. 15% fast
73. A current transformer has a phase error of 78. A strain gauge bridge measures the strain
+ 30.The phase angle between the primary in a cantilever where the gauge is fixed.
and secondary currents is With strain ∈ , the gauge resistance
a. 30° increases from 110Ω to 110.520Ω. If the
b. 177°
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gauge factor is 2.03, then the strain in the List I
cantilever will be A. Low pass filter
a. 2.06 ×10−3 B. High pass filter
b. 3.15 ×10−3 C. Band pass filter
D. Band reject filter
c. 3.81×10−3
List II
d. 4.33 ×10−3 Ts
79. Consider the following statements: 1.
The causes of error in the measurement of 1 + Ts
temperature using a thermistor are 1
2.
1. Self heating ⎛ 1 ⎞
1 + ⎜ Ts + ⎟
2. Poor sensitivity. ⎝ Ts ⎠
3. Non-linear characteristics. 1
Of these statements Ts +
3. Ts
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
⎛ 1 ⎞
b. 1 and 2 are correct 1 + ⎜ Ts + ⎟
c. 2 and 3 are correct ⎝ Ts ⎠
d. 1 and 3 are correct 1
4.
80. A piezoelectric transducer has the 1 + Ts
following parameter values: A B C D
Crystal capacitance = 10-9 F a. 1 4 3 2
Cable capacitance = 2×10-10 F b. 4 1 2 3
Charge sensitivity = 4×10-6 Coulomb/cm. c. 1 4 2 3
If the oscilloscope used for read-out has an d. 4 1 3 2
input resistance of 1 MΩ in parallel with 84. Data buffering means
C = 4 × 10-10 F, then the voltage sensitivity a. A buffer stock of data already stored in
constant will be a computer unit
a. 2500 V/cm b. An electronic circuit which is used to
b. 3334 V/cm maintain the level of data
c. 4000 V/cm c. That data are first collected in an
d. 4500 V/cm external, unit and then processed into
81. For a thermocouple pair (A,B), the the computer
extension wires (C,P) d. Application of buffer (unity gain
a. Should be identical pair elements amplifier) at input interface to the
b. Should ‘have identical temperature - computer
emf relationship 85. A circuit draws a current T’. When a
c. Can be of any tewo dissimilar single-phase ac voltage V is applied to it.
materials If the power factor is cos φ then the
d. Should have very small temperature - dimensions of VI cos φ would be
emf sensitivity a. ML3T2
82. A 7- bit successive approximation DVM b. ML2T3
will convert the analog input into digital c. ML3T3
output in a period of d. ML2T-3
a. 7 clock pulses 86. Given: KKt = 99 ; s = j1 rad/s, the
b. 8 clock pulses sensitivity of the closed-loop, system
c. (shown in the given figure) to variation in
input signal amplitude parameter K is approximately
× 7 clock pulses
full-scale output amplitude
input signal amplitude

d. × 8 clock pulses
full-scale output amplitude
a. 0.01
83. Match List-I with List-Il. and select the b. 0.1.
correct answer: c. 1.0
12 of 16
d. 10
87. The transfer function C/R of the system
shown in the figure is:
89. A unity feedback second order control

system is characterized by
K
a.
G1G2 H 2 G (s) =
H1 (1 + G1G2 H 2 ) s ( Js + B )
G1 H 2 where J = moment of inertia, K= system
b.
H1 (1 + G1G2 H 2 ) gain B viscous damping coefficient. The
transient response specification which is
G1 H 2 NOT affected by variation of system gain
c.
H1 (1 + G1G2 H1 ) is the
G1 H1 a. Peak overshoot
d.
H 2 (1 + G1G2 H 2 )
b. Rise time
c. Settling time
88. The Nyquist plot for a control system is d. Damped frequency of oscillations
shown in Figure I. The Bode plot for the 90. The root-locus plot for an uncompensated
same system will be as in unstable system is shown in the given
figure. The system is to be compensated
by a compensating zero, .The most
desirable location of the compensating
zero would be the point marked.
a.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D.
b. 91. The open-loop transfer function of a unity
feedback control system is
30
G (s) H (s) =
s ( s + 1)( s + T )
where T is a variable parameter. The
closed-loop system will be stable for all
c. values of
a. T > 0
b. 0 < T < 3
c. T > 5
d. 3 < T < 5
92. The Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer
function G (s) H(s) is shown in the given
d.
figure. It indicates that
13 of 16
⎡ 0 1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
b. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎢ 0 0 0 1 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎣ −3 −5 −6 −7 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
⎡ 0 1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤
⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
a. The open-loop system is unstable but c. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
the closed-loop system is stable ⎢ 0 0 0 1 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
b. Both open-loop and closed-loop ⎣ −5 −7 −6 −3⎦ ⎣0 ⎦
systems are unstable ⎡ 1 0 0 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
c. Open-loop system is stable but closed- ⎢ 0 0 0 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
loop system is unstable d. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
d. Both open-loop and closed-loop ⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
systems are stable ⎣ −3 −6 −7 −5⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
93. In the control system shown in the given 96. A liner system is described by the state
figure, the controller which can give zero equations
steady-state error to a ramp input. with K
⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡1 0 ⎤ ⎡ x1 ⎤ ⎡ 0 ⎤
⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ r C = x2
= 9 is
⎣ x2 ⎦ ⎣1 1 ⎦ ⎣ x2 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
where r and c are the input and output
reactively. The transfer function is:
a. 1/ (s+1)
b. 1/(5+1)2
a. Proportional type c. 1/ (s-1)
b. Integral type d. 1/ (s-1)2
c. Derivative type 97. The state equation of a dynamic system is
given by X ( t ) = AX ( t )
d. Proportional plus derivative type
94. The garn cross-over frequency and band-
width of a control system are ωcu and ωbu ⎡ −1 1 0 0 0 ⎤
⎢ 0 −1 1 0 0 ⎥
respectively. A phase-lag network is ⎢ ⎥
employed for compensating the system. If A = ⎢ 0 0 −1 0 0 ⎥
the gain cross-over frequency and ⎢ ⎥
bandwidth of the compensated system ⎢ 0 0 −6 −3 4 ⎥
⎢⎣ 0 0 0 −4 −3⎥⎦
are ωcc and ωbc respectively, then
a. ωcc < ωcu ; ωbc < ωbu The eigenvalues of the system would be
a. Real non-repeated only
b. ωcc > ωcu ; ωbc < ωbu b. Real non-repeated and complex
c. ωcc < ωcu ; ωbc > ωbu c. Real repeated
d. ωcc > ωcu ; ωbc > ωbu d. Real repeated and complex
98. A simple electric water heater is shown in
95. The transfer function of a certain system is
the given figure. The system can be
Y (s) 1
= 4 modelled by
U ( s ) s + 5s + 7 s 2 + 6 s + 3
3
The A, B matrix pair of the equivalent

state-space model will be
⎡ 0 1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
⎢ 0 0 1 0 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥
a. ⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎢ 0 0 0 1 ⎥ ⎢0 ⎥ a. A first order differential equation
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎣ −3 −6 −7 −5⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
b. A second order differential equation
c. A third order differential equation
d. An algebraic equation
14 of 16
99. Match List-I with List-Il and select the 102. Which of the following statements
correct answer regarding an ac servo system employing a
List I (Properties of frictional force) synchro error detector are correct?
A. 1. Sensitivity of the error detector is
measured in volts/degree.
2. The transfer function of the synchro
E
error detector is where E =
θ r − θc
error voltage, θ r and θ c are reference
B. and controlled shaft positions.
3. Sensitivity of the error detector has the
same sign at the two null positions.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
C. c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
103. Four speed-torque curves (labelled I, II, III
and IV) are shown in the given figure.
That of an ac servomotor will be as in the
curve labelled
List II (Frictional force)
1. Coulomb friction
2. Viscous friction
3. Static friction
A B C
a. 1 2 3 a. I
b. 2 1 3 b. II
c. 3 2 1 c. III
d. 2 3 1 d. IV
100. Laplace transform of the output response 104. A non-linear control system is described
of a liner system is the system transfer
d 2x
function when the input is by the equation 2 + sin x = 0
a. A step signal dt
b. A ramp signal dx
The type of singularity at x = π and =
c. An impulse signal dt
d. A sinusoidal signal 0 is:
101. Match List-I with list-II and select the a. Centre
correct answer: b. Stable focus
List I c. Saddle point
A. Hydraulic actuator d. Stable node
B. Flapper valve 105. Which one of the following pairs of phase-
C. Potentiometer error detector plane diagram and types of singularities is
D. Dumb-bell rotor NOT correctly matched?
List II Phase-plane diagram Singularity
1. Linear device a.
2. A.C. servo systems
3. Large power to weight ratio
4. Pneumatic systems
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 4 1 2 b.
d. 4 3 1 2
15 of 16
Reason R: In these semiconductors, the
mobility of holes is greater than that of
electrons.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
c.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
110. Assertion A: Intrinsic germanium does
not show n-type behavior.
Reason R: In intrinsic germanium, the
d.
number of electrons is less than the
number of holes.
106. Consider the following state equations for c. A is true but R is false
a discrete system: d. A is false but R is true
⎡ 1 ⎤ 111. Assertion A: Quartz crystal is preferred
−
⎡ x1 ( k + 1) ⎤ ⎢ 2 ⎡ x1 ( k ) ⎤ ⎡1⎤
0 ⎥
over Rochelle salt crystal for commercial
⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥ + ⎢ ⎥ u (k )
⎣ x2 ( k + 1) ⎦ ⎢ − 1 − 1 ⎥ ⎣ x2 ( k ) ⎦ ⎣1⎦
piezoelectric applications.
Reason R: Rochelle salt is mechanically
⎣⎢ 4 4 ⎦⎥
weaker.
⎡ x ( k )⎤
y ( k ) = [1 − 1] ⎢ 1 ⎥ − 4u ( k )
⎣ x2 ( k ) ⎦ correct explanation of A
The system given above is
a. Controllable and observable
b. Uncontrollable and unobservable
c. Uncontrollable and observable
d. Controllable and unobservable 112. A voltmeter with a resistance of 10 kΩ is
107. Which one of the following systems is connected with two other 10kΩ resistors
open-loop? across a 200 V 3 - phase mains, as shown
a. The respiratory system of man in the figure:
b. A system for controlling the movement
of the slide of a copying milling
machine
c. A thermostatic control
d. Traffic light control
108. Assertion A: In general, circulation of the
magnetic field intensity is zero. Assertion A: The voltmeter reading will
Reason R: Vector source of circulation is be 115 V.
the current density. Reason R: The connections are similar to
a. Both A and R are true and R is the Scott connection.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true c. A is true but R is false
109. Assertion A: In some semiconductors, the d. A is false but R is true
Hall coefficient is positive. 113. Assertion A: The bridge shown in the
figure is balanced by first adjusting R1 for
inductive balance and then adjusting R3 for
16 of 16
resistive balance; and this is repeated till c. A is true but R is false
balance is achieved. d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion A: Section AB on the negative
real axis in the given figure lies on the
root-locus.
Reason R: For medium-Q coils, the

resistance effect is not pronounced and
balance ia reached after a few adjustments. Reason R: All the points in between A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the and B have two poles to the right of the
correct explanation of A points.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
d. A is false but R is true correct explanation of A
114. Assertion A: Electrometers are used at the c. A is true but R is false
output stage of electrode pH meters. d. A is false but R is true
Reason R: In electrode type pH meters, 118. Assertion A: Feedback control systems
the potential is measured using reference are often compensated by phase
and measuring electrodes. lead/phase-lag networks
a. Both A and R are true and R is the Reason R: Phase-lead/phase-lag networks
correct explanation of A are easily realizable and obtainable.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
115. Assertion A: The frequency response c. A is true but R is false
shown in the given figure is that of a d. A is false but R is true
vibration galvanometer. 119. Assertion A: A discrete data system
having the characteristic equation
Z − 1.5Z − 1 = 0 is unstable.
2
Reason R: The negative coefficients of

the characteristic equation in the z-plane
Reason R: A vibration galvanometer is represent an unstable discrete system.
the most suitable detector in ac a. Both A and R are true and R is the
potentiometer method of measurement. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 120. Assertion A: A dipole placed in a uniform
d. A is false but R is true field experiences a torque tending to align
1 the dipole axis with the field.
116. Assertion A: The solution of 3 digit Reason R: A dipole placed in a uniform
2
voltmeter is 0.001. field does not experience a translational
1 force.
Reason R: Addition of digit to a digital a. Both A and R are true and R is the
2 correct explanation of A
voltmeter increases the range of the meter. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1998 1 of 15
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements : pQ
b.
In electrostatics, the Equipotential surface 4π ∈0 D
is defined as the surface where
c. zero
1. electric field intensity is normal
d. dependent on the charge density
everywhere.
distribution on the conductor and will
2. electric field intensity is tangential not have a closed-form expression.
everywhere.
4. Two point charges (Q1 = Q, Q2 = 2Q) and
3. no work is done in moving a charge an infinite grounded plane are shown in
over it. the figure. The forces F1 and F2, on Q1 and
4. no charge is present. Q2, will be in the ratio
Of these statements
a. 1 alone is correct
b. 3 and 4 are correct
c. 1 and 3 are correct
2. A capacitor is made up of two concentric
spherical shells. The radii of the inner and a. 1 : 1
outer shells are R1 and R2 respectively and b. 1 : 2
∈ is the permittivity of the medium c. 1 : 4
between the shells. The capacitance of the d. 1 : 8
capacitor is given by 5. Two rectangular loops and an infinite wire,
1 ⎛1 1 ⎞ all carrying current ‘I’ are shown in the
a. ⎜ − ⎟
4π ∈ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ given figure. If the force on loop I due to
the infinite wire were ‘F’, then the force on
1 ⎛1 1 ⎞ loop 2 due to the infinite wire would be
b. ⎜ + ⎟
4π ∈ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠
RR
c. 4π ∈ 1 2
R1 − R2
RR
d. 4π ∈ 1 2
R1 − R2
3. A charge + q is placed at the centre of a a. F/3
spherical cavity in a grounded conduting b. F/2
sphere as shown in the figure. Another c. F
charge +Q is placed outside on the line 3
d. F
joining O and O’. The force acting on the 2
charge + q will be 6. An infinite number of concentric circular
loops carry a current ‘I’ each hut
alternately in opposite directions. The radii
of the loops are R, 2R, 4R………. in
geometric progression. The magnetic flux
density at the centre of the loops will be
pQ a. Zero
a.
4π ∈0 ( D + d ) μ0 I
b.
3R
2 of 15
μ0 I ∂B
c. a. e = − ∫ ds
4R ∂t
d.
μ0 I
6R
( )
b. e = −φc V × B .d I
7. For a current element IdI. situated at an c. e = −φ ( B × V ) .d I

c
arbitrary point, the magnetic vector
∂B
potential A equals (R is the distance, of the d. e = −∫ d s + φ (V − B ) d I
∂t
c
observation point from the centre of the
current clement) 12. An infinite dielectric slab is uniformly
a. μ IdI / (4π R) polarized as shown in the figure. The
electric field inside the slab given by
b. μ IdI / (4π R 2 )
c. μ IdI / (4π R )
d. μ IdI / (2π R)
8. Tangential component of the electric field
on a perfect conductor will be
a. infinite 2P
a. n
b. zero ∈0
c. same as the normal field component
and 90° out of phase b.
2P
∈0
{ }
−n
d. same as the normal component but
9.
1800 out of phase
The force f per unit area On the surface of
c.
P
∈0
()
n
conductor, with surface charge density σ.
in the presence of an electric field is (an is d.
P
∈0
( )
−n
unit outward normal to the conductor
surface) 13. Match List-I with List-Il and select the
σ2 correct answer using the codes given
a. f = a0 below the lists :
2 ∈0
List-I
σ2 A. ∇.D = ρ
b. f = a0
∈0 ∂ρ
B. ∇.J =
c. f =∈0 σ 2 a 0 ∂t
d. f = 0 C. ∇ × H = jc
10. Two conducting shells of radii r1 and r, (r1 ∂B
> r2), each with a charge ‘Q’ are placed far D. ∇ × E =
∂t
apart in uniform external electric field. The
List-II
space surrounding each shell is filled with
1. Ampere’s Law
the same dielectric material. In this
situation, the 2. Gauss’s Law
a. shells will not experience any force 3. Faraday’s Law
b. shells will experience identical force 4. Continuity equation
c. shell with radius r1 will experience a A B C D
greater force a. 4 2 1 3
d. shell with radius r2 will experience a b. 2 4 1 3
greater force c. 4 2 3 1
11. When a closed conducting loop ‘C’ is d. 2 4 3 1
moving with a constant velocity ‘V’ 14. Which of the following pairs of parameters
through a non-uniform time-varying and expressions is/are correctly matched?
magnetic field ‘B’, the voltage induced in E
the loop is given by 1. Characteristic impedance….. ∈r
H
3 of 15
2. Power flow density ……… ∇ × H 2. electrical energy into mechanical
3. Displacement current in non- energy.
conducting medium ……. E × H 3. mechanical energy into chemical
energy.
given below: 4. chemical energy into mechanical
energy.
a. 1 alone
Of these statements
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 2
c. 1 alone is correct
15. If the electric field E = 0 . 1 te–t ax and ∈ d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
= 4 ∈0 , then the displacement current 20. Which one of the following classes of
crossing an area of 0.1 m2 at t = 0 will be materials can be categorised as ferrites?
a. zero a. Plastics
b. 0.04 ∈0 b. Metals
c. 0.4 ∈0 c. Alloys
d. 4 ∈0 d. Ceramics
16. The directivity of an isotropic antenna is 21. Consider the following in relation to the
a. zero orbital motion of an electron :
b. less than unity 1. State of energy level
c. unity 2. Orbital angular momentum
d. infinity 3. Angle between the applied magnetic
17. Consider the following statements: field and angular momentum.
For a uniform plane electromagnetic wave The quantum numbers, I, m and n of an
1. the direction of energy flow is the electron in orbit represent respectively
same as the direction of propagation of a. 1, 2 and 3
the wave. V b. 2, 3 and 1
2. electric and magnetic fields in time c. 3, 2 and 1
quadrature. d. 3, 1 and 2
3. electric and magnetic fields are in 22. The correct sequence of increasing order
space quadrature. of electrical resistivity of the given
Of these statements materials is
a. 2 alone is correct a. Diamond, doped germanium, silicon,
b. 1 and 3 are correct gold
c. 1 and 2 are correct b. Gold, silicon, doped germanium,
d. 3 alone is correct diamond
18. For an air dielectric transmission line. It is c. Gold, doped germanium, silicon,
found that as the frequency is varied from diamond
50 MHz upward, the current reaches a d. Gold, diamond, silicon, doped
minimum at 50-01 MHz and then a germanium
maximum at 50.04 MHz the distance of 23. Fermi level is the
the location of the short-circuit from the a. highest occupied energy level at zero
generator will then be kelvin
a. 10 km b. highest occupied energy level at 0°C
b. 2.5V km c. energy level at which electron
c. 1 km emission occurs
d. not determinable from the given data d. minimum energy level in the
19. Consider the following statements: conduction band
Piezoelectric materials are useful for 24. Which one of the following statements is
converting correct?
1. mechanical energy into electrical a. The absence of a hysteresis loop in plot
energy. Of polarization against field is proof of
4 of 15
the absence of spontaneous d. 2 and 3 are correct
polarization 29. Which one of the following is a realistic
b. The Curie temperature of a representation of an equivalent circuit of a
ferroelectric is the temperature above condenser containing a lossy dielectric?
which its spontaneous polarization
disappears
c. the curie temperature of a ferroelectric a.
is the temperature below which its
spontaneous. polarization disappears
d. Barium titanate is a ferroelectric b.
because its lattice strains
spontaneously above the Curie
temperature c.
25. The first critical condition a which free
electrons are diffracted in an FCC crystal d.
would occur at which one of the following 30. The spins in a ferrimagnetic material are
values of the wave number ‘K’/(‘a’ is a. all aligned parallel
lattice parameter) b. partially aligned antiparallel without
2 exactly canceling out sub-lattice
a.
a magnetism
πa c. randomly oriented
b.
3 d. all aligned antiparallel such that the
π sub-lattice magnetism cancels out
c. exactly
a 31. Consider the following functions:
3π 1. To mask against diffusion or ion
d.
a implant.
26. When the time period, of the applied 2. To act as a component in MOS
voltage is much shorter than the relaxation devices.
time of a polarization process, the loss 3. To provide low resistivity paths.
angle is 4. To facilitate the entry of dopants
a. zero The functions of an oxide layer on a
b. between 00 and 90°. silicon wafer would include
c. 90° a. 1 and 2
d. greater than 90° b. 2 and 3
27. A ferromagnetic material exhibits different c. 3 and 4
characteristics above and below the d. 1 and 4
a. Joule’s temperature 32. Match List-I (Application) with List-II
b. Faraday temperature (Semiconductor) and select the correct
c. Curie temperature answer using the codes given below the
d. Neel temperature lists :
28. Consider the following statements : List-I
If the temperature is increases the A. Light emitting diode
resistivity of a metal increases because of B. Gunn diode
1. decrease in carrier concentration C. Thyristor
2. an increase in the extent of scattering D. Infra-red detector
of carriers. List-II
3. increase in density of impurity. 1. Si
Of these statements 2. Gap
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 3. InSb
b. 2 alone is correct 4. GaAs
c. 1 alone is correct A B C D
5 of 15
a. 2 4 3 1 c. 6A
b. 4 2 3 1 d. 7A
c. 4 2 1 3 37. A voltage V is applied to an ac circuit
d. 2 4 1 3 resulting in the delivery of a current I .
33. Lithium Niobate is used in Which of the following expressions would
a. SAW devices yield the true power delivered by the
b. LED’s source ?
c. the manufacture of optical fibres 1. Real part of VI *
d. laser diodes
2. Real part of VI
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given V
3. F times the real part of
below the Lists : I
List-I (Malaria) Select the correct answer using the codes
A. Paramagnetic given below:
B. Diamagnetic a. 1 alone
C. Ferromagnetic b. 1 and 3
D. Ferrimagnetic c. 2 and 3
List-II (Magnetic susceptibility) d. 3 alone
1. 10–5 38. Match List-I (Loop concept) with List-II
2. 103 – 105 (Junction concept) and select the correct
3. 10–3 answer using the codes given below the
4. 10–102 Lists:
A B C D List-I
a. 3 1 2 4 A. Mesh
b. 3 4 2 1 B. Outside mesh
c. 1 3 2 4 C. Mesh current
d. 4 1 2 3 D. Number of meshes
35. Which of the following is/are the List-II
equivalent circuits of an iron-cored, valid 1. Number of nodes
at one frequency? 2. Node voltage
3. Reference node
4. Node
1. A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
2.
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
39. In the network shown in the figure, the
3. effective resistance faced by the voltage
Select the correct answer using the codes source is
given below:
a. 1 alone
b. 2 alone
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
36. A 10V battery with an internal resistance a. 4Ω
of 1Ω is connected across a non-linear b. 3Ω
load whose v-i characteristic is given by c. 2Ω
7i = v2 + 2v d. 1Ω
The current delivered by the battery is 40. For the network shown in the figure, if V =
a. 2.5 A V1 and V = 0, then = -5 A and if V = 0,
b. 5A and V1 = 1, then I = 1/2 A. The values of
6 of 15
Isc and R1 of the Norton’s equivalent ⎡ 10 5 ⎤
across AB would he respectively. ⎢ 200 200 ⎥
a. ⎢ ⎥
⎢ 5 10 ⎥
⎢⎣ 200 200 ⎥⎦
⎡ 10 −5 ⎤
a. -5 A and 2Ω ⎢ 200 200 ⎥
b. ⎢ ⎥
b. 10 A and 0.5 Ω ⎢ −5 10 ⎥
c. 5 A and 2 Ω ⎢⎣ 200 200 ⎥⎦
d. 2.5 A and 5 Ω ⎡ 15 −5 ⎤
41. The driving-point impedance of a one-port ⎢ 200 200 ⎥
reactive network is given by c. ⎢ ⎥
⎢ 5 15 ⎥
a.
( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 2 )
⎣⎢ 200 200 ⎦⎥
s ( s 2 + 3)( s 2 + 4 ) ⎡ 15 5 ⎤
b.
( s + 1)( s + 3)
2 2
d. ⎢
⎢ 200 200 ⎥
⎥
s ( s + 2 )( s + 4 )
2 2 ⎢ 5 15 ⎥
⎣⎢ 200 200 ⎦⎥
s ( s + 1)
2
45. The time-constant to the network shown in
c.
( s + 2 )( s + 3)
2 2 the figure is
1
d.
s +1
42. The Thevenin equivalent of a network is as
shown in the given figure. For maximum a. CR
power transfer of the variable and purely b. 2CR
resistive load R1, its resistance should be c. CR/4
d. CR/2
46. For a two-port network to be reciprocal, it
is necessary that
a. Z11 = Z22 and y21 = y12
a. 60 Ω b. Z11 = Z22 and AD - BC = 0
b. 80 Ω c. h21 = -h12 and AD – BC = 0
c. 100 Ω d. y21 = y12 and h21 = - h12
d. infinity 47. Match List-I (Parameters) with List-Il
43. If i (t) = 1/4 (I – e–2t) u (t) where u (t) is a (Units) and select the correct answer using
unit step voltage, then the complex the codes given below the lists:
frequencies associated with i (t) would List-I
include A. h11
a. s = 0 and j2 B. h12
b. s = j2 and s = -j2 C. h22
c. s = -j2 and s = -2 List-II
d. s = 0 and s = -2 1. Dimensionless
44. A ‘T-network is shown in the given figure. 2. Ohms
Its Ysc matrix will (units in siemens) 3. Siemens
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 1 3 2
c. 2 1 3
d. 3 2 1
48. Two two-port networks with transmission
parametersA1, B1, C1, D1, and A2, B2, C2,
7 of 15
D2 respectively are cascaded. The K2 ( s + 2)
transmission parameter matrix of the b.
s+3
cascaded network will be
K2 s
⎡ A B1 ⎤ ⎡ A2 B2 ⎤ c.
s+5
a. ⎢ 1 ⎥+⎢ ⎥
⎣C1 D1 ⎦ ⎣C2 D2 ⎦ K2 s
d.
⎡A B1 ⎤ ⎡ A2 B2 ⎤ s+2
b. ⎢ 1
⎣C1 D1 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣C2 D2 ⎥⎦ 52. For V(s) =
s+2
the initial and final
s ( s + 1)
⎡A A2 B1 B2 ⎤
c. ⎢ 1
D2 ⎥⎦
values of v (t) will be respectively
⎣C1 D2 D1 a. 1 and 1
⎡ ( A A + C1C2 )( A1 B2 + B1 D2 ) ⎤ b. 2 and 2
d. ⎢ 1 2 ⎥
⎣( C1 A2 − C1C2 )( C1C2 − D1 D2 ) ⎦
c. 2 and 1
d. l and 2
49. An initially relaxed RC-series network 53. The net work function
with R = 2MΩ and C = 1μF is switched on
to a 10 V step input. The voltage across F(s) =
( s + 2)
the capacitor after 2 seconds will be ( s + 1)( s + 3)
a. zero represents an
b. 3.68 V a. RC impedance
c. 6.32 V b. RL impedance
d. 10 V c. RC impedance and an RL admittance
50. On eliminating the feedback loop in the d. RC admittance and an RL impedance
system shown in the figure, 54. In the network shown in Fig. 1, if the IF
capacitor had, an initial voltage of 2V,
then which of the following would
represent the s-domain equivalent circuits?
it would lead to a simplification with a
single edge of gain
T12
a.
1 + T22
T22
b.
1 − T12
c. T12
T12
d.
1 − T22 1.
51. For the circuit shown in the given figure. if
the input impedance Z1 at port 1 is given
by 2.
K ( s + 2)
Z1 = 1
s+5
then the input impedance Z2 at port 2 will
be 3.
K 2 ( s + 3) 4.
a. Select the correct answer using the codes
s+5 given below:
a. and 3
8 of 15
b. 1 and 4 a 50 Hz fixed voltage source, draw a
c. 2 and 3 current of 10A. When the terminals of one
d. 2 and 4 of the coils are reversed, the current drawn
55. An initially relaxed 100 mH inductor is is 8A. The coefficient of coupling between
switched ‘ON’ at t = 1 sec. to an ideal 2 A the two coils is
dc current source. The voltage across the a. 1/100
inductor would be b. 1/9
a. zero c. 4/10
b. 0.2 δ (t–1) V d. 8/10
c. 0.2 δ (t–1) V 61. The voltage-ratio transfer function of an
d. 0.2 tu (t–l) V active filter is given by
56. The current through the current coil, of a V2 ( s ) (s 2 + δ )
= 2
wattmeter is given by V1 ( s ) ( s + α s + δ )
i = (1 + 2 sin ω t) A The circuit in questions a
and the voltage across the pressure coil is a. low- pass filter
v = (2 + 3 sin 2 ω t) V b. high-pass filter
The wattmeter will read c. band-pass filter
a. 8.00 W d. band-reject filter
b. 5.05 W 62. Swamping resistance is a resistance which
c. 2.0 W is added to the moving coil of meter to
d. 1.0 W a. reduce the full-scale current
57. In the circuit shown in the figure, vs = cos b. reduce the temperature error
2t, Z 2 = 1 + j. C1 is so chosen that i = 1 c. increase the sensitivity
cos 2t. The value of C1 is d. increase the field strength
63. The dimensional equation of resistance is
a. L2 MT–2 I–2
b. L2 MT–2 I–2
c. L2 M–3 I–2
a. 2 F d. L2 MT–3 I–2
b. 1 F 64. A high frequency ac signal is applied to a
PMMC instrument. If the rms value of the
c. 0.5 F
ac signal is 2 V, then the reading of the
d. 0.25 F
instrument will be
58. An RLC resonant circuit has a resonance
a. zero
frequency of 1.5 HMz and a bandwidth of
b. 2V
10 kHz. If C = 150 pF, then the effective
resistance of the circuit will be c. 2 2V
a. 29.5 Ω d. 4 2V
b. 14.75 Ω 65. The resistance of a shunt for a precision
c. 9.4 Ω grade ammeter can be best measured by
d. 4.7 Ω a. De Sauty bridge
59. A 3-phase, 3 wire supply feeds a load b. Scherring bridge
consisting of three equal resistors c. Maxwell bridge
connected in star. If one of the resistors in d. Kelvin double bridge
open circuited, then the percentage 66. Which one of the following has the highest
reduction in the load will be accuracy?
a. 75 a. Standard resistance
b. 66.66 b. Standard inductance
c. 50 c. Standard capacitance
d. 33.33 d. Standard mutual inductance
60. Two identical coils of negligible 67. In the circuit shown in the figure, is the
resistance, when connected in series across ammeter indicated 1A, and the voltmeter
9 of 15
having an internal resistance of 1 kΩ b. 1 4 2 3
indicated 100 V, then the value of R would c. 3 2 4 1
be d. 3 4 2 1
71. An indicating instrument is more sensitive
if its torque to weight ratio is
a. much larger than unity
b. of the order of unity
a. 111.11 Ω c. much less than unity
b. 105.2 Ω d. made deflection-dependent
c. 100 Ω 72. The X-and Y - inputs of a CRO are
d. 90.9 Ω respectively V sin ωt and -V sin ωt. The
68. The current ‘I’ through a resistance R is resulting Lissajous pattern will be
measured with the following uncertainties a. a straight line
I = 4A ± 0.5 % b. a circle
R= 100 Ω ± 0.2% c. an ellipse
If power is computed from these two d. a figure of eight
measured quantities, the uncertainty in the 73. A current i = (10 + 10 sin t) amperes is
power computed will be passed through an ideal moving iron type
a. ± 0.01% ammeter. Its reading will be
b. ± 0.29 % a. zero
c. ± 0.07 % b. 10 A
d. ± 1.2 % c. 150 A
69. In the balanced Wheatstone bridge shown d. 10 2A
in the figure. If the value of R6 is 74. In a Q-meter, a small resistance R is added
increased, the current I2 to the series resonance circuit to inject the
oscillatory voltage to the circuit. If Rs is
the apparent series resistance of the circuit
at resonance, then the value of the actual Q
will be equal to
1
a. observed Q
a. will increase R
b. will decrease 1+
Rs
c. will remain unchanged
⎛ R⎞
d. may increase of decrease depending b. observed Q ⎜1 + ⎟
upon the values of the other five ⎝ Rs ⎠
resistances 1
70. Match List-I, with List-Il and select the c. Observed Q
R
correct answer using the codes given 1+ s
R
below the Lists :
⎛ Rs ⎞
List-I d. Observed Q ⎜1 + ⎟
A. Low value, of R ⎝ R⎠
B. High- Q inductor 75. In a flux meter, the controlling torque is
C. Low - Q inductor a. produced by weights attached to the
D. High voltage capacitors moving coil
List-II b. produced by springs
1. Scherring bridge c. not provided at all
2. Maxwell bridge d. provided by crossed coil mechanism
3. Kelvin double bridge 76. Dummy strain gauge is used in
4. Hay bridge conjunction with the main strain gauge to
A B C D a. calibrate the system
a. 1 2 4 3 b. compensate temperature effects.
c. improve sensitivity
10 of 15
d. reduce strain on the main gauge 3. Time interval between two pulses.
77. In a two-wattmeter method of measuring 4. Pulse width.
power, one of the wattmeters is reading Select the correct answer using the codes
zero watts. The power factor of the circuit given below:
is a. 1, 3 and 4
a. Zero b. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 c. 2 and 4
c. 0.5 d. 1 and 2
d. 0.8 83. The bandwidth requirement of an FM
78. Hall effect device can be used to telemetry channel is
a. multiply two signals a. equal to that of an AM telemetry
b. divide one signal by another on .an channel
instantaneous basis b. smaller than that of an Am telemetry
c. add two signals channel
d. subtract one signal from another c. about 100 times that of an AM
79. Match List-I (Transducer) with List-II telemetry channel
(Input/Output variables) and select the d. about ten time that of an AM telemetry
correct answer using the codes given channel
below the Lists: 84. The recording head in a magnetic tape
List-I responds to
A. Electrodynamic generator a. electrical signal and creates a magnetic
B. Venturimeter signal
C. Pirani gauge b. thermal signal and creates a magnetic
D. Spring balance signal
List-II c. magnetic signal and creates an
1. Gas pressure to resistance change electrical signal
2. Force to displacement d. thermal signal and creates an electrical
3. Motion to voltage signal
4. Flow rate to pressure 85. When the signal flow graph is as shown in
A B C D the figure, the overall transfer function of
a. 2 1 4 3 the system will be
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
C
80. Doppler shift principle is used in the a. =G
measurement of R
C G
a. temperature b. =
b. frequency R 1+ H2
c. speed C G
c. =
d. pressure R (1 + H 2 )(1 + H 2 )
81. In distortion factor meter, the filter is used
C G
to suppress d. =
a. dc component R 1+ H2 + H2
b. odd harmonics 86. The block diagram shown in Fig. 1 is
c. even harmonics equivalent to
d. fundamentals
82. Which of the following measurements can
be made with the help of a frequency
counter?
1. Fundamental frequency of input signal.
2. Frequency components of the input a.
signal at least upto third harmonic.
11 of 15
00
∫ x (t ) e
− jwt
C. dt
00
b. 00
D. ∫ δ ( t )dt
00
List-II
c.
1. Step function
2. Convolution integral
3. Fourier transform
d.
87. The transfer function of a system is given 4. Laplace transform
by A B C D
K 1 a. 1 3 4 2
C ( jω ) = ,K < b. 1 4 3 2
( jω )( jωT + 1) T
c. 2 3 4 1
Which one of the following is the Bode d. 2 4 3 1
plot of this function? 89. The magnitude-frequency response of a
control system is shown in the figure. The
value of ω1 and ω2 are respectively
a.
b. a. 10 and 200
b. 20 and 200
c. 20 and 400
d. 100 and 400
90. A liner second-order system with the
transfer function
49
c. G(s) = 2
s + 16 s + 49
is initially at rest and is subjected to a step
input signal. The response of the system
will exhibit a peak overshoot of
a. 16 %
b. 9 %
d. c. 2 %
88. Match List-I (Mathematical expression) d. zero
with List-II (Nomenclature) and select the 91. A system has the following transfer
correct answer using the codes given function :
below the Lists : 100( s + 5)( s + 50)
List-I G(s) = 4
s ( s + 10)( s 2 + 3s + 10)
00
A. ∫ h ( t − τ ) x (τ )dτ
00
The type and order of the system are
respectively
00 a. 4 and 9
∫ x (t ) e
− st
B. dt b. 4 and 7
00
c. 5 and 7
d. 7 and 5
12 of 15
92. The open-loop transfer function of a unity- K
GH =
feedback control system is: s ( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3)
K ( s + 10)( s + 20)
G(s) = Which of the following statements
s 2 ( s + 2) regarding the conditions of the system root
The closed-loop system will be stable if loci diagram is/are correct?
the value of K is 1. There will be four asymptotes.
a. 2 2. There will be three separate root loci.
b. 3 3. Asymptotes will intersect at real axis at
c. 4 σA = –2/3
d. 5 Select the correct answer using the codes
93. Match List-I (Plot/diagram/chart) with given below:
List-II (Characteristic) and select the a. 1 alone
correct answer using the codes given b. 2 alone
below the lists : c. 3 alone
List-I d. 1, 2 and 3
A. Constant M loci 96. The value of A matrix in X = AX for the
B. Constant N loci system described by the differential
C. Nichol’s chart equation y + 2y + 3y = 0 is
D. Nyquist plot ⎡1 0⎤
List-II a. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −2 −1⎦
1. Constant gain and phase shift loci of
the closed- loop system. ⎡1 0⎤
b. ⎢ ⎥
2. Plot of loop gain with variation of ω ⎣ −1 −2 ⎦
3. Circles of constant gain for closed loop ⎡0 1⎤
transfer function c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −2 −1⎦
4. Circles of constant phase shift of
closed - loop transfer function ⎡0 1⎤
d. ⎢ ⎥
A B C D ⎣ −3 −2⎦
a. 3 4 2 1 97. The minimum number of states necessary
b. 3 4 1 2 to describe the network shown in the
c. 4 3 2 1 figure in a state variable form is
d. 4 3 1 2
94. The state and output equations of a system
are as under state equation:
⎡ x1 (t ) ⎤ ⎡ 0 1 ⎤ ⎡ x1 (t ) ⎤ ⎡ 0 ⎤
⎢ x (t ) ⎥ = ⎢ −1 −2 ⎥ ⎢ x (t ) ⎥ + ⎢1 ⎥ u (t )
⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
⎡ x (t ) ⎤
Output equation : C (t ) = [1 1] ⎢ 1 ⎥ a. 2
⎣ x2 (t ) ⎦
b. 3
The system is
c. 4
a. neither state controllable nor output
d. 6
controllable
98. Consider the following statements
b. state controllable but not output
regarding a linear system y = f(x2) :
controllable
1. f(x1 + x) = f (x1) + f(x2)
c. output controllable but not state
controllable 2. f[x(t + T) = f[x(t)] + f [x(T)]
d. both state controllable and output 3. f(Kx) = KF(x)
controllable Of these statements
95. The loop transfer function GH of a control a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
system is given by b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 alone is correct
13 of 15
d. 1 and 3 are correct 2. DC separately excited motor.
99. When the input to a system was withdrawn 3. Single- phase capacitance start
at t = 0, its output was found to decrease induction motor.
exponentially from 100 units to 500 units. 4. Universal motor.
in 1.386 seconds.. The time constant of the 5. Single-phase synchronous motor.
system is Select the correct answer using the codes
a. 0.500 given below :
b. 0.693 a. l, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. 1.386 b. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2.000 c. 1, 2 and 5
100. Match List - I (System) with List - II d. 1 and 5
(Transfer function) and select the correct 103. The phase portrait of a non-linear system
answer using the codes given below the is shown in the figure. Here the origin is a
Lists:
List-I
A. AC servomotor
B. DC amplifier
C. Lead network
D. Lag network
List-II a. stable focus
s+z b. vortex
1. ( z < p) c. stable node
s+ p
d. saddle point
1 + T1S
2. (T1 < T2 ) 104. A closed-loop nonlinear system is shown
1 + T2 S in the figure:
K
3.
1 + Ts
K
4.
s(1 + Ts )
A B C D The phase plane plot in e-e plane is:
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
a.
regarding constructional features of
synchros :
1. Synchro repeater has a three-phase
stator and a three-phase rotor. b.
2. Disc shaped rotor of the synchro
control transformer offers a low
reluctance to the magnetic path
3. Synchro transmitter has a frictionless c.
bearing.
Of these statements :
b. 1 alone is correct d.
c. 2 alone is correct 105. The block diagram of a sampled data
d. 2 and 3 are correct system is shown the figure:
102. Which of the following motors would be
suitable for, use as servomotors?
1. Two-phase induction motor
14 of 15
Reason (R) : In a type II superconductor,
magnetic flux lines are pinned by micro
structural imperfections.
The output C (z) of the system is given by correct explanation of A
GR( z ) b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
a. correct explanation of A
1 + GH ( z )
G ( z ) R( z ) d. A is false but R is true
b.
1 + GH ( z ) 110. Assertion (A) : In an alternating field of
GR( z ) 1014 Hz, the electrical conductivity of a
c.
1 + G( z) H ( z) metal is zero
G ( z ) R( z ) Reason (R) : As the electrons fail to
d. respond to the fast changing electric field,
1 + G( z) H ( z) there is no drift.
106. Assertion (A) : Static electric field and a. Both A and R are true and R is the
equipotential lines are orthogonal. correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : ∫ E.dl = 0 b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 111. Assertion (A) : Addition of boron to
c. A is true but R is false intrinsic or pure silicon in the proportion
d. A is false but R is true of one boron atom to 1015 silicon atom
increases the conductivity of pure silicon
107. Assertion (A) : The static magnetic field
by a factor of 103 at room temperature.
has zero divergence and non-zero curl.
Reason (R) : Addition of impurities to
Reason (R) : They static magnetic field
intrinsic semiconductors increases carrier
satisfies the flux law.
mobility.
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
108. Assertion (A) : A glazed ceramic insulator
112. Assertion (A) : A network consisting of ‘n’
has a lower breakdown strength than an
nodes and ‘e’ elements can be completely
unglazed one.
analysed from (e-n +1) mesh equations or
Reason (R) : Glazing covers pores and
(n-1) node equations.
cracks and makes the surface non-
Reason (R) : The number of mesh
absorbent.
equations plus number of node equations
is equal to the number of elements in the
network.
109. Assertion (A) : In a type II. c. A is true but R is false
superconductor, the magnetization
gradually decreases between two critical
113. Assertion (A) : The poles and zeros of a
values of the applied field HC1 and HC2.
reactance function alternate on the s-plane.
15 of 15
Reason (R) : The plot of a reactance Reason (R) : The Nyquist plot does not
function as a function of frequency always encircle the critical point (-1, j0).
has a positive slope. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A) : When plant parameter
114. Assertion (A) : The steady-state response uncertainties are present, the open-loop
of a linear network is termed ‘forced structure is potentially superior to the
response. closed loop structure.
Reason (R) : The forcing function does not Reason (R) : When feedback is employed,
have any effect on the transient response there is a possibility of additional noise or
of a linear system. uncertainty in the measurement of the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the plant signals.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
115. Assertion(A) : A variance is dependent on d. A is false but R is true
the mean value of the set of data. 119. Assertion (A) : The compensating network
Reason (R) : Variance is the difference of shown in the given figure is used for
the mean squared values and the square of reduction of steady-state error in the
the mean value of the set of data. system response.
Reason (R) : A lead compensating network
c. A is true but R is false reduces system steady-state error.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are true and R is the
116. Assertion (A) : The vertical deflecting correct explanation of A
plates of a CRT are kept farther away from b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a
the screen as compared to the horizontal correct explanation of A
deflecting plates.
Reason (R) : This improves accuracy in
measurements.
120. A sampled data system has the following
characteristic equation in the r-plane
b. Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a 3.5r 2 − 2.5r 2 + 0.5r + 2.5r = 0
correct explanation of A z −1
where r =
c. A is true but R is false z +1
d. A is false but R is true Assertion (A) : The system is unstable.
117. The Nyquist plot of a system with the loop Reason (R) : Not all the roots, of the
transfer function G(s) H(s) is shown in the characteristic equation F (z) = 0 lie within
given figure : the unit circle |z| = 1 in the z - plane.
Assertion (A) : The system is unstable.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1999 1 of 15
PAPER–I
1. Vacant lattice sites in halide crystals cause c. presence of axis of symmetry
a. plastic deformation and ionic d. lack of axis of symmetry
conductivity 6. If E - EF = 2kT (EF is Fermi energy and
b. transparency and diffusion ‘k’, the Boltzmann’s constant is 8.614 x
c. diffusion and ionic conductivity 10-5 eVK-1), then the probability that an
d. plastic deformation and transparency electron occupies an energy level ‘E’ is
2. In a linear chain of atoms of interatomic a. 0.63
distance ‘l’, the first Brillouin zone occurs b. 0.5
between wave numbers c. 0.27
a. −π / l and + π / l d. 0.12
b. −2π / l and + 2π / l 7. Match List I (Material) with List II
c. Zero and 2π / l (Superconducting transition temperature)
and select the correct answer:
d. −1/ e and + 1/ l
List I
3. The temperature coefficient of resistance A. Sn
of an insulator is
B. Nb3 Ge
a. positive and independent of
C. Y-Ba-Cu oxide
temperature
D. Bi-Sr-Ca-Cu oxide
b. negative and independent of
List II
temperature
1. 23 K
c. negative and dependent on temperature
2. 4 K
d. positive and dependent on temperature
3. 125 K
4. Match List I (Dielectric) with List II
(Loss-tangent) and select the correct 4. 90 K
answer using the codes given below: Codes;
List I A B C D
A. Teflon a. 2 1 4 3
B. Polystyrene b. 4 1 2 3
C. Bakelite c. 4 1 3 2
D. Glass d. 1 4 2 3
List II 8. Match List I (Type of magnetism) with
1. 5 × 10-5 List II (Material) and select the correct
answer:
2. 3 × 10-2
List I
3. 5 × 10-4
A. Diamagnetic
4. 7.7 × 10-3
B. Ferromagnetic
A B C D
C. Antiferromagnetic
a. 1 2 4 3
D. Ferromagnetic
b. 3 2 4 1
List II
c. 4 3 1 2
1. Ge
d. 3 1 2 4
2. NiO
5. Piezoelectric materials owe their property
to the 3. Ferrites
a. presence of a centre of symmetry 4. Cobalt.
b. lack of a centre of symmetry Codes;
A B C D
2 of 15
a. 1 4 3 2 12. The total iron loss in a transformer core at
b. 4 1 2 3 normal flux density was measured at 25
c. 4 1 3 2 Hz and at 50 Hz and was found to be 250
d. 1 4 2 3 W and 800 W respectively. The hysteresis
9. Consider the following statements: loss at 50 Hz would be
Permanent magnet dipoles in matter result a. 100W
from b. 150W
1. orbital angular momentum of electrons c. 200W
2. electron spin angular momentum d. 600W
3. nuclear spin angular momentum 13. Consider the following statements:
Which of these statements are correct? During an electron transition across the
a. 1 and 2 energy gap in GaAs, its
b. 1 and 3 1. momentum changes
c. 2 and 3 2. direction of motion changes
d. 1, 2 and 3 3. potential energy changes
10. The phenomenon by which a 4. kinetic energy remains constant
ferromagnetic material is magnetized to its Which of these statements are correct?
final state by a magnetic field is attributed a. 3 and 4
to b. 2 and 3
a. eddy currents and magnetic viscosity c. 1 and 2
b. magnetic viscosity and hysteresis d. 1 and 4
c. hysteresis and eddy currents 14. Match List I (Semiconductor property)
d. aging and magnetic viscosity with List II (Type of semiconductor) and
11. The current in a coil wound over a select the correct answer
ferromagnetic core is gradually increased List I
to 2 A and then reduced to 1 A and then A. Electron mobility of 0.13 m2V-1s-1
the current in it is again increased to 2 A. B. p-type
The variation of magnetization of the core C. n-type
will be as shown in D. Wide band gap
a. List II
1. Germanium doped with arsenic
2. Gallium arsenide
3. Silicon
4. Gallium doped silicon
b. Codes;
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 2 1
c. 15. The Hall coefficient of a sample of silicon
having 1022 arsenic atoms per m3 is
a. 3.49 × 10-3m3/C
b. 6.25 × 10-4m3/C
c. 1.37 × 10-4 m3/C
d. d. 9.44 × 10-5 m3/C
16. The ceramic dielectrics used in electrical
engineering in- dude
a. cermet and suicide
b. porcelain and cermet
c. cordierite and porcelain
3 of 15
d. suicide and cordierite 21. Assertion (A): A piezoelectric transducer
17. 17. Liquid crystal maternal is used in is not suitable for measurement of static
a. ultrasonic amplification and display pressure.
devices Reason (R): Piezoelectric effect is a
b. thermal sensors and transducers reversible phenomenon.
c. display devices and thermal sensors a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. transducers and ultrasonic correct explanation of A
amplification b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
18. Match List I (Semiconductor) with List II the correct explanation of A
(Band gap in eV) and select the correct c. A is true but R is false
answer: d. A is false but R is true
List I 22. Assertion (A): The mechanical systems of
A. GaAs analog indicating instruments are critically
B. InP damped.
C. InGaAs Reason (R): It is desirable that the pointer
D. GaAIAs of an indicating instrument overshoots a
List I little above its equilibrium position
quickly.
1. 1.8
2. 1.43 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
3. 1.35
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
4. 0.75
the correct explanation of A
Codes;
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
23. Assertion (A): The measurement of
b. 2 3 4 1 impedance by bridge method is more
c. 3 2 4 1 accurate than the direct method using
d. 3 2 1 4 indicating instruments.
19. Assertion (A): The relative dielectric Reason (R): The accuracy of the detector
constant does not affect the accuracy of
Reason (R): With increase in frequency of measurement in a bridge method.
the applied field, the polarization a. Both A and R are true and R is the
processes increase in number. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 24. Assertion (A): Electric field cannot exist
d. A is false but R is true inside a perfect conductor.
20. Assertion (A): Inasemiconductor, the Hall Reason (R): For a perfect conductor a = ∞
field per unit electric current density per and there is no voltage drop inside the
unit magnetic flux maybe zero. conductor.
Reason (R): The Hall coefficient is a. Both A and R are true and R is the
proportional ( pμh2 − nμe2 ) . correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false 25. Assertion (A): In a current-carrying
d. A is false but R is true cylindrical conductor, the magnetic field
intensity within the conductor increases
linearly with radial distance.
4 of 15
Reason (R): The enclosed current 29. The short-circuit test of a 2-port network is
increases as the square of the radial shown in figure-I. The voltage across the
distance while the perimeter increases only terminals AA in the network shown in
as the radial distance. figure-II will be
26. Assertion (A): An unstable control system
possesses at least a pair of complex
conjugate roots in its s-plane.
Reason (R): Complex conjugate roots a. 20V
always give rise to oscillating responses. b. 10V
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. 5V
correct explanation of A d. 2V
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 30. In a passive two-port network, the open-
the correct explanation of A circuit impedance matrix is
27. If the driving-point impedance function
2s + 1
is synthesized as shown in the
8s + 4 s + 1
2 If the input port is interchanged with the
given figure, then the values of R, L and C output port, then the open-circuit
will be respectively impedance matrix will be
a.
b.
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 1 and 4
c. 1, 4 and 2 c.
d. 4, 2 and 1
28. If the two-port network shown in the given
2s + 1 d.
figure has the constant B then z(s)
s2
will be
31. In the circuit shown in the given figure, if

the switch is closed at t = 0, then the
voltage v(0+) arid its derivative dv / dt |t =0+
will be respectively
a. s
b. 1/s
c. s+1
d. 1 + 1/s a. 10 V and 50 V/s
b. 10 V and -50 V/s
5 of 15
c. 100 V and 200 V/s s
d.
d. 100 V and -200 V/s (s +α ) + ω2
2
32. Five cells are connected in series in a row

and then four such rows are connected in 37. Consider the following statements:
parallel to feed the current to a resistive The impulse response of a linear network
load of 1.25Ω. Each cell has emf of 1.5 V can be used to determine the
with internal resistance of 0.2Ω. The 1. step response
current through the load will be 2. response of the sinusoidal input
a. 3.33 A 3. elements of the network uniquely
b. 23.33A 4. interconnection of network elements
c. 5A Which of these statements are correct?
d. 1A a. 1 and 2
33. The mutual inductance between two b. 2 and 3
coupled coils is 10 mH. If the turns in one c. 3 and 4
coil are doubled and that in the other are d. 1 and 4
halved, then the mutual inductance will be 38. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
a. 5 mH response current i(t)is.
b. 10 mH
c. 14 mH
d. 20 mH
34. Four resistance 80Ω, 50Ω, 25Ω and R are
connected in parallel. Current through 25Ω
resistance is 4A. Total current of the
supply is 10 A. The value of R will be V ⎛ t ⎞
a. 66.66 Ω a. exp ⎜ − ⎟
R ⎝ RC ⎠
b. 40.25 Ω V
c. 36.36 Ω b. δ (t )
R
d. 76.56 Ω
V⎡ t ⎛ t ⎞⎤
35. A function f(t) = sin 1.1t + sin 3.3t has the c. ⎢δ (t ) − exp ⎜ − ⎟⎥
time period of R⎣ RC ⎝ RC ⎠ ⎦
a. π / 1.1 V⎡ ⎛ t ⎞⎤
d. ⎢δ ( t ) − exp ⎜ − ⎟⎥
b. 2π / 1.1 R⎣ ⎝ RC ⎠ ⎦
c. 2π/3.3 39. In a network shown in the given figure, the
d. π/2.2 value of vx would be
36. The response shown in the given figure is
the Laplace trans form of the function
a. -8/9 V
b. 8/9V
ω c. 16/9V
a.
(s +α ) + ω2 d. -16/9 V
2
40. To improve the power factor in three-

α phase circuits, the capacitor bank is
b.
(s +α ) + ω2
2
connected in delta to make
s +α a. capacitance calculation easy
c. b. capacitance value small
(s +α ) + ω2
2
6 of 15
c. the connection elegant balanced. This inference can be drawn
d. the power factor correction more from
effective a. reciprocity theorem
41. A three-phase heating unit and induction b. duality principle
motor are connected in parallel across a c. compensation theorem
208 V three-phase supply. Motor is rated d. equivalent theorem
at 5 hp, 0.9 pf with efficiency of 0.85. 46. A voltage v(t) = 6 e-2t is applied at t = 0 to
Heating unit is rated at 1500 W The line a series R - L circuit with L = 1H. If i(t) =
current will be equal to 6[exp (-2t) - exp (-3t) then R will have a
a. 185A value of
b. 1.85 V a. 2/3 Ω
c. 18.5 V b. 1 Ω
d. 15 V c. 3 Ω
42. If an ideal centre-tapped 1: 4 transformer d. 1/3 Ω
is loaded as shown in the figure, the
47. In the circuit shown, the switch is opened
impedance measured across the terminals
at t = 0. Prior to that switch was closed, i(t)
AA would be
at t = 0* is
a. 3Z/16 a. 2/3A
b. 3Z/18 b. 3/2A
c. 2Z/3 c. 1/3A
d. Z/6 d. 1A
43. A 10 μF capacitor is fed from an ac 48. Consider the following statements
voltage source containing a fundamental regarding the circuit shown in the figure. If
and a third harmonic of value one-third of the power consumed by 5 Ω is 10 W, then
fundamental. The third harmonic current
flowing through the Capacitor expressed 1. I = 2 A
as percentage of the fundamental under 2. the total impedance of the circuit is 5W
steady- state condition will be 3. cos φ = 0.866
a. zero
b. 100
c. 30
d. 90
44. In a two-element series circuit, the applied
vo1tage and the resulting current are
respectively,
v(t) = 50 + 50 sin (5 × 103t) V and Which of these statements are correct?
i(t) = 11.2 sin (5 × 103t + 63.4°)A a. 1 and 3
The nature of the elements would be b. 2 and 3
a. R—L c. 1 and 2
b. R—C d. 1, 2 and 3
c. L — C 49. In the network shown in the given figure,
d. neither R, nor L. nor C the Thevenin source and the impedance
45. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, if the across terminals A — B will be
positions of detector and source are respectively
interchanged, the bridge will still remain
7 of 15
a. 300 VAR
a. 15V and 13.33 Ω b. 200 VAR
b. 50 V and 15 Ω c. 100 VAR
c. 115 V and 20 Ω d. zero
d. 100 V and 25 Ω 54. For a series RLC citcuit, the power factor
50. For the function at the lower half power frequency is
a. 0.5 lagging
b. 0.5 leading
a. 3 c. unity
b. 1/3 d. 0.707 leading
c. Zero 55. If a network has all linear elements except
d. 2/3 for a few nonlinear ones, then
51. An arc source of 200 V rms supplies active superimpositions theorem
power of 600 W and reactive power of 800 a. cannot hold at all
VAR. The rms current drawn from the b. always holds
source is c. may hold on careful selection of
a. 10 A element values, source waveform and
b. 5 A response
c. 3.75 A d. holds in case of direct current
d. 2.5 A excitations
52. In the given 2-port network, if the driving- 56. A system function has a single zero and
point (d. p.) impedance at port 1 is single pole. The constant multiplier ‘K’ is
Z11 ( s ) = K1
( s + 2 ) the d. p. impedance at 1. For the given excitation sin t, the
response is 2 with 45° lagging. The
( s + 5) system has a pole and a zero respectively
port 2 will be at
a. zero and 1
b. infinity and -1
c. -1 and zero
d. zero and -1
57. Match List I with List II and select the
a. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2
( s + 3) correct answer:
( s + 5) List I
b. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2
( s + 2) A. Sensitivity
B. Resolution
( s + 3) C. Accuracy
s
c. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2 D. Precision
( s + 5) List II
s 1. Closeness to the true value.
d. Z 22 ( s ) = K 2
( 2)
s + 2. A measure of reproducibility of the
instrument
53. The reactive power drawn from the source 3. Ratio of response to the change in the
in the network shown in the given figure is input signal
4. Smallest change in input to which the
instrument can respond
Codes;
8 of 15
A B C D 63. In a PMMC instrument, the central spring
a. 3 4 1 2 stiffness and the strength of the magnet
b. 3 4 2 1 decrease by 0.04% arid 0.02% respectively
c. 4 3 2 1 due to a rise in temperature by 1°C. With a
d. 4 3 1 2 rise in temperature of 10°C, the instrument
58. In the SI system, the dimension of emf is reading will
a. M L3 T-3 I a. increase by 0.2%
b. M L3 T-3 I-1 b. decrease by 0.2%
c. M L2 T-3 I-1 c. increase by 0.6%
d. M-1 L2 T3 I d. decrease by 0.6%
59. Which one of the following techniques is 64. When a current i(t) = 5 + 10 cos 314t is
adopted to reduce the self-inductance of a measured by an electrodynamics ammeter,
wire-wound standard resistor? the meter will read
a. Bifilar winding a. 52 + 102
b. Negative impedance converter ⎛ 102 ⎞
c. Force balance type flux compensation b. 52 + ⎜ ⎟
d. Providing additional potential ⎝ 2 ⎠
terminals 2
⎛ 10 ⎞
60. The voltage of a standard cell is monitored c. 5 +⎜ ⎟
2
daily over a period of one year. The mean ⎝ 2⎠

value of the voltage for every month 52 + 102
shows a standard deviation of 0.1 mV. The d.
2
standard deviation of the set constituted by
65. Two equal voltages of same frequency
the monthly mean values will be
applied to the X and Y plates of a CR0,
a. zero
produce a circle on the screen. The phase
b. 0.1 / 12 difference between the two voltages is
c. 0.1/ 12 a. 30°
d. 0.1 b. 60°
61. A bridge is shown in the given figure. If c. 90°
the resistance Rs is increased from 2 kΩ to d. 150°
2.5 kΩ2, the current I2 will 66. In a Q-meter, an inductor tunes to 2 MHz
with 450 pF and to 4 MI-la with 90pF The
distributed capacitance of the inductor is
a. 30 pF
b. 45 pF
c. 90 pF
d. 360 pF
67. Consider the network shown in the given
figure. if a voltmeter of internal resistance
a. increase 10 kΩ reads V1 and V2 respectively when
b. decrease connected stress 5 kΩ and 10 kΩ in turn,
c. not change then
d. increase or decrease depending on the
polarity of E
62. A dc electronic voltmeter using chopper
stabilization is free from errors due to
a. low CMRR
b. amplifier drift
c. source output impedance a. V1 > V2/2
d. interference b. V1 < V2/2
c. V1 = V2/2
9 of 15
d. V1 = 6.67 V 72. The disc of a house service energy meter
68. Consider the following statements: of 230 V, 1, φ, 50 Hz. 5 A, 2400 rev, per
A current transformer, is used for kWh creeps at 1 rev, per min. The creep
measurement of large currents to error (in percent) of full load unity pf is
1. Isolate the instrument from a hi9h 60
a. + ×100
voltage bus bar. 2400
2. increase the accuracy of measurement 60
3. decrease the cost of measuring b. − × 100
2400
arrangements
60
4. extend the range of measurement of a c. + ×100
conventional ammeter on ac 1.15 × 2400
60
Which of these statements are correct? d. − × 100
a. 1 and 2 1.15 × 2400
b. 2 and 3 73. Consider the following statements
c. 3 and 4 regarding the balanced ac bridge shown in
d. 1 and 4 the given figure for measurement of a coil
Z1 :
69. If the readings of the two wattcmeters are
equal and positive in two-wattmeter
method, the load pf in a. balanced 3-phase
3- wire circuit will be
a. Zero
b. 0.5
c. 0.866
d. Unity
70. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
wattmeter reading will be
1. Z2 = R2 in series with L2, Z3 = R3 and

Z4 = R4.
2. Z2 = R2 Z3 = R3 and Z4 = R4 in parallel
with L4.
3. Z2 = R2 , Z3 = R3 and Z4 = R4 in series
with L4
4. Z2 = R2 in parallel with L2, Z3 = R3 and
a. .480W Z4 = R4.
b. 640 W Which of these statements are correct?
c. 800 W a. 1 and 4
d. 1000 W b. 1 and 2
71. Consider the following statements is c. 2 and 3
respect of a Wine bridge
d. 3 and 4
1. It is suitable for measurement of
74. A symmetrical square wave voltage is read
capacitance
on an average response electronic
2. It is not affected by harmonics present voltmeter whose scale is calibrated in
in the applied voltage terms of rms value of a sinusoidal wave.
3. It is suitable for measurement of The error in the reading is
frequency a. -3.9%
Which of these statements are correct? b. + 3.9%
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. -11%
b. 1 and 2 d. + 11%
c. 2 and 3 75. The en½f is measured for a junction
d. 1 and 3 temperature difference of 20° C by
thermocouples made from materials A, B
10 of 15
and C. The pair A - B gives an emf of a. 10% and 10%
165μV, with the end of A being positive. b. 2% and 10%
The pair B - C gives 100 μV, with the end c. 5% and 1%
of C being positive. The pair A - C will d. 10% and 1%
give 80. The block diagrams shown in figure-I and
a. 265 μV with the end of A being figure-II are equivalent if ‘X’ (in figure-II)
positive is equal to
b. 265 μV with the end of C being
positive
c. 65 μV with the end of A being positive
d. 65 μV with the end of C being positive
76. Consider the following transducers:
1. L.V.D.T,
2. Piezoelectric
3. Thermocouple
4. Photovoltaic cell
5. Strain gauge a. 1
Which of these are active transducers? b. 2
a. 1, 2 and 5 c. S + 1
b. 1, 3 and 4 d. S + 2
c. 2, 3 and 5 81. For the system shown in the given figure,
d. 2, 3 and 4 the steady-state value of the output c(t) is
77. Consider the fallowing ND converters
used commonly in digital instruments:
1. Successive approximation type
2. Flash type
3. Dual slope type
The correct sequence in increasing order
of their conversion times is
a. 1, 2, 3 a. 0
b. 2, 3, 1 b. 1
c. 2, 1, 3 c. ∞
d. 3, 1, 2 d. dependent on the values of K and Kt
78. A fixed resistor of suitable value is usually 82. The signal flow graph shown in the given
connected across a thermistor to figure has
a. decrease its resistance
b. increase its sensitivity
c. compensate its self-heating effect
d. improve linearity
79. Consider the systems shown in figure-I
and figure-II. If the forward path gain is
a. three forward paths and two non-
reduced by 10% in each system, then the
touching loops
variation in C1 and C2 will be respectively
b. three forward paths and three loops
c. two forward paths and two non-
touching loops
d. two forward paths and three loops
83. In the system shown in the given figure, to
eliminate the effect of disturbance D(s) on
C(s), the transfer function Gd(s) should be
11 of 15
86. The unit impulse response of a linear time-
invariant second-order system is
g ( t ) = 10e −8 sin 6t ( t ≥ 0 )
The natural frequency and the damping
factor of the system are respectively
a.
( s + 10 ) a. 10 rad/s and 0.6
10 b. 10 rad/s and 0.8
s ( s + 10 )
c. 6 rad/s and 0.6
b. d. 6 rad/s and 0.8
10 87. Match List I (Roots in the ‘s’ plane) with
10 list II (Impulse response) and select the
c.
s + 10 correct answer:
10 List I
d.
s ( s + 10 ) A. A single root at the origin
84. The Bode plot shown in the given figure B. A single root on the negative real axis
has G(jω) as C. Two imaginary roots
D. Two complex roots in the right half
plane
List II
1.
100
a.
jω (1 + j 0.5ω )(1 + j 0.1ω ) 2.
100
b.
jω ( 2 + jω )(10 + jω )
3.
10
c.
jω (1 + 2 jω )(1 + 10 jω )
10 4.
d.
jω (1 + 0.5 jω )(1 + 0.1 jω )
1+ s
85. The polar plot of G (s) = for
1 + 4s
0 ≤ ω ≤ ∞ in G-plane is 5.
a.
Codes;
b. A B C D
a. 2 1 5 4
b. 3 2 4 5
c. 3 2 5 4
c. d. 2 1 4 5
88. The root-locus of a unity feedback system
is shown in the given figure. The open-
loop transfer function of the system is
d.
12 of 15
K 92. The characteristic equation of a feedback
a.
s ( s + 1)( s + 3) control system is
s 3 + Ks 2 + 5s + 10 = 0
K ( s + 1)
b. For the system to be critically stable, the
s ( s + 3) value of K should be
K ( s + 3) a. 1
c.
s ( s + 1) b. 2
c. 3
Ks
d. d. 4
( s + 1)( s + 3) 93. The Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer
89. Match List I with List II in respect of the function of a feedback control system is
open-loop transfer function shown in the given figure. If the open-
K ( s + 10 ) ( s 2 + 20 s + 500 ) loop poles and zeros are all located in the
G (s) = and left half of the s-plane, then the number of
s ( s + 20 )( s + 50 ) ( s 2 + 4 s + 5 ) closed-loop poles in the tight half of the s-
select the correct answer: plane will be
List I(Types of loci)
A. Separate loci
B. Loci on the real axis
C. Asymptotes
D. Breakaway points
List II (Numbers)
1. One
2. Two a. Zero
3. Three b. 1
4. Five c. 2
Codes; d. 3
A B C D 94. The control system shown in the given
a. 3 4 2 1 figure has an internal rate feedback loop.
b. 3 4 1 2 The closed-loop system for open and close
c. 4 3 1 2 conditions of switch will be respectively
d. 4 3 2 1
90. If the characteristic equation of a closed-
loop system is
K
1+ =0
s ( s + 1)( s + 2 )
the centroid of the asymptotes in root- a. unstable and stable
locus will be b. unstable and unstable
a. Zero c. stable and unstable
b. 2 d. stable and stable
c. -1 95. The transfer function of a lead
d. -2 compensator is
1 + 0.12 s
91. The open-loop transfer function of a unity GC ( s ) =
10 1 + 0.04 s
feedback control system is . The
( s + 5) The maximum phase shift that can be
3
obtained from this compensator is -

gain margin of the system will be a. 60°
a. 20 dB b. 45°
b. 40 dB c. 30°
c. 60 dB d. 15°
d. 80 dB 96. A system is represented by
13 of 15
4s + 2
a.
If state variables are x1 = y, x2 = y and x3 = 20 s 2 + 12 s + 3
&&&
y , then the coefficient matrix ‘A’ will be 4s + 2
b.
⎡0 1 0⎤ 20 s + 12 s + 1
2
a. ⎢0 0 1 ⎥⎥ 2
⎢ c.
⎢⎣ −6 −5 −2 ⎥⎦ 20 s + 12 s + 1
2
2
⎡0 1 0⎤ d.
20 s + 12 s + 3
2
b. ⎢0 0 1 ⎥⎥
⎢ 99. A non-linear control system is described
⎢⎣ −2 −5 −6 ⎥⎦ by the equation θ + k sin θ = 0.The types
of singular point at A = (0, 0) and B = (π,
⎡0 0 1⎤
0) will be respectively
c. ⎢0 1 0 ⎥⎥
⎢ a. centre and saddle
⎢⎣ −6 −5 −2 ⎥⎦ b. centre arid focus
c. focus and saddle
⎡0 0 1⎤
⎢0 d. saddle and centre
d. ⎢ 1 0 ⎥⎥ 100. A non-linear control system is shown in
⎣⎢ −2 −5 −6 ⎦⎥ the figure. If the intercept of G(jω) on the
97. The state equation of a linear system is negative real axis of G-plane is
given by X = AX + BU, where ( −π / 2, + j 0 ) , then the amplitude of the
⎡ 0 2⎤ ⎡0 ⎤ limit cycle is
A=⎢ ⎥ and B = ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −2 0 ⎦ ⎣ −1⎦
The state transition matrix of the system is
⎡e2t 0 ⎤
a. ⎢ 2t ⎥
⎣0 e ⎦
⎡ e−2t 0 ⎤ a. m
b. ⎢ 2t ⎥
b. 2 m
⎣ 0 e ⎦ c. 3 m
⎡ sin 2t cos 2t ⎤ d. 4 m
c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ − cos 2t sin 2t ⎦ 101. Consider the following statements
regarding hold circuits for the
⎡ cos 2t sin 2t ⎤ reconstruction of sampled signals:
d. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ − sin 2t cos 2t ⎦ 1. Hold circuits are essentially low pass
98. The system shown in the given figure filters.
relates to tempera- hire control of air flow 2. A first order hold circuit introduces
less phase lag in comparison to zero
hold circuit.
3. A zero order hold has a flat gain-
frequency over the frequency range of
2π
Equation of heat exchanger is 0≤ω ≤ . where T is the sampling
T
dT
10 A + TA = u period.
dt Which of these statements is/are correct?
Temperature sensor equation is a. 3 alone
dTs b. 1 and 2
2 + Ts = TA
dt c. 2 and 3
TA ( s ) d. 1 alone
The closed-loop transfer function
TR ( s ) 102. The overall pulse transfer function of the
system shown in the given figure is
of the system is
14 of 15
maximum voltage of 24 V. If the capacitor
is half filled with a liquid of dielectric
constant 4 as shown in the given figure,
1 − exp ( −1) then the capacitor will withstand a
a.
Z − exp ( −1) maximum voltage of
Z ⎡⎣1 + exp ( −1) ⎤⎦

b.
( Z − 1) ⎡⎣ Z + exp ( −1) ⎤⎦
1 + exp ( −1)
c.
Z + exp ( −1) a. 60V
Z ⎡⎣1 − exp ( −1) ⎤⎦ b. 30V
d.
( Z − 1) ⎡⎣ Z − exp ( −1)⎤⎦ c. 20V
d. 15V
103. For the volume charge density ρv the 107. An anisotropic dielectric is characterized
divergence of the electric field intensity by the permittivity tensor
will be equal to.
4 2 2⎫
a. ρv / ε 0 ⎪
ε = ε0 2 4 2⎬
b. ε 02 ρv
2 2 4 ⎪⎭
c. ε 0 ρ v r r r r
For given E = 2 ( ix + iv + iz ) , the
d. ρ v / ε 02 r
displacement density vector D will be
104. If the static magnetic flux density is B , r r r
then a. 2ε 0 ( 4ix + 2iy + 2iz )
r r r r r
a. ∇ × B = 0 b. 2ε 0 ( 2ix + 4iy + 2iz )
r r r
b. ∇.B = 0 r r r
rr c. 2ε 0 ( 2ix + 2iy + 4iz )
c. ∇B = J r r r
r r r d. 2ε 0 ( 8ix + 8iy + 8iz )
d. ∇ × B = J
105. In the given figure, the normal and 108. In a dielectric medium of relative
tangential components of the current permittivity 4, the electric field intensity is
r r
density J at the interface of the boundary 20 sin (108 t - βz) a y V/m and z being in m.
satisfy which one of the following sets of The phase shift constant β is
conditions? a. 1/3 rad/m
b. 2/3rad/rn
c. 2π /3 rad/m
d. 1 / 6π rad/m
Transmission of a modulated signal in a
communication system can take place by
means of
Jn1 Jn2
a. = and Jt1 = Jt2 1. coaxial cables
σ1 σ2 2. optical fibres.
Jn1 Jn2 3. open-wire transmission lines
b. = and Jt1 = Jt2
σ 1ε1 σ 1ε 2 4. waveguides
c. Jn1 = Jn2 and σ 1 Jt2 Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
σ 1 Jn2σ 2 Jt Jt
d. Jn1 = = and 1 = 2 b. 2, 3 and 4
ε1 ε2 σ1 σ 2 c. 1 and 4
106. A parallel plate capacitor of gap‘d’ with d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
air as the dielectric can withstand a 110. The unit of the Pointing vector is
15 of 15
a. Power b. E A EB2 = EB3
b. power density
c. E A EC = EB2
c. energy
d. energy density d. E A EB = EC2
111. The equation 116. Cavity resonators are used in
r r r
E = ax E sin (ωt − β z ) + a y E sin (ωt − β z ) a. MF band
represents b. HF band
a. a left circularly polarized wave c. VHF band
b. a right circularly polarized wave d. SHF band
c. a linearly polarized wave 117. The reflection coefficient at the load end
of a short-circuited line is
d. an elliptically polarized wave
a. zero
112. The intrinsic impedance of free space is
a. 377Ω b. 1∠0°
c. 1∠90°
b. μ0ε 0
d. 1∠180°
c. j μ 0ε 0 118. The operator ‘del’ ∇ is a
d. ε 0 / μ0 a. vector space function
b. vector time function
113. Consider the following pairs of types of
energy transmission and practical lower c. scalar space function
frequency limit: d. scalar time function
1. Transmission lines .... Zero 119. The magnitude of the magnetic flux
2. Optical fibres ... 300 MHz density ‘B’ at a distance ‘R’ from an
infinitely long straight current filament is
3. Antennas.... 100 MHz
μ01
Which of these pair(s) is/are correctly a.
matched? 2R
a. 2 and 3 μ 01
b.
b. 1 and 2 2π R
c. 1 alone μ 01
c.
d. 3 alone 4π R
114. If the electric field component of a wave is μ01
E = cos (6 × 108 πt + 50z) ax V/m, then the d.
8π R 2
wave 120. If a plane electromagnetic wave traveling
a. propagates in -x direction r r r r r
in the direction β = ax β x + a y β y + az β z has
b. amplitude is 2 V/m rr
c. is not traveling in free space ( )
electric field E = A cos ωt − β .r , then the
d. propagates in + z direction phase velocities vx : v y : vz is equal to
115. A plane electromagnetic wave is travelling
1 1 1
in a highly dissipative medium in the a. : :
direction ABC as shown in the figure. The β 2
x β 2
y β z2
electric field EA, EB, and EC at point A, B b. β x2 : β y2 : β z2
and C respectively are related as
1 1 1
c. : :
βx βy βz
d. β x : β y : β z
a. E A2 EC = EB3
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000 1 of 17
PAPER-I
1. Match List I (Components) with list II
(Transfer functions) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. ac servo motor
B. Field controlled dc servo motor
C. Tacho generator
D. Integrating gyro a.
List II
K
1.
s (1 + sτ m ) b.
K
2.
s (1 + sτ m )(1 + sτ m )
3. Ks c.
K
4.
1 + sτ
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4 d.
b. 1 2 4 3 4. For the system + axx ± bx = 0, the
c. 2 1 3 4 equation for the phase-plane isocline of
d. 2 1 4 3 slope m is
2. Consider the following sampled data a. m2 + am + b = 0
systems: bx
b. m = – ax –
x
bx
c. m = ax +
1. x
2
d. m + axm + b = 0
5. For the determination of stability of a
2. nonlinear control system by the Describing
Function method, the plots of C (jω) and
— 1 / N(x) are drawn as shown in the
3. given figure for an input x = X sin ωt. The
Which of these systems are similar? types of limit cycles at the points P and Q
a. 1 and 2 will be respectively
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
3. A two-tank system is shown in Figure — I.
The electrical equivalent of this system is
a. stable and stable
b. stable and unstable
2 of 17
c. unstable and stable 9. The control system shown in the given
d. unstable and unstable figure is represented by the
6. A closed-loop system is shown in the ⎡y ⎤ ⎡ u1 ⎤
equation ⎢ 1 ⎥ = [matrix ‘G’] ⎢u ⎥
given figure. The noise transfer function ⎣ y2 ⎦ ⎣ 2⎦
C(s) / N(s) [Cn(s) = output corresponding
to noise input N(s) is approximately
The matrix ‘G’ of the system is

1 a.
a. for |G1(s) H1(s) H2(s)| << 1
G(s) H1 (s)
1
b. − for G1(s) H1(s) H2(s)| >> 1
H1 (s) b.
1
c. − for |G1(s) H1(s) H2(s)|>>1
H1 (s)H 2 (s)
1
d. for |G1(s) H1(s) H2(s)| c.
G(s)H1 (s)H 2 (s)
<< 1
7. For the block diagram shown in the given
figure, the limiting values of K for stability
of inner loop is found to be X < K < Y.
d.
The overall system will be stable if and
only if
10. A system with transfer function G (s) =

1
is subjected to a sinusoidal input
(1 + s )
a. 4X < K < 4Y r(t) = sin ωt. In steady–state, the phase
angle of the output relative to the input at
b. 2X < K < 2Y
ω = 0 and ω = ∞ will be respectively
c. X < K < Y
a. 0° and –90°
d. X/2< K < Y/2
b. 00 and 00
8. A signal flow graph is shown in the given
figure. The number of forward paths M c. 90° and 0°
and the number of individual loops P for d. 90° and –90°
this signal flow graph would be 11. A system has fourteen poles and two
zeros. The slope of its highest frequency
asymptote in its magnitude plot is
a. –40 dB/decade
b. –240 dB/decade
c. –280 dB/decade
a. M = 4 and P = 4 d. –320 dB/decade
b. M = 6 and P = 4 12. The open-loop transfer function of a
c. M = 4 and P = 6 feedback control system is
d. M = 6 and P = 6
3 of 17
K
.The break-away point(s) of
s ( s + 2 s + 6)
2
its root locus plot

a. exist at (—1 ± j1)
b. exist at (—3/2 ± 15 /16 )
c. exists at origin
b.
d. do not exist
13. [–a ± jb] are the complex conjugate roots
of the characteristic equation of a second
order system. Its damping coefficient and
natural frequency will be respectively
b
a. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
c.
b
b. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
a
c. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
a
d. and a 2 + b 2
a +b
2 2
14. A unity feedback control system has a

d.
forward, path transfer function
16. A feedback control system is shown in the
10(1 + 4 s)
G(s) = 2 given figure. The system is stable for all
s (1 + s) positive values, of K, if
If the system is subjected to an input r(t) =
t2
1 + t + (t ≥ 0), the steady-state error of
2
the system will be
a. T = 0
a. zero
b. T < 0
b. 0.1
c. T > 1
c. 10
d. 0 < T < 1
d. infinity
17. Consider the following Nyquist plots of
15. The characteristic equation of a linear
different control systems :
control system is
s2 + 5Ks + 10 = 0
The root-loci of the system for 0 < K < ∞
is
1.
2.
a.
4 of 17
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 3 1 4 2
3. d. 3 1 2 4
21. The state-variable description of a linear
autonomous system is X = AX where X is
a state vector and
⎡0 2⎤
Which of these plot(s) represent(s) a stable A= ⎢ ⎥
system? ⎣2 0⎦
a. 1 alone The poles of the system are located at
b. 2, 3 and 4 a. –2 and +2
c. 1, 3 and 4 b. –2j and +2j
d. 1, 2 and 4 c. –2 and –2
18. The state diagram of a system is shown in d. +2 and +2
the given figure : 22. Consider the state transition matrix:
⎡ s+6 −1 ⎤
⎢ s 2 + 6s + 5 s 2 + 6s + 5 ⎥
φ(s) = ⎢ ⎥
⎢ −5 s ⎥
⎢⎣ s 2 + 6 s + 5 s 2 + 6 s + 5 ⎥⎦
The system is.
The- eigen values of the system are
a. controllable and observable
a. 0 and –6
b. controllable but not observable
b. 0 and +6
c. observable but not controllable
c. 1 and –5
d. neither controllable nor observable
d. –1 and –5
19. For the function X(s) =
1 23. The frequency spectrum of a signal lies
X ( s) = , the residues within the band f0 ≤ f ≤ f1 Hz. To sample
s ( s + 1)3 ( s + 2)
the signal properly, the sampling period
associated with the simple poles at s = 0 should be
and s = –2 are respectively
a. > 1 / 2 f0
a. 1/2 and 1/2
b. < 2 / f0
b. 1 and 1
c. < 1 / 2 f1
c. —1 and —1
d. > 2 / f 1
d. —1/2 and 1/2
24. For insulators, the forbidden gap is of the
20. Match List I (Matrix) with List II order of
(Dimensions) for the state equations : X(t)
a. 5ev
= PX(t) + QU(t) and Y(t) = RX(t) + SU(t)
and select the correct answer : b. 1 ev
List I c. 0.1 ev
A. P d. zero
B. Q 25. Which one of the following materials does
not have a covalent bond?
C. R
a. Metal
D. S
b. Silicon
List II
c. Organic polymers
1. (n × p)
d. Diamond
2. (q × n)
26. Match List I (Type of polarization) with
3. (n × n) List II (Signal frequency) and select the
4. (q × p) correct answer :
5 of 17
List I List I
A. Electronic polarisation A. Magnetic field
B. Ionic polarisation B. Flux density
C. Orientational polarisation C. Magnetization
D. Space charge polarisation List II
List II 1. Electric dipole moment per unit
1. 102 Hz volume
2. 1014 Hz 2. Electric force per unit positive charge
3. 106 Hz 3. Dielectric density
4. 1012 Hz A B C
A B C D a. 2 3 1
a. 2 1 3 4 b. 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1 c. 1 3 2
c. 2 4 3 1 d. 1 2 3
d. 3 1 2 4 31. High frequency transformer cores are
27. Piezoelectric effect is generally observed generally made of
in a. cast iron
a. Insulators b. mu-metal
b. insulators and semiconductors c. ferrite
c. conductors and superconductors d. graphite
d. conductors and semiconductors 32. A current of 50 A is passed through a
28. The conductivity of material ‘A’ is half metal strip which is subjected to a
that of material ‘B’. The ratio of relaxation magnetic flux density of 1.2 Wb/m2. The
time of ‘A’ to that of ‘B’ is magnetic field is directed at right angles to
a. 0.5 the current direction. Thickness of the strip
in the direction of the magnetic field is 0.5
b. 1 mm. If the Hall voltage is found to be 150
c. 2 V, the number of conduction electrons per
d. 4.1 m3 in the metal is
29. According to the BCS theory, a material a. 5 × 1027
goes into superconducting state when b. 0.5 × 1027
electron-pairs participate in the following
events: c. 50 × 1027
1. Lattice distorts as a free electron A d. 5 × 1026
attracts a lattice ion Temperature is 33. In the optical fibre used for
decreased communication, the core and cladding
2. Energy of electron B is lowered and it material used are respectively
forms a pair with electron A a. pure silica and Ge-doped silica
3. A phonon is created which interacts b. P-doped silica and Ge-doped silica
with electron B c. Ge-doped silica and P-doped silica
The correct sequence of occurrence of d. Ge-doped silica and pure silica
these events is : 34. Match List I (Materials) with List II
a. 2, 1, 3, 4 (Applications) and select the correct
b. 1, 2, 3, 4 answer:
c. 2, 1, 4, 3 List I
d. 1, 2, 4, 3 A. Tantalum
30. Match List I (Magnetic parameters) with B. Graphite
list II (Electric parameters) on the basis of C. Refractory metal
analogy in definition and select the correct D. Polysilicon
answer : List II
6 of 17
1. Schottky gate b. 2 1 4 3
2. Cryotron c. 3 1 4 2
3. IC -technology d. 2 4 1 3
4. Furnace 38. Consider the following statements:
A B C D In the case of paramagnetic materials,
a. 2 3 1 4 there
b. 1 4 2 3 1. is no permanent dipole moment.
c. 1 3 2 4 2. are permanent dipole moments.
d. 2 4 1 3 3. is no alignment of dipoles in the
35. The band-gap of a semiconductor is 1.43 absence of magnetic field.
ev. Its cut-off wavelength is 4. is no interaction among the dipoles.
a. 1 mm Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
b. 0.81 mm a. 1 alone
c. 0.56 mm b. 3 and 4
d. 0.27 mm c. 2 and 4
36. Match List I (Semiconductor parameters) d. 2, 3 and 4
with List II (Physical processes) and select 39. Consider the following statements:
the correct answer : There will be no spontaneous polarization,
List I if
A. Impurity concentration 1. there is no hysteresis loop in a plot of
B. Carrier mobility polarization against field
C. Carrier life time 2. there is a hysteresis loop in a plot of
D. Intrinsic carrier concentration polarization against field
List II 3. the material is below the Curie
1. Recombination temperature
2. Band to band transition 4. the material is above the Curie
temperature
3. Scattering
Which of these statements are correct ?
4. Ion implantation
a. 1 and 3
A B C D
b. 1 and 4
a. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 and 3
b. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 and 4
c. 3 4 1 2
40. Consider the following types of
d. 4 3 1 2 semiconductors :
37. Match List I (Materials) with List II 1. n-type
(Thermal conductivity) and select the
correct answer : 2. p-type
3. Intrinsic
List I
A. Constantan 4. Extrinsic
B. Carbon Which of these statements are correct ?
C. iron a. 1 and 3
D. Quartz b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
List II
1. 4.2 W m–1 deg–1 d. 2 and 3
2. 12.6 W m–1 deg–1 41. Consider the following properties:
3. 22.5 W m–1 deg–1 1. Perfect diamagnetism
4. 67.0 W m–1 deg–1 2. Ionic conductivity
3. Magnetic field causes an increase in
A B C D
transition temperature
a. 3 4 1 2
7 of 17
4. Loss of superconductivity in long secondary winding with consequent severe
circular wire by large currents strain on the insulation and danger to the
Which of these properties are exhibited by operator.
a superconductor? Reason (R) : The high magnetic forces
a. 1, 2 and 3 acting on the core, if suddenly removed,
b. 2, 3 and 4 may leave behind considerable residual
magnetism in the core.
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
42. Assertion (A) : The basic principle of
operation of a Q-meter is based on the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
property of a series-resonant circuit. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : If a fixed voltage is applied to c. A is true but R is false
a series resonant circuit, the voltage d. A is false but R is true
developed across its capacitor is Q times 46. Assertion (A) : The stability of a closed-
the applied voltage. loop system can be obtained from the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the open-loop transfer function G(jω) H(jω)
correct explanation of A plot with respect to the critical point
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT (–1, j0) in G(jω) H(jω) plane.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The origin of 1 + G(jω)
c. A is true but R is false H(jω) corresponds to (–1, j0) point in
d. A is false but R is true G(jω) H(jω) plane.
43. Assertion (A) : In a good quality, cassette a. Both A and R are true and R is the
audio tape recorder, ac bias is provided for correct explanation of A
recording purposes to improve the quality. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R) : The ac bias provided for re the correct explanation of A
cording in an audio tape recorder takes c. A is true but R is false
care of the non-linearity of the recording d. A is false but R is true
head. 47. Assertion (A) : The closed-loop system
a. Both A and R are true and R is the C (s) 5
correct explanation of A = for a step input can
R ( s ) ( s + 1)( s + 5)
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT C ( s) 1
the correct explanation of A be approximated by a system 1 =
R( s) s + 1
1
d. A is false but R is true for R(s) = .
s
44. Assertion (A) : A spectrum analyzer is an
instrument which displays the spectrum of C ( s) C (s)
Reason (R) : Both and 1 have
the input waveform with respect to the R( s) R( s )
frequency. approximately the same transient response.
Reason (R) : A spectrum analyzer consists a. Both A and R are true and R is the
of an internal sweep voltage generator correct explanation of A
connected to the X-deflecting plate of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
CRT. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 48. In the given figure, a single-turn
the correct explanation of A rectangular loop moves with uniform
c. A is true but R is false velocity ‘v’ through a region of uniform
d. A is false but R is true magnetic flux density B , the direction of
45. Assertion (A) : The opening of the B being perpendicular to the plane of the
secondary circuit of a current transfer loop.
results in a very high voltage in the
8 of 17
ferrimagnetic magnite by another divalent
metal such as Mg, Zn etc., but the
exchange interactions are
antiferromagnetic type.
Assertion (A) : The emf induced in the the correct explanation of A
loop is maximum during the interval the
loop is fully inside the region of B . d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : Induced emf = –∂ / ∂t (flux 52. Assertion (A) : In the circuit shown in the
linkage). figure, five current equations are required
a. Both A and R are true and R is the to calculate the independent branch
correct explanation of A currents and four voltage equations are
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT required to determine the independent
the correct explanation of A branch voltages.
49. Assertion (A): Low frequencies are more
suitable than high frequencies for
underwater communication and for
communication with underwater objects.
Reason (R): Electric and magnetic fields in
the underwater objects are out of phase by
45°. Reason (R): The number of current
a. Both A and R are true and R is the equations is b – n + 1 and the number of
correct explanation of A voltage equations is n – 1 where b is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT number of branches and n is the number of
the correct explanation of A nodes for a circuit.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are true and R is the
50. Assertion (A): Storage of energy in a b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
dielectric is due to shift in relative the correct explanation of A
positions of internal charges against c. A is true but R is false
normal atomic and molecular forms. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R): All dielectrics are 53. Assertion (A) : A driving - point function
characterised by the presence of molecules should have its poles and zeros to the left
having permanent displacement between half of s - plane.
the centres of gravity of the positive and Reason (R) : Only a positive real function
negative charges. can be realized in network form.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
51. Assertion (A) : dc resistance of ferrites is 54. Assertion (A) : If the impulse response of
much higher than that of dia-, para- or a network is available, the response to any
ferromagnetic materials. arbitrary input can be derived.
Reason (R) : Ferrites are obtained by Reason (R) : The Laplace transform of unit
replacing divalent ferrous ion in impulse is unity.
9 of 17
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. 4
correct explanation of A 58. The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT is higher than the cold resistance because.
the correct explanation of A the temperature coefficient of the filament
c. A is true but R is false is
d. A is false but R is true a. negative
55. Consider the following functions: b. infinite
s 3 + 3s c. zero
1. d. positive
2( s 2 + 1)
59. The Laplace transform of the function f(t)
s 4 + 3s + 1 is F(s). u(t) represents the unit step
2.
5( s 2 + 1) function. The inverse Laplace transform of
s2 +1 e–s F(s) is
3. a. f(t) u(t–1)
3s
b. f(t–1) u(t)
3( s 3 + 7 s / 2)
4. c. f(t–1) u(t–1)
s 4 + 14 s 2 + 30 d. f(t)/(t–1)
Which of these are valid driving- point 60. If the unilateral Laplace transform X(s) of
impedance functions?
7 s + 10
a. 1, 2 and 3 a signal x(t) is , then the initial
s ( s + 2)
b. 1, 3 and 4
and final values of the signal would be
c. 1, 2 and 4 respectively.
d. 2, 3 and 4 a. 3.5 and 5
56. Consider the following driving -point b. zero and 7
functions :
c. 5 and zero
( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 3)
F1 = , d. 7 and 5
s ( s 2 + 4) 61. In the circuit shown in Figure I, the switch
( s + 1)( s + 3)
2 2 ‘k’ was initially at position ‘1’ and a
F2 = , current ‘I’ was flowing through the
( s 2 + 2)( s 2 + 4)
inductor ‘L’ and a voltage ‘V0’ existed
s ( s 2 + 3) across the capacitor ‘C’.
F3 = and
( s 2 + 2)( s 2 + 4)
( s 2 + 2)( s 2 + 5)
F4 =
s ( s 2 + 4)
Among these, the LC functions would
include
a. F1 and F2
b. F2 and F3
c. F3 and F4 If at t = 0, the switch ‘k’ is put on the
position ‘2’ in the circuit shown in Figure
d. F1 and F4
I, which one of the following transformed
57. A driving - point impedance function is circuits will give i(t) for t > 0 ?
given by
( s + k1 )( s + k2 )( s + k3 )
F=
( s + 1)( s + 2)( s + 3)( s + 4)
The product k1k2k3 cannot be more than
a. 48 a.
b. 24
c. 10
10 of 17
b. a. 4 kHz
b. 2 kHz
c. 0.5 kHz
d. 0.25 kHz
66. Match List I (Readings obtained while
c. measuring 3-phase power by two-
wattmeter method) with List II (Power
factors for the load) and select the correct
answer :
List I
d.
A. Both the wattmeters read equal values
62. In the case of the RLC circuit shown in the
of power but of opposite sign
given figure, the voltage across the R, L
and C would be respectively B. Both the wattmeters read equal values
of power and both are of positive sign
C. One wattmeter reads zero and the other
reads the, complete power
List II
1. Unity
2. Zero
a. 12V, 16V and 7V or 25V
3. 0.5
b. 16V, 12V and 7V or 25V
4. 0.866
c. 7V, 16V and 12V
A B C
d. 16V, 12V and 25V
a. 2 3 4
63. In an amplifier, the increase in gain is
b. 3 1 2
12dB if the frequency doubled. If the
frequency is increased by 10 times, then c. 1 4 3
the increase in gain will be d. 2 1 3
a. 2.4 dB 67. The equivalent inductance of two coils A
b. 20 dB and B connected as in the given figure is
given by
c. 40 dB
d. 60 dB
64. For a second order system, if both the
roots of the characteristic equation are real,
then the value of damping ratio will be
a. less than unity a. XL1 + XL2 — 2XM
b. equal to unity b. XL1 + XL2 + XM
c. equal to zero c. XL1 + XL2–XM
d. greater than unity d. XL1 + XL2 + 2XM
65. If the resonant frequency of the circuit 68. A linear transformer and its T-equivalent
shown in Figure I is 1 kHz, the resonant circuit are shown in Figure I and Figure II
frequency of the circuit shown in Figure II respectively. The values of inductance La,
will be Lb and Lc are respectively
Figure–I
11 of 17
a. 43.7 μF
b. 4.37 μF
c. 437 μF
d. 4.37 mF
73. The circuit shown in Figure I is replaced
a. 1H, –2H and 2H by its Norton’s equivalent in Figure II. The
b. –1H, 2H and 2H value of I’ will be
c. 3H, 6H and –2H
d. 3H, 6H and 2H
69. The voltage across the 1 kΩ resistor
between the nodes A and B of the network
shown in the given figure is :
a. 2 V
b. 3 V
c. 4 V 10 V a. 2.5 ∠45° A
d. 8 V b. 5 ∠90° A
70. Initially, the circuit shown in the given c. 10 ∠–90° A
figure was relaxed. If the switch is closed
at t = 0, the values of i(0+), di / dt (0+) and d. 15 ∠–45° A
d2 i / dt2 (0+) will respectively be 74. A certain network N feeds a load
resistance R as shown in Figure I. It
consumes a power of ‘P’ W. If an identical
network is added as shown in Figure II, the
power consumed by R will be
a. 0, 10 and –100
b. 0, 10 and 100
c. 10, 100 and 0
d. 100, 0 and 10
71. If the number of branches in a network is
‘B’, the number of nodes is ‘N’ and the
number of dependent loops is ‘L’, then the
number of independent node equations
will be a. less than P
a. N + L – 1 b. equal to P
b. B – 1 c. between P and 4P
c. B – N d. more than 4P
d. N – 1 75. For the network shown in the given figure,
72. A resistance of ‘R’ Ω and inductance of the voltage VB will be
‘L’ H are connected across 240 V, 50 Hz
supply. Power dissipated in the circuit is
300-W and the voltage across R is 100 V.
In order to improve the power factor to
unity,, the capacitor that is to be connected
in series should have a value of
12 of 17
a. (j 5.33) V
b. (5.33) V
c. (–j 5.33) V
d. (j 3.33)
76. In the two-port network shown in the a.
1
given figure, if G21 (s) is 2 , then Z(s)
s +1
will be
b.
a. s
b. s + 1
c.
1
c.
s
1
d. s +
s
77. Consider the following functions for the
rectangular voltage pulse shown in the d.
given figure : 79. Match List I {Input voltage v(t)} with List
II {I(s), the Laplace transform of i(t)} for
the given circuit and select the correct
answer :
1. v(t) = u(t — a) — u(t — b)

2. v(t) = u(b — t) — u(a — t)
3. v(t) = u(b — t) . u(t — a)
4. v(t) = u(a — t) . u(t — b)
Which of these functions describe the List I
pulse shown in the given figure? A. Unit step
a. 1, 2 and 3 B. Unit ramp
b. 1, 2 and 4 C. Unit impulse
c. 2, 3 and 4 D. sin t
d. 1, 3 and 4 List II
78. If a sinusoidal input is applied to the s
circuit shown in the given figure, the 1.
s +1
output waveform of V0 will be
1
2.
s +1
1
3.
( s + 1) 2
1
4.
s( s + 1)
A B C D
13 of 17
a. 2 4 1 3 4. Ratio of response of the instrument to
b. 2 1 4 3 the input variable.
c. 3 1 4 2 A B C D
d. 3 4 1 3 a. 1 2 3
80. For a two-port symmetrical bilateral b. 4 2 1
network, if A = 3 and B = 1 Ω, the value c. 3 4 2
of parameter C will be d. 4 3 1
a. 4s 83. Match List I with List II and select the
b. 6s correct answer,:
c. 8s List I (Quantity)
d. 16s A. Resistance
81. Consider the following two-port network B. emf
configurations: C. Capacitance
List II (Dimensions)
1. [M–1 L–2 T4 I2]
2. [M–1 L–2 T2 I–2]
1. 3. [ML2 T–3 I–1]
4. [ML2 T–3 I–2]
A B C
a. 1 2 3
2. b. 4 2 1
c. 3 4 2
d. 4 3 1
3. 84. To achieve, the optimum transient
response, the indicating instruments are so
designed as to
a. be critically damped
4.
Which of these configurations relate to the b. be undamped
definition of short- circuit admittance c. provide damping which is slightly
parameters? more than the critical value
a. 1 and 2 d. provide damping which is slightly less
b. 1 and 4 than the critical value
c. 2 and 3 85. The ac bridge shown in the given figure
d. 2 and 4 will remain balanced if impedance Z
consists of
82. Match List I (Terms) with List II
(Definitions) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Resolution
B. Precision
C. Sensitivity
D. Accuracy a. resistance and inductance in series
List II b. resistance and capacitance in parallel
1. Closeness with which the instrument c. capacitance only
reading approaches the true value V
d. inductance only
2. Reproducibility of measurements V
86. In the potentiometer circuit shown in the
3. Smallest change in measured value to given figure, the value of unknown voltage
which the instrument can respond ‘E’ under balanced condition will be
14 of 17
List II
1. Voltage and current transient studies
2. Comparison of waveforms in time
domain
3. Television receiver
4. Accurate voltage measurements
A B C D
a. 200mV a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2.8V b. 1 4 2 3
c. 3V c. 4 1 3 2
d. 3.2 V d. 1 4 3 2
87. A wattmeter has a range of 1000 W with 91. Which one of the following resistance
an error of ±1% of full scale deflection. If configurations is best suited for the
the true power passed through it is 100 W, construction of a low resistance?
then the relative error would be
a.
a. ±10%
b. ±5%
c. ±1% b.
d. ±0.5%
88. In a permanent magnet moving coil
instrument, if the control spring is replaced c.
by another one having a higher spring
constant, then the natural frequency and d.
damping ratio will 92. High resistance are provided with a guard
a. decrease terminal in order to
b. increase and decrease respectively a. protect the resistance against stray
c. decrease and increase respectively electrostatic field
d. increase b. bypass the leakage current
89. Consider the following statements in c. protect the resistance against overloads
respect of thermoelectric instruments : d. protect the resistance against stray
1. They indicate the rms value of current electromagnetic field
or voltage. 93. The capacitance and loss angle of a
2. They suffer from waveform errors. capacitor can be accurately measured by
3. They can be used for frequency ranges a. Kelvin’s bridge
of the order MHz. b. Anderson’s bridge
4. They have a low overload capacity. c. Schering bridge
Which of these statements are correct ? d. Carey-Foster’s bridge
a. 1, 3 and 4 94. A resistance strain gauge is fastened to a
b. 1, 2 and 4 beam subjected to a strain of 1 × 10–6,
c. 1, 2 and 3 yielding a resistance change of 240 μΩ. If
d. 2, 3 and 4 the original resistance of the strain gauge
90. Match List I (Type of CRO) with List II is 120 Ω, the gauge factor would be
(Appropriate use) and select the correct a. 5
answer : b. 2
List I c. 1
A. Storage d. 0.2
B. Electrostatic deflection 95. In the CR0 plate connections shown in the
C. Magnetic deflection given figure, the supply frequency is 500
D. Multitrace
15 of 17
0.2 c. 1 s
Hz and the capacitance ‘C’ is μF. The
π d. 100 s
value of resistance ‘R’ required to obtain a 100. Which one of the following sets of
circle on the CRO screen (X and Y plates building block mainly decides the
have equal sensitivities) is accuracy of a frequency counter?
a. Crystal and ADC
b. ADC and DAC
c. DAC and gate width generator
d. Gate width generator and crystal
101. If the largest frequency present in the
measured signal and number of bits used
a. 2 kΩ
in the binary code, are respectively ‘fm’
b. 5 kΩ and ‘n’, then the minimum bandwidth of a
c. 7 kΩ pulse code modulation channel used for
d. 10 kΩ telemetry would be
96. The measurement junction of a a. f m / 2n
thermocouple is taken from an b. fm / n
environment of 300° C to 600° C. If the c. nfm
time constant of the thermocouple is 1 s, d. 2nfm
temperature indicated by it after 1 s will be
102. LCD displays are preferred over LED
nearly
displays because they
a. 300°C
a. are more reliable
b. 400° C
b. consume less power
c. 500° C
c. respond quickly
d. 600° C
d. are cheaper
97. In a single phase induction type energy
103. The plane x = 3 has a layer of charge
meter, the Lag adjustment is done to
density 2 nC/m2. A line charge of density
ensure that
20 nC/m is located at x = 1, z = 4. The
a. current coil flux lags the applied force acting on unit metre length of the
voltage by 90° line charge is
b. pressure coil flux lags the applied
2 ×10−9 × 20 ×10−9
voltage by 90° a. ax N
c. pressure coil flux is in phase with the 4πε 0
applied voltage 2 ×10−9 × 20 × 10−9
b. az N
d. current coil lags the pressure coil flux 2πε 0
by 90°
2 ×10−9 × 20 ×10−9
98. A voltage of {200 2 sin 314t + 6 2 sin c. ayN
2ε 0
(942t + 30°) + 8 2 cost (1570t + 30°)} V
is given to a harmonic distortion meter. 2 ×10−9 × 20 × 10−9
d. ax N
The meter will indicate a total harmonic 4ε 0
distortion of approximately
104. The electrostatic field on the surface of a
a. 4.5% ^
b. 6.5% conductor at a certain point is 0.3 a x +

^
c. 7.5% 0.4 a y . If the normal to the surface of the
d. 8.5% conductor at that point makes an angle θ
99. To eliminate 50 Hz pick-up in a dual slope with respect to x-axis, the value of cos θ
DVM, the minimum period of integration will be
of the input signal is a. 0.8
a. 1 ms b. 0.75
b. 20 ms c. 0.6
16 of 17
d. 0.5 7.5 ×10 3
a. × 30W / m 2
105. A rectangular loop carrying a current is 40 ×10 3
shown in the given figure The magnetic

7.5 × 103 × 30
potential A at the centre ‘O’ satisfies the b. W / m2
conditions 4π (40 × 10 )
3 2
7.5 × 103 × 1000

c. W / m2
4π (40 ×103 ) 2
7.5 ×103
d. × 30W / m 2
(40 ×103 ) 2
110. The projection of the vector
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
a. A = 0 and ∇ × A ≠ 0 6 a x + 2 a y − 3 a z along 3 a x − 4 a y is
b. A ≠ 0 and ∇ × A ≠ 0 a. 2
c. A ≠ 0 and ∇ × A = 0 ^
b. 18 a x − 8 a y
^
d. A ≠ 0 and ∇ × A ≠ 0 c. 10
106. A filamentary current of 10 π A flows in ^ ^
the negative z - direction. The magnetic d. 21 a x − 28 a y

field at (0, 5, 0) is 111. If a uniform plane wave propagating. in
^ ^ ^
a. a x A/m the direction (4 a x − 2 a y + a z ) has its E
b. a y A/m ^ ^ ^
field in the direction (4 a x − 2 K a y + 4 K a z ) ,
c. a z A/m the value of K must be
d. (a x )
+ a y A/m a. 2
b. –2
107. The electric energy density is ‘W’ at a
point in free space where the electric field c. 1
^ ^ ^ d. Zero
is a x E. If the electric field is a x E— a y E, 112. The net flux of electric field-emanating
in a dielectric of relative permittivity 4, from the surface ‘S’ with location of point
then the electric energy density at that charges as shown in the given figure is
point will be
a. Zero
b. 2 W
c. 4 W
d. 8 W
108. If the open- and short-circuit input Q1 + Q2
impedances of a loss-less line are a.
ε0
respectively Z1 and Z2, its characteristic
impedance will be Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4 + Q5
b.
a. Z1 + Z2 ε0
b. Z12 + Z 22 Q3 + Q4 + Q5
c.
ε0
Z12 + Z 22
c.
Z1 + Z 2 d. ε 0 ( Q1 + Q2 )
d. Z1Z 2 113. If the 36o arc AB of a circle shown in the

given figure is uniformly charges leaving
109. The directive gain of an antenna is 30 dB. the arc BCA uncharged, the electric field
If the antenna radiates 7.5 kW, the power at the centre ‘O’ is E. If the arc BCA is
density at a distance of 40 km will be given the same linear charge density and
17 of 17
the arc AB left uncharged, then the electric electric field intensity in region z ≤ 0 is E
field at the centre ‘O’ will be ^
= 10 a z kV/m, the potential difference
between (0, 0 –10–3) m and (0, 0, 10–3)m
will be
a. zero
b. 70V
c. 20V
d. 14V
a. E 118. An infinite plane sheet of uniform surface
b. − E charge density σ C/m2 is lying in the x-y
c. 9 E plane. The electric field E at a point P(0,
0, z) above the sheet (z > 0) would be (ε0
d. −9 E is the free space permittivity)
σ ^
^ ^
114. If B = B0z cos ωt a y and E = a x E x then a. E = az
2ε 0
a. EX = 0
b. EX = + B0z ω sin ωt σ ^
b. E = a z
c. EX = + B0 cos ωt ε0
d. EX = ½ B0 z2ω sin ωt az σ
^
115. A voltage of 50 sin 1000 t V is applied c. E =

4πε 0 z 2
across a parallel plate capacitor with plate
area of 5 cm2 and plate separation gap of 5 σ2 ^
d. E = az
mm. If the dielectric material in the 4πε 0 z 2
capacitor has ε = 2ε0, then the capacitor ^ ^ ^
current (in Amperes) will be 119. If the vector B = x 2 a x − xy a y − Kxz a z
104 represents a magnetic field, the value of
a. cos 103 t
ε0 the constant K must be
a. 0
b. ε0 104 cos 103 t
b. 1
104
c. sin 103 t c. 2
ε0 d. 3
d. ε0 104 sin 103 t 120. The region z < 0 has μr = 6 and the region
116. The torque on a dipole consisting of 1 μC z > 0 has μr = 4 . If the magnetic flux
of charge at (0, 0, 10–3)m and –1 μC of ^ ^
density in region z > 0 is 5 a x + 8 a z m
charge at (0, 0, –10–3) m in an electric field
⎛ ^ ^ ^
⎞ Wb/m2, the magnetic field intensity in
3 ⎜ 2 ax − 2 a y − 2 az ⎟ region z < 0 would be
E = 10 ⎝ ⎠ V/m. The value ^ ^
of torque would be 5 ax + 8 az
a. mA / m
⎛^ ^
⎞
–6 ⎜ a x + 2 a y ⎟
4 μ0
a. 2 × 10 ⎝ ⎠ N-m ^ ^
5 ax + 8 az
⎛^ ^
⎞ b. mA / m
⎜ a
–6 x + 2ay ⎟ 6 μ0
b. 10 ⎝ ⎠ N-m ^ ^
5 ax 8 az
c. –4 × 10 N-m –6
c. + mA / m
⎛^ ^
⎞ 4 μ0 6 μ0
d. –2 × 10–6 ⎜⎝ a x + 2 a y ⎟⎠ N-m ^ ^
5 ax 8 az
d. + mA / m
117. The region z ≤ 0 is dielectric of relative 6 μ0 4 μ0
permittivity 2 while the region z ≥ 0 is a
dielectric of relative permittivity 5. If the
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 15
PAPER-I
1. Digital data acquisition systems are used fundamental state of the atom cesium
1. Only when the output of the 133.
transducers is in digital form d. A second defined as 1/31556925.9747
2. When physical process being of the time required by the earth to
monitored is slowly varying (narrow orbit the sun in the year 1900
bandwidth) 4. Match List I (Error parameters) with list II
3. When low accuracy can be tolerated (Values) and select the correct answer: (a
4. When high accuracy and low per is the standard deviation of Gaussian
channel cost is required error):
Which of these statements are correct? List I
a. 1, 2 and 3 A. Precision index
b. 1, 3 and 4 B. Probable error
c. 1 and 3 C. Error limit
d. 2 and 4 D. Pak probability density of error
2. Match list I with list II and select the List II
correct answer: 1. 0.67 σ
List I (Terms) 2. 3 σ
A. Precision 3. 0.39/ σ
B. Accuracy 4. 0.71/ σ
C. Resolution A B C D
D. Static sensitivity a. 4 2 1 3
List II (Its meaning) b. 4 1 2 3
1. The smallest change in the input c. 3 1 2 4
quantity which can be detected with its d. 3 2 1 4
certainty 5. Match List I with List II and select the
2. Closeness of the reading with its true correct answer:
value List I (Bridge)
3. Measure of reproducibility of the A. Maxwell’s bridge
measurements B. Hay’s bridge
4. Ratio of infinitesimal change in output C. Schering bridge
to infinitesimal change in input D. Wien bridge
A B C D List II (Parameter to be measured)
a. 2 3 1 4 1. Frequency
b. 3 2 4 1 2. Inductance of medium Q-coils (1 < Q
c. 3 2 1 4 < 10)
d. 2 3 4 1 3. Inductance of high-Q coils (Q> 10)
3. The modern standard of time is 4. Capacitance
a. A second defined as 1/86,400 of a A B C D
mean solar day a. 4 3 2 1
b. A second defined as time constant of b. 4 1 2 3
an RC series circuit having R = 2 MΩ, c. 2 1 4 3
C = 500 pF d. 2 3 4 1
c. A second which is duration of 9 6. Which of the following are the
192631770 periods of radiation characteristics of a thermocouple type of
corresponding to the transition indicating instrument?
between the two hyperfine levels of the
2 of 15
1. Its accuracy is very high, as high as 9. If the Q-factor of a coil is measured by
about 1 percent. varying the frequency, then
2. It has a linear scale because a d’ a. The plot between Q and frequency is
Arsonval movement is used for linear
measuring the output. b. The value of Q initially decreases with
3. It is an RF instrument and can be used increase of frequency and afterwards it
for frequency up to about 50 MHz. will increase with increase of
4. It cannot be damaged by overloads. frequency
a. 1 and 2 c. The value of Q initially increases with
b. 2 and 3 increase of frequency and afterwards it
c. 3 and 4 will decrease with increase of
d. 1 and 3 frequency
7. Consider the following equations which d. The Q-factor remains constants
can be derived from the ac bridges shown irrespective of value of frequency
in the Figure I and Figure II by assuming 10. Consider the following statements:
ΔL/L = 0.1 and R = wL: The value of earth resistance depends upon
1. v01 = v02 1. Shape of electrode
2. Depth to which the electrode is driven
2. v01 = 0.05vs
into earth
3. v01 = 0.1vs 3. Specific resistance of soil
4. v02 = 0.05vs 4. Material of electrode
5. v02 = 0.1vs Which of the following statements is
correct?
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 4
11. Which of the following electronic
instruments (or equipment) can be used to
measure correctly the fundamental
frequency component of a waveform and
its higher harmonics?
1. Cathode ray oscilloscope
2. Vacuum tube voltmeter
3. Spectrum analyzer
4. Distortion factor meter
The correct derived equations from these
given below:
figures of ac bridges are
a. 1 and 2
a. 1,3 and 4
b. 2 and 3
b. 2,4 and 5
c. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 5
d. 1 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 5
12. In a single-phase power factor meter; the
8. Which one of the following statements
controlling torque is
correctly represents the post acceleration
a. Provided by spring control
in a Cathode-Ray Tube?
b. Provided by gravity control
a. It provides deflection of the beam
c. Provided by stiffness of suspension
b. It increases the brightness of the trace
if the signal frequency is higher than d. Not required
10 MHz 13. Which one of the following transducers
can be used for measurement of pressures
c. It accelerates the beam before
as high as 100,000 atmosphere?
deflection
a. Mcleod gauge
d. It increases the brightness of the trace
of low frequency signal b. Pirani gauge
c. Bridgman gauge
3 of 15
d. Knudsen gauge a. 1 kHz and 12
14. A dc circuit can be represented by an b. 1 kHz and 14
internal voltage source of 50 V with an c. 2 kHz and 12
output resistance of 100 k Ω. In order to d. 2 kHz and 14
achieve accuracy better than 99% for 18. An ac voltmeter using full-wave
voltage measurement across its terminals, rectification and having a sinusoidal input
the voltage measuring device should have has an ac sensitivity equal to
a resistance of at least a. 1.414 times dc sensitivity
a. 10 MΩ b. dc sensitivity
b. 1 M Ω c. 0.90 times dc sensitivity
c. 10 kΩ d. 0.707 times dc sensitivity
d. 1 kΩ 19. Consider the following statements in
15. Consider the following blocks diagrams: connection with measurement of
1. temperature:
1. A thermistor is highly sensitive as
compared with platinum resistance
thermometer.
2. The resistance of a thermistor is solely
2. a function of its absolute temperature
whether the source of heat is external,
internal or both.
3. A thermistor has linear resistance
3. temperature characteristics.
4. Most thermistors exhibit negative
resistance temperature coefficient.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1,2 and 3
4. b. 1,2 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
20. Time division multiplexing is used when
Which of these block diagrams can be the data to be transmitted is
reduced to transfer function a. Slow changing
C (s) G1 b. Of small bandwidth
= ? c. Slow changing and has a small
R ( s ) 1 − G1G2 bandwidth
a. 1 and 3 d. Fast changing and has a wide
b. 2 and 4 bandwidth
c. 1 and 4 21. If an induction type energy meter runs fast,
d. 2 and 3 it can be slowed down by
16. In electrodynamometer type watt meters, a. Lag adjustment
the inductance of pressure coil produces b. Light load adjustment
error. The error is c. Adjusting the position of braking
a. Constant irrespective of the power magnet and moving it closer from the
factor of the load centre of the disc
b. Higher at higher power factor loads d. Adjusting the position of braking
c. Higher at lower power factor loads magnet and moving it away from the
d. Highest at unity power factor loads centre of the disc
17. An analogue voltage signal whose highest 22. The circuit generally used in digital
significant frequency is 1 kHz is to be instruments to convert sine waves into
coded with a resolution of 0.01 percent for rectangular pulses is a
a voltage range of 0 – 10 V. The minimum a. Saw tooth generator
sampling frequency and the minimum b. Differential amplifier
number of bits should respectively be c. Sample and hold circuit
4 of 15
d. Schmitt trigger a. 1.171GPa
23. Spectrum analyzer is a combination of b. 1.182GPa
a. Narrow band super heterodyne c. 2.6 GPa
receiver and CR0 d. 2.55 GPa
b. Signal generator and CR0 30. When temperature bf a conductor is
c. Oscillator and wave analyzer approaching zero Kelvin, the mean free
d. VTVM and CR0 path of the free electrons in the conductor
24. Total number of electrons that can be is proportional to
accommodated in various electron states in a. T
a valence band of a given solid is equal to b. T3
a. Atomic number of the solid c. (1/T)1/3
b. Half the number of atoms in the solid d. 1/T3
c. The number of atoms in the solid 31. In a conductor of size 20 mm × 10 mm ×
d. Twice the number of atoms in the solid 10 mm, the wavelength of the slowest
25. Consider the following properties moving free electron is
pertaining to an alloy used as a precision a. 5 mm
resistor: b. l0 mm
1. Uniform resistance c. 20 mm
2. Stable resistance d. 40 mm
3. Zero or low temperature coefficient of 32. The conductivity of a conducting material
resistivity on being subject to critical magnetic field
Which of these properties are desirable? changes to
a. 1,2 and 3 a. Normal state
b. 1 and 2 b. Unstable state
c. 1 and 3 c. Temperature-independent state
d. 2 and 3 d. Temperature-dependent state
26. By inserting a slab of dielectric material 33. A large value of the exchange interaction
between the plates of a parallel plate energy in a ferromagnetic material implies
capacitor, the energy stored in the. a. Large saturation magnetization
capacitor has increased three times. The b. High Curie temperature
dielectric constant of the material is c. High melting point
a. 9 d. Large diamagnetic susceptibility
b. 3 34. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
c. 1/3 correctly matched?
d. 1/9 a. Copper : Diamagnetic
27. When a dielectric is subjected to an b. Sodium : Anti ferromagnetic
alternating electric field, of angular c. Iron : Ferromagnetic
frequency ‘ ω ’, its power loss is d. Ferrite : Ferromagnetic
proportional to 35. Ferromagnetic behavior is shown by those
a. ω transition meals where the ratio of the
b. ω 2 atomic diameter to 3d orbital diameter is
c. 1/ ω a. In the range of 0.5 to 1
d. 1/ ω 2 b. In the range of 1 to 1.5
28. For a given dielectric, with increase in c. In the range of 1.5 to 2
temperature the ionic polarizability d. Greater than 2
a. Increases 36. Ferrites can be considered as mixed oxides
b. Decreases of metals A and B having inverse spinel
c. Remains same structure. Their formula can be written as
d. Fluctuates a. ABO2
29. A piezoelectric crystal has an Young’s b. A2BO2
modulus of 130 GPa. The uniaxial stress c. AB2O3
that must be applied to increase its d. AB2O4
polarization from 500 to 510 C m-2 is
5 of 15
37. Match List I (Magnetic materials) with 1. Integrated Circuit
List 11 (Main applications) and select the 2. Laser
correct answer: 3. Busbar
List I 4. Heating element
A. Ni-Zn ferrite 5. Oscillator
B. Co-Sm alloy A B C D
C. Yttrium Iron Garnet a. 2 4 5 1
D. Mg-Zn ferrite b. 1 5 3 2
List II c. 2 5 3 1
1. Recording head d. 1 4 5 2
2. Permanent Magnets 41. Consider the following energy-momentum
3. Audio & TV transformers (E-k) curves labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 of
4. Memory cores different semiconductors:
5. Microwave isolators 1.
A B C D
a. 3 4 5 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 5 4
d. 1 4 3 2
38. For a semiconductor, which one of the
following statements is NOT correct?
2.
a. When an electron and a hole
recombine, energy must be liberated
b. Electrons in the conduction band can
acquire a net acceleration from a field
because there are empty energy levels
available
c. An electron in the valence band cannot
be accelerated by the field unless there 3.
are empty energy levels available
d. Holes cannot be accelerated by the
field unless there are empty energy
levels available
39. Consider the following statement:
Extrinsic semiconductors show high
electrical conductivity because the
impurities are 4.
1. Of high conductivity
2. Highly mobile
3. Highly charged
Which of these statements are NOT
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
Sets of direct and indirect gap curves are
c. 1 and 3
respectively
d. 1,2 and 3
a. (1, 2) and (3, 4)
b. (1, 4) and (2,3)
correct answer:
c. (1, 3) and (2, 4)
List I
d. (2, 3) and (1,4)
A. Ga-As
42. Match List I (p - n junction devices) with
B. Nichrome
List II (Application) and select the correct
C. Quartz
answer:
D. Si
List I
List II
6 of 15
A. Zener Diode d. A is false but R is true
B. Pin Diode 46. Assertion (A): When there is no charge in
C. Tunnel Diode the interior of a conductor the electric field
D. Varactor Diode intensity is infinite.
List II Reason (R): As per Gauss’s law the total
1. Fast-switching circuits outward electric flux through any closed
2. Microwave switches surface constituted inside the conductor
3. Local oscillators for radars must vanish.
4. Frequency converters a. Both A and R are true and R is the
5. Voltage regulators correct explanation of A
A B C D b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. 5 2 1 4 the correct explanation of A
b. 1 2 5 4 c. A is true but R is false
c. 5 3 1 2 d. A is false but R is true
d. 1 3 5 2 47. Assertion (A): The solution to the wave
43. The open circuit impedance of a certain equation at the critical diffracting
length of a lossless line is 100Ω. The short condition in a crystal yields standing
circuit impedance of the same line is also waves.
100Ω. The characteristic impedance of the Reason (R): Standing waves have periodic
line is variation both in amplitude as well as in
the electron probability density in the
a. 100 2Ω
crystal.
b. 50 Ω
c. 100 / 2Ω correct explanation of A
d. 100 Ω b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
44. Assertion (A): The relationship between the correct explanation of A
Magnetic Vector potential A and the c. A is true but R is false
Current density J in free space is d. A is false but R is true
∇ × ( ∇ × A ) = μ0 J . For a magnetic field in 48. Assertion (A): For a system to be stable,
free space due to a dc or slowly varying all coefficients of the characteristic
polynomial must be positive.
current is ∇ 2 A = − μ0 J
Reason(R): All positive coefficients of the
Reason (R): For magnetic field due to dc characteristic polynomial of a system is a
or slowly varying current ∇. A = 0 . sufficient condition for stability.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
∂D 49. In the feedback system C(s), R(s) and D(s)
45. Given that ∇ × H = J +
∂t are the system output, input and
Assertion (A): In the equation, the disturbance, respectively
∂D
additional term is necessary.
∂t
Reason (R): The equation will be
consistent with the principle of
conservation of charge. Assertion (A): For the system
a. Both A and R are true and R is the C ( s ) { R ( s ) + D ( s )} 1+ G (s)
=
correct explanation of A R (s) D (s) 1+ G (s) H (s)
Reason (R): Transfer function of a system
is defined as the ratio of output Lap lace
transform and input Lap lace transform
7 of 15
setting other inputs and the initial a. Both A and R are true and R is the
conditions to zero. correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false 54. Assertion (A): A unit current impulse
d. A is false but R is true applied to a capacitor of ‘C’ farads
50. Assertion (A): The number of separate instantly inserts 1/2C Joules of energy in
loci of the closed loop system it.
corresponding to Reason (R): A unit current impulse has
K ( s + 4) infinite current for zero duration and
G (s) H (s) = is three.
s ( s + 1)( s + 3) encloses a charge of one coulomb in it.
Reason (R) : Number of separate loci is correct explanation of A
equal to number of finite poles of G(s) b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
H(s) if the latter is more than the number the correct explanation of A
of finite zeros of G(s) H(s). c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 55. Assertion (A): In resistance
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT potentiometers used for measurement of
the correct explanation of A displacement, sensitivity and linearity are
c. A is true but R is false conflicting requirements.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R): The voltmeter used for
51. Assertion (A): The current in a constant measurement of output voltage of the
inductive system does not change potentiometer has, a finite resistance
instantaneously. which causes loading effects.
Reason (R): In constant inductive system a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the flux linkage is conserved initially. correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false 56. Assertion (A): In good quality magnetic
d. A is false but R is true cassette tape recorders, ac bias is provided
52. Assertion (A): Equivalent network to recording head for better recording and
obtained from Δ − Y transformation reproduction.
relationships in general is valid only for Reason (R): The use of ac bias avoids the
one frequency. nonlinear characteristic of the B-H curve
Reason (R): The impedances involved in of the recording head.
Δ − Y vary with frequency. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 57. Assertion (A): In digital transducers used
53. Assertion (A): Norton theorem is applied for measurement of displacement, it is
to a network for which no equivalent quite common to use Gray Code instead of
Thevenin’s network exists. natural binary code.
Reason (R): Norton’s Theorem enables Reason (R): Grey code is used for
one to calculate quickly current and overcoming the inherent disadvantages of
voltage in a particular branch of interest in a natural binary code. These include errors
a complicated network. that are caused on account of even slight
8 of 15
misalignment which may cause change of d.
decimal number thereby changing the
number of bits. Gray code does not sufer
from this disadvantage.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 60. A point charge +Q is brought near a corner
the correct explanation of A of two right angle conducting planes
c. A is true but R is false which are at zero potential as shown in the
d. A is false but R is true given Figure I. Which one of the following
58. ∫ A.dl
If A = aˆr + aˆφ + aˆ z , the value of configurations describes the total effect of
the charges for calculating the actual field
around the closed circular quadrants
in the first quadrant?
shown in the given figure is
a.
a. π
π
b. +4
2
c. π + 4
π
d. +2
2
59. A coaxial cable has two concentric b.
dielectrics separated by a sheath as shown
in the given figure. The distribution of
electric field ‘E’ and potential ‘ φ ’ in the
coaxial’ cable exist as
c.
a.
b. d.
c.
61. Plane defined by z = 0 carry surface
current density 2aˆ x A / m . The magnetic
intensity ‘Hy’ in the two regions
−α < z < 0 and 0 < z < α are respectively
9 of 15
a. aˆ y and – aˆ y
b. – aˆ y and aˆ y
c. aˆ x and – aˆ x
d. – aˆ x and aˆ x
62. A solid cylindrical conductor of radius ‘R’ 3.
carrying a current ‘I’ has a uniform current
density. The magnetic field intensity ' H '
inside the conductor at the radial distance
‘r’ (r < R) is
a. Zero 4.
b. I / 2π r
c. Ir / 2π R 2
d. IR 2 / 2π r 3
63. The electric field across a dielectric-air
interface is shown in the given figure. The
surface charge density on the interface is
The electric field will induce an emf in the
coils
a. C1 and C2
b. C2 and C3
c. C1 and C3
a. −4 ∈0 d. C2 and C4
66. A circular loop is rotating about the y-axis
b. −3 ∈0
as a diameter in a magnetic field
c. −2 ∈0 B = B0 sin ωt aˆ x Wb / m 2 . The induced emf
d. − ∈0 in the loop is
64. When air pocket is trapped inside a a. Due to transformer emf only
dielectric of relative permittivity ‘5’, for a b. Due to motional emf only
given applied voltage across the dielectric, c. Due to a combination of transformer
the ratio of stress in the air pocket to that and motional emf
in the dielectric is equal to d. Zero
a. 1/5 67. Match List I with List II and select the
b. 5 correct answer:
c. 1+5 List I (Law/quantity)
d. 5-1 A. Gauss’s law
65. Consider coils C1, C2, C3 and.C4 (shown in B. Ampere’s law
the following figures) which are placed in C. Faraday’s law
the time-varying electric field E ( t ) and D. Poynting vector
electric field produced by the coils C’2, C’3 List II (Mathematical expression)
and C’4 carrying time varying current I(t) 1. ∇.D = ρ
respectively: ∂B
2. ∇ × E = −
1. ∂t
3. S = E × H
(
4. F = q E + v × B )
∂D
5. ∇ × H = J c +
∂t
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
2. b. 3 5 2 1
10 of 15
c. 1 5 2 3 a. Zeno
d. 3 2 4 1 b. 50%
1+ | Γ | c. 36%
68. In the relation S = ; the values of S
1− | Γ | d. 26%
and Γ (Where S stands for wave ratio and 73. Consider the following statements:
Γ is reflection coefficient), respectively, The characteristic impedance of a
very as transmission line can increase with the
a. 1 to 1 and –1 to 0 increase in
b. 1 to ∝ and –1 to +1 1. Resistance per unit length
c. –1 to +1 and 1 to ∝ 2. Conductance per unit length
d. –1 to 0 and 0 to 1 3. Capacitance per unit length
69. In the source free wave equation 4. Inductance per unit length
∂2 E ∂E
∇ 2 E − μ0 ∈0 μ ∈ 2 − μ0 μ σ =0 a. 1 and 2
∂t ∂t b. 2 and 3
The term responsible for the attenuation of c. 1 and 4
the wave is d. 3 and 4
∂E 74. Match List I (Physical action or activity)
a. μ0 μσ
∂t with List II (Category of system) and
∂2 E select the correct answer:
b. μ0 ∈0 μ ∈ 2 List I
∂t
A. Human respiration system
c. ∇ 2 E B. Pointing of an object with a finger
∂E ∂2E C. A man driving a car
d. μ0 μσ and μ0 ∈0 μ0∈ 2 D. A thermostatically controlled room
∂t ∂t
70. Three media are characterized by heater
1. ∈r = 8, μ r = 2, σ = 0 List II
1. Man-made control system
2. ∈r = 1, μr = 9, σ = 0 2. Natural including biological control
3. ∈r = 4, μr = 4, σ = 0 system
∈r is relative permittivity, μ r is relative 3. Control system whose components are
both manmade and natural
permeability and σ is conductivity.
A B C D
The value of the intrinsic impedances of
a. 2 2 3 1
the media 1,2 and 3 respectively are
b. 3 1 2 1
a. 188 Ω, 377Ω and 1131Ω c. 3 2 2 3
b. 377Ω, 113Ω and l88Ω d. 2 1 3 3
c. 188Ω, 1131Ω and 377Ω 75. The Lap lace transform of a transportation
d. 1131Ω , 188Ω and 377Ω lag of 5 seconds is
71. ( )
A plane em wave E i H i traveling in a a. exp ( −5s )
perfect dielectric medium of surge b. exp ( 5s )
impedance ‘Z’ strikes 2Z. If the refracted 1
( )
em wave is E r H r , the ratios of E1 / Er c.
s+5
and Ei / H r are respectively ⎛ −s ⎞
d. exp ⎜ ⎟
a. 1/3 and 3/2. ⎝ 5 ⎠
b. 3/2 and 1/3 76. In the system shown in the given figure
c. 3/4 and 3/2 r ( t ) = 1 + 2t ( t ≥ 0 ) . The steady-state value
d. 3/4 and 2/3
of the error e(t) is equal to
72. For a perfect conductor, the field strength
at a distance equal to the skin depth is X%
of the field strength at its surface. The
value ‘X%’ is
a. Zero
11 of 15
b. 2/10 c. Non-zero number
c. 10/2 d. Constant
d. Infinity 81. The Nyquist plot of a servo system is
77. The phase angle of the system shown in the Figure I. The root loci for the
s+5 system would be
G (s) = 2 varies between
s + 4s + 9
a. 0° and 90°
b. 0° and –90°
c. 0° and –180°
d. –90° and –180°
78. The transfer function of a certain system is
s
given by G ( s ) =
(1 + s )
The Nyquist plot of the system is a.
a.
b. b.
c.
c.
d.
d. None of the drawn plot of (a), (b), (c)
of the question
82. The characteristic equation of a feedback
control system given by
s + 5s + ( K + 6 ) s + K = 0 .In the root loci
3 2
79. A second order control system is defined diagram, the asymptotes of the root loci
by the following differential equation: for large ‘K’ meet at a point in the s-plane
d 2c ( t ) dc ( t ) whose coordinates are
4 2
+8 + 16c ( t ) = 16u ( t ) a. (2, 0)
dt dt
b. (–1, 0)
The damping ratio and natural frequency
c. (–2, 0)
for this system are respectively
d. (–3, 0)
a. 0.25 and 2 rad/s
83. The open loop transfer function of a unity
b. 0.50 and 2 rad/s
K
c. 0.25 and 4 rad/s feedback system is given by . If
d. 0.50 and 4 rad/s s ( s + 1)
80. The steady state en-or due to a ramp input the value of gain K is such that the system
for a type two system is equal to is critically damped, the closed loop poles
a. Zero of the system will lie at
b. Infinite a. – 0.5 and 0.5
12 of 15
b. ± j0.5 Y (s) 2
d. =
c. 0 and –1 U ( s ) s 2 + 3s + 2
d. 0.5 ± j 0.5
84. If the Nyquist plot cuts the negative real 88. The mechanical system is shown in the
axis at a distance of 0.4, then the gain given figure
margin of the system is
a. 0.4
b. – 0.4
c. 4% The system is described as
d 2 y1 ( t ) dy ( t )
d. 2.5 a. M 2
+B 1 = k ⎡⎣ y2 ( t ) − y1 ( t ) ⎤⎦
85. The transfer function of a phase lead dt dt
1 + aTs d 2 y2 ( t ) dy ( t )
compensator is given by where b. M +B 2 = k ⎡⎣ y2 ( t ) − y1 ( t ) ⎤⎦
1 + Ts
2
dt dt
a > 1 and T > 0. The maximum phase shift d 2 y1 ( t ) dy ( t )
c. M +B 1 = k ⎡⎣ y1 ( t ) − y2 ( t ) ⎤⎦
provided by such a compensator is dt 2
dt
⎛ a +1⎞ d 2 y2 ( t ) dy ( t )
a. tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ d. M +B 2 = k ⎡⎣ y1 ( t ) − y2 ( t ) ⎤⎦
⎝ a −1 ⎠
2
dt dt
⎛ a −1 ⎞ 89. A linear time invariant system, initially at
b. tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ rest when subjected to a unit step input
⎝ a +1 ⎠
gave response. c ( t ) = te − t ( t ≥ 0 ) .
⎛ a +1⎞
c. sin −1 ⎜ ⎟ The transfer function of the system is
⎝ a −1 ⎠ s
⎛ a −1 ⎞ a.
d. sin −1 ⎜ ( s + 1)
2
⎟
⎝ a +1 ⎠
86. Consider the single input, single output 1
b.
s ( s + 1)
2
system with its state variable
representation: 1
⎡ −1 0 0 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤ c.
( s + 1)
2
X = ⎢ 0 −2 0 ⎥ X + ⎢⎢1 ⎥⎥ U
⎢ ⎥
1
⎣⎢ 0 0 −3⎦⎥ ⎣⎢0 ⎦⎥
d.
s ( s + 1)
Y = [1 0 2] X 90. A synchro transmitter consists of a
The system is a. Salient pole rotor winding excited by
a. Neither controllable nor observable an ac supply and a three-phase
b. Controllable but not observable balanced stator winding
c. Uncontrollable but observable b. Three-phase balance stator winding
d. Both controllable and observable excited by a three- phase balanced ac
87. A particular control system is described by signal and rotor connected to a dc
the following state equations: voltage source
⎡0 1⎤ ⎡0 ⎤ c. Salient pole rotor winding excited by a
X =⎢ ⎥ X + ⎢ ⎥ U and Y = [ 2 0] X dc signal
⎣ −2 −3⎦ ⎣1 ⎦ d. Cylindrical rotor winding and a
The transfer function of this system is: stepped stator excited by pulses
Y (s) 1 91. The torque-speed characteristic .of two-
a. = 2
U ( s ) 2s + 3s + 1 phase induction motor is largely affected
Y (s)
by
2
b. = 2 a. Voltage
U ( s ) 2s + 3s + 1 b. R/X and speed
Y (s) 1 c. X/R
c. = 2
U ( s ) s + 3s + 2 d. Supply voltage frequency
92. Match List I (Nature of eigen value) with
List II (Nature of singular point) for
13 of 15
linearised autonomous second order
system and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Complex conjugate pair
B. Pure imaginary pair a. 3.5Ω
C. Real and equal but with opposite sign b. 2.5Ω
D. Real, distinct and negative c. 1Ω
List II d. 4.5Ω
1. Centre 97. An electric circuit with 10 branches and 7
2. Focus point nodes will have
3. Saddle point a. 3 loop equations
4. Stable node b. 4 loop equations
5. Unstable node c. 7 loop equations
A B C D d. 10 loop equations
a. 1 5 3 4 98. For the circuit shown in the given figure,
b. 2 1 3 4 the current through L and the voltage
c. 2 1 4 3 across C2 are respectively
d. 1 5 4 3
93. In order to use Routh Hurwitz Criterion for
determining the stability of sampled data
system, the characteristic equation
1 + G(z) H(z) = 0 should be modified by
using bilinear trans form of a. zero and RI
a. z = r + 1 b. I and zero
b. z = r − 1 c. zero and zero
r −1 d. I and RI
c. z = 99. For the circuit shown in the given figure,
r +1
when the voltage E is 10 V, the current i is
r +1
d. z = 1 A. If the applied voltage across terminal
r −1 C-D is 100 V, the short circuit current
94. The system matrix of a discrete system is flowing through the terminal A-B will be
given by
⎡0 1⎤
A=⎢ ⎥
⎣ −3 −5⎦
The characteristic equation is given by a. 0.1A
a. Z2 + 5z + 3 = 0 b. 1A
b. Z2 – 3z – 5 = 0 c. 10A
c. Z2 + 3z + 5 = 0 d. 100A
d. Z2 + z + 2 = 0 100. The Thevenin’s equivalent resistance Rth
95. The current in the given circuit with a for the given network is
dependent voltage source is
a. 1Ω
a. 10A b. 2Ω
b. 12A
c. 4Ω
c. 14 A
d. Infinity
d. 16A
101. For the circuit shown in the given figure
96. The value of resistance ‘R’ shown in the
the current I is given by
given figure is
14 of 15
d 2i / dt 2 + i = v . If v = Ae2t , the dominant
solution of I for t > 0 is of the nature.
a. K1et
a. 3A b. K1e −t
b. 2A
c. K1e 2t
c. 1A
d. Zero d. K 2 cos t + K 3 sin t
102. The value of V in the circuit shown in the 107. A unit step u(t–5) is applied to the RL
given figure is network
a. 1 V The current i is given by

b. 2 V a. 1 − e− t
c. 3 V b. ⎡⎣1 − e −(t −5) ⎤⎦ u ( t − 5 )
d. 4 V
103. The Norton’s equivalent of circuit shown c. (1 − e− t ) u ( t − 5 )
in Figure I is drawn in the circuit shown in d. 1 − e −(t −5)
Figure II. The values of ‘ISc and Req in 108. The response of an initially relaxed system
to a unit ramp excitation is ( t + e −t ) . Its
Figure II are respectively
step response will be

a. 1/ 2t 2 − e −t
b. 1 − e− t
c. −e −t
a. 5/2 A and 2 Ω d. t
b. 2/5 A and 1 Ω 109. Two current wave forms as shown in the
c. 4/5 A and 12/5Ω figure I and figure II, are passed through
d. 2/5 A and 2Ω identical resistors of 1Ω. The ratio of heat
104. A pole of driving point admittance produced in these resistors in a given time
function implies by current of Figure I to Figure II is
a. Zero current for a finite value of
driving voltage
b. Zero voltage for a finite value of
driving current
c. An open circuit condition
d. None of (a), (b) and (c) mentioned in
the question
105. The driving point function of the circuit
shown in the given figure when s→0 and a. 2 : 1
s→∞, (the elements are normalized) will b. 1 : 2
respectively be c. 1 : 1
d. 1: 2
110. The response of a network is
i ( t ) = K t e −α t for t ≥ 0 where α is real
a. 1/s and 2/s positive. The value of ‘t’ at which the i(t)
b. 1/s and 0.75 will become maximum, is
c. 0.75 and 2/s a. α
d. 2/sand 0.75 b. 2 α
106. The response I of a network is expressed c. 1/ α
by the differential equation d. α 2
15 of 15
111. Cauer and Foster forms of realizations are
used only for
a. Driving point reactance functions
b. Transfer reactance functions v
c. Driving point impedance functions a. 1A
d. Transfer impedance functions b. 2A
112. For the given driving point impedance c. 3A
d. 4A.
4s 4 + 7 s 2 + 1
function Z ( s ) = , the circuit 1
s ( 2 s 2 + 3) 117. The system function H ( s ) = . For an
s +1
realization is shown in the given figure. signal cos t, the steady state response is
Then the values of L and C are ⎛ π⎞
respectively a. 1/ 2 cos ⎜ t − ⎟
⎝ 4⎠
b. cos t
⎛ π⎞
c. cos ⎜ t − ⎟
⎝ 4⎠
a. 0.5 and 5 d. 1/ 2 cos t
b. 2 and 1 118. The value of the capacitance ‘C’ in the
c. 4 and 1 given ac circuit to make it a constant
d. 4 and 3 resistance circuit OR for the supply current
113. The h parameters h11 and h22 are related to to be independent of its frequency is
z and y parameters as
a. h11 = z11 and h22 = 1/z22
b. h11 = z11 and h22 = y22
c. h11 = 1/y11 and h22 = 1/z22
d. h11 = 1/y11 and h22 = y22 a. 1/16 F
114. The driving point impedance b. 1/12 F
s+2 c. 1/8 F
Z (s) = . The system is initially at
s+3 d. 1/4 F
rest. For a voltage signal of unit step, the 119. The resonant frequency of the given series
current i(t) through the impedance Z is circuit is
given by
a. 2 − e −t
b. 3 / 2 − 1/ 2e−3t
c. 3 / 2 − 1/ 2e−2t
a. 1/ 2π 3Hz
d. 3 − 2e −3t
b. 1/ 4π 3Hz
115. If i = −10e −2t , the voltage of the source of
the given circuit, Vs is given by c. 1/ 4π 2Hz
d. 1/ π 2 Hz
120. The transfer function
V2 ( s ) 10s
= 2 is for an active
V1 ( s ) s + 10s + 100
a. −10e −2t a. Low pass filter
b. −20e −2t b. Band pass filter
c. 20e −2t c. High pass filter
d. −30e −2t d. All pass filter
116. The steady state in the circuit, shown in
the given figure is reached with S open. S
is closed at t = 0. The current I at t = 0+ is
I.E.S (OBJ) - 2002 1 of 16
PAPER–I
1. A potential field is given by V = 3x2y – yz. 6. A medium behaves like dielectric when
Which of the following is NOT true? the
a. At the point (1, 0, -1), V and the a. displacement current is just equal to
electric field E vanish the conduction current
b. x 2 y = 1 is an equipotential line in the b. displacement current is less than the
conduction current
xy-lane
c. The equipotential surface V – 8 passes c. displacement current is much greater
through the point P(2, -1, 4)
than the conduction current
d. displacement current is almost
d. A unit normal to the equipotential
surface V = -8 at P is
negligible
( −0.83xˆ + 0.55 yˆ + 0.07 zˆ ) 7. Two conducting coils 1 and 2 (identical
except that 2 is split) are placed in a
2. The relation between electric intensity E, uniform magnetic field which decreases at
voltage applied V and the distance d a constant rate as in the figure. If the
between the plates of a parallel plate planes of the coils are perpendicular to the
condenser is field lines, the following statements are
a. E = V/d made:
b. E = V × d
c. E = V/(d)2
d. E = V × (d)2
3. Ohm’s law in point form in field theory
can be expressed as
1. an e.m.f. is induced in, the split coil 2
a. V = RI
2. e.m.f. is are induced in both coils
b. J = E / σ
3. equal Joule heating occurs in both coils
c. J = σ E 4. Joule heating does not occur in any
d. R = ρ l / A coil
4. The magnetic flux through each turn of a Which of the above statements is/are true?
100 turn coil is (t3 - 2t) milli-Webers a. 1 and 4
where t is in seconds. The induced e.m.f. b. 2 and 4
at t = 2s is c. 3 only
a. 1V d. 2 only
b. -1V
8. For linear isotropic materials, both E and
c. 0.4 V
H have the time dependence e jωt and
d. -0.4 V regions of interest are free of charge. The
5. If a vector field B is solenoidal, which of value of ∇ × H is given by
these is true?
a. σ E
a. L ∫ B.dl = 0 b. jωε E
b. S ∫ B.ds = 0 c. σ E + jωε E
c. ∇ × B = 0 d. σ E − jωε E
d. ∇.B ≠ 0
2 of 16
9. Which of the following equations is/are 12. A plane wave whose electric field is given
not Maxwell’s equation(s)? by E = 100 cos(ωt - 6π x ) ẑ passes
∂lv normally from a material ‘A’ having
1. ∇.J = −
∂t ε r = 4, μr = 1 and σ = 0 to a material ‘B’
2. ∇.D = lv having ε r = 9 , μr = 4 and σ = 0 . Match
∂B items in List I with List II and select the
3. ∇.E = − correct answer:
∂t
List I
⎛ ∂E ⎞
4. ∫ H .dl = ∫ ⎜⎝ σ E + ε ∂t ⎟⎠.ds A. Intrinsic impedance of medium ‘B’
B. Reflection coefficient
Select the correct answer using the codes C. Transmission Coefficient
given below: D. Phase shift constant of medium ‘A’
a. 2 and 4 List II
b. 1 alone
1. 6 π
c. 1 and 3
2. 80 π
d. 1 and 4
3. 1/7
10. In free space
H ( z , t ) = 0.10 cos ( 4 × 10 t − β z ) Tx A/M.
7
4. 8/7
Codes;
The expression for E ( z , t ) is A B C D
a. E ( z, t ) = 37.7 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Ty a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
b. E ( z, t ) = 2.65 ×10 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Tz c. 4 3 2 1
c. E ( z, t ) = 37.7 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Tx
d. 2 1 4 3
13. In free space E ( z, t ) = 50 cos (ωt − β z ) ax
d. E ( z, t ) = −37.7 cos ( 4 ×107 t − β z ) Ty A/m and H ( z , t ) = 5 /12π cos (ωt − β z ) a y
11. A/m. The average power crossing a
circular area of radius 24 m in plane z =
constant is
a. 200 W
b. 250 W
c. 300 W
Consider the arrangement of two equal and d. 350 W
opposite charges of magnitude q separated 14. A copper wire carries a conduction current
by an infinitesimal distance 1 as shown in of 1.0 A at 50 Hz. For copper wire
the figure given above. If ar is the unit ε = ε 0 , μ = μ0 , σ = 5.8 ×10 mho/m. What
vector in the direction r and aθ is the unit is the displacement current in the wire?
vector in the directionθ, the electric field at a. 2.8 × 10 A
the point P is b. 4.8 × 10 A
−2q / cos θ q / sin θ c. 1 A
a. ar − aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 d. It cannot be calculated with the given
−2q / cos θ q / sin θ data
b. ar + aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 15. If A and J are the vector potential and
2q / cos θ q / sin θ current density vectors associated with a
c. ar + aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 coil, then ∫ A.Jdv has the units of
2q / cos θ q / sin θ a. Flux-linkage
d. ar − aθ
4πε r 3
4πε r 3 b. Power
c. Energy
3 of 16
d. Inductance d. 100%
16. A transmission line has R, L G and C 20. Which of the following has the greatest
distributed paramenters per unit length of mobility?
the line, γ is the propagation constant of a. Positive ion
the lines. Which expression gives the b. Negative ion
characteristic impedance of the line? c. Electron
γ d. Hole
a.
R + jωl 21. Match List I (Type of the material) with
R + jωl List II (Name of thfe material) and select
b.
γ the correct answer:
List I
G + jωC
c. A. Ferroelectric material
γ
B. Piezoelectric material
G + jωC C. Soft magnetic material
d.
R + jω L D. Hard magnetic material
17. Which of the following equations is List II
correct? 1. Permalloy
a. ax × ax = ax
2
2. BaTiO3 ceramic
3. KH2PO4
b. (a x × a y ) + ( a y × ax ) = 0 4. Tungsten steel
c. ax × ( a y × az ) = ax × ( az × a y ) Codes;
A B C D
d. ar .aθ + aθ .ar = 0
a. 3 2 1 4
18. Match List I with List II and select the b. 1 4 3 2
correct answer:
c. 3 4 1 2
List I (Term)
d. 1 2 3 4
A. Curl ( F ) = 0 22. On the application of the field E , the
B. Div ( F ) = 0 modified field due to polarization P in
solids and liquids having cubic symmetry
C. Div Grad (φ) = 0 is given by
D. Div div (φ) = 0 P
a. E +
List II (Type) ε0
1. Laplace equation
P
2. Irrotational b. E −
ε0
3. Solenoidal
P
4. Not defined c. E +
A B C D 3ε 0
a. 2 3 1 4 P
d. E −
b. 4 1 3 2 3ε 0
c. 2 1 3 4 23. The complex dielectric constant of a
d. 4 3 1 2 material is given by the expression :
19. Assuming the Fermi level EF to be ε = ε '− jε "
independent of temperature, EF may be
If a parallel plate capacitor with area ‘A’
defined as the level with an occupancy
and separation‘d’ is formed with this
probability of
material as a dielectric, the loss factor will
a. 0% be
b. 50%
a. ( Aε ') / ( d ε ")
c. 75%
b. ε "/ ε '
4 of 16
c. tan ⎡⎣( Aε ') / ( d ε ") ⎤⎦
−1 a. increase permeability of the material
b. increase electrical resistivity of the
d. tan −1 ⎡⎣( Aε ") / ( Aε ') ⎤⎦ material
24. At optical frequencies, the major c. increase the coercive force
contribution to the total polarization comes d. increase the saturation flux density
from 31. Which of the following is piezoelectric
a. space charge polarization material?
b. orientation polarization a. Quartz
c. ionic polarization b. Silica sand
d. electronic polarization c. Corundum
25. Which of the following insulating d. Polystyrene
materials has the least affinity for 32.
moisture?
a. Cotton
b. Paper
c. Asbestos
d. Mica
26. Which of the following statements is NOT
true? The resistance seen from the terminals A
a. Superconductors show perfect and B of the device whose characteristic is
diamagnetism shown in the figure is
b. Superconductors have almost zero a. – 5 Ω
resistivity b. – 1/5 Ω
c. The external magnetic field has no c. 1/5 Ω
effect on superconductors d. 5 Ω
d. Entropy increases on going from 33. The Fig. 1 shows a network, in which the
superconducting state to normal state diode is an ideal one.
27. The transition temperature of Mercury at
which it becomes superconductive is
a. 4.12°F
b. 4.12°C
c. 4.12 K
d. 41.2 K
28. de Brogue wavelength associated with a the terminal v – I characteristics of the
material particle is network is given by
a. inversely proportional to its energy a.
b. directly proportional to its momentum
c. directly proportional to its energy
d. inversely proportional to its
momentum
29. Which one of the following materials can
not be used for permanent magnets?
b.
a. Alnico
b. Barium Ferrite
c. Carbon-steel
d. Iron-Cobalt alloy
30. Upto about 4% silica is added in iron to be
used as a soft magnetic material. The
major reason for this is to c.
5 of 16
37. Superposition theorem is hot applicable for
a. voltage calculation
b. bilateral elements
c. power calculations
d. passive elements
38.
d.
For the circuit given in figure above the

34. power delivered by the 2 volt source is
given by
a. 4 W
b. 2 W
c. – 2 W
d. – 4 W
The current through 120 ohm resistor in 39.
the circuit shown in the figure is
a. 1 A
b. 2 A
c. 3 A
d. 4 A The (y) parameters of the network given in
35. Fig. 1 are given by
⎡ R −1 R1−1 ⎤
a. ⎢ 1−1 ⎥
⎣ R1 R1−1 ⎦
⎡ 0 R1−1 ⎤
b. ⎢ −1 ⎥
⎣ R1 R1−1 ⎦
⎡ R −1 0 ⎤
The v-i characteristic of an element is c. ⎢ 1 ⎥
shown in the figure given above. The ⎣ 0 0⎦
element is ⎡ R1−1 0 ⎤
a. non-linear, active, non-bilateral d. ⎢ −1 ⎥
⎣ R1 0 ⎦
b. linear, active, non-bilateral
c. non-linear, passive, non-bilateral 40. The impulse response of an LTI system is
given by 5u (t). If the input to the system is
d. non-linear, active, bilateral
given by ε-t then the output of the system
36. If the combined generator and. line is given by
impedance is (5 + j10) ohm, then for the
maximum power transfer to a load a. 5 (1 − ε −1 ) u ( t )
impedance from a generator of constant
generated voltage, the load impedance is
b. (1 − 5ε ) u ( t )
−1
given by which, one of the following c. 1 − 5ε −1u ( t )

a. (5 + j 10) Ω
d. 5u ( t ) − ε −1
b. (5 - j 10) Ω
c. (5 + j 5) Ω 41.
d. 5 Ω
6 of 16
The applied voltage v(t) is

For the circuit shown in the given figure, if a. 28.28 cos (5000 t — 45°) V
C = 20 μF, v(0-) = - 50 V and dv (0-)/dt =
b. 28.28 cos (5000 t + 45°) V
500 V/S, then R is
c. 28.28 sin (5000 t — 45°) V
a. 5 K
d. 28.28 sin (5000 t + 45°) V
b. 3 K
45. In the circuit shown in the given figure,
c. 5 K
d. 10 K
switch is closed at t = 0.
The current through the inductor L is

a. 0 A
b. 3 A
c. 4 A
The current through the capacitor will d. 8 A
decrease exponentially with a time 46. A parallel circuit consists of two branches.
constant One branch has RL and L connected in
a. 0.5 s series and the other branch has RC and C
b. 1 s connected in series. Consider the
c. 2 s following statements:
d. 10 s 1. The two branch currents will be in
43. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the quadrature if RL RC = L/C
switch is moved from position A to B at 2. The impedance of the whole circuit is
time t = 0. The current i through the independent of frequency, if RL = RC
inductor satisfies the following conditions and ω = 1/ LC
i(0) = - 8 A, di/dt (t = 0) = 3 A/s, i(∞) = 4 3. The circuit is in resonance for all the
A. frequencies if RL = RC
a. The two branch currents will be n
phase at ω = 1/ LC
Which of the above statements are correct?
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
e. 3 and 4
The value of R is 47. Three currents i1, i2 and i3 are approaching
a. 0.5 ohm a node. If i1 = 10sin ( 400t + 60° ) A , and
b. 2 ohm i2 = 10sin ( 400t − 60° ) A then i3 is
c. 4 ohm
a. 0
d. 12 ohm
44. In the given RC circuit, the current i(t) =2 b. 10 ( sin 400t ) A
cos 5000 t A. c. −10 ( sin 400t ) A
7 of 16
d. −5 3 ( 3sin 400t ) A 52. The inductance matrix of a system of two
mutually coupled inductors shown in Fig.
48. At resonant frequency a R-L-C series
⎡ 5 −4 ⎤
circuit draws maximum current due to the 1 is given by L = ⎢ ⎥
reason that ⎣ −4 7 ⎦
a. the difference between capacitance
reactance and inductance reactance is
zero
b. the impedance is more than the
resistance
c. the voltage across the capacitor equals
the applied voltage
d. the power factor is less than unity
49.
When the inductors are connected as

shown in Fug 2 the equivalent inductance
of the system is given by
In the given circuit, at resonance, IR in a. 20 H
Amperes is equal to
b. 4 H
a. 0
c. 16 H
b. 10
d. 8 H
c. 5
53. Consider the following statements about
d. 0.5 the D’Arsonval Movement :
50. Consider the following statements about 1. It is best suited for d.c. current
the quality factor of a R - L - C circuit: measurement
1. For the critically damped circuit, the 2. It responds to the average value of
quality factor Q = ½ current
2. Higher the value of quality factor 3. It measures the r.m.s. value of a.c.
higher will be the bandwidth of the currents
circuit
4. It could he used for power
3. Higher the value of quality factor measurements
lower will be the bandwidth of the
Which of these statements is/are correct?
circuit
a. Only 1
4. For under damped circuits the value of
Q is greater than ½ b. 1 and 2
Which of these statements are correct? c. 2 and 3
a. 1 and 2 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 3 54. Two meters X and Y require 40 mA and
50 mA, respectively, to give full-scale
c. 2 and 4
deflection, then
d. 1, 3 and 4
a. sensitivity can not be judged with
51. When two - Wattmeter method of given information
measurement of power is used to measure
b. both are equally sensitive
power in a balanced three phase circuit; if
the Wattmeter reading is zero, then c. X is more sensitive
a. power consumed in the circuit is zero d. Y is more sensitive
b. power factor of the circuit is zero 55. What is the correct sequence of the
following types of ammeters and
c. power factor is unity
voltmeters with increasing accuracy?
d. power factor is 0.5
1. Moving iron
8 of 16
2. Moving-coil permanent magnet b. Rx = C1R2/C3, Cx = R1C3/R2, Qx =
3. Induction 1/ωC1R1
Select the correct answer using the codes c. Rx = C1R1/C3, Cx = R2C3/R1, Qx =
given below 1/ωC1R1
a. 1, 3, 2 d. Rx = C1R1/C3, Cx = R2C3/R1, Qx=
b. 1, 2, 3 ωC1R1
c. 3, 1, 2 59. The reflecting mirror mounted on the
d. 2, 1, 3 moving coil of a vibration galvanometer is
56. The total current I = I1 + I2 in a circuit is replaced by a bigger size mirror. This will
result in
measured as I1 = 150 ± IA, I 2 = 250 ± 2 A ,
a. lower frequency of resonance & lower
where the limits of error are given as
amplitude of vibration
standard deviations. I is measured as
b. lower frequency of resonance but the
a. (400 ± 3)A
amplitude of vibration is unchanged
b. (400 ± 2.24) A
c. higher frequency of resonance & lower
c. (400 ± 1/5) A amplitude of vibration
d. (400 ± 1) A d. higher frequency of resonance but the
57. Match List I with List II and select the amplitude of vibration is unchanged
correct answer e: 60. Consider the following statements
List I (Device/network) associated with moving iron instruments
A. Twin-T network 1. These can be used in d.c. as well. a.c.
B. Shielded decade capacitance box circuits
C. Wagner earthing arrangement 2. The scale is non-uniform
D. Inter bridge transformer 3. The moving iron is placed in a field. of
List II (Application) a permanent magnet
1. For use in accurate a.c. bridge Which of these statements are correct?
2. For realizing frequency selective a. 1, 2 and 3
amplifier b. 1 and 2
3. To match impedance and block d.c. c. 2 and 3
noise in a.c. bridge d. 1 and 3
4. For minimizing earth capacitance 61. A screen pattern oscillogram, shown in the
leakage given figure is obtained when a sine-wave
A B C D signal of unknown frequency is connected
a. 2 1 4 3 to the vertical input terminals, and at the
b. 3 4 1 2 same time, a 600 Hz sine-wave voltage is
c. 2 4 1 3 connected to the horizontal input terminals
of an oscilloscope
d. 3 1 4 2
58. For the bridge shown in the given figure,
What is the value of unknown frequency?

a. 300 Hz
b. 400Hz
at balance the values of Rx , Cx and Qx will c. 600Hz
be d. 900Hz
a. Rx = C1R2/C3, Cx = R1C3/R2, Qx = 62. Which of the following statements is NOT
ωC1R1 correct for a storage type oscilloscope?
9 of 16
a. The storage target is a conductive The value of the Wattmeter current coil
mesh covered with magnesium resistance r, which makes the connection
fluoride. errors the same in the two cases is
b. Secondary emission electrons etch a a. 0.05 Ω
positively charged pattern b. 0.1 Ω
c. The flood guns used for display, emit c. 0.01 Ω
nigh velocity electrons
d. 0.125 Ω
d. The flood guns are placed between the
67. In calibration of a dynamometer
deflection plates and storage target
Wattmeter by potentiometer, phantom
63. In an oscilloscope, two Lissajous figure loading arrangements is used because
(X) and (Y) are observed. This indicates
a. The arrangement gives accurate results
that ratio of vertical input signal frequency
to that of horizontal input frequency are b. The power consumed in calibration
work is minimum
c. The method gives quick results
d. The onsite calibration is possible
68. The accuracy of Kelvin’s double bridge
for the measurement of low resistance is
high because the bridge
a. User two pairs of resistance arms
a. 5/3 for X and 3/2 for V
b. Has medium value resistance in the
b. 3/2 for X and 5/3 for Y ratio arms
c. 5/3 for X and 5/3 for Y c. Uses a low resistance link between
d. 3/2 for X and 3/2 for Y standard and test resistances
64. A spring controlled moving iron voltmeter d. Uses a null indicating galvanometer
draws a current of 1 mA for full scale 69. An imperfect capacitor is represented bya
value of 1000 V. If it draws a current of capacitance C in parallel with a resistance
0.5 mA, the meter reading is
R. The value of its dissipation facto tan δ
a. 25 V is
b. 50 V a. ω C R
c. 100 V
b. ω2 C R
d. 200 V
c. 1/ω2 C R
65. In the measurement of power on balanced
load by two-Wattmeter method in a 3- d. 1/ω C R
phase, circuit, the readings of the 70. An energy-meter having a meter constant
Wattmeter are 3 kW and 1 kW of 1200 rev per kWH is found to make 5
respectively, the latter being obtained after revolutions in 75s. The load power is
reversing the connections to the current a. 500 W
coil. The power factor of the load is b. 100 W
a. 0.277 c. 200 W
b. 0.554 d. 1000 W
c. 0.625 71. Which one of the following statements is
d. 0.866 NOT true?
66. Two types of connections of Wattmeter a. Potentiometric Linear displacement
pressure coil are shown in the figure, can give high output signal
b. Linear variable differential transformer
has low output impedance
c. Synchros and resolves have low
accuracy
d. Eddy current proximity transducers are
non-contact type transducers
10 of 16
72. Match List I with List II and select the 75. To reduce the effect of noise level, 100
correct answer: sets of data are averaged. The averaged
List I (Transducer) data set will have a noise level reduced by
A. Mercury in glass thermometer a factor of
B. Platinum resistance thermometer a. 10
C. Thermocouple with led compensation, b. 10 2
D. Optical radiation pyrometer c. 50 2
List II (Range of temperature) d. 100
1. Can be used upto 300°C in normal 76. Which of the following transducers is
conditions classified as an active transducer?
2. Can be used upto 900°C with sufficient a. Metallic strain gauge
accuracy b. Capacitive microphone
3. Can be used upto 1400°C c. LVDT
4. Can be used for temperatures upto d. Piezoelectric transducer
several thousand degrees
77.
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
73. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer Which curve in the given figure represents
List I (Instrument) resistance temperature characteristics of a
A. McLeod gage thermistor?
B. Turbine meter a. Curve A
C. Pyrometer b. Curve B
D. Synchros c. Curve C
List II (Measurand) d. Curve D
1. Temperature 78. A 1 cm piezoelectric transducer having a
g-coefficient of 58 V/kg/m2 is subjected to
2. Pressure.
a constant pressure of 10’ kg/m2 for about
3. Flow 15 minutes. The Piezo voltage developed
4. Displacement by the transducer will be
A B C D a. 116 mV
a. 1 4 2 3 b. 58 mV
b. 2 3 1 4 c. 29 mV
c. 1 3 2 4 d. 0 mV
d. 2 4 1 3 79. If K is the number of parity bits provided
74. In a stroboscopic method of rotational with a message, the numbers of errors
speed measurement of a machine shaft, which can be detected are?
N = the machine shaft speed of rotation of a. K
the shaft in revolutions 1mm. b. K – 1
n = No. of paints on the circuit pattern c. K + 1
F = No of flash per mm. d. dependent upon the number of bits in.
The speed of rotation N will be the message also
a. N = F + n 80. Which of the following are the
b. N = F - n characteristics of closed- loop systems?
c. N = F/n 1. It does not compensate for
d. N = F.n disturbances
11 of 16
2. It reduces the sensitivity of plant-
parameter variations
3. It does not involve output
measurements
4. It has the ability to control the system 3.
transient response
given below:
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4 4.
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
81.
Codes;
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
The number of forward paths and the d. 3 1 4 2
number of non-touching loop pairs for the 83. Match List I with List II and select the
signal flow graph given in the figure are correct answer:
respectively, List I (Property)
a. 1, 3 A. Relative stability
b. 3, 2 B. Speed of response
c. 3, 1 C. Accuracy
d. 2, 4 D. Sensitivity
82. List I and List II show the transfer function List II (Specification)
and polar plots respectively. Match List I 1. Rise time
with list II and select the correct answer: 2. Velocity error constant
List I 3. Return difference
1 4. M-peak
A.
s (1 + sT ) Codes;
1 A B C D
B.
(1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 ) a. 4 3 2 1
1 b. 2 1 4 3
C. c. 4 1 2 3
s (1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )
d. 2 3 4 1
1 84. Given the transfer function
D.
s (1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )
2
121
G (s) = of a system. Which
List II s + 13.2 s + 121
1. of the following characteristics does it
have?
a. Over damped and settling time 1.1s
b. Under damped and settling time 0.6s
c. Critically damped and settling time
2. 0.8s
d. Under damped and settling time 0.707s
85.
12 of 16
88. Which of the following are the
characteristics of the root locus of
K ( s + 5)
G (s) =
( s + 1)( s + 3)
The steady-state error resulting from an 1. It has one asymptote
input r(t) = 2 +3t + 4t2 for given state is 2. It has intersection with j w-axis
a. 2.4 3. It has two real axis intersections
b. 4.0 4. It has two zeros at infinity
c. Zero Select the correct answer using the codes
d. 3.2 given below
86. If a ramp input is applied to Type-2 a. 1 and 2
system, the steady- stage error is b. 2 and 3
a. positive constant c. 3 and 4
b. negative constant d. 1 and 3
c. zero 89.
d. positive infinity
87. Identify the correct root locus from the
figures given below referring to poles and
zeros at ± j 8 and ± j 10 respectively of
G(s) H(s) of a single-loop control system.
a.
The closed loop system shown above
becomes marginally stable if the constant
K is chosen to be
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
b.
90.
c.
Consider the Nyquist diagram for given

KG(s) H(s). The transfer function
KG(s)H(s) has ho poles and zeros in the
right half of s-plane. If the (-1, j0) point is
located first in region I and then in region
II, the change in stability of the system
d. will be from
a. unstable to stable
b. stable to stable
c. unstable to unstable
d. stable to unstable
13 of 16
91. The characteristic equation of a system is 95. A linear time invariant system is described
given by 3s 4 + 10 s 3 + 5s 2 + 2 = 0 . This by the following dynamic equation
system is dx ( t ) / dt = Ax ( t ) + Bu ( t )
a. Stable
y ( t ) = Cx ( t )
b. Marginally stable
⎡0 1⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
, B = ⎢ ⎥ , C = [1 1]
c. Unstable
Where A = ⎢ ⎥
d. Neither (a), (b) not (c) ⎣ −2 −3⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
92. Match List I with List II and select the The system is
correct answer: a. Both controllable and observable
List I b. Controllable but unobservable
A. Phase lag controller c. Observable but uncontrollable
B. Addition of zero at origin d. Both uncontrollable and unobservable
C. Derivative output compensation 96. The state-space representation in phase-
D. Derivative error variable from for the transfer function
2s + 1
G (s) = 2
List II
1. Improvement in transient response s + 7s + 9
2. Reduction in steady-state error ⎡0 1⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
a. x = ⎢ ⎥ x + ⎢ ⎥ u; y = [1 2] x
⎣ −9 −7 ⎦
3. Reduction in settling time
⎣1 ⎦
4. Increase in damping constant
⎡1 0⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
Codes; b. x = ⎢ ⎥ x + ⎢ ⎥ u; y = [ 0 1] x
A B C D ⎣ −9 −7 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
⎡ −9 0 ⎤ ⎡0⎤
x + ⎢ ⎥ u; y = [ 2 0 ] x
a. 4 3 1 2
c. x = ⎢ ⎥
b. 2 4 3 4 ⎣ 1 −7 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
c. 4 1 3 2 ⎡ −9 0 ⎤ ⎡0⎤
d. 2 3 1 4 d. x = ⎢ ⎥ x + ⎢ ⎥ u; y = [1 2] x
⎣ 1 0⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
93. Indicate which one of the following
transfer functions represents phase lead ⎡1 2 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
97. Let X = ⎢ ⎥ X + ⎢ ⎥U
compensator? ⎣0 1 ⎦ ⎣1 ⎦
s +1
a. Y = [b 0] X
s+2
Where b is an unknown constant
6s + 3
b. This system is
6s + 2
a. Observable for all values of b
s+5
c. b. Unobservable for all values of b
3s + 2
c. Observable for all non-zero values of b
s +8
d. d. Unobservable for all non-zero values
s + 5s + 6 of b
94. A transfer function of a control system 98.
does not have pole-zero cancellation.
Which one of the following statements is
true?
a. System is neither controllable nor
observable
b. System is completely controllable and Select the correct transfer function
observable v0 ( s ) / v1 ( s ) from the following for the
c. System is observable but given network.
uncontrollable 2
a.
d. System is controllable but s ( s + 1)
unobservable
14 of 16
s The describing function of given
b.
( s + 2) nonlinearity will be
4MK
s a.
c. πx
( 2s + 1) 4M
2s b. K +
d. πx
( s + 1)
4M 1 − K 2
99. Which one of the following statements is c.
πx
INCORRECT with reference to pneumatic
system? 4M
d.
a. Operating pressure is low compared to π Kx
hydraulic system 103. Consider the following statements
b. Leaks can create problems as well as 1. If the input is a sine wave of radian
fire hazards frequency o, the output in general is
c. They are insensitive to temperature non-sinusoidal containing frequencies
changes which are multiple of w
d. High compressibility of air results. in 2. The jump resonance may occur
longer time delays 3. The system exhibits self-sustained
100. Consider the following statements oscillation of fixed frequency and
regarding A.C. servomotor amplitude
1. The torque-speed curve has negative 4. The response to a particular test signal
slope is a guide to the behaviour to other
inputs
2. It is sensitive to noise
Which of the above statements are correct
3. The rotor has high resistance and low
and peculiar to nonlinear system?
inertia
a. 1, 3 and 4
4. It has slow acceleration
b. 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following are the
characteristics of A.C. servo-motor as c. 1, 2 and 3
control component? d. 1, 2 and 4
a. 1 and 2 104. For the given sampled-data system
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
The z-transform is
d. 2 and 4
a.
101. Backlash in a stable control system may
cause
a. under damping
b. over damping b.
c. high level oscillations
d. low level oscillations
102. c.
d.
105. The output of first order hold between two

The describing function of relay consecutive sampling instants is a
nonlinearity is 4M/X : M = Magnitude of
a. Constant
relay, X = Magnitude of input.
b. Quadratic function
15 of 16
c. Ramp function Reason (R): The imaginary part of the
d. Exponential function relative permittivity is responsible for
106. match List I with List II and select the dielectric loss.
correct answer: a. Both A & B are true and R is the
List I (Elements) correct explanation of A
A. Controller b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
B. Sampler correct explanation of A
C. Hold c. A is true but R is false
List II d. A is false but R is true
1. A/D convereter 110. Assertion (A): A doped semiconductor
will behave as a perfect insulator at zero
2. Computer Kelvin but its electrical conductivity will
3. D/A converter rise if the temperature is slowly increased
A B C above zero Kelvin.
a. 3 1 2 Reason (R): The rise in electrical
b. 2 3 1 conductivity is mainly, due to increased
c. 3 2 1 ionization as the temperature is raised
d. 2 1 3 above zero Kelvin.
a. Both A & B are true and R is the
107. Assertion (A): ∫ B.ds = 0 where B =
magnetic flux density ds = vector with b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
direction normal to surface element ds. correct explanation of A
Reason (R): Tubes of magnetic flux have c. A is true but R is false
no sources or sinks. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A & B are true and R is the 111. Assertion (A): Node-voltage analysis of
correct explanation of A networks is a method that used Kirchoff’s
b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the current law to obtain a set of simultaneous
correct explanation of A equations that, when solved, will provide
c. A is true but R is false information concerning the magnitudes
d. A is false but R is true and phase angles of the voltages across
108. Consider a plane electromagnetic wave each branch.
incident normally on the surface of a good Reason (R): The ideal generator maintains
conductor. The wave has an electric field a constant voltage amplitude and wave-
of amplitude 1 (V/m) and the skin depth shape regardless of the amount of current
for the conductor is 10 cm. it supplied to the circuit.
Assertion (A): The amplitude of electric a. Both A & B are true and R is the
field is (1/e2) (V/m) after the wave has correct explanation of A
travelled a distance of 20 cm in the b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
conductor. correct explanation of A
Reason (R): Skin depth is the distance in c. A is true but R is false
which the wave amplitude decays to (1/e) d. A is false but R is true
of its value at the surface 112. Assertion (A): All networks made up of
a. Both A & B are true and R is the passive, linear time invariant elements are
correct explanation of A reciprocal.
b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the Reason (R): Passivity and time-invariance
correct explanation of A of elements do not guarantee reciprocity of
c. A is true but R is false the network.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A & B are true and R is the
109. Assertion (A): When an alternating field is correct explanation of A
applied to a dielectric, the relative b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
permittivity is a complex quantity. correct explanation of A
16 of 16
c. A is true but R is false 117. Assertion (A): A spectrum analyzer
d. A is false but R is true displays the frequency spectrum of a
113. Assertion (A): Transfer impedance of signal on the CRT screen.
network is always the reciprocal of its Reason (R): It uses a sweep voltage
transfer admittance. generator to sweep the electron beam as
Reason (R): The impedance of a network well as the input signal.
is the reciprocal of its admittance. a. Both A & B are true and R is the
a. Both A & B are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A): A system may have no
114. Assertion (A): There are pulsations in steady state error to a step input, but the
power of a balanced three-phase system. same system may exhibit non zero steady
state error to ramp input.
Reason (R): The three-phase generators
produce sinusoidal voltages and current. Reason (R): The steady state error of a
system depends on the ‘type’ of the open
a. Both A & B are true and R is the
correct explanation of A loop transfer function.
b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the a. Both A & B are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
115. Assertion (A): A full-wave rectifier type
a.c. voltmeter reads the true rms value of d. A is false but R is true
the input wave4orm. 119. Assertion (A): Relative stability o a system
reduces due to the presence of
Reason (R): The full wave rectifier type
a.c. voltmeter has a rectifier unit first transportation lag.
which feeds its output to the PMMC Reason (R): Transportation lag can be
indicative instrument. conveniently handled by Bode plot.
a. Both A & B are true and R is the a. Both A & B are true and R is the
b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
116. Assertion (A): A four-arm ‘Wien’ bridge 120. Assertion (A): If any one of the state
network is sometimes used in feedback variables is independent of the control u(t),
circuit of tuned amplifier. the process is said to be completely
uncontrollable.
Reason (R): The balance equation of such
a Wien bridge contains ‘frequency’ term Reason (R): There is no way of driving
along with arm parameters. this particular state variable to a desired
a. Both A & B are true and R is the state in finite time by means of a control
correct explanation of A effort.
b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the a. Both A & B are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A & R are true but R is NOT the
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003 1 of 15
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements with d. 1 and 4
reference to a system with velocity error 4.
constant Ky = 1000
1. The system is stable.
2. The system is of type 1
3. The test signal used is a step input.
Which of these statements are correct? The Bodge phase angle plot of a system is
a. 1 and 2 shown above.
b. 1 and 3 The type of the system is
c. 2 and 3 a. 0
d. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1
2. Which one of the following statements is c. 2
NOT of correct? d. 3
a. With the introduction of integral 5. The loop transfer function of a system is
control, the steady state error increases given by:
b. The generalised error coefficients K ( s + 10) 2 ( s + 100)
provide a simple way of determining G(s) =
s ( s + 25)
the nature of the response of a
The number of loci terminating at infinity
feedback control to any arbitrary input
is
c. The generalized error coefficients lead
a. 0
to calculation of complete steady state
response without actually solving the b. 1
system differential equation c. 2
d. For a type-1 system, the steady state d. 3
error for acceleration input is infinite 6.
3. Consider the following statements with
reference to the root loci of the
characteristic equation of unity feedback
control system with an open loop transfer
function of
K ( s + 1)( s + 3)( s + 5)
G(s) = The Nyquist plot of a unity feedback
s ( s + 2) K ( s + 3)( s + 5)
1. Each locus starts at an open loop pole system having open G ( s ) =
( s − 2)( s − 4)
and ends either at an open loop zero or
loop transfer function for K = 1 is as
infinity
shown above. For the system to be stable,
2. Each locus starts at an open loop pole the range of values of K is
or infinity and ends at an open loop
a. 0 < K < 1.33
zero.
b. 0 < K < 1/1.33
3. There are three separate root loci.
c. K > 1.33
4. There are five separate root loci.
d. K > 1/1.33
7.
a. 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
2 of 15
c. Phase-lag compensation improves
steady state response and often results
in reduced rise time
d. Compensating network can be
introduced in the feedback path of a
control system
The Nyquist plot of a control system is 11. Consider the following statements with
shown above. For this system, G(s) H(s) is respect to a system represented by its state-
equal to space model
K X = AX + Bu and Y = CX
a.
s(1 + sT1 ) 1. The static vector X of the system is
K unique.
b.
s (1 + sT1 )
2 2. The Eigen values of A are the poles of
the system transfer function
K
c. 3. The minimum number of state
s (1 + sT1 )
3
variables required is equal to the
K number of independent energy storage
d.
s (1 + sT1 ) s (1 + sT1 )
2 elements in the system.
8.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
12. The state-space representation of a system
is given by
The pole-zero map and the Nyquist plot of
⎡ −1 0 ⎤ ⎡1 ⎤ ⎡1⎤
the loop transfer function GH(s) of a X =⎢ ⎥ X + ⎢ ⎥ U and Y = ⎢ ⎥ X
feedback system are shown above. For this ⎣ 0 −2 ⎦ ⎣0⎦ ⎣1⎦
a. Both open loop and closed loop system Then the transfer function of the system is
are stable 1
a.
b. Open loop system is stable but closed s + 3s + 2
2
loop system is unstable 1

c. Open loop system is unstable but b.
s+2
closed loop system is stable
1
d. Both open loop and closed loop c.
systems are unstable s + 3s + 2
2
9. A property of phase-lead compensation is 1

d.
that the s +1
a. Overshoot is increased 13.
b. Bandwidth of closed lop system is
reduced
c. Rise-time of closed loop system is
reduced
d. Gain margin is reduced
10. Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct ? A seismic transducer using a spring-mass-
a. The transfer function of a lag-lead damper system as shown above will have
compensation network is an output displacement of zero when the
(1 + sT1a )(1 + sT2b) input xi is a
(a > 1, b < 1)
(1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 ) a. Constant displacement
b. Bridged T-network is used for b. Constant velocity
cancellation compensation c. Constant acceleration
3 of 15
d. Sinusoidal displacement
correct answer:
List I (Component)
A. Input potentiometer in d.c. system
D.
B. Synchro pair in a.c. system
C. Motor
D. Feedback tachogenerator
List II (Purpose)
1. Actuator
2. Error detector List II
3. Transducer 1.
A B C D
a. 3 2 3 1
b. 2 3 1 3
c. 2 3 3 1
d. 3 2 1 3
NOT correct?
a. The action of bellows in pneumatic 2.
control system is similar to that of a
spring
b. The flapper value converts large
changes in the position of the flapper
into small changes in the back pressure 3.
c. The common name of pneumatic
amplifier is pneumatic relay
d. The transfer function of a pneumatic
actuator is of the form :
A
Ms + fs + K
2
4.
16. Match List I (Root Locations) with List II
(Phase Plane Plots) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A.
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 2 3 1 4
B. 17. Match List I (Nonlinearity) with List II
(Characteristics) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Saturation
B. ldealstiction and Coulomb friction
C.
C. Dead Zone
D. Relay with hysteresis
List II
1.
4 of 15
data system using bilinear
1+ ω
transformation Z =
1− ω
3. A discrete data system is unstable if
any of roots of the characteristic
2.
equation lies within the unit circle on
the complex plane.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
3. c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3
21. Assertion (A) : The test charge may have
any value while defining electric field
intensity.
Reason (R) : The test charge should not
disturb the field being measured.
4. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
A B C D 22. Assertion (A) : The scalar magnetic
a. 3 1 2 4 potential is evidently the quantity whose
b. 1 3 2 4 equipotential surfaces will form
c. 3 1 4 2 curvilinear squares with the stream lines of
d. 1 3 4 2 H.
18. Which one of the following methods is Reason (R) : The scalar magnetic potential
NOT used for the analysis of nonlinear satisfies Laplace’s equation where J = 0.
control systems? a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Phase plane method R is the correct explanation of A
b. Describing function method b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. Liapunov’s method R is not the correct explanation of A
d. Piecewise linear method c. A is true but R is false
19. The transfer function of ZOH (Zero Order d. A is false but R is true
Hold) is 23. Assertion (A) : For steady current in an
a. 1–eTs arbitrary conductor, the current density is
b. 1–e–Ts solenoidal.
1 − eTs Reason (R) : The reciprocal of the
c. resistance is the conductivity.
s
a. Both A and R are individually true and
1 − e − Ts R is the correct explanation of A
d.
s b. Both A and R are individually true but
20. Consider the following statements: R is not the correct explanation of A
1. A discrete-time system is said to be c. A is true but R is false
stable if and only if its response of unit d. A is false but R is true
impulse δ(t) decays with k. 24. Assertion (A) : Displacement current can
2. Routh-Herwitz testing may be applied have only a.c. components.
to determine the stability of discrete- Reason (R) It is generated by a change in
electric flux.
5 of 15
a. Both A and R are individually true and 29. Assertion (A) : In a series R-L-C circuit,
R is the correct explanation of A the current is a minimum at resonant
b. Both A and R are individually true but frequency.
R is not the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The maximum voltage across
c. A is true but R is false the capacitor occurs at a frequency lower
d. A is false but R is true than the resonant frequency.
25. Assertion (A) : A uniform plane wave is a a. Both A and R are individually true and
transverse electromagnetic wave. R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : A uniform plane wave can b. Both A and R are individually true but
physically exist and represent finite R is not the correct explanation of A
energy. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are individually true and d. A is false but R is true
R is the correct explanation of A 30. Assertion (A) : A Schering Bridge used for
b. Both A and R are individually true but testing of a porcelain insulator is shielded
R is not the correct explanation of A by a metallic screen.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Earth’s magnetic field is
d. A is false but R is true blocked by a metallic screen.
26. Assertion (A) : Energy released when an a. Both A and R are individually true and
electron jumps from a higher to a lower R is the correct explanation of A
level is usually in the form of photons. b. Both A and R are individually true but
Reason (R) : Energy released when an R is not the correct explanation of A
electron jumps from a higher to a lower c. A is true but R is false
level is absorbed by the nucleus. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are individually true and 31. Assertion (A) : Multiplexing of signals is
R is the correct explanation of A in variably used in telemetry systems..
b. Both A and R are individually true but Reason (R) : Multiplexing improves signal
R is not the correct explanation of A to noise ratio over the communication
c. A is true but R is false channel and at destination.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are individually true and
27. Assertion (A) : Lepidolite type mica is un R is the correct explanation of A
suitable for electric insulation. b. Both A and R are individually true but
Reason (R) : Lepidolite is hard and brittle. R is not the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. A is true but R is false
R is the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are individually true but 32. Assertion (A) Magnetic tape is not used
R is not the correct explanation of A for digital data recording directly.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Digital data require high
d. A is false but R is true speed recording.
28. Assertion (A) : Glazing is done on ceramic a. Both A and R are individually true and
insulators to make the surface smooth and R is the correct explanation of A
non-absorbent. b. Both A and R are individually true but
Reason (R) : Moisture from the R is not the correct explanation of A
atmosphere can collect on the surface c. A is true but R is false
discontinuities on a ceramic and result in d. A is false but R is true
electrical breakdown. 33. Assertion (A) Stability of a system
a. Both A and R are individually true and deteriorates when integral control is
R is the correct explanation of A incorporated in it.
b. Both A and R are individually true but Reason (R) : With integral control order of
R is not the correct explanation of A the system increases, and higher the order
c. A is true but R is false of the system the more the system tends to
d. A is false but R is true become unstable.
6 of 15
a. Both A and R are individually true and current I is 3 and 1.5 respectively. The
R is the correct explanation of A value of 1 for R = 1 will be
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. 0.5
R is not the correct explanation of A b. 1.5
c. A is true but R is false c. 2.0
d. A is false but R is true d. 3.0
34. Assertion (A) : Use of lead compensation 38.
results in increased system bandwidth.
Reason (R) : The angular contribution of
the compensator pole is more than that of
the compensator zero.
For the circuit shown above, the value of
b. Both A and R are individually true but VS is 0 when I = 4 A. The value of I when
R is not the correct explanation of A V = 16 V, is
c. A is true but R is false a. 6 A
d. A is false but R is true b. 8 A
35. Assertion (A) : Tachogenerator feedback is c. 10 A
used as minor loop feedback in position
d. 12 A
control systems to improve stability.
39.
Reason (R) : Tachogenerator provides
velocity feedback which decreases the
damping in the system
b. Both A and R are individually true but The linear network as shown above has
R is not the correct explanation of A only resistors. If I1 8 A and I2 = 12 A; V is
c. A is true but R is false found to be 80 V. V = 0 when I1 = –8 A
d. A is false but R is true and I2 = 4 A. Then the value of V when I1
36. Assertion (A) : Servomotor normally have = I2 = 10 A, is
heavier rotors and lower RIX ratio as a. 25 V
compared to ordinary motors of similar b. 50 V
ratings. c. 75 V
Reason (R) : Servomotors should have d. 100 V
smaller electrical and mechanical time 40.
constants for faster response.
d. A is false but R is true The total impedance of Z (jω) of the
37. circuit shown above is
a. (6 + i0) Ω
b. (7 + j0) Ω
c. (0 + j8) Ω
d. (6 + j8) Ω
41. The impedance of a parallel RLC network
The black box as. shown in the circuit 5s
is Z ( s ) = 2 . Then the value
above contains resistors and independent s + 0.5s + 100
sources. For R = 0 and 2, the value of of R, L and C are, respectively
7 of 15
a. 10 Ω, 1/20 H, 1/5 F a. YA + YB
b. 1 Ω, 1/2 H, 1/5 F ⎛ Y Y ⎞
b. YC + ⎜ A B ⎟
c. 10 Ω, 1/20 H, 1/2 F ⎝ YA +YB ⎠
d. 2 Ω, 1/20 H, 1/5 F c. –YC
42. For a driving point impedance function d. YC
s +α
Z (s) = the voltage will lead the 46. The driving point impedance function
s+β s 2 + 2s + 2
current sinusoidal input, iff Z (s) = 2 can be realized as a
s + s +1
a. α and β real positive and α > β a. R-C network
b. α is real positive and β is real negative b. R-L network
and α > β c. L-C network
c. α and β are real positive and β > α d. R-L-C network
d. α and β are real negative and β > α 47.
43.
The lattice circuit has the following

The impedance Z(s) in the above circuit is impedances ZA = 3 + j4, ZB = 3 – j4. Then
the Z-parameters would be
1⎛ s + ( R / L) ⎞
a. ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎛ 3 + j4 0 ⎞
C ⎝ s + ( R / L) s + (1/ LC ) ⎠ a. ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 0 3 − j4 ⎠
1⎛ s + (1/ RC ) ⎞
b. ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎛ 3 − j4 ⎞
L ⎝ s + (1/ RC ) s + (1/ LC ) ⎠ b. ⎜ ⎟
⎝ − j4 3 ⎠
1⎛ s + ( R / L) ⎞
c. ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎛ 3 + j4 3 ⎞
L ⎝ s + (1/ RC ) s + (1/ LC ) ⎠ c. ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 3 3 + j4 ⎠
1⎛ s + (1/ RC ) ⎞
d. ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎛ − j4 3 ⎞
C ⎝ s + ( R / L) s + (1/ LC ) ⎠ d. ⎜ ⎟
44. A unit step current of 1 A is applied to a ⎝ 3 + j4 ⎠
network whose driving point impedance is 48.
V (s) s+3
Z (s) = = .
1( s ) ( s + 2) 2
Then the steady state and initial values of
the voltage developed across the source
are respectively
a. (3/4 V, 1 V) In the circuit shown above, the initial
b. (1/4 V, 3/4 V) voltage across capacitor is 2 V and I is a
unit step current source. Then the voltage
c. (3/4 V, 0 V)
across the capacitor for t > 0 is
d. (1 V, 3/4 V)
a. (2–e–2t) u(t)
45.
b. (2 + e2t) u(t)
c. (1–e2t) u(t)
d. (1 + e–2t) u(t)
49. A circuit is modelled by the following
differential equation :
d 2i (t ) 6di (t )
+ + 9i (t ) = 0
For the two-port network as shown above, dt 2 dt
Y12 is equal to
8 of 15
The response i(t) is of the form (with Hz. The average power dissipated by the
symbols having their standard meanings) inductor is
a. K1e–1 + K2e–9t a. 0 W
b. Ke–3t sin (t + θ) b. 0.25 W
c. (K1 + K2t) e–3t c. 0.5 W
d. Ke–t . sin (9t + θ) d. 1.0 W
50. 52. An electromagnetic field is said to be
conservative when
a. ∇2E = μ ∈ (∂2E / ∂t2)
b. ∇2 H = μ ∈ (∂2H / ∂t2)
c. Curl of the field is zero
d. Divergence of the field is zero
53. A charge is uniformly distributed
The capacitor in the circuit as shown throughout the sphere of radius a. Taking
above is initially charged to 12 V with S1 the potential at infinity as zero, the
and S2 open S1 is closed at t = 0 while S2 is potential at r = b < a is
b
closed at t = 3. The waveform of the a. − ∫
Qr
dr
capacitor is represented by ∝
4πε 0 a 3
a. b
Q
b. − ∫ dr
∝
4πε 0 r 2
a b
Q Qr
c. − ∫ dr − ∫ dr
∝
4πε 0 r 2
∝
4πε 0 r 3
a
Q
d. − ∫ dr
∝
4πε 0 r 2
54. Consider the following statements relating
b. to Laplace’s equation:
1. Solution of Laplace’s equation with
two different approved methods lead to
different answers.
2. Every physical problem satisfying
Laplace’s equation must contain at
least two conducting boundaries.
c. 3. Every field (if ρv = 0) satisfies
Laplace’s equation.
4. Every conceivable configuration of
electrodes or conductors produces a
field for which ∇2v = 0.
a. 1, 3 and 4
d. b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 2, 3 and 4
55. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Gauss Theorem : ∫ D.d s = ∫ ∇.Ddv
s v
51. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal
current of 1 A r.m.s. at a frequency of 50
b. Gauss’s Law : ∫ D.d s = ∫ ρdv
v
9 of 15
dφ 60. Given that :
c. Coulomb’s Law : V = − m ^
dt H = 0.5exp [ −0.1x ] sin(106 t − 2 x) a z ( A / m)
d. Stoke’s Theorem :
which one of the following statements is
∫ ξ .d l = ∫ ( ∇ × ξ ).d s
1 s
NOT correct?
^
56. Which ones of the following formulae is a. Wave is linearly polarized along az
NOT correct for the boundary between b. The velocity of the wave is 5 × 105 m/s
two magnetic materials? c. The complex propagation constant is
a. Bn1 = Bn2 (0.1 — j2)
b. B2 = Bn 2 + Bt 2 ^
d. The wave is travelling along ax
c. H1 = Hn1 + H11
61. For a conducting medium with
( )
^ ^
d. a n21 × H1 − H 2 = K , where a n21 is a conductivity σ, permeability μ and
unit vector normal to the interface and permittivity ε, the skin depth for an
directed from region 2 to region 1 electromagnetic signal at an angular
frequency ω is proportional to
57. Interface of two regions of two magnetic
materials is current-free. The region 1, for a. σ
which relative permeability μr1 = 2 is b. 1/ω
defined by z > 0, and region 2, z > 0 has c. 1/ σ
μr2 = 1. d. 1/μ
If B1 = 1.2 ax + 0.8 ay + 0.4 az T ; then H1 62. The electric field of a uniform plane wave
is ^
r r r is given by E = 10sin(10ωt − π z ) a x +
a. 1/μ 0 ⎡⎣ 0.6 a x + 0.4 a y + 0.4 a z ⎤⎦ A/m ^
r r r 10 cos(ωt − π z ) a y (V/m)
b. 1/μ 0 ⎡⎣1.2 a x + 0.8 a y + 0.8 a z ⎤⎦ A/m
The polarization of the wave is
r r r
c. 1/μ 0 ⎡⎣1.2 a x + 0.4 a y + 0.4 a z ⎤⎦ A/m a. Circular
r r r b. Elliptical
d. 1/μ 0 ⎡⎣ 0.6 a x + 0.4 a y + 0.8 a z ⎤⎦ A/m c. Linear
58. A plane slab of dielectric having dielectric d. Undefined
constant 5, placed normal to a uniform 63. Consider the following statements:
field with a flux density of 2 C/m2, is Characteristic impedance of a transmission
uniformly polarized. The polarization of line is given by
the slab is R + jω L
a. 0.4 C/m2 1. , (R, L, G and C are line
G + jωC
b. 1.6 C/m2 V
constants)
c. 2.0 C/m2
d. 6.4 C/m2 2. Z OC Z SC , (ZOC and ZSC are the open
59. Maxwell equation ∇ × E = − ∂ B / ∂t( ) is

and short circuit impedances of the
line)
represented in integral form as 3. V’/l’ , (V’ and I’ are the voltage and
∂ current of the wave travelling in the
a. ∫ E.dl = − ∫ B.dl
∂t ^
positive y direction)
∂
b. ∫ E.dl = − ∫ B.d s Which of these are correct?
∂t s a. 1, 2 and 3
∂ b. 1 and 2
c. ∫ E × dl = − ∂t ∫ B.dl
s
c. 2 and 3
∂ d. 1 and 3
d. ∫ E × dl = − ∂t ∫ B.dl 64. A loss-less transmission line of
s
characteristic impedance Z0 and l < λ/4 is
10 of 15
terminate at the load end by a short circuit. a. Polystyrene
Its input impedance ZS is b. Marble
a. ZS = –j Z0 tan βl c. Cotton
b. ZS = j Z0 cot βl d. Transformer oil
c. ZS = j Z0 tan βl 71. The losses in a dielectric subject to an
d. ZS = –j Z0 cot βl alternating electric field are determined by
65. A loss-less transmission line of a. Real part ‘of the complex dielectric
characteristic impedance 600 ohms is constant
terminated in a purely resistive load of 900 b. Imaginary part of the complex
ohms. The reflection coefficient is dielectric constant
a. 0.2 c. Absolute value of the complex
b. 0.5 dielectric constant
c. 0.667 d. Ratio of the magnitudes of the real and
d. 1.5 imaginary parts of the complex
66. dielectric constant
72. In a solid or liquid dielectric with
externally applied electric field, as the
interatomic distance increases the internal
field Ei,
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unaltered
Given a vector field A = 2 r cos φ Tr in d. Increases or decreases based on
coordinate. For the contour as shown temperature
above, ∫ A.dl is 73. According to Wiedemann-Franz law the
ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical
a. 1 conductivity of a conductor of
b. 1– (π/2) a. Independent of temperature
c. 1+ (π/2) b. Directly proportional to temperature
d. –1 c. Inversely proportional to temperature
67. The forbidden energy gap in silicon at 300 d. Inversely proportional to square of
K is temperature
a. 1.41 eV 74. Which one of the following statements is
b. 1.1 eV correct for four-point probe method of
c. 0.785 eV determining resistivity?
d. 0.72 eV a. The sample must be extrinsic
68. With an increase in temperature., the b. The current source is connected to the
Fermi level in an intrinsic semiconductor two inner probes
a. Moves closer to the conduction band c. One probe point must inject minority
edge carriers
b. Moves closer to the valence band edge d. Current flow only in a small area of the
c. Moves into the conduction band sample
d. Remains at the centre of the forbidden 75. The average drift velocity Vd of electrons
gap in a metal is related to electric field E and
69. Which one of the following is NOT true collision time T as
for Sulphur Hexafluoride gas? a. Vd = QeET/me
a. It is electronegative in nature b. Vd = meQeT
b. It has high dielectric strength c. Vd = meQeT/2E
c. It is non-toxic d. Vd = QeEt/2 me
d. It is highly inflammable 76. Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is
70. Which one of the following materials has 1. Negative
the highest dielectric strength? 2. Positive
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3. Dependent on the temperature 80. On which of the following factors does the
4. Independent of the temperature electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
Select the correct answer using the codes depend?
given below: 1. Carrier concentration
a. 1 and 3 2. Carrier mobility
b. 2 and 4 3. Sign of the carrier
c. 1 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
d. 2 and 3 given below
77. Match List I (Magnetic Materials) with a. 1 and 2
List II (Applications) and select the correct b. 1 and 3
answer: c. 2 and 3
List I d. 1, 2 and 3
A. Silicon Steel 81. An intrinsic semiconductor at a
B. Ferrite temperature of absolute zero behaves like
C. Alnico an insulator because of
List II a. Non-availability of free electrons
1. Current transformer b. Non-recombination of electrons with
2. Power transformer holes
3. Permanent magnet c. Low drift velocity of free electrons
4. High frequency transformer d. Low (almost zero) electron energy
A B C 82. Consider the following statements:
a. 1 2 3 E nF and E pF are the energies of the Fermi
b. 1 4 2 levels on the n and p sides of p-n junction
c. 2 1 4 diode, respectively. They will vary with
d. 2 4 3 applied bias as follows :
78. The development of barrier potential in the 1. E nF and E pF with no bias applied.
depletion zone of a PN junction is
2. E nF increased and E pF decreases with
consequent to
a. Diffusion of majority carriers across forward bias.
junction 3. E nF decreases and E pF increases with
b. Drift of minority carriers across reverse bias.
junction 4. E nF decreases and E pF increases with
c. Generation of minority carriers due to reverse bias.
thermal energy
5. E nF increases and E pF decreases with
d. Initial flow of conduction current
79. The current flow in a certain PN junction reverse bias.
at room temperature 300 K is 2 × 10–7 A Select the correct answer using the codes
when a large reverse bias voltage is given below :
applied. The current flowing when a a. 1, 4 and 5
forward bias of 0.1 V is applied will be b. 2 and 3
⎡ −1.6 × 10−19 × 0.1 ⎤ c. 4 and 5
a. 2 × 10–7 exp ⎢ −23 ⎥ d. 1, 2 and 3
⎣1.38 ×10 × 300 ⎦ 83. Match List I (Thyristors) with List II
⎡ −1.6 × 10 × 0.1 ⎤
−19
(Symbols) and select the correct answer :
b. 2 × 10–7 × ⎢ −23 ⎥
⎣1.38 ×10 × 300 ⎦ List I
A. Silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)
⎡ −1.38 × 10−23 × 300 ⎤ B. Silicon-controlled switch (SCS)
c. 2 × 10–7 exp ⎢ −19 ⎥
⎣ 1.6 × 10 × 0.1 ⎦ C. Silicon-unilateral switch (SUS)
⎡1.38 ×10−23 × 300 ⎤ D. Light-activated SCR (LASCR)
d. 2 × 10–7 × ⎢ −19 ⎥ List II
⎣ 1.6 × 10 × 0.1 ⎦ 1.
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2.
Consider the circuit as shown above which
has a current-dependent current source.
The value V2/V1 is
3. a. 1
b. 2
1+ α
c.
2 +α
4. α
d.
2 +α
87. A certain network consists of a large
number of ideal linear resistances, one of
A B C D which is designated as R and two constant
a. 3 4 1 2 ideal sources. The power consumed by R
b. 4 3 1 2 is P1 when only the first source is active
c. 3 4 2 1 and P2 when only the second source is
d. 4 3 2 1 active. If both sources are active
84. In a network made up of linear resistors simultaneously, then the power consumed
and ideal voltage sources, values of all by R is
resistors-are doubled. Then the voltage a. P1 ± P2
across each resistor is b. P1 ± P2
a. Doubled
( )
2
b. Halved c. P1 ± P2
c. Decreases four times
( P1 ± P2 )
2
d. Not changed d.
85. 88. Torque / Weight ratio of an instrument
indicates
a. Selectivity
b. Accuracy
c. Fidelity
d. Sensitivity
The incandescent bulbs rated respectively 89. Which of the following are data
as P1 and P2 operation at a specified mains representation elements in a generalized
voltage are connected in for series across measurement system ?
the mains as shown in the above figure. 1. Analog indicator
Then the total power supplied by the mains 2. Amplifier
to the two bulbs is 3. A/D converter
P1 P2 4. Digital display
a.
P1 + P2 Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
b. P12 + P22 a. 1 and 2
c. ( P1 + P2 ) b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. P1 × P2
d. 3 and 4
86. 90. A first order instrument is characterized by
a. Time constant only
b. Static sensitivity and time constant
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c. Static sensitivity and damping d. Two cycles of the sine wave with
coefficient clipped amplitude
d. Static sensitivity, damping coefficient 97. The difference between the indicated value
and natural frequency of oscillations and the true value of a quantity is
91. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for a. Gross error
use at high frequencies because b. Absolute error
a. They are likely to melt under excessive c. Dynamic error
eddy current d. Relative error
b. They exhibit unwanted inductive and 98. Vibration galvanometers, tuneable
capacitive effects amplifiers and head phones are used in
c. They create more electrical noise a. d.c. bridges
d. They consume more power b. a.c. bridges
92. Decibel scale is useful while measuring c. Both d.c. and a.c. bridges
voltages covering d. Kelvin double bridge
a. Wide frequency ratio 99. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the
b. Wide voltage ratio frequency of the input signal. However,
c. Narrow frequency range the input signal has 10% third harmonic
d. Narrow voltage range distortion. Specifically the signal is 2 sin
93. A standard resistance is made ‘Bifilar’ 400 πt + 0.2 sin 1200 πt (with t in sec.).
type of eliminate With this input the balance will
a. Stray capacitance a. Lead to a null indication and setting
b. Temperature effect will correspond to a frequency of 200
c. Inductive effect Hz
d. Skin effect b. Lead to a null indication and setting
94. Standard cell will correspond to 260 Hz
a. Will have precise and accurate c. Lead to a null indication and setting
constant voltage when current drawn will correspond to 400Hz
from it is few microamperes only d. Not lead to null indication
b. Will have precise and accurate 100. Which one of the following multi-range
constant voltage when few voltmeters has high and constant input
milliamperes are drawn from it impedance ?
c. Will continue to have constant voltage a. Permanent magnet moving coil
irrespective of loading conditions voltmeter
d. Can supply voltages up to 10 V b. Electronic voltmeter
95. For time and frequency, the working c. Moving iron voltmeter
standard is d. Dynamometer type voltmeter
a. Microwave oscillator 101. In a Q-meter measurement to determine
b. Crystal controlled oscillator the self capacitance of a coil, the first
c. Laser resonance occurred at f1 with C1 = 300 pF.
d. Arf oscillator The second resonance occurred at f2 = 2f1
with C2 = 60 pF. The self-capacitance of
96. A C.R.C. is operated with X and Y settings
coil works out to be
of 0.5 ms/cm and 100 mV/cm. The screen
of the C.R.O. is 10 cm × 8 cm (X and Y). a. 240 pF
A sine wave of frequency 200 Hz and b. 60 pF
r.m.s. amplitude of 300 mV is applied to c. 360 pF
the Y-input. The screen will show d. 20 pF
a. One cycle of the undistorted sine wave 102. A multimeter is used for the measurement
b. Two cycles of the undistorted sine of the following:
wave 1. Both a.c. and d.c. voltage
c. One cycle of the sine wave with 2. Both a.c. & d.c. voltage
clipped amplitude 3. Resistance
4. Frequency
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5. Power C. Displacement
Select the correct answer using the codes D. Stress
given below: List II
a. 1, 2 and 4 1. Thermistor
b. 1, 2 and 5 2. Piezoelectric crystal
c. 1, 3 and 5 3. Capacitance transducer
d. 1, 2 and 3 4. Resistance strain gauge
103. Which one of the following truly 5. Ultrasonic waves
represents the output on the screen of A B C D
spectrum analyzer when an amplitude a. 1 2 5 3
modulated wave is connected to it? b. 2 1 4 3
a. Single vertical line on the screen c. 1 2 5 4
b. Two vertical lines on the screen d. 2 1 3 4
c. Three vertical lines with amplitude 109. Measurement of flow, thermal
d. Three vertical lines out of which two conductivity and liquid level using
have equal magnitude thermistors make use of
104. Three d.c. voltmeters are connected in a. Resistance decrease with temperature
series across a 120 V d.c. supply. The b. Resistance increase with temperature
voltmeters are specified as follows:
c. Self-heating phenomenon
Voltmeter A : 100 V, 5 mA d. Change of resistivity
Voltmeter B : 100 V, 250 ohms/V 110. Pair of active transducers is
Voltmeter C : 10 mA, 15,000 ohms a. Thermistor : Solar cell
The voltages read by the meters A, B and b. Thermocouple; Thermistor
C are, respectively
c. Thermocouple; Solar cell
a. 40, 50 and 30 V
d. Solar cell; LVDT
b. 40, 40 and 40 V
111. Sensitivity of LVDT is mainly due to
c. 60, 30 and 30 V
a. Magnetic shielding of the core
d. 30, 60 and 30 V
b. Permeability of the core
105. The capacitance and loss angle of a given
c. Exact cancellation of secondary
capacitor specimen are best measured by
voltages
a. Wheatstone bridge
d. Insulation used in the winding
b. Maxwell bridge
112. A strain gauge with a resistance of 250
c. Anderson bridge ohms undergoes a change of 0.150 ohm
d. Schering bridge during a test. The strain is 1.5 × 10–4. Then
106. The energy capacity of a storage battery is the gauge factor is
rated in a. 2.0
a. kwh b. 3.0
b. kw c. 4.0
c. Ampere hours d. 100 V
d. Joules 113. Integrating principle in the digital
107. The pressure coil of an induction type measurement is the conversion of
energy meter is a. Voltage to time
a. Highly resistive b. Voltage to frequency
b. Highly inductive c. Voltage to current
c. Purely resistive d. Current to voltage
d. Purely inductive 114. The correct sequence of the blocks is an
108. Match List I (Parameter) with List II analog data acquisition unit starting from
(Transducer) and select the correct answer: the input is
List I a. Transducer - Recorder Signal -
A. Pressure Conditioner
B. Temperature
15 of 15
b. Transducer - Signal - Conditioner - c. 3 4 1 2
Recorder d. 4 3 2 1
c. Signal - Conditioner - Transducer -
Recorder
d. Signal - Conditioner - Recorder -
Transducer 117.
115. Which one of the following effects in the The gain C(s) / G(s) of the signal flow
system is NOT caused by negative graph shown above is
feedback? G1G2 + G2G3
a.
a. Reduction in gain 1 + G1G2 H + G2G3 H1 + G4
b. Increase in bandwidth
G1G2 + G2G3
c. Increase in distortion b.
1 + G1G2 H1 + G2G3 H1 − G4
d. Reduction in output impedance
116. Match List I (Block Diagram) with List II G1G3 + G2G3
c.
(Transformed Block Diagram) and select 1 + G1G3 H1 + G2G3 H1 + G4
the correct answer : G1G2 + G2G3
List I d.
1 + G1G3 H1 + G2G3 H1 − G4
A.
118.
B.
C (s)
The overall gain of the block
R( s)
diagram shown above is
C. G1G2
a.
1 − G1G2 H1 H 2
G1G2
b.
D. 1 − G2 H 2 − G1G2 H1
G1G2
c.
1 − G2 H 2 + G1G2 H1 H 2
List II G1G2
1. d.
1 − G1G2 H1 − G1G2 H 2
119. The unit impulse response of a second
order system is 1/6 e–0.8t sin (0.6 t). Then
the natural frequency and damping ratio of
2. the system. are respectively
a. 1 and 0.6
b. 1 and 0.8
3. c. 2 and 0.4
d. 2 and 0.3
120. A second order control system has
100
4. M ( jω ) =
100 − ω 2 + 10 2 jω
Its Mp (Peak magnitude) is
a. 0.5
A B C D b. 1
a. 3 4 2 1
c. 2
b. 4 3 1 2
d. 2
I.E.S. (OBJ) - 2004 1 of 16
PAPER–I
1. What is the force experienced per unit 5. Two extensive homogenous isotropic
length by a conductor carrying 5 A current dielectrics meet on a plane z = 0. for z ≥ 0,
in positive Z direction and placed in a ε r1 = 4 and for z ≤ 0, ε r2 = 2 uniform
magnetic field B = ( 3ax + 4a y ) ? electric field exists at z ≥ 0 as E1 = 5aˆ x − 2
r r
a. 15ax + 20a y N / m aˆ y + 3aˆ z kw/m. What is the value of E2 in
r r the region z ≤ 0?
b. −20ax + 15a y N / m
r r a. 3aˆ z
c. 20ax − 15a y N / m
r r b. 5aˆ x − 2aˆ y
d. −20ax − 20a y N / m
c. 6aˆ z
2. Plane z = 10 m carries surface charge
density 20 nc/m2. What is the electric field d. aˆ x − aˆ y
at the origin?
6. What will be the reflected wave for an
a. −10aˆ z v / m elliptically polarized wave incident on the
b. −18π az v / m interface of a die-electric at the Brewester
angle?
c. −72π aˆ z v / m
a. Elliptically polarized
d. −360π aˆ z v / m b. Linearly polarized
3. Consider the following diagram: c. Right circularly, polarized
d. Left circularly polarized
7. A flat slab of dielectric, ε r = 5 is placed
normal to a uniform field with a flux
density D = 1 Coulomb/m2. The slab is
uniformly polarized. What is the
Which of the following statements is polarization P of the slab in Coulomb/m2?
correct? a. 0.8
The electric field E at a point P due to the b. 1.2
presence of dipole as shown in the above c. 4
diagram (considering distance r >>
distance d) is proportional to d. 6
a. 1/r 8. Which one of the, following gives the
approximate value of the capacitance
b. 1/r2 between two spheres, whose separation is
c. 1/r3 very much larger than their radii R?
d. 1/r4 a. 2π / ε 0 R
4. What is the value of total electric flux
coming out of a closed surface? b. 2 π ε 0 R
a. Zero c. 2 π ε 0 / R
b. Equal to volume charge density d. 4 π ε 0 / R
c. Equal to the total charge enclosed by 9. Which one of the following is the correct
the surface electromagnetic wave equation in terms of
d. Equal to the surface charge density vector potential A?
2 of 16
∂ A
2 A B C D
a. ∇ 2 A − = −J
∂t 2 a. 4 3 2 1
μ ∂2 A b. 4 1 2 3
b. ∇ 2 A − = −μ J c. 2 3 4 1
ε ∂t 2
d. 2 1 4 3
∂2 A
c. ∇ 2 A − = −μ J 13. In a lossless medium the intrinsic
∂t 2
impedance η = 60π and μr = 1 . What is
∂2 A
d. ∇ 2 A − με = −μ j the value of the dielectric constant ε r ?
∂T 2
a. 2
correct? b. 1
The wavelength of a wave propagating in a c. 4
wave guide is d. 8
a. Smaller than me free space wavelength 14. Match List I (Type of field denoted by A ).
b. Greater than the free space wavelength with List II (Behavior) and select the
c. Directly proportional to the group correct answer using the codes given
velocity. below:
d. Inversely proportional to the phase List I
velocity A. A static electric field in a charge free
11. Which one of the following statements is region
correct? B. A static electric field in a charged
For a lossless dielectric medium, the phase region
constant for a traveling wave, β is C. A steady magnetic field in a current
proportional to carrying conductor
a. ε r D. A time-varying electric field in a
charged medium with time-varying
b. ε magnetic field
c. 1/ ε r List II
1. ∇A = 0
d. 1/ ε r
∇× A ≠ 0
correct answer using the codes given 2. ∇. A ≠ 0
below: ∇× A = 0
List I 3. ∇. A ≠ 0
A. Continuity equation
∇× A ≠ 0
B. Ampere’s law
4. ∇. A = 0
C. Displacement current
∇× A = 0
D. Faraday’s law
List II A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
∂D
1. ∇ × H = J + b. 4 2 1 3
∂t
c. 2 4 3 1
∂D
2. J = d. 2 4 1 3
∂t
∂B
3. ∇ × E = − correct?
∂t A wave guide can be considered to be
∂l analogous to a
4. ∇.J = − v
∂t a. Low pass filter
3 of 16
b. High pass filter 20. Which one of the following is the correct
c. Band pass fitter expression for the propagation constant in
d. Band stop filter a transmission line?
16. Consider the following statements about a. ( R − jω L )( G − jωC )
the effective length of a half wave dipole
(Elevation angle θ is measured from the b.
( R + jω L )
dipole axis) ( G − jωC )
1. Effective length is a function of θ .
c.
( R + jω L )
2. Effective length is maximum for
θ =π / 2. ( G + jωC )
3. Maximum effective length is larger d. ( R + jω L )( G + jωC )
than physical length.
21. On which of the following factors does the
4. Effective length is the same for the
value of critical current density in a
antenna in transmitting and receiving
superconductor depend?
modes.
a. Temperature
Which of the statements given above are
correct? b. Applied magnetic field
a. 1, 2 and 4 c. Temperature and applied magnetic
field
b. 2, 3 and 4
d. Silsbee’s rule
c. 1, 2 and 3
22. Match List I (Materials) with List Il
d. 1, 3 and 4
(Equation/rule) and select the correct
17. A lossless transmission line of length 50 answer using the codes given below:
cm with L = 10μ H / m C = 40 pF/m is
List I
operated at 30 MHz. What is its electric
A. Dielectric material
length ( β l ) ?
B. Ferromagnetic material
a. 20 λ C. Conductors
b. 0.2 λ D. Superconductor
c. 108° List II
d. 40 π 1. Debye equation
18. Which one of the following statements is 2. Curie Weiss law
correct?
3. Matthiessen’s rule
If the Fermi level ties midway between the
4. Meissner effect
conduction and valence bands, then the
semiconductors A B C D
a. Intrinsic A B C D
b. Extrinsic a. 3 4 1 2
c. p-type b. 1 4 3 2
d. n-type c. 3 2 1 4
19. Which one of the following statements is d. 1 2 3 4
correct? 23. A dielectric material has the real part of
Superconductors are popularly used for the dielectric constant ( ε r ) as 4 and its
a. Generating very strong magnetic field loss tangent is 0.004. What is the complex
b. Reducing i2R losses dielectric constant ( ε r *) represented by?
c. Generating electrostatic field a. 4 + j 0.016
d. Generating regions free from magnetic b. 4 – 0.016
field c. 4 + j 0.001
d. 4 – j 0.001
4 of 16
24. Match List I with List II and select the 2. Alnico
correct answer using the codes given 3. Perm alloy
below: 4. Ga As
List I A B C D
A. Larmon frequency a. 3 1 2 4
B. Bohr magnetron b. 1 3 2 4
C. Magnetic induction c. 3 1 4 2
D. Curie-Weiss law d. 1 3 4 2
List II 28. Which one of the following statements is
1. χ = C / (T − θ ) correct?
2. B = μ0 ( H + M ) A ferrite core has lower specific eddy
current loss compared to an iron core
3. eh / 4π m because the iron core has
4. eB/2m a. Higher electrical resistance
A B C D b. Lower electrical resistance
a. 2 1 4 3 c. Higher permeability
b. 2 3 4 1 d. Lower permeability
c. 4 1 2 3 29. In which one of the following ways can
d. 4 3 2 1 the Hall voltage across an impurity
semiconductor crystal be increased?
not correct? a. By increasing the thickness of the
crystal
a. Vacuum can act as a dielectric material
b. By increasing the concentration of
b. Piezoelectric, materials can act as
impurity atoms in the crystal
transducers
c. By increasing the width of the crystal
c. Quartz crystal is a ferroelectric
material d. By increasing the current flowing
through the crystal
d. The dielectric constant of diectrics
depends on the frequency of the 30. Which one of the following statements is
applied field correct?
26. Which one of the following is the The Hall coefficient of an intrinsic
temperature below which certain material semiconductor is
are ant ferromagnetic and above which a. Positive
they are paramagnetic? b. Negative
a. Curie temperature c. Zero
b. Neel temperature d. Infinite
c. Transition temperature 31. Consider the following circuit:
d. Weiss temperature
27. Match List I (Type of the material) with
List II (Name of the material) and select
the correct answer:
List I correct?
A. Ferromagnetic The circuit shown above is
B. Soft magnetic a. Passive and linear
C. Hard magnetic b. Active and linear
D. Semiconductor c. Passive and non-linear
List II d. Active and non-linear
1. Rochelle salt 32. Consider the following circuit:
5 of 16
a. 3A, 40Ω
b. 4A, 24Ω
c. 1A,60Ω
d. 2A,100Ω
In the above circuit, when
Vs = 3V , I = 4 A , what is the value of I 37. Consider the following circuit:
when Vs = 12V?
a. 5 A
b. 10 A
c. 15 A
d. 20 A What is the value of current I in the above
circuit?
33. Three parallel resistive branches are
connected across a. d.c. supply. What will a. 1 A
be the ratio of the branch currents I1:I2:I3 b. 2 A
if the branch resistances are in the ratio c. 3 A
R1 : R2 :R3::2:4:6? d. 4 A
a. 3 :.2 : 6 38. Consider the following circuit:
b. 2:4:6
c. 6:3:2
d. 6:2:4
34. Consider the following circuit:
What should be the value of resistance R,
in the above circuit if it has to absorb the
maximum power from the source?
a. 8/3 ohms
What is the value of current I in the 5Ω b. 3/8 ohms
resistor in the above circuit?
c. 4 ohms
a. 0A
d. 8 ohms
b. 2A
39. The transfer function of a system
c. 3A
V (s) s
d. 4A Z (s) = = . The system is at rest
35. A voltage source having an internal I (s) s + 3
impedance of 8 + j6 ohms supplies power for the t < 0.
to a resistive load. What should be the load What will be the value of v(t) for t ≥ 0, if
resistance for maximum power transferred i(t) = 3u(t) , where u(t) is a unit step?
to it?
a. e − t
a. 8 ohms
b. 2e−3t
b. 6 ohms
c. 10 ohms c. 3e−3t
d. 10 ohms d. 4e − t
36. Consider the circuits A and B given below:
For the circuit shown above, by how much

For what values respectively of I and R, the voltage across the inductor leads the
the circuit B is equivalent to circuit A? voltage across the capacitor?
6 of 16
a. 45° 44. Consider the following pole-zero diagram
b. 90° of a system function Z(s) = V(s)/I(s).
c. 135°
d. 180°
What will be the magnitude of the voltage

phasor for i(t) = sin t?
a. 3/2
The circuit shown above is in steady state b. 1
before closing the switch. What is the c. 2/3
current i(o+) through the switch if the
circuit is closed at t = 0? d. 1/3
a. – 4A 45. A balanced delta connected load has an
impedance of 9∠30° ohms per phase.
b. 0 A What is the impedance per phase of its
c. 4 A equivalent star?
d. 12 A a. 27 ∠30°Ω
42. Consider the following circuit: b. 27 ∠90°Ω
c. 3 ∠30°Ω
d. 3 ∠20°Ω
46. For a parallel RLC resonant circuit; the
damped frequency is 8 r/s and bandwidth
is 2 r/s. What is its resonant frequency?
The circuit shown above attains a steady a. 2
state with the switch S closed. What is the
value of 1(t) for t ≥ 0, if the switch S is b. 7
opened at t = 0? c. 10
a. 0.5+0.5 e–50t d. 3
b. 0.6–0.1e–50t 47. Consider the following circuit:
c. 0.5–0.5e–50t
d. 0.6–0.6e–20t
43. Consider the following diagram:
In the above circuit Z ( s ) = 2 as s → ∞

and Z (s) = 3 as s → 0 . What are,
respectively the values of R1 and R2?
a. 6Ω, 3Ω
Which one of the following gives Lap lace b. 4Ω, 2Ω
transform of the wavelength v(t) shown in c. 3Ω, 6Ω
the above diagram? d. 6Ω, 2Ω
a. ⎡⎣e s + e2 s + 2e3s ⎤⎦ / s 48. Consider the following circuit:
b. ⎡⎣e s + e2 s − 2e3s ⎤⎦ / s
c. ⎡⎣e− s + e−2 s − 2e −3s ⎤⎦ / s
d. ⎡⎣e− s + e−2 s + 2e −3s ⎤⎦ / s

7 of 16
For the above circuit, the current source is d. 22/120
sinusoidal with frequency equal to the 53. The realization of the driving points
resonant frequency of the circuit. What is impedance function
the value of current through the resistor? Z ( s ) = (α s + 7 s + 3) / ( s + 3s + β )
2 2
is
a. 0
shown in the circuit given below:
b. 0.1 I
c. I
d. 10 I
49. In an a.c. series RLC circuit, the voltage
across R and L is 20 V, voltage across L
and C is 9V and voltage across RLC is
15V. What is the voltage across C? What are, respectively the values of α and
a. 7V β?
b. 12V a. 5,2
c. 16V b. 2,5
d. 21V c. 2,3
50. Consider the following circuit: d. 2,1
54. Impedance
Z ( s ) = ⎡⎣( s + 3)( s + 5 ) ⎤⎦ / ⎡⎣( s + 4 )( s + 6 ) ⎤⎦ is
realized in the Foster’s second form. What
will be the values, respectively of R and L
What is the short-circuit natural frequency in one of the series R-L branches?
at port 1 of the above circuit? a. 2Ω, 1/3 H
a. S + 2 = 0 b. 2Ω, 4/3 H
b. S + 1 = 0 c. 2Ω, 5/3H
c. 2s + 1= 0
d. 2Ω, 2/3H
d. 2s + 3 = 0
55. Match List I (Accuracy) with List II (Type
51. Two resistors of equal value are connected of the standard) and select the correct
in series across the lines B and C of a answer:
symmetrical 3-phase 400 – V system.
List I
What is the magnitude of the voltage
between the line A and the junction of the A. Least accurate
resistors? B. More accurate
a. 400 / 3 C. Much more accurate
D. Highest possible accurate
b. 200 3
List II
c. 400 / 3
1. Primary
d. 100 3 2. Secondary
52. Two identical T-sections, such as one 3. Working
shown below are connected in series. 4. International
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 2 1 4
What is the y11 of the combination? d. 1 2 3 4
a. 11/240 56. Which one of the following statements is
b. 22/240 correct?
c. 11/360
8 of 16
The application of the instrument in wrong 62. Which one of the following is basically a
manner in the procedure of measurement current sensitive instrument?
results in a/an a. Permanent magnet moving coil
a. Systematic error instrument
b. Random error b. Cathode ray oscilloscope
c. Gross error c. Electrostatic instrument
d. Instrument error d. FET input electronic voltmeter
57. A 0 to 200 V voltmeter has a guaranteed 63. A d’Arsonval movement with internal
accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The résistance R = 100 Ω and full scale current
voltage measured by this instrument is 50 of 1I mA is to be converted into (0 - 10) V
V. What is the limiting error? range. What is the required resistance?
a. 4% a. 10 Ω
b. 2% b. 10100 Ω
c. 1% c. 9900 Ω
d. 0.25% d. 12000 Ω
58. Which one of the following statements 64. Which one of the following types of
correctly represents the systematic errors? instruments can be used to determine the
a. These errors can be calculated from the r.m.s. value of a.c. voltage of high
details of the instruments magnitude (10 kV) and of any wave
b. These are the residual errors shape?
c. These errors may occur under a. Moving iron instruments
controlled conditions b. Dynamometer type instruments
d. These are the errors committed by the c. Induction instruments
experiments d. Electrostatic instruments
59. A resistor R is measured using the V-I 65. The battery cells in an electronic
method, with V read as 10.14 V and I as millimeter are required to measure which
5.07 mA. Which one of the following one of the following?
expresses the value of resistance?
a. Resistance
a. 2 kΩ
b. Voltage
b. 2.00 kΩ c. Current
c. 2000Ω d. Power
d. 2.0 kΩ 66. Which, one of the following methods
60. Which one of the following statements is decreases the error due to connections in a
correct? dynamometer type Wattmeter?
The deflection of hot wire instrument a. Using bifilar compensating Winding in
depends on place of current coil
a. r.m.s. value of the a.c. current b. Using non-inductive pressure coil
b. r.m.s. value of the a.c. voltage circuit
c. average value of the a.c. current c. Using a capacitor across a part of high
d. average value of the a.c. voltage resistance of pressure coil circuit
61. Which one of the following materials is d. Using a swamping resistance
used in the fabrication of swamping 67. The power of a three-phase, three-wire
resistance of a PMMC instrument? balance system was measured by two-
a. Copper Wattmeter method. The reading of one of
the Wattmeters was found to be double
b. Aluminium
that of the other. What is the power factor
c. Manganin of the system?
d. Tungsten a. 1
9 of 16
b. 0.866 d. Electronic counter
c. 0.707 72. Which one of the following statements is
d. 0.5 correct?
68. Match List I with List II and select the Spiral springs are used in instruments to
correct answer using the codes given a. provide controlling torque
below: b. provide damping torque
List I (Instruments) c. lead the current to moving coil as well
A. Dynamometer instrument - as to provide the controlling torque
B. Thermocouple based instrument d. provide linear deflection
C. Ramp generator 73. Which one of the following decides the
D. Weston Standard Cell time of response of an indicating
List II (Application) instrument?
1. True r.m.s. value mete a. Deflecting system
2. Transfer instrument between a.c. and b. Controlling system
d.c. c. Damping system
3. Time base of CRO d. Pivot and Jewel bearing
4. Standard of Electromotive force (Emf) 74. Which one of the following is measured by
Codes; the loss of charge method?
A B C D a. Low R
a. 4 1 3 2 b. High R
b. 4 3 1 2 c. Low L
c. 2 1 3 4 d. High L
d. 2 3 1 4 75. Which one of the following gives Gauge
factor of a strain gauge?
69. Low resistance from few ohms down to
one micro ohm is measured using which ΔL ΔR
a.
one of the following instructs merits? L R
a. Ohmmeter ΔR ΔL
b.
b. A series type ohmmeter R L
c. A shunt type ohmmeter ΔR ΔD
c.
d. A voltmeter and an ammeter R D
70. Which one of the following statements is ΔR Δρ
d.
correct? An electronic voltmeter is more R ρ
reliable as compared to multimeter for
76. Which one of the following definition
measuring voltage across low impedance
correctly, represents a data acquisition
because
system (DAS)?
a. its sensitivity is high
a. DAS is a group of electronic devices
b. it offers high input impedance that are connected to perform the
c. it does not alter the measured voltage measurement and quantization of
d. its sensitivity, and input impedance are electrical Signals for digital processing
high and do not alter the measured b. DAS is a group of devices that are
value connected t store different signals
71. Which one of the following decides the c. DAS is a system to control a process
precision of integrating digital voltmeter? d. DAS is a signal conditioner
a. Reference voltage of analog 77. Match List I with List II and select the
comparator correct answer using the codes given
b. Slope of the generated ramp below
c. Width of the generated pulses List I (Transducer)
10 of 16
A. Piezo-electric crystal For the multiple gear system shown above,
B. Manometer which one of the following gives the
C. Resistance bridge equivalent inertia referred to shaft 1?
2 2
D. Resistance strain gage ⎛N ⎞ ⎛NN ⎞
a. J1 + J 2 ⎜ 1 ⎟ + J 2 ⎜ 1 3 ⎟
List II (Parameter) ⎝ N2 ⎠ ⎝ N2 N4 ⎠
1. Static pressure measurement 2 2
⎛N ⎞ ⎛N N ⎞
2. Dynamic force measurement b. J1 + J 2 ⎜ 2 ⎟ + J 3 ⎜ 2 4 ⎟
3. Study of vibration of a cantilever ⎝ N1 ⎠ ⎝ N1 N 3 ⎠
2 2
4. Vibration in position of slider by an ⎛N ⎞ ⎛NN ⎞
external force changes the resistance c. J1 + J 2 ⎜ 1 ⎟ + J 3 ⎜ 1 2 ⎟
⎝ N2 ⎠ ⎝ N3 N 4 ⎠
Codes; 2 2
A B C D ⎛N ⎞ ⎛NN ⎞
d. J1 + J 2 ⎜ 2 ⎟ + J 3 ⎜ 1 2 ⎟
a. 4 1 2 3 ⎝ N1 ⎠ ⎝ N3 N 4 ⎠
b. 4 3 2 1 81. Consider the following mechanical system
c. 2 1 4 3 shown in the diagram:
d. 2 3 4 1
78. Which one of the following thermocouples
has the highest temperature measuring
range?
a. Copper-Constantan
b. Iron-Constantan
c. Alumel-Chromel Which one of the following circuits shows
d. Platinum Rhodium-Platinum the correct force- current analogous
79. Consider the following elements: electrical circuit for the mechanical
diagram shown above?
1. Low pass filter
a.
2. Signal transmission medium
3. Amplifier
4. Digital to analog convertor
5. Analog to digital convertor
b.
Which one of the following sequences is
the correct sequence for effective signal
re-construction in a data acquisition and
processing scheme?
a. 1-3-5-2-4
b. 3-1-5-2-4 c.
c. 1-5-3-2-4
d. 3-5-1-4-2
80. Consider the following diagram:
d.
82. The signal flow graph for a certain

feedback control system is given below:
11 of 16
correct in respect of the above block
diagrams?
a. Only A and B are equivalent
b. Only A and C are equivalent
Now consider the following set of
equations for the nodes: c. Only B and C are equivalent
1. x2 = a1 x1 + a9 x3 d. A, B and c are equivalent
85. Consider the following three cases of
2. x3 = a2 x2 + a8 x4 block diagram algebra A, B and C
3. x4 = a3 x3 + a5 x2
4. x5 = a4 x4 + a6 x2
Which of the above equations are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
83. Consider the following system shown in
the diagram:
Which of the above relations are correct?

In the system shown in the above diagram a. A and B
x(t) = sin t. What will be the response y(t) b. B and C
in the steady state? c. A and C
a. sin ( t − 45° ) 2 d. A, B and C
86. The damping ratio and natural, frequency
b. sin ( t + 45° ) 2 of a second order system are 0.6 and 2
c. 2 e − t sin t rad/s respectively. Which one of the
following combinations gives the correct
d. sin t − cos t values of peak and setting time,
84. Consider the following three block respectively for the unit step response of
diagram A, B and C shown below: the system?
a. 3.33 S and 1.95 S
b. 1.95 s and 3.33 S
c. 1.95 s and 1.5 s
d. 1.5 s and 1.95 S
87. Match List I (Type of plots) with List VII
(Functions) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
List I
A. Bode plots
B. Polar plots
C. Nyquist plots
D. Nichols chart
List II
1. Open loop response due to damped
sinusoidal inputs as a function of
complex frequency
12 of 16
2. Open loop response due to undamped 1 1 2
b. + +
sinusoidal as a function of real
frequency
(1 + K p ) Kv K a
1 1 1
3. Closed loop response due to sinusoidal c. + +
inputs as a function of real frequency K p Kv Ka
4. Open loop magnitude and phase angle 1 1 1
d. + +
responses for undamped sinusoidal
inputs plotted separately as a function (1 + K p ) Kv K a
of real frequency 91. A control system is defined in S-domain.
Codes; Following points regarding the poles of the
A B C D transfer function obtained from the
characteristic equation were noted
a. 2 4 3 1
1. Poles with positive real part denote
b. 2 4 1 3
stable system.
c. 4 2 3 1
2. Complex poles always occur in pairs. -
d. 4 2 1 3
3. A pole S = - σ (σ > 0) means that the
88. A unity feedback control system has a transient response contains exponential
forward loop transfer function as decay.
eTs Which of the above are correct?
Its phase value will be zero at
⎡⎣ s ( s + 1) ⎤⎦ a. 1 and 2
frequency ω1. Which one of the following b. 1 and 3
equations should be satisfied by ω1? c. 2 and 3
a. ω1 = cot (T ω1 ) d. 1, 2 and 3
b. ω1 = tan (T ω1 ) 92. Consider the following statements
regarding advantages of using the
c. T ω1 = cot (ω1 ) generalized error coefficients
d. T ω1 = tan (ω1 ) 1. The generalized error coefficients
provide a simple way of determining
89. Consider the following transfer functions: the nature of the response of a
1. 1/(S2+ S + 1) feedback control system to almost any
2. 4/(S2 + 2S + 4) arbitrary input.
3. 2/(S2 + 2S + 2) 2. The generalized error coefficients lead
to the calculation of the steady-state
4. 1/(S2 + 2S + 1)
response without actually solving the
5. 3/(S2 + 6S + 3) system differential equation.
Which of the above transfer functions 3. The generalized error coefficients
represent under damped second order establish relationships among the
systems? various types of inputs.
a. 4 and 5 Which of the above statements are correct?
b. 1, 4 and 5 a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 5 c. 2 and 3
90. Which one of the following equations d. 1 and 3
gives the steady-state error for a unity
93. The Nyquist plot for the closed-loop
feedback system excited by
control system with the loop transfer
us ( t ) + t us ( t ) + ⎡⎣t 2us ( t ) / 2 ⎤⎦ 100
function G(S) H(S) = is
1 1 1 S ( S + 10 )
a. + +
( 2 + K p ) Kv Ka plotted. Then, the critical point (-1, j0) is
a. never enclosed
13 of 16
b. enclosed under certain conditions c. 1 and 3
c. just touched d. Only 3
d. enclosed 97. The characteristic equation for a third-
94. A minimum phase unity feedback system order system is
has a Bode plot with a constant slope of - q ( s ) = a0 s 3 + a1s 2 + a2 s + a3 = 0
20 db/decade for all frequencies. What is
the value of the maximum phase margin For the third-order system to be stable,
for the system? besides that all the coefficients have to be
positive, which one of the following has to
a. 0°
be satisfied as a necessary and sufficient
b. 90° condition?
c. - 90° a. a0 a1 ≥ a2 a3
d. 180°
b. a1a2 ≥ a0 a3
95. Consider the following Nyquist plot of a
feedback system having open loop transfer c. a2 a3 ≥ a1a0
function GH(s) = (S + 1)1 [s2(s - 2)] as d. Only 3
shown in the diagram given below:
98. A control system has G(s)H(s) = K/[s(s +
4)(s2 + 4s + 20)] (0 < K < ∞). What is the
number of breakaway points in the root
locus diagram?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
What is the number of closed loop poles in
the right half of the s-plane? d. Zero
a. 0 99. Which one of the following is the correct
expression for the transfer function of an
b. 1
electrical RC phase-lag compensating
c. 2 network?
d. 3 RCS
a.
96. Consider the following statements for a
counterclockwise Nyquist path:
(1 + RCS )
1. For a stable loop system, the Nyquist RC
b.
plot of G(s)H(s) should encircle (-1, j0) (1 + RCS )
point as many times as there are poles 1
of G(s)H(s) in the right half of the s- c.
plane, the encirclements, if there are (1 + RCS )
any must be made in the S
d.
counterclockwise direction.
(1 + RCS )
2. If the loop gain function G(s)H(s) is a
stable function, the closed loop system 100. Which one of the following is not a correct
is always stable. reason to select feedback compensation
over cascaded one?
3. If the loop gain function G(s)H(s) is a
stable function, for a stable closed-loop a. No amplification is required as the
system, the Nyquist plot of G(s)H(s) energy transfer is from higher to lower
must not enclose the critical point (-1, level
j0). b. Suitable devices are not available for
Which of the statements given above is/are compensation (series)
correct? c. It is economical
a. Only 1 d. Provides greater stiffness against load
b. 1 and 2 disturbances
14 of 16
101. For a unity feedback system, the origin of system given by x + f ( x, x& ) and
&&
the s-plane is mapped in the z-plane by
transformation z = eST to which one of the satisfying f ( x, x& ) = f ( − x, x& )
following? symmetrical?
a. Origin a. x-axis
b. 1 + j0 b. x& -axis
c. – 1 + j0 c. Both the x and x axes
d. 0 + j1 d. Neither x nor x axes
102. Consider the following network: 105. A unity feedback non-linear control
system’s plot for —1/N and G(jω) is
shown in the diagram given below:
What is the minimum number of states of

the network given above in order to
determine the complete output of the
network over all future time for a given
input? N is describing function of the non-linear
a. 0 device and G(s) is the transfer function of
b. 1 the linear plant. Which one of the
following statements is correct? The limit
c. 2 cycle is
d. 3 a. stable
103. Match List I (Singular point) with List II b. unstable
(Phase portrait) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below: c. critically stable
List I d. None of the above
A. Unstable focus 106. Match List I (Name of the Component)
with List II (Type of the Component) and
B. Stable focus select the correct answer using the codes
C. Stable node given below:
D. Saddle List I
List II A. Amplidyne
1. A logarithmic spiral extending into the B. Potentiometer
singular point C. Stepper motor
2. Trajectories approach singular point D. AC Tacho-generator
adjacent to straight line curve out and
leave in vicinity of singular points List II
3. A logarithmic spiral extending out of 1. Rate feedback element
the singular point 2. Actuator
4. Trajectories are asymptotic to straight 3. Servo amplifier
line 4. Error detector
Codes; Codes;
A B C D A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4 a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 2 3 4 b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 4 1 2 c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 4 3 2 d. 1 4 3 2
104. About which one of the following is the 107. Consider the following statements:
phase-plane portrait for the non-linear
15 of 16
1. Servomotors have lighter rotor as Reason (R): Its electrical resistivity can be
compared to ordinary motors and increased by raising its temperature.
hence lower inertia. a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
2. Back e.m.f. in field controlled d.c. and R is the correct explanation of A
motors acts as minor loop feedback b. Both A and R are individually true but
and results in increased damping and R is not the, correct explanation of A
improved transient response. c. A is true but R is false
3. Permanent magnet d.c. servomotors d. A is false but R is true
can be used in either armature-
controlled or field-controller modes. 111. Assertion (A): In a lossless transmission
line the voltage and current distributions
Which of the above statements are not along the line are always Constant.
correct?
Reason (R): The voltage and current
a. 1 and 2 distributions in an open line are such that
b. 2 and 3 at a distance λ/4 from the load end, the
c. 1 and 3 line looks like a series resonant circuit.
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
108. Match List I (Plot/Model) with List II and R is the correct explanation of A
(Related parameter) and select the correct b. Both A and R are individually true but
answer using the codes given below: R is not the, correct explanation of A
List I c. A is true but R is false
A. Root locus plot d. A is false but R is true
B. Bode plot 112. Assertion (A): An electric or mechanical
C. Nyquist plot input makes the flux jump from one
D. Signal flow chart superconductor to another, generating
large direct currents.
List II
Reason (R): The electric resistivity of
1. Comer frequency superconductors depends upon the
2. Breakaway point magnetic field.
3. Critical point a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
4. Transmittance and R is the correct explanation of A
Codes; b. Both A and R are individually true but
A B C D R is not the, correct explanation of A
a. 4 3 1 2 c. A is true but R is false
b. 4 1 3 2 d. A is false but R is true
c. 2 3 1 4 113. Assertion (A): Cryotron is a switch
d. 2 1 3 4 constructed out of superconducting
materials.
109. A 3-phase star-connected balanced load
consumes P watts of power from a 400 V Reason (R): Switching action is
(line to line voltage) supply. if the same characteristic of superconductors only.
load is connected in delta across the same a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
supply, what is the power consumption ? and R is the correct explanation of A
a. P/13W b. Both A and R are individually true but
b. P W R is not the, correct explanation of A
c. 3PW
d. 3 P W
114. Assertion (A): Soft magnetic material is
110. Assertion (A): An intrinsic semi-conductor used in making electromagnets.
has low electrical conductivity. I-fence, it
Reason (R): Soft magnetic materials have
is normally not used in the device
a high coercive field.
fabrication without damping.
16 of 16
a. Both A ‘and R are individually true c. A is true but R is false
and R is the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are individually true but 118. Assertion (A): A dual trace CR0 can
R is not the, correct explanation of A display two input signals simultaneously.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R): A dual trace CRO uses a CRT
d. A is false but R is true having two electron guns to generate two
115. Assertion (A): If Thevenin’s equivalent of electron beams simultaneously.
a circuit is known, its Norton equivalent is a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
also known. and R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R): Noton’s equivalent is b. Both A and R are individually true but
reciprocal of Thevenin’s equivalent. R is not the, correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but 119. Assertion (A): Data acquisition systems
R is not the, correct explanation of A are used in a large and ever increasing
c. A is true but R is false number, of applications in a veriety of
d. A is false but R is true industrial and scientific areas.
116. Assertion (A): An electronic voltmeter Reason (R): Transducer converts the
measures the voltage across a high analog signal to a form acceptable by the
resistance more accurately as compared to A/P convertor.
an ordinary multimeter. a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
Reason (R): The electronic voltmeter and R is the correct explanation of A
consists of a voltage amplifier which is not b. Both A and R are individually true but
present in an ordinary multimeter. R is not the, correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but 120. Assertion (A): An addition of real zero at s
R is not the, correct explanation of A = - z0 in the transfer function G(s) H(s) of
c. A is true but R is false a control system results in the increase of
d. A is false but R is true stability margin.
117. Assertion (A): Cathode ray oscilloscopes Reason (R): An addition of real zero at s =
using CRT employing electrostatic - z0 in the transfer function G(s)H(s) will
deflection are used in laboratories for make the resultant root loci bend towards
scientific measurements. - the left.
Reason (R): CRT using electrostatic a. Both A ‘and R are individually true
deflection systems has more deflection and R is the correct explanation of A
sensitivity as compared to CRT employing b. Both A and R are individually true but
magnetic deflecting system. R is not the, correct explanation of A
R is not the, correct explanation of A
I.E.S (OBJ)-2005 1 of 16
PAPER–I
1. A set of independent current b. Co-axial copper cables transmission
measurements taken by four observers was system
recorded as: 117.02 mA, 117.11 mA, c. Fibre-optic data transmission system
117.08 mA and 117.03 mA. What is the d. Synchro-position repeater system
range of error?
6. Why are dummy strain gauges employed?
a. ± 0045
a. For calibration of strain gauges
b. ± 0054
b. For increasing the sensitivity of the
c. ± 0065 bridge
d. ± 0056 c. For compensation of temperature
2. The reference voltage and the input variations
voltage are sequentially connected to the d. For neutralizing the influence of bridge
integrator with the help of a switch in a voltage supply variations
a. Successive approximation A/D 7. Match List I (Type of DVM) with List II
converter (Sub-component in ADC) and select the
b. Dual slope integration A/D converter correct answer using the codes given
c. Voltage to time converter below the lists:
d. Voltage to frequency converter List I
3. A single channel digital storage A. Ramp type
oscilloscope uses a 12 bit, 108 samples/s B. Dual-slope
ADC. For a 10 kHz sine wave input, what C. Servo-type
is the number of samples taken per cycle
of input? D. Successive approximation
a. 1012 List II
b. 108 1. DAC
c. 104 2. Voltage to time converter
d. 102 3. Pulse-generator
4. Consider the signal: 4. Potentiometer
Vm sin 100t + 2 Vm sin 200t 5. Capacitor
to be sampled and stored in a data Codes;
acquisition system. The same is to be A B C D
extracted off-line later on. In order to a. 2 1 4 5
extract the signal effectively, the original b. 4 5 3 1
sampling frequency has to be c. 2 5 4 1
a. 100 rad/s d. 4 1 3 5
b. 200 rad/s 8. In modern electronic multi meter a FET or
c. 210 rad/s MOSFET is preferred over BJT because
d. 1002 + 2002 rad/s a. Its input resistance is low
5. Which one of the following transmission b. Its input resistance is high
systems for telemetry has largest c. Its input resistance is high and does not
bandwidth? vary with the change of range
a. FM/FM radio transmission system d. It is cheaper
2 of 16
9. Which of the following bridges can be List I
used for inductance measurement? A. Phosphor-bronze
1. Maxwell’s bridge 2. Schering bridge B. Manganin
2. Wein bridge 4. Hay’s bridge C. Aluminium
3. Wheatstone bridge D. Eureka
Select the correct answer using the codes List II
given below 1. Coils
a. 1 and 2 2. Discs
b. 2 and 3 3. Control Springs
c. 3, 4 and 5 4. Shunts
d. 1 and 4 5. Multipliers
10. Match List I (Frequency) with List II Codes;
(Detector) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists A B C D
List I a. 3 5 2 4
A. Zero frequency b. 2 4 1 5
B. 50 Hz c. 3 4 2 5
C. 1200 Hz d. 2 5 1 4
D. 10 kHz 13. Match List I (type of Electronic
Voltmeter) with List II (Major
List II Characteristic) and select the correct
1. Head phone answer using the code given below the
2. D’Arsonval galvanometer lists:
3. Cathode ray oscilloscope List I
4. Vibration galvanometer A. Amplifier-rectifier
5. Ballistic galvanometer B. Rectifier-amplifier
Codes; C. True R.M.S.
A B C D D. Logarithmic
a. 2 1 5 3 List II
b. 3 4 1 2 1. Wide input-signal dynamic range
c. 2 4 1 3 2. High sensivity, limited bandwidth
d. 3 1 5 2 3. Limited sensivity, large bandwidth
11. Which of the following factors decide the 4. Capability to read non-sinusoidal ac
accuracy in a bridge measurement? Codes;
1. Accuracy of the null indicator A B C D
2. Accuracy of the bridge components. a. 4 1 2 3
3. Sensitivity of the null indicator. b. 2 3 4 1
4. Applied voltage to the bridge system. c. 4 3 2 1
Select the correct answer using the code d. 2 1 4 3
given below 14. What is the effect of inductance in the
a. 1 and 2 pressure coil on performance of a
b. 2 and 3 dynamometer type wattmeter?
c. 3 and 4 a. It reads low on lagging power factor
d. 1 and 3 and high on leading power factor
12. Match List I (Material Used in b. It reads high on lagging power factor
Instruments) with List II (Purpose) and and low on leading power factor
select the correct answer using the code c. Its reading is not affected at all
given below the lists: d. It always reads low
3 of 16
15. To measure 5 volts, if one selects a 0 - 100 the correct answer using the code given
volt range voltmeter which is accurate below the Lists
within ± 1%, then the error in this List I
measurement may be up to A. Does not intersect the negative real
a. ± 1.5% axis
b. ± 2.5% B. Intersects the negative real axis
c. ± 7.5% between 0 and (-1, jo)
d. ± 20% C. Passes through (-1, jo)
16. Consider the following statements with D. Encloses (-1, jo)
regard to the bandwidth of a closed-loop List II
system: 1. > 0
1. In systems where the low frequency
2. ∞
magnitude is 0 dB h the Bode diagram,
the bandwidth is measured at the -3dB 3. < 0
frequency. 4. 0
2. The bandwidth of the closed loop Codes;
control system is a measurement of the A B C D
range of fidelity of response of the a. 2 4 1 3
system.
b. 3 1 4 2
3. The speed of response to a step input is
c. 2 1 4 3
proportional to the bandwidth.
d. 3 4 1 2
4. The system with the larger bandwidth
provides slower step response and 19. Which one of the following is the steady
lower fidelity ramp response. state error of a control system with step
error, ramp error and parabolic error
constants kp, kv and ka respectively for the
correct?
input (1 - t2) μ(t)?
a. 1, 2 and 3
3 3
b. 1, 2 and 4 a. −
1 + k p 2k a
c. 1, 3 and 4
3 6
d. 2, 3 and 4 b. +
17. Consider the following statements: 1 + k p 2k a
A first order system with a proportional 3 3
c. −
controller exhibits an offset to a step input. 1 + k p 2k a
In order to reduce the offset, it is necessary
to 3 6
d. −
1. Increase the gain of proportional 1 + k p 2k a
controller. 20.
2. Add a derivative mode.
3. Add an -integral mode.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 What is the overall transfer function of the
c. 2 and 3 block diagram given above?
d. 1 and 3 G1G2 + G2G3
a.
18. Match List I (Nyquist Plot of Loop 1 + G2 H1
Transfer Function of a Control System) G1G2 + G2G3
with List II (Gain Margin in dB) and select b.
1 + G3 H1
4 of 16
c. G1G2 + G2G3 c. A is unstable limit cycle but B is stable
G1G3 + G2G3 d. Both A and B are unstable
d. 25. Match List I (Specifications of Voltages to
1 + G2G3 H1
be Measured) with List II (Type of Most
21. Suitable Instruments) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List I
A. 0 - 10 mV from a source of internal
resistance of 1. MΩ
B. Thermo-emf ranging up to 5 mV from
For which of the following values of k, the
a thermocouple
feedback system shown in the above figure
is stable? C. Supply voltage of 230 V, 50Hz
a. k > 0 D. R.M.S. value of a voltage containing
dc and ripples of 50 Hz and harmonic
b. k < 0
List II
c. 0 < k < 42
1. Thermal
d. 0 < k < 60
2. Moving Iron
22. If the rotor axis of synchro transmitter is
along the axis of S2 stator winding, when 3. Permanent magnet moving coil
will be the electrical zeroing? 4. Electronic
a. VS1VS2 is maximum 5. Ballistic galvanometer
Codes;
b. VS2VS3 is maximum
A B C D
c. VS2VS3 is minimum a. 2 3 5 1
d. VS3VS1 is minimum b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 5 3
23. The constant M-circles corresponding to
the magnitude (M) of the closed loop d. 4 3 2 1
transfer function of a linear system for 26. What are the order and type of close-loop
values of M greater than one lie in the G- system for the plant transfer
plane and to the k
function G ( s ) = 2 and with unity
a. Right of the M = 1 line s (1 + Ts )
b. Left of the M = l line feedback?
c. Upper side of the M = ± j1 line a. Two and two
d. Lower side of the M – j1 line b. Three and two
24. c. Two and zero
d. Three and zero
27. The open loop transfer function of a unity
feedback control system is given by
k
G (s) = . If gain k is increased to
s ( s + 1)
infinity, then damping ratio will tend to
become
a. Zero
Which one of the following is correct in
b. 0.707
respect of the figure given above?
c. Unity
a. A and B are stable limit cycles
d. Infinite
b. A is stable limit cycle but B is unstable
5 of 16
28. The characteristic equation of a control Which of the statements given above are
system is given by s(s + 4)(s2 + 2s + s) + k correct?
(s + 1) = 0 a. 1 and 4
What are the angles of the asymptotes for b. 1 and 3
the root loci for k ≥ 0? c. 2 and 3
a. 60°, 180°, 300° d. 2 and 4
b. 0°, 180°, 300° 32. Match List I (Name of the Control System
c. 120°, 180°, 240° Component) with List II (Use of the
d. 0°, 120°, 240° Component in Control System) and select
29. Encirclement of origin of 1 + G(s) plane the correct answer using the code given
corresponds to encirclement of a point in below:
the -1 + G(s) plane, given by List I
a. 1 + j0 A. Amplidyne
b. 0 + j0 B. Potentiometer
c. - 2 + j0 C. Stepper motor
d. - 1 + j0 D. AC tacho-generator
30. Consider the following statements List II
regarding compensators used in control 1. Feedback element
systems 2. Actuator
1. For type-2 or higher systems, lag 3. Control Amplifier
compensator is universally used to
4. Error detector
overcome the undesirable oscillatory
transient response. Codes;
2. In case of lag-lead compensator, a lag A B C D
and a lead compensator are basically a. 3 1 2 4
connected in parallel. b. 2 4 3 1
3. The S-plane representation of the lead c. 3 4 2 1
compensator has a zero closer to the d. 2 1 3 4
origin than the pole.
33. The maximum temperature rise of a
4. A lag compensator improves the steady transformer is 50°C. It attains a
state behaviour of a system while temperature 31.6° in 1/2 hour. What is its
nearly maintaining its transient thermal time constant?
response.
a. 2 hours
b. 1/2 hour
correct?
c. 1 hour
a. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1/4 hour
b. 2, 3 and,4
34. The state equations of a system are given
c. 1 and 2
by
d. 3 and 4
⎡ −3 1 0 ⎤ ⎡0 ⎤
31. The open loop transfer function of a
feedback system has m poles and n zeros x& = ⎢ 0 −3 0 ⎥ x + ⎢⎢ 0 ⎥⎥ u
⎢ ⎥
(m > n). ⎢⎣ 0 0 −1⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦
Consider the following statements:
y = [1 0 1] x
1. The number of separate root loci is m.
2. The number of separate root loci is n. The system is
3. The number of root loci approaching a. Controllable and observable
infinity is (m - n). b. Controllable but not completely
4. The number of root loci approaching observable
infinity is (m + n).
6 of 16
c. Neither controllable nor completely 1. The natural frequency of the response
observable is 6 rad/s.
d. Not completely controllable but 2. The response is always oscillatory.
observable 3. The percentage overshoot is 10% and
35. In a speed control system, output rate damping ratio of the system is 0.6.
feedback is used to 4. Both system time constant and settling
a. Limit the speed of motor time are infinite.
b. Limit the acceleration of the motor Which of the statements given above are
c. Reduce the damping of the system correct?
d. Increase the gain margin a. 1 and 3
36. Consider the following equation: b. 2 and 4
2s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 10 = 0 c. 1, 2 and 3
How many roots does this equation have in d. 2, 3 and 4
the right half of s-plane? 39. Match List I (Original Diagram) with List
a. One II (Equivalent Diagram) and select the
b. Two correct answer using the code given below
the Lists
c. Three
List I
d. Four
A.
37. Match List I (System) with List II
(Transfer Function) and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Lag Network B.
B. AC Servomotor
C. Field Controller dc servomotor
D. Tacho-generator
List II C.
⎛ 1 + aTs ⎞
1. K ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1 + Ts ⎠
2. K1S D.
K
3.
s (1 + sτ m ) (1 + sτ f )
K
4.
s (1 + sτ m ) List II
1.
Codes;
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
2.
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
d2y
38. 4 + 36 y = 36 x
dt 2
3.
Consider the following statements in
connection with the differential equation
given above
7 of 16
state at a temperature less than the
transition temperature is
a. Zero
4. b. Greater than the critical field
corresponding to the given temperature
c. Less than the critical field
corresponding to the given temperature
d. Equal to the critical field
Codes; corresponding to the transition
A B C D temperature
a. 3 1 4 2 45. Match List I (Response) with List II
(Parameter) and select the correct answer
b. 2 4 1 3
using the codes given below the Lists:
c. 3 4 1 2
List I
d. 2 1 4 3
A. Swiftness of transient response
40. A 12 bit A/D converter has a range 0 - 10
B. Closeness of the response to the
V. What is the approximate resolution of
desired response
the converter?
C. Reduction of steady state error
a. 1 mV
D. Number of integrators in loop transfer
b. 2.5 mV
function
c. 2.5 μV
List II
d. 12 mV
1. Feedback control
41. Pulse code modulation is commonly used
2. Type number
in telemetry because
3. Rise time and peak time
a. It ensures immunity from noise during
transmission 4. Overshoot and settling time
b. The bandwidth requirement of the Codes;
channel is reduced A B C D
c. It removes quantization error a. 3 4 1 2
d. It permits lower rate of sampling than b. 2 1 4 3
what is normally required under c. 3 1 4 2
Shanon’s theorem d. 2 4 1 3
42. A uniform plane wave has a wavelength of 46. Consider the following statements
2 cm in free space and 1 cm in a perfect regarding magnetic materials:
dielectric. What is the relative permittivity
1. Relative permeability of water is
of the dielectric?
0.99999 and that of oxygen is 1.00002;
a. 2.0 hence water is dia-magnetic and
b. 0.5 oxygen is para-magnetic material.
c. 4.0 2. Ferrimagnetic material has no eddy
d. 0.25 current loss.
43. What are the materials which exhibit 3. Permalloy and Alnico are two
electric polarization even in the absence of examples of hard magnetic materials.
an applied electric field called? 4. The magnetisation and applied electric
a. Ferromagnetic field in ferromagnetic materials are
b. Paramagnetic related non-linearly.
c. Ferroelectric Which of the statements given above are
correct?
d. Anti-ferroelectric
a. 1, 2 and 3
44. The magnetic field at which a super-
conductor remains in its superconducting b. 2, 3 and 4
8 of 16
c. 1, 3 and 4 d. Alnico
d. 1, 2 and 4 52. In metals, resistivity is composed of two
47. The systeresis loop for the material of the parts: one part is characteristic of the
core of a transformer should be particular substance. The other part is due
a. Short and narrow to
b. Tall and narrow a. Applied voltage
c. Short and wide b. Crystal imperfections
d. Tall and wide. c. Applied magnetic field
48. All magnetic materials lose their magnetic d. Supplied thermal energy
properties when 53. Fermi level in a p-type semiconductor lies
a. Cooled to low temperature close to
b. Heated to high temperature a. The top of the valence band
c. Kept in an aluminium box b. The bottom of the valence band
d. Kept in vacuum c. The top of the conduction band
49. The electrical conductivity of a d. The bottom of the conduction band
semiconductor increases with increase in 54. Above the Curie temperature, Ferro-
temperature because magnetic materials behave like
a. The mobility of the carriers increases a. Paramagnetic
b. The carrier concentration increases b. Diamagnetic
c. Both carrier concentration and c. Anti-ferromagnetic
mobility increase d. Ferromagnetic
d. Thermal energy of electrons increases 55. Match List I with List II and select the
50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
correct answer using the code given below below the Lists:
the Lists: List I
List I A. Breakaway point
A. Non-linear system B. Phase margin
B. Linear system C. Gain margin
C. Time varying system D. Second order system
D. Multiplication in S-domain List II
List II 1. Stable
1. Principle of superposition and 2. Phase cross-over frequency
homogeneity and homogeneity 3. Gain cross-over frequency
2. Describing function 4. Root locus
3. Convolution integral Codes;
4. Rocket A B C D
Codes; a. 4 3 2 1
A B C D b. 4 3 1 2
a. 1 2 3 4 c. 3 4 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3 d. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4 56. In an analog data acquisition unit, what is
d. 1 2 4 3 correct sequence of the blocks starting
51. Which one of the following is not a from the input?
permanent magnetic material? a. Transducer — Recorder — Sgna1
a. Chromium steel conditioner
b. Silicon iron b. Transducer — Signal conditioner —
c. Cobalt steel Recorder
9 of 16
c. Signal conditioner — Transducer — 61. Chopper stabilized d.c. amplifier type
Recorder electronic voltmeter overcomes the effect
d. Signal conditioner — Recorder — of
Transducer a. Amplifier CMRR
57. Thermistors are essentially semiconductors b. Amplifier sensitivity
a. Well suited to precision measurement c. Amplifier drift
of temperature d. Electromagnetic interference
b. Widely used in the lower temperature 62. Which of the following measurements can
range of -100°C to 300°C be made using Lissajous figures?
c. Which behave as resistors with a high 1. Frequency
negative temperature coefficient of 2. Phase difference
resistance
3. Time interval between pulses
d. All of the above
4. Pulse width
58. Which one of the following frequency
meter is suitable for measuring radio 5. Fundamental and higher harmonic
frequency? components.
a. Vibrating reed frequency meter Select the correct answer using the code
given below
b. Weston frequency meter
a. 1 and 2
c. Electrical resonance frequency meter
b. 2 and 3
d. Hetrodyne frequency meter
c. 3 and 4
59. Which one of the following digital
voltmeters is most suitable to eliminate the d. 4 and 5
effect of period noise? 63. Wagner Earth devices in AC bridge
a. Ramp type digital voltmeter circuits are used for
b. Integrating type digital voltmeter a. Shielding all the bridge elements from
external magnetic field
c. Successive approximation type digital
voltmeter b. Eliminating the effect of stray
capacitance
d. Servo type digital voltmeter
c. Minimizing the effect of inter-
60. Match List I with List II and select the component capacitance
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists: d. Eliminating all the node to earth
capacitances
List I
64. Which one of the following defects is
A. imaginary axis of S-plane responsible for creeping in an induction
B. Oscillatory time domain response type energy meter?
C. Over damped time response a. Imperfect lag compensation
D. Poles at origin of S-plane b. Over friction compensation
List II c. Imperfect overload compensation
1. Imaginary axis poles and S-plane d. Misalignment of brake magnet
2. Type of the system 65.
3. Unit circle of Z-plane
4. Poles on real axis of S-plane
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 3 2 4 In the circuit given above, the steady state
c. 3 1 4 2 is attained with S open. S is closed at t = 0.
d. 3 4 1 2 What is the value of current I at t = 0+?
a. 2 A
10 of 16
b. 2.25 A d. 2 A
c. 3 A 69.
d. 4 A
66.
The black-box, N contains resistors and

independent sources. If I = 3A and 1.5A
for R = 0 and 2Ω, respectively, then what
For the a.c. circuit given above, what is the
is the value of I for R = 1Ω?
value of I?
a. 1 A
a. 1 + j1
b. 2 A
b. 1 + j0
c. 3 A
c. 2 – j1
d. 4 A
d. 0 + j0
70.
67. Match List I (Property of Network) with
List II (Relevant Theorem) and select the
the Lists:
List I
A. Linearity
B. Structure
C. Equivalent Circuit For the circuit shown above, sthe value of
R is adjusted, so as to make the current in
D. Bilateral
RL equal to zero. What is the
List II
a. 1 Ω
1. Super position Theorem
b. 2 Ω
2. Norton’s Theorem
c. 3 Ω
3. Tellengen’s Theorem
4. Reciprocity Theorem d. 4 Ω
5. Millman’s Theorem 71.
Codes;
A B C D
a. 2 5 1 3
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 1 5 2 3 For the circuit shown above, what is the
voltage across the current source Is?
68.
a. 0
b. 2 V
c. 3 V
d. 6 V
72. In an RLC series circuit, if the resistance R
In the circuit given above, I = 1A for IS = and the inductance L are kept constant but
0. What is the value of I for IS = 2? capacitance C is decreased, then which one
a. 7 A of the following statements is/are correct?
b. 4 A 1. Time constant of the circuit is changed.
c. 3 A 2. Damping ratio decreases.
11 of 16
3. Natural frequency increases. List II
4. Maximum overshoot is unaffected. 1. Ceramic capacitor
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Piezoelectric application
given below 3. Insulating materials for - machine
a. 1 and 2 windings
b. 2 only 4. High frequency insulator
c. 2 and 3 Codes;
d. 3 and 4 A B C D
73. From the given list of driving point a. 4 3 2 1
impedance functions, which one can be b. 2 1 4 3
realized using R and C elements only c. 4 1 2 3
Z1 ( s ) =
( s + 8) d. 2 3 4 1
( s + 2 )( s + 6 ) 76. A 3-phasedelta-connected symmetrical
Z2 ( s ) =
( s + 2 )( s + 6 ) load consumes P watt of power from a
( s + 4) balanced supply. If the same load is
connected in star to the same Supply, then
Z3 ( s ) =
( s + 4) what is the power consumption?
( s + 2) a. P/3
b. P
Z4 ( s ) =
( s + 2)
( s + 1)( s + 3) c. 3 /P
d. 3P
a. Z1 ( s )
77. A network has a zero at S = -1 and poles at
b. Z 2 ( s ) S = - 4 ± j1, the multiplier being unity. If
the input is α unit step function, then what
c. Z 3 ( s ) is the steady state response?
d. Z 4 ( s ) a. 2∠0°
74. b. 1∠-45°
c. 3∠90°
d. 0.5∠0°
78.
For the 2-port network shown in the figure

given above, what is the value of the
parameter h21?
a. 1.5
b. -0.4
c. 0.6
d. -0.5
What are the poles and zeroes of Z(s) of
75. Match List I (Insulating Material) with the above network?
List II (Application) and select the correct
answer using the code given below: a. s = - 12, s = - 6
List I b. s = - 6, s = - 12
A. Steatite c. s = - 3, s = - 6
B. Rutile (Titanium dioxide) d. s = - 2, s = - 4
C. Barium titanate 79.
D. Teflon
12 of 16
B. Paramagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
List II
1. ≈ 10+5
2. ≈ 10−5
3. ≈ −10−5
A unit impulse voltage is applied at t = 0
to the R-L circuit shown above while i(0-) Codes;
= 1 A. What is the expression for i(t)? A B C
a. e-10t a. 1 3 2
b. 1.5 e-10t b. 1 2 3
c. 2 e-10t c. 3 2 1
d. 10 e-10t d. 3 1 2
80. A circuit has two parallel branches. In one 84.
branch, R and L are connected in series
while in the other; R and C are connected
in series. If R = L / C , which one of the
following is not correct?
a. The circuit is in resonance
b. The two branch currents are in
quadrature
c. The circuit has an impedance
independent of its frequency Which one of the following gives the
correct short circuit parameter matrix V
d. The two branch currents are in phase
for the network shown above?
⎡ 0.7 −0.5⎤
1. Buffer a. ⎢ ⎥
2. Differentiator ⎣ −0.5 0.7 ⎦
3. Integrator ⎡ 0.7 −0.5⎤
b. ⎢ ⎥
4. Comparator ⎣ −0.5 0.8 ⎦
Which of the above is/are components in a ⎡ 0.8 −0.5⎤
dual slope integrating type voltmeter? c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ −0.5 0.7 ⎦
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2 ⎡ 0.7 −0.5⎤
d. ⎢ ⎥
c. 3 and 4 ⎣ 0.5 0.8 ⎦
d. 2 only 85.
82. Beam of electrons in a cathode ray tube
eminates because of
a. Second emission
b. Thermionic emission
c. Diffusion
d. Post acceleration
83. Match List I (Magnetic Material) with List For the two port network shown above,
II (Order of Susceptibility) and select the what is the voltage transfer function V2(s) /
correct answer using the code given below V1(s)?
the Lists: a. s/(1+2s2)
List I b. s/(1+2s)
A. Diamagnetic c. 1/(1 + 2s2)
13 of 16
d. 1/(1 +2s) d.
86. For a series RLC resonant circuit, what is
the total reactance at the lower half power
frequency?
a. 2 R∠45°
b. 2 R∠ − 45° 89.
c. R
d. - R
87. Match List I (Insulator) with List II
(Application) and select the correct answer
List I
A. Mica For the circuit shown above, the poles of
B. Polystyrene the driving-point impedance function are
C. Porecelain at which one of the following locations?
D. Silicon rubber a. A pole at s = -2
List II b. A pole at s = -1
1. Bushings c. A double pole at s = -1
2. Electric wires and cables d. Poles at s = -1 and s -2
3. Low voltage capacitors 90. With the increase in frequency of in
electromagnetic wave in free space, how
4. Iron
do the velocity VC and characteristic
5. Radio cabinets impedance ZC change?
Codes; a. VC increases and ZC decreases
A B C D b. VC decreases and ZC increases
a. 4 5 1 2 c. Both VC and ZC increase
b. 2 1 3 4 d. Both VC and ZC remain unchanged
c. 4 1 3 2 91. The E field of a plane electromagnetic
d. 2 5 1 4 wave traveling in a non-magnetic non-
88. The current behaviour in a circuit is conducting
ur medium is given
expressed by: i(t) 2e −t − e −5t t ≥ 0 . Which by E = aˆ x 5cos (10 t + 30Z ) . What is the
9
one of the following figures shows the dielectric constant of the medium?
pole-zero pattern of I(s)?
a. 30
a.
b. 10
c. 9
d. 3
92. In the wave equation
b. ur ur
ur ∂2 E ∂E
∇ E = μ ∈ 2 + μσ
2
∂t ∂t
Which term is responsible for attenuation
of the wave?
ur
a. ∇ 2 E
ur
c. ∂2 E
b. μ ∈ 2
∂t
ur
∂E
c. μσ
∂t
14 of 16
d. All of the above three 100.
93. Metallic copper is a
a. Paramagnetic substance
b. Diamagnetic substance
c. Ferromagnetic substance
d. Ferromagnetic substance
94. The magnetic field required to reduce the
residual magnetisation to zero is called
a. Retentivity
→
b. Coercivity What is the value of the integral ∫c
dl
c. Hysteresis along the curve c (c) is the curve ABCD in
d. Saturation magnetisation the direction of the arrow)?
95. Bohr magneton is unit of a. 2 R ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) / 2
a. Magnetic energy
b. Permanent dipole moment due to spin b. −2 R ( aˆ x + aˆ y ) / 2
c. Polarisability c. 2 Raˆ x
d. Hysteresis loss d. −2 Raˆ y
96. Magnetostriction is a phenomenon of
a. Generation of electricity in ferro-
magnetic materials 1. Poisson’s equation finds application in
vacuum tube and gaseous discharge
b. Generation of magnetism in
problems.
conductors
2. Gauss’s law is useful for determining
c. Change in permeability of ferro-
field and potential distribution about
magnetic materials during
bodies having unsymmetrical
magnetisation
geometry.
d. Change in physical dimensions of
3. For the propagation of electro-
ferromagnetic materials during
magnetic waves, the time varying
magnetisation
electric fields must support time
97. Superconductivity is destroyed varying magnetic fields.
a. At high temperature 4. The unit of Poynting’s vector is W/m2.
b. At high magnetic field Which of the statements given above are
c. In presence of magnetic impurities correct?
d. In all the above cases a. l, 2 and 3
98. Hall Effect can be used b. 1, 3 and 4
a. To find type of semiconductor c. 2, 3 and 4
(whether p or n type) d. 1, 2 and 4
b. To find carrier concentration 102. If the electric field established by three
c. To measure conductivity point
ur charges Q, 2Qurand 3Q exerts a force
d. All of the above 3 F on 3Q and 2 F on 2Q, then what is
99. For electrostatic fields in charge free the force exerted on the point charge Q?
ur
atmosphere, which one of the following is a. F
correct? ur
ur ur b. - F
a. ∇ × E = 0 and ∇.E = 0 ur
ur ur c. 5 F
b. ∇ × E ≠ 0 and ∇.E = 0 ur
ur ur d. -5 F
c. ∇ × E = 0 and ∇.E ≠ 0
ur ur
d. ∇ × E ≠ 0 and ∇.E ≠ 0
15 of 16
103. Which one of the following is not the valid a. ∇ 2V = − ρ / ∈
expression for magneto static field
ur b. ∇. (∈ ∇V ) = − ρ
vector B ?
ur ur
a. B = ∇. A c. ∇.∇ (∈ V ) = − ρ
ur ur
b. B = ∇ × A d. ∇ 2V = − ρ / ∈
ur
c. ∇.B = 0 109. The open circuit and short circuit
ur ur impedances of a line are 100 Ω each. What
d. ∇ × B = μ0 J
is the characteristic impedance of the line ?
104. What is the value of standing wave Ratio a. 100 2 Ω
(SWR) in free space for transmission
coefficient Γ = −1/ 3 ? b. 100 Ω
a. 2/3 c. 100/ 2 Ω
b. 0.5 d. 50 Ω
c. 4.0 110. A load impedance of (75 - j50) is
d. 2.0 connected to a transmission line of
105. What is the phase velocity of plane wave characteristic impedance Z0 = 75Ω. The
in a good conductor? best method of matching comprises
a. A short circuit stub at load
a. π f μσ
b. A short circuit stub at some specific
π fσ distance from load
b.
( μσ ) c. An open stub at load
d. Two short circuited stubs at specific
πf distances from load
c.
( μσ ) 111. When a lossless transmission line is
terminated by a resistance equal to surge
πf
d. 2 impedance, then what is value of the
( μσ ) reflection coefficient?
106. What is the attenuation constant α for a. 1
distortion less transmission line? b. -1
a. α = 0 c. 0
C d. 0.5
b. α = R 112. The instantaneous electric field of a plane
L
wave propagating in z-direction is
L
c. α = R E ( t ) = ⎡⎣ aˆ x E1 cos ωt − aˆ y E2 sin ωt ⎤⎦ e − jkz
C
This wave is
RL
d. α = a. Linearly polarized
C
b. Elliptically polarized
107. A 50 Ω distortion less transmission line
c. Right hand circularly polarized
has a capacitance of 10-10 f/m. What is the
inductance per meter? d. Left hand circularly polarized
a. 0.25 μH 113. Assertion (A): For a lossy transmission
line, the voltage standing wave ratio
b. 500 μH (VSWR) is higher near the load end than
c. 5000 μH that near the source end.
d. 50 μH Reason (R): In the presence of losses, the
108. Which one of the following is the propagation constant of the line becomes a
Poisson’s equation for a linear and complex quantity.
isotropic but inhomogeneous medium? a. Both A and R are individually true and
16 of 16
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the a. Both A and R are individually true and
correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
114. Assertion (A): The flux densities used in c. A is true but R is false
PMMC instruments vary from 0.1T to d. A is false but R is true
1.0T. 118. Assertion (A): For a control system having
Reason (R): The power requirement for synchro pair as error detector dc amplifier
PMMC movement to give full scale as control amplifier, a phase sensitive
deflection is small ranging from 25μW to detector is required to demodulate in place
200 μW. of ordinary diode detector.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R): Synchro output is a
R is the correct explanation of A suppressed carrier amplitude modulated
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the signal which cannot be demodulated by
correct explanation of A ordinary diode detector.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the
115. Assertion (A): The variation in gain of the
system does not alter the phase angle plot
in the Bode diagram. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): The phase margin of the d. A is false but R is true
system is not affected by the variation in 119. Assertion (A): Skin depth is the depth by
gain of the system. which electromagnetic wave has been
a. Both A and R are individually true and increased to 37% of its original value.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R): The depth of penetration of
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the wave in a lossy dielectric increases with
correct explanation of A increasing wavelength.
116. Assertion (A): Signal flow graphs can be
used for block diagram reduction of linear
control system. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): Signal flow graph is a d. A is false but R is true
graphical representation for the variables 120. Assertion (A): An insulator has a high
representing the outputs of the various value of resistivity, and with increasing
blocks of the control system. temperature the value of its resistivity
a. Both A and R are individually true and decreases exponentially.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R): With increasing temperature,
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the the value of the energy band gap
correct explanation of A decreases.
117. Assertion (A): The PMMC type of
indicating instruments are always critically
damped. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): A critically damped system d. A is false but R is true
directly moves to its steady state without
oscillation.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 15
PAPER-I
1. For a line of characteristic impedance Z0 6. With increase ‘in temperature, magnetic
terminated in a load of ZR such that ZR = susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material
Z0/ 3, what is the reflection coefficient will
ΓL? a. increase
a. 1/3 b. decrease
b. —1/3 c. increase, initially and then decrease
c. 2/3 d. remain constant
d. —1/2 7. Match List-I with List-II and select the
2. A transmission line has R, L. G, C correct answer using the code given below
distributed parameters per unit length of the Lists :
line. If γ is the propagation constant of the List-I
line, which one of the following A. No eddy current loss
expressions represents the characteristic B. Small hysteresis loss
impedance of the line? C. Large hysteresis loss
γ List - II
a.
R + jω L 1. Ferrimagnetic material
R + jω L 2. Soft magnetic material
b. 3. Hard magnetic material
γ
4. Non-ferrous material
G + jωC
c. A B C
γ a. 2 1 3
G + jωC b. 2 3 4
d.
R + jω L c. 1 3 4
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with d. 1 2 3
a. a short-circuited stub 8. What is the packing fraction of a BCC
b. an open-circuited stub (body-centered cubic) unit cell?
c. a quarter-wave line 3π
a.
d. a half-wave line 16
4. When the temperature of a magnetic 3π
material is raised above the Curie point, it b.
8
becomes
a. diamagnetic 3π
c.
b. paramagnetic 12
c. ferromagnetic 2π
d.
d. ferrimagnetic 8
5. Soft iron is used in the manufacture of 9. The relative dielectric constant of solid
electromagnets because of its dielectrics in the alternating field is
a. high saturation magnetisation only a. maximum at the power frequencies and
b. low retentivity only decreases to unity at frequencies in the
c. low coercive field only ultraviolet range
d. high saturation magnetisation, low b. maximum at the power frequencies and
retentivity and low coercive field decreases to zero at frequencies in the
ultraviolet range
2 of 15
c. unity at the power frequencies and b. Both A and R are individually true but
increases to its maximum value at R is not the correct explanation of A
frequencies in the ultraviolet range c. A is true but R is false
d. independent of frequency variations d. A is false but R is true
10. Width of energy bands depends on which 16. Assertion (A) : The rotating disc in an
of the following? energy meter is made up of a magnetic
a. Temperature material.
b. Pressure Reason (R) : Braking takes place due to
c. Relative freedom of electrons in the eddy current generated by the braking
crystal magnet.
d. Mass of atom in the material a. Both A and R are individually true and
11. Which one of the following statements is R is the correct explanation of A
not true for a p-type semiconductor ? b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. Conduction is by the movement of R is not the correct explanation of A
holes in the valence band c. A is true but R is false
b. Holes constitute the majority charge d. A is false but R is true
carriers 17. Assertion (A) : A p-type GaAs sample can
c. Fermi level lies closer to the be converted to a semi-insulating substrate
conduction band between the by doping it with chromium.
conduction and valence bands Reason (R) : Chromium increases the band
d. It is formed by adding an acceptor gap of GaAs.
impurity to germanium a. Both A and R are individually true and
12. Principle of Hall effect is used in the R is the correct explanation of A
construction of which one of the b. Both A and R are individually true but
following? R is not the correct explanation of A
a. Ammeter c. A is true but R is false
b. Voltmeter d. A is false but R is true
c. Galvanometer 18. Assertion (A) : DC servomotors are more
d. Gaussmeter commonly used in armature controlled
13. For which one of the following materials, mode instead of in field controlled mode.
is the Hall coefficient zero ? Reason (R) : Armature controlled DC
a. Metal motors have higher starting torque than
b. Insulator field controlled motors.
c. Intrinsic semiconductor a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. Alloy R is the correct explanation of A
14. What is the magnetic, susceptibility χ of b. Both A and R are individually true but
an ideal superconductor ? R is not the correct explanation of A
a. 1 c. A is true but R is false
b. –1 d. A is false but R is true
c. 0 19. Assertion (A) : General purpose
dynamometer type Wattmeter cannot
d. Infinite
indicate the correct value of power at low
15. Assertion (A) : It is always desirable to
power factors.
take the reading of an indicating
instrument very close to the full - scale Reason (R) : The presence of self-
reading. inductance in the pressure coil circuit
introduces an error in the indicated value
Reason (R) : Accuracy of an indicating
which increases appreciably with decrease
instrument is maximum at the full-scale
in power factor.
deflection and error increases as reading
comes closer to the beginning of the scale. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are individually true but
3 of 15
20. Assertion (A) : With lag-lead 24. A rectifier instrument is used to measure
compensation, the bandwidth of the an alternating square wave, of amplitude
system is not affected much. 100 V. What is the meter reading?
Reason (R) : The effect of lag and lead a. 100 V
compensations at high frequencies cancel b. 70.7 V
one another. c. 111
a. Both A and R are individually true and d. None of the above
R is the correct explanation of A 25. For defining the standard metre,
b. Both A and R are individually true but wavelength of which material is
R is not the correct explanation of A considered?
c. A is true but R is false a. Neon
d. A is false but R is true b. Krypton
21. Assertion (A) : For a stable feedback c. Helium
control system, the zeros of the d. Xenon
characteristic equation must all be located 26. Consider the following statements in
in the left-half of the s-plane. connection with feedback in control
Reason (R) : The poles of the closed-loop system:
transfer function are the zeros of the 1. With an increase in forward gain, the
characteristic equation. output value approaches the input
a. Both A and R are individually true and value in the case of negative feedback
R is the correct explanation of A closed-loop system.
b. Both A and R are individually true but 2. A negative feedback closed loop
R is not the correct explanation of A system when subjected to an input of 5
c. A is true but R is false V with forward gain of 1 and a
d. A is false but R is true feedback gain of 1 gives output 4.999
22. Assertion (A) : All the systems which V.
exhibit overshoot in transient response will 3. The transfer function is dependent only
also exhibit resonance peak in frequency upon its internal structure and
response. components, and is independent of the
Reason (R) : Large resonance peak in input applied to the system.
frequency response corresponds to a large 4. The overall gain of the block diagram
overshoot in transient response. shown is 10.
b. Both A and R are individually true but Which of the statements given above are
R is not the correct explanation of A correct ?
c. A is true but R is false a. Only 1 and 2
d. A is false but R is true b. Only 2 and 3
23. Assertion (A) : Superconductivity of a c. Only 3 and 4
superconducting material can be destroyed d. Only 1 and 3
by application of an external magnetic 27. For a discrete-time system to be stable, all
field. the poles of the Z-transfer function should
Reason (R) : If the applied magnetic field lie
is greater than the critical magnetic field at a. within a circle of unit radius
a given temperature which is more than the b. outside the circle of unit radius
transition temperature, superconductivity c. on left-half of Z-plane
can be destroyed.
d. on right-half of Z-plane
28.
4 of 15
c. 2 1 5 3
d. 4 3 2 1
1
33. What is the range for a 3 digital meter?
2
In the network shown above, what is the
a. 0 to 1999
current I in the direction shown ?
b. 0 to 1500
a. 0
c. 0 to 999
b. 1/3 A
d. 0 to 19999
c. 5/6 A
34.
d. 4 A
29. With increase in applied frequency, the
dielectric loss, in a material will
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain constant Which one of the following is represented
d. become zero by the circuit shown above?
30. Consider the network function : a. DeSauty bridge
2( s + 3) b. Anderson bridge
H ( s) = c. Heaviside-Campbell bridge
( s + 2)( s + 4)
d. Hay bridge
What is the steady-state response due to a
35. What should be the main characteristic(s)
unit step input?
of the null detector in a bridge
a. 4/3
measurement?
b. 1/2
1. Accuracy
c. 3/4
2. Precision
d. 1
3. Sensitivity
31. What is the effect of phase lead
4. Resolution
compensator on gain crossover frequency
(ωcg) and on the bandwidth (ωb) ?
given below :
a. Both are increased
a. Only 1 and 2
b. ωcg is increased but ωb is decreased b. Only 2 and 3
c. ωcg is decreased but ωb is increased c. Only 3 and 4
d. Both are decreased d. Only 3
32. Match List-I with. List-II and select the 36. A moving-coil instrument gives full- scale
correct answer using the code given below deflection for I mA and has a resistance of
the Lists : 5 Ω. If a resistance of 0.55 Ω is connected
List-I in parallel to the instrument, what is the
A. Bolometer maximum value of current it can measure?
B. Hot-wire Anemometer a. 5 mA
C. C-type Bourdon Tube b. 10 mA
D. Optical Pyrometer c. 50 mA
List-II d. 100 mA
1. Measurement of temperature of a 37. A single slide wire is used for the
furnace measurement of current in a circuit. The
2. Measurement of high pressure voltage drop across a standard resistance
3. Measurement of flow of air around an of 1.0 Ω is balanced at 70 cm. What is the
aeroplane magnitude of the current, if the standard
4. Measurement of power at 500 MHz cell having an e.m.f. of 1.45 volts is
5. Measurement of angular position balanced at 50 cm?
A B C D a. 3.09 A
a. 2 3 5 1 b. 2.65 A
b. 4 1 2 3 c. 2.03 A
5 of 15
d. 1.45 A 4. Shape of the polo shoe of the
38. When reading is taken at half scale in the horseshoe magnet
instrument, the error is Select the correct answer using the code
a. exactly equal to half of full-scale error given below :
b. equal to full-scale error a. Only 1 and 3
c. less than full-scale error b. Only 2 and 4
d. more than full-scale error c. Only 2 and 3
39. Match List-I with List-Il and select the d. Only 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below 42. Which of the following indicating
the Lists : instruments has/have linear scale ?
List- I (Parameter to be measured) 1. Moving-iron meter
A. Average value of current 2. Permanent magnet moving-coil meter
B. QMS value of current 3. Thermocouple meter
C. Frequency of a wave 4. Rectifier type meter
D. Strain gauge resistance Select the correct answer using the code
List-H (Instrument to be used) given below:
1. Self-balancing bridge a. Only 1 and 2
2. Wien bridge b. Only 2 and 3
3. PMMC ammeter c. Only 3 and 4
4. Moving-iron ammeter d. Only 2
A B C D 43. A sinusoidal voltage of 1 V r.m.s. value at
a. 3 4 2 1 10 Hz is applied across the two terminals
b. 2 1 3 4 of a PMMC type of voltmeter. What is the
c. 3 1 2 4 deflection of the pointer?
d. 2 4 3 1 a. Zero volt
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the b. 1 volt
correct answer using the code given below c. 2 volts
the Lists: d. The pointer oscillates around zero volt
List- I 44. Match List-I with List-II and select the
A. Digital Counter correct answer using the code given below
B. Schering Bridge the Lists :
C. Megger List- I (Instrument)
D. Spectrum Analyzer A. A. PMMC voltmeter
List-II B. B. AC ammetor
1. Measurement of harmonics C. C. Current transformer
2. Measurement of frequency D. D. Energy meter
3. Measurement of dielectric loss List-II (Error)
4. Measurement of insulation resistance 1. Eddy current error
A B C D 2. Phase angle error
a. 1 3 4 2 3. Braking system error
b. 2 4 3 1 4. Temperature error
c. 1 4 3 2 A B C D
d. 2 3 4 1 a. 2 3 4 1
41. Which of the following factors limit the b. 4 1 2 3
deflection of the pointer of a PMMC c. 2 1 4 3
instrument to about 90°? d. 4 3 2 1
1. Its damping mechanism 45. Maxwell’s inductance-capacitance bridge
2. Linearity of the magnetic field in is used for measurement of inductance of
which the coil moves a. 1ow Q coils only
3. Control spring arrangement b. medium Q coils only
c. high Q coils only
6 of 15
d. low and medium Q coils 52. Image theory is applicable to problems
46. Which one of the following statements involving
does not state that electrostatic field is a. electrostatic field only
conservative? b. magnetostatic field only
ur
a. The curl of E is identically zero c. both electrostatic and magnetostatic
b. The potential. difference between two fields
points is zero d. neither electrostatic nor magnetostatic
c. The electrostatic field is a gradient of a field
scalar potential 53. What is the forcer
on a unit charge moving
d. The work done in a closed path inside with velocity v in presence of electric
ur ur
the field is zero field E and magnetic field B ?
47. In free space, if ρ = 0, the Poisson’s ur r ur
a. E − v.B
equation becomes ur r ur
b. E + v.B
a. Maxwell’s divergence equation ∇.B=0 ur ur r
b. Laplacian equation V2 V = 0 c. E + B × v
ur r ur
c. Kirchhoff’s voltage equation ΣV 0 d. E + v × B
d. None of the above 54. Six capacitors of different capacitances C1,
48. What is the magnetic field due to an C2, C3, C4, C5 and C6 are connected in
infinite linear current carrying conductor? series. C1 > C2 > C3 > C4 > C5 > C6.What
μI is the total capacitance almost equal to ?
a. H = A/ m a. C1
2π r
I b. C3
b. H = A/ m c. C4
2π r
d. C6
μI
c. H = A/ m 55. Where is the Laplace’s equation valid?
2r a. Only in free space
I
d. H = A / m b. Only in conductors
r c. Only in charge free dielectric regions
ur
49. Equation ∇.B = 0 is based on d. Only in cavities bounded on all sides
a. Gauss’s Law by conducting walls
b. Lenz’s Law 56. Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current
^
c. Ampere’s Law density 30 k mA/m. At (1, 20, —2) what is
d. Continuity Equation the magnetic field intensity?
50. Sphere of radius a with a uniform charge ^
density pv C/m3 shall have electric flux a. −15 i mA/m
density at r = a, equal to ^
b. 15 i mA/m
a ^
a. ρv i r C / m2 ^
3 c. 18.85 j mA/m
1 ^ ^
b. ρv i r C / m 2 d. 25 i mA/m
3
^
57. Equipotential surfaces about a pair of
c. a ρ v i r C / m 2
equal and opposite linear charges exist in
what form?
a ^
d. ρv i r C / m2 a. Concentric spheres
4
b. Concentric cylinders
51. Which of the following is zero as applied
c. Non-concentric cylinders
to electromagnetic fields?
ur d. Planes
a. grad div A 58. What does the function f(x—v0t)
b. div grad V represent?
ur
c. div curl A a. A stationary wave
ur
d. curl curl A b. A wave motion in a reverse direction
7 of 15
c. A wave motion in a forward direction exceeding the critical angle, the wave
d. Not a travelling wave suffers total internal reflection.
59. The materials to be used in the Which of the statements given above are
manufacture of a standard resistance correct ?
should be of a. Only 1 and 2
a. high resistivity and low temperature b. Only 2 and 3
coefficient c. Only 1 and 3
b. low resistivity d. 1, 2 and 3
c. high temperature coefficient 63. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number
d. low resistivity and high temperature of electrons is equal to the number of holes
coefficient at which temperature ?
60. What is the Poynting’s vector on the a. 0 K
surface of a long straight conductor of b. 0°C
radius b and conductivity a which carries c. High temperature
current I in the z-direction? d. All temperatures
I2 ^ 64. Elements can reach a stable atomic
a. − ir
2σπ 2b3 structure by
I2 ^ a. losing electrons only
b. ir b. gaining electrons only
2σπ 2b 2
c. losin or gaining or sharing electrons
I2 ^ d. collisions between atoms
c. iz
σπ b 2 65. The values of radiative and non-radiative
I ^ lifetime of minority carriers in a
d. iφ
2π b semiconductor are 50 ns and 100 ns,
61. Match List -I with List-II and select the respectively. What is the effective
correct answer using the code given below lifetime?
the Lists a. 12.2 ns
List - I (Material) b. 150 ns
A. Fe c. 33.3 ns
B. MnOFe2O3 d. 75 ns
C. MgOFe2O3 66. Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II
D. NiOFe2O3 (Unit) and select the correct answer using
List - II (Curie Temperature) the code given below the Lists :
1. 783K List- I
2. 523K A. Boltzman constant
3. 863K B. Permeability of free space
4. 1043K C. Permittivity of free space
A B C D D. Mobility
a. 2 3 4 1 List - II
b. 4 1 2 3 1. farad/Metre
c. 2 1 4 3 2. cm2/volt – second
d. 4 3 2 1 3. henry/metre
62. Consider the following statements 4. cm2/second
regarding EM wave: 5. electron volt/kelvin
1. An EM wave incident on a perfect A B C D
dielectric is partially transmitted and a. 5 2 1 4
partially reflected. b. 1 2 5 4
2. An EM wave incident on a perfect c. 5 3 1 2
conductor is fully reflected. d. 1 3 5 2
3. When an EM wave is incident from a 67. III-V alloy semiconductor crystallizes in
more dense medium to less dense what form?
medium at an angle equal to or
8 of 15
a. Simple cubic structure
b. Body-centered cubic structure
c. Zinc blende structure
d. Wurtzite structure
68. Match List-I (Term) with List-II (Concept)
and select the correct answer using the In the circuit shown in the figure above,
code given below the Lists : for what value of C will the current I be in
List-I phase with the sinusoidal source voltage
A. Norton equivalent of one port Vs = sin2 t?
B. Open-circuit output admittance 1
a. F
C. Reciprocal network 4
D. Transmission parameters 1
List-II b. F
2
1. Network where loop and mode 1
equations have a symmetric coefficient c. F
matrix 2
2. Hybrid parameter h22 d. 1 F
3. Parameters where V1 and I1 are 72.
expressed as functions of V2 and -I2
4. Current source in parallel with
Thevenin impedance
A B C D In the circuit shown in the figure above, if
a. 1 3 4 2 is = u(t) A, then what are the initial and
b. 4 2 1 3 steady-state voltages across the capacitor?
c. 1 2 4 3 a. 1 V and I V, respectively
d. 4 3 1 2 b. 1 V and 0, respectively
69. A system function has a pole at s = 0 and a c. 0 and I V. respectively
zero at S - –1. The constant multiplier is d. 0 and 0, respectively
unity. For an excitation sin t, what is the 73.
steady-state response ?
a. 2 sin(t + 45o )
b. 2 sin(t − 45o )
c. sin(t − 45o )
d. sin t
In the circuit shown above, the constant
V (s) s + 3
70. A system function N(s) = = current source of value I is switched on at t
I (s) 4s + 5 = 0. What are the values of currents i1 and
The system is initially at rest. If the i2 at t = 0, with zero initial conditions ?
excitation i(t) is a unit step, which of the i1 i2
following are the initial and steady-state a. I 0
values of v(t)? b. 0 I
Initial Value Steady-state value R2 R2
a. 0 3/5 c. I I
R1 + R2 R1 + R2
b. 1/4 0
c. 3/5 1/4 d. 0 0
d. 1/4 3/5
71.
74.
In the circuit shown in the figure given
above, the switch is opened at t = 0 after
9 of 15
having been closed for a long time. What ⎡0 1⎤ ⎡0⎤
is the current through 50 Ω resistor? [X ] = ⎢ ⎥ [ x] + ⎢ ⎥ u
⎣ −1 1⎦ ⎣k ⎦
a. 3e–1/160 t
y = x1 + x2
b. 3e–1/100 t
⎡x ⎤
c. 3e–100 t [ X ] = ⎢ x1 ⎥
d. 3e–160 t ⎣ 2⎦
75. Consider the following statements What is the transfer y/x ?
The gain cross-over point is the point k ( s + 2)
where a. 3
s + 2s 2 + s + 1
1. the magnitude |G(jω)| = 1 in polar plot k ( s + 2)
2. the magnitude curve of G(jω) crosses b. 2
s + s +1
zero dB line in Bode plot
ks
3. magnitude vs phase plot touches the c. 2
zero dB loci in Nichol’s chart s + 2s + 1
Which of the statements given above are k
d. 2
correct? s + s +1
a. Only 1 and 2 79. An electromechanical closed-loop control
b. Only l and 3 system has the transfer function
c. Only 2 and 3 C ( s) k
d. 1, 2 and 3 R( s ) s( s + s + 1)( s + 4) + k
2
76. Which one of the following is correct?

a. The system is stable for all positive
values of k
b. The system is unstable for all values of
k
What is the open-loop transfer function for
a unity feedback having root locus shown c. The system is stable for values of k
in the above figure? between zero and 3.36
k ( s + 5) d. The system is stable for values of k
a. between 1.6 and 2.45.
( s + 1)( s + 2)
80. A particular control system yielded a
k ( s + 1) steady-state error of 0.20 for unit step
b.
( s + 5)( s + 6) input. A unit integrator is cascaded to this
k system and unit ramp input is applied to
c. this modified system. What is the value of
s( s + 1)( s + 5)
steady-state error for this modified
k ( s + 2) system?
d.
( s + 1)( s + 5) a. 0.10
77. The transfer function of a phase lead b. 0.15
compensator is found to be of the form c. 0.20
s + z1 d. 0.25
and that of a lag compensator to be
s + p1 81. In order to recover the original signal from
s + z2 the sampled one, what is the condition to
of the form be satisfied for sampling frequency ω3 and
s + p2
highest frequency component ωm ?
Then which of the following conditions
a. ωm < ωs ≤ 2ωm
must be satisfied?
b. ωs ≥ 2ωm
a. z1 > p1 and z2 > p2
b. z1 > p1 and z2 < p2 c. ωs < ωm
c. z1 < p1 and z2 < p2 d. ωs = ωm
d. z1 < p1 and z2 > p2 82. The characteristic equation of second-
78. Given order sampled date system is given by
F(z) = a2z2 + a1z + a0 = 0. a2 > 0.
10 of 15
What are the stability constraints for this 85. Which one of the following statements is
system ? not related to limit cycles (phenomena)
1. a2 + a1 + a0 > 0 found in non-linear systems?
2. a2 – a1 + a0 > 0 a. They are oscillations of fixed
3. |a0| < a2 amplitude and period
4. |a0| > a2 b. They are undesirable. However, they
5. (a0) < a2 can be tolerated if magnitude is within
Select the correct answer using the code desirable limit
given below : c. They are independent of initial
a. Only 1, 2 and 3 conditions
b. Only l, 2 and 4 d. Slight change in parameter, destroys
c. Only 1, 3 and 5 the oscillation
d. Only 2, 3 and 5 86. The effect of tachometer feedback in a
83. Consider the following statements : control system is to reduce
1. For a linear discrete system to be a. only time constant
stable, all the roots of the characteristic b. only gain
equation 1 + GH(z) = 0 should be c. damping
inside the unit circle. d. both gain and time constant
2. The Bode diagram of a sampled data 87. Match List-I (Application) with List-II
system can be constructed using (Control System Component) and select
bilinear transformation. the correct answer using the code given
3. The root locus technique can be used below the Lists :
for sampled data system without List-I
requiring any modifications. A. Measuring inclination of frames in
Which of the statements given above is/are inertial navigation system
correct ? B. Used as an actuator element in
a. Only 1 computer printer
b. Only 2 and 3 C. For low power applications
c. Only 1 and 3 List- II
d. 1, 2 and 3 1. Gyroscope
84. Match List-I (Nature of Eigen value) with 2. Servometer
List-Il (Nature of Singular Point) and 3. Stepper Motor
select the correct answer using the code 4. Schrage Motor
given below the Lists: A B C
List-I a. 2 3 4
A. Real, negative and distinct b. 1 4 2
B. Real, equal but opposite in sign c. 1 3 2
C. Purely imaginary pair d. 2 1 4
D. Complex conjugate pair 88. Match List-I with List-II and select the
List-II correct answer using the code given below
1. Centre the Lists:
2. Focus point List-I
3. Saddle point A. Synchros
4. Stable node B. Operational amplifier
5. Unstable node C. Stepper motor
A B C D D. Tacho-generator
a. 1 2 5 3 List-II
b. 4 3 1 2 1. Controller
c. 1 3 5 2 2. Error detector
d. 4 2 1 3 3. Actuator
4. Feedback element
A B C D
11 of 15
a. 3 1 2 4 3 /sin(ωt + 60°). What is the voltage v(t)
b. 2 4 3 1 across the 1Ω grounded resistor ?
c. 3 4 2 1 a. {cos ωt}V
d. 2 1 3 4 b. {sin (ωt + 300) + cos (ωt + 60°)}V
89.
c. {1∠90°)V
d. {j l}V
93.
For the feedback system shown in the figure

above, which one of the following expresses For the network shown as above, when I =
the input-output relation C/R of the overall 0, V = 20 V and when R = 0,I = 10A. If
system now R = 3 Ω, what is the value of the
G current I ?
a.
1 − FG + GH a. 6.67 A
G b. 6.0 A
b.
1 + FG − GH c. 4.0 A
FG d. 10 A
c.
1 + FGH 94.
GH
d.
1 − FGH
90.
Norton equivalent to the network N to the
left of AB is a cu rent source 1N = 4 A
from B to A, RN = 2Ω. The current through
R when it is connected across AB = 2A.
What is the value of resistance R?
At t = 0, the switch k is thrown from b to a a. 1Ω
of the circuit as shown above. What are the b. 2Ω
values of v(0+) and i(0+)?
c. 3Ω
a. 50 V,90 mA
d. 4Ω
b. 50 V, 100 mA
95. In a series R-L-C circuit, the maximum
c. 50 V, 110 mA
voltage across the capacitor occurs at a
d. 50 V, 120 mA
frequency
91. An R-C series circuit, initially at rest has a
a. double the resonant frequency
step voltage signal. The response v(t)
b. equal to resonant frequency
across C is v(t) = 1 — e–3t. If now there is
an initial voltage at C of 3 volts, what is c. 2 times the resonant frequency
v(t) for the same step signal? d. below the resonant frequency
a. 1 + 3e–3t 96.
b. 1 + 2e–3t
c. 3e–3t
d. None of the above
92.
In the circuit shown above, what is the

voltage across 5 Ω resistor ?
a. —30V
b. 30V
In the circuit shown in the above figure,
c. 1250 V
e1(t) = 3 cos(ωt + 30°) and e2(t) = d. —1250 V
12 of 15
97. Consider the following network functions : d. Only l and 3
1.
( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 4 ) 101. Z (s) =
2( s 2 + 1)( s 2 + 9)
may be
( s 2 + 3)( s 2 + 9 ) s ( s 2 + 4)
synthesized into Cauer first form as
2.
(s 2
+ 1)( s 2 + 9 )
s ( s2 + 4)
s ( s2 + 9)
3.
( s + 1)( s
2 2
+ 4) a.
s ( s + 4)
2
4.
( s + 1)2
Which of the above functions can

represent L-C driving-point immittances ?
b.
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 2 and
c. Only 2 and 4
d. Only 1 and 3
98. A series R-L-C circuit excited by a 100 V,
variable frequency source, has a resistance c.
of 10 Ω and an inductive reactance of 50Ω
at 100 Hz. If the resonance frequency is
500 Hz, what is the voltage across the
capacitor at resonance?
a. 100 V
b. 500V d.
c. 2500V 102.
d. 5000 V
99. What is the transfer function of a system
whose impulse response is e–3t sin 2t?
13
a.
s + 6s + 13
2
1 If the driving-point impedance Z11 of the

b. 2 network shown in the figure above is given
s + 6s + 13
⎛ s+3⎞
2 by Z11 = k1 ⎜ ⎟ then what is the
c.
s + 6s + 13
2 ⎝ s +8⎠
driving-point impedance Z22 ?
5
d. 2 ⎛ s+5⎞
s + 6s + 13 a. k2 ⎜ ⎟
100. Consider the following statements in ⎝ s+3⎠
connection with the properties of R-C ⎛ s+5⎞
b. k2 ⎜ ⎟
impedance functions: ⎝ s +8⎠
1. All the poles and zeros are simple.
⎛ s+3⎞
2. Poles and zeros interlace. c. k2 ⎜ ⎟
3. Poles and zeros are located on the ⎝ s+5⎠
negative real axis of the s-plane. ⎛ s +8⎞
d. k2 ⎜ ⎟
Which of the statements given above are ⎝ s+5⎠
correct? (k1 and k2 are scale factors)
a. 1, 2 and 3 103. What is the series resistance required to
b. Only l and 2 extend the 0-100 V range of a 20000 Ω/V
c. Only 2 and 3 meter to 0-1000 V?
13 of 15
a. 10 MΩ 110. A doctor is using a digital clinical
b. l6 MΩ thermometer, which employs an A/D
c. 18 MΩ converter. The converter provides for both
±ve and —ve reference inputs in place of
d. 20 MΩ
only +ve and ground potential reference
104. The voltage coil of a single-phase house
service energy meter inputs. V +ref = 2.16 V and V −ref = 1.85 V.
a. is highly resistive The amplifier used for the converter input
b. is highly inductive generates signal of 20 mV per °F of body
c. is highly capacitive temperature. The converter output is
d. has a phase angle equal to load power between 00000 and 11111. Which one of
factor angle the following is correct?
105. Which of the following can be a. The thermometer range is 9.25 °F to
used/modified for measurement of angular 108 °F
speed? b. The thermometer range is 46 °F to 216
1. LVDT °F
2. Magnetic pick-up c. The thermometer range is 0°F to 108
°F
3. Tacho-generator
d. The thermometer cannot be used to
4. Strain gauge
measure body temperature 98.4°F
111. Which one of the following bridges can be
given below:
used to construct a harmonic distortion
a. Only 1 and 2
analyzer?
b. Only 2 and 3
1. Maxwell bridge
c. Only 3
2. Hay bridge
d. Only 2, 3 and 4
3. Schering bridge
106. Piezo-electric crystal is generally
4. Wien bridge
employed for the measurement of which
one of the following?
given below :
a. Flow
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Velocity
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Acceleration
c. Only 3 and 4
d. Temperature
d. Only 4
107. In microwave telemetry, repeater stations
112. One cycle of a square wave signal
are required at every
observed on an oscilloscope is found to
a. 2 km
occupy 6 cm at a scale setting of 30μs/cm.
b. 5 km
What is the signal frequency?
c. 40 km
a. 1.8 kHz
d. 100 km
b. 5.55 kHz
108. Data acquisition systems are usually of
c. 18 kHz
a. analog type
d. 55.5 kHz
b. digital type
113.
c. integrating type
d. hybrid type
109. A successive approximation A/D converter
has a resolution of 20 mV. What is its
digital output for an analog input of 2.17
V? The signal flow graph shown above has M
a. 01101100 number of forward paths and P number of
b. 01101101 individual loops. What are their values?
c. 0110101 a. M = 4 and P = 2
d. 01110100 b. M = 6 and P = 3
c. M = 4 and P = 3
14 of 15
d. M = 6 and P = 2 A. Rise time
114. Match List-I (Polar Plot of System) with B. Peak time
List-Il (System Type) and select the C. Peak overshoot.
correct answer using the code given below D. Settling time.
the Lists : List -II (Expression)
List I ⎛ 1− δ 2 ⎞
π − tan −1 ⎜ ⎟
⎜ δ ⎟
1. ⎝ ⎠
ωn 1 − δ 2
A. π
2.
ωn 1 − δ 2
3. e
( −πδ / 1−δ )
2
B. 4
4.
δωn
A B C D
C. a. 1 2 3 4
List-II b. 3 4 1 2
1. Type 0 c. 1 4 3 2
2. Type 1 d. 3 2 1 4
3. Type 2 117. Consider the following statements in
A B C connection with the addition of a pole to
a. 1 3 2 the forward path transfer function :
b. 2 1 3 1. Closed-loop system becomes less
c. 3 2 1 stable.
d. 1 2 3 2. Rise time of the system increases.
115. 3. Bandwidth of the system increases.
correct?
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
118. The open-loop transfer function for unity
feedback system is given by
What is the approximate value of the gain 5(1 + 0.1s )
margin in the Nyquist diagram given s (1 + 5s )(1 + 20 s )
above?
Consider the following statements
a. 0.67
1. The steady-state error for a step input
b. 3.0
of magnitude 10 is equal to zero.
c. 1.0
2. The steady-state error for a ramp input
d. 1/3
of magnitude 10 is 2.
116. A second-order control system has a
3. The steady-state error for an
transfer function
acceleration input of magnitude 10 is
C ( s) ωn2 infinite.
= 2
R( s) s + 2δωn s − ωn2 Which of the statements given above are
For unit step input, match List - I with correct?
List- II and select the correct answer using a. Only 1 and 2
the code given below the Lists b. Only 1 and 3
List- I (Time Domain Specification) c. Only 2 and 3
15 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 3
119. Match List-I (Nyquist Plot) with List-Il
(Frequency Response) and select the
correct answer using the code given
below:
List I
3.
A.
4.
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
B. b. 4 2 1 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 4 3 1
120. The Nyquist plot of a system is sketched
below :
C.
D. Corresponding to this plot, what is the

open-loop transfer function?
List-II k
a.
(1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )(1 + sT3 )
k
b.
s (1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )(1 + sT3 )
k
c.
1. s (1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )
2
k
d.
s (1 + sT1 )(1 + sT2 )(1 + sT3 )
2
2.
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 13
PAPER-I
1. Consider the following statements: b. product of lengths of vectors from mm
When all the elements in one row of the the zeroes to that point
Routh’s tabulation are zero then this c. ratio of product of lengths of vectors
condition indicates from poles to that point to the product
1. one pair of real roots with opposite of length of vectors from zeros to that
sign in s-plane point
2. one pair of conjugate roots on the d. product of lengths of vectors from all
imaginary axis in s-plane poles to zeros
3. conjugate roots forming a quadrate in 5. Which one of the following is correct ?
s-plane The slope of the asymptotic Bode
Which of the statements given above is/are magnitude plot is integer multiple of
correct? a. ± 40 db/decade
a. 1 only b. ± 12 db/decade
b. 2 only c. ± 6 db/decade
c. 3 only d. ± 3 db/decade
d. l, 2 and 3 6. What is the range of K for Which the open
2. The low frequency and high frequency K
loop transfer function G ( s ) = 2
asymptotes of Bode magnitude plot are s ( s + a)
respectively -60 db/decade and -40
represents an unstable closed loop system?
db/dccade. What is the type of the system?
a. K > 0 only
a. Type 0
b. K = 0 only
b. Type I
c. K < 0 only
c. Type II
d. - ∞ < K < ∞
d. Type III
7. The characteristic polynomial of a discrete
3. Which one of the following is correct?
time system is given by z2 + z + a. For
If the open-loop transfer function has one what value of ‘a’ is the system stable ?
pole in the right half of s-plane, the closed
a. 2
loop system will be stable if the Nyquist
plot of GH b. 0.5
a. does not encircle the (-1 + j0) point c. 1.5
b. encircles the (-1 + j0) point once iii the d. -0.5
counter-clockwise direction 8. Isocline method is used for which one of
c. encircles the (-1 + j0) point once in the the following?
clockwise direction a. Design of nonlinear system
d. encircles the origin once- in the b. Construction of root loci of nonlinear
counter-clockwise direction system
4. Which one of the following is correct? c. Construction of phase trajectories of
The value of the system gain at any point nonlinear systems
on a root locus can be obtained as a d. Stability analysis of non-linear system
a. product of lengths of vectors from the
poles to that point
2 of 13
9. To detect the position error in a position C. h22
control system, which of the following D. h21
may be used?
List-II
1. Potentiometers
(Dimension)
2. Syncbros
1. Impedance
3. LVDT
2. Admittance
3. Current ratio
given below:
4. Voltage ratio
a. 1 and 2 only
Code:
b. 1 and 3 only
A B C D
c. 2 and 3 only
a. 2 4 1 3
d. 1, 2and 3
b. 2 3 1 4
10. Single step response of a typical stepper
motor is quite oscillatory. Brakes are used c. 1 3 2 4
to reduce or eliminate oscillations. Which d. 1 4 2 3
one of the following statements is not 14. Which one of the following is correct? The
correct regarding use of brakes? impedance function
a. It provides memory or position
information when motor is switched z (s) =
(s 2
+ 1) ( s 2 + 3)
is an
off. s ( s2 + 2)
b. reduces deceleration time. a. LC driving point function
c. It reduces length of motor load. b. RL driving point function
d. It reduces pullout torque. c. RC driving point function
11. Synchro machines are used for which one d. PLC driving point function
of the following?
15. Which one of the following passive
a. Converting 1-phase supply to 3-phase components has the most precise and
supply accurate standard ?
b. Stepping up low frequency signal to a. Resistance
high frequency
b. Inductance
c. Detection of positional error in a.c.
servo system c. Capacitance
d. Conductance.
d. Detection of positional error in d.c.
servo system 16. Which of the following is/are primary
12. A, B, C and D represent the transmission standard(s) for voltage maintained by
parameters of a two-port network. When is National Standards Laboratories?
the network reciprocal? 1. Zener diode with 1.5 V output at 20°C
a. AB - CD = 1 2. Nickel cadmium rechargeable cell of
1.25 V output at 20 °C
b. AD - BC = 1
c. AB - CD = 0 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
d. AD – BC = 0
a. 1 only
correct answer using the code given below b. 2 only
the lists; c. Both 1 and 2
List-I d. Neither 1 nor 2
(Network parameter) 17. What is the prefix tera equivalent to?
A. h11 a. 103
B. h12 b. 106
3 of 13
c. 109 b. Eureka
d. 1012 c. Manganin
18. The errors introduced by an instrument fall d. Nichrome
in which category? 24. How can a milli-ammeter be used as a
a. Systematic errors voltmeter ?
b. Random errors a. By connecting a low resistance in
c. Gross errors parallel with the instrument
d. Environmental errors b. By connecting a high resistance in
parallel with the instrument
19.
c. By connecting a low resistance in
series with the instrument
d. By connecting a high resistance in
series with the instrument
25. The principle of Hall effect is made use of
A waveform shown in the figure above, in the construction of which one of the
following?
is fed to a d.c. ammeter. What is the
reading shown by the meter ? a. Ammeter
a. Zero b. Voltmeter
b. 50 rn-A c. Gaussmeter
c. 75mA d. Galvanometer
d. 100 mA 26. What is the radiation resistance of a dipole
antenna λ/20 long approximately equal to?
20. Which one of the following instruments is
commonly used to measure primary a. 2 Ω
current of a transformer connected to b. 40 Ω
mains? c. 0.6 Ω
a. Electrostatic meter d. 20Ω
b. Current transformer 27. According to maximum power transfer
c. Moving coil type meter theorem, when is the maximum power
d. Moving iron meter absorbed by one network from another
21. What is clamp-on ammeter used for ? network?
a. Low a.c. current a. The impedance of one of the networks
is half that of the other
b. High a.c. current
b. The impedance of one is the complex
c. Low d.c. current conjugate of the other
d. High d.c. current c. The impedance of one is equal to that
22. Which one of the following is used for the of the other
measurement of 3-phase power factor? d. Only the resistive parts of both are
a. Power factor meter equal
b. Crosse coil power factor meter 28. Consider the following statements for
c. Phase-angle waft hour meter transmission lines:
d. Polarised-vane power factor meter 1. When a transmission line is terminated
23. What is the ‘swamping’ resistance which by its characteristic impedance the line
is connected in series with the working will not have any reflected wave.
coil of a voltmeter to drastically reduce the 2. For a finite line terminated by its
error in measurement caused due to characteristic impedance the velocity
variation in temperature, made of? and current at all points on the line are
a. Constantan exactly same.
4 of 13
3. For a lossless half wave transmission 33. Which one of the following modes
line the input impedance is not equal to has the highest cut off wavelength in a
load impedance. rectangular wave guide?
Which of the statements given above are a. TE10
correct? b. TE01
a. 1 and 2 only c. TM01
b. 2 and 3 only d. TM11
c. 1 and 3 only 34. A long straight wire carries a current I =
d. 1, 2 and 3 10 A. At what distance is the magnetic
29. Which of the following is a vector field H = 1 AM-1?
quantity? a. 1.19 m
a. Standing wave ratio only b. 1.39 m
b. Reflection coefficient only c. 1.59 m
c. Gain d. 1.79 m
r
d. Standing wave ratio and reflection 35. The magnetic vector potential A obeys
coefficient which equations?
30. What causes electromagnetic wave r r
1. B = ∇ × A
polarization? r r
a. Refraction 2. ∇ 2 A = − μ 0 J
r
b. Reflection r μ 0 IDI
3. A = ∫
c. Longitudinal nature of electromagnetic 4πR
wave Select the correct answer using the code
d. Transverse nature of electromagnetic given below:
wave a. 1 and 2 only
31. A plane wave traveling in air is incident on b. 2 and 3 only
a conducting medium. Which one of the
following is correct? c. 1 and 3 only
The magnetic field intensity d. 1, 2 and 3
a. becomes approximately half 36. The force on a charge moving with
velocity v under the influence of electric
b. gets approximately doubled and magnetic fields is given by which one
c. remains unchanged of the following?
( )
d. cannot be determined r r r
a. q E + B × v
Consider the following three equations:
( )
32. r r r
r b. q E + v × H
r ∂B
( )
1. ∇ × E = − r r r
∂t c. q H + v × E
( )
r r r r
r r ∂D d. q E + v × B
2. ∇ × H = J +
∂t 37. Which one of the following is the correct
r statement?
3. ∇ . B = 0
Equi-potential lines and field lines
Which of the above appear in Maxwell’s
equations? a. are parallel
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. are anti-parallel
b. 1 and 3 only c. are orthogonal
c. 2 and 3 only d. bear no definite relationship
d. 1 and 3 only 38. Consider the following statements for an
electrostatic field:
5 of 13
1. Its curl is zero 42. The impulse response of a second-
2. It is negative of gradient of scalar order under-damped system starting from
potential φ rest is given by
3. It is conservative c(t) = 125. e-6t sin 8t, t ≥ 0.
Which of the statements given below are The natural frequency and the damping
correct? factor of the system are respectively
a. 1 and 2 only a. 10 and 0.6
b. 2 and 3 only b. 10 and 0.8
c. 1 and 3 only c. 8 and 0.6
d. 1, 2 and 3 d. 8 and 0.8
39. The input-output relationship of a system 43. Given a unity feedback system with
is given by K
G(s) = the value of K for damping
d 2 c(t ) dc(t ) s( s + 4)
r (t ) = 2
+3 + 2c(t ) ratio of 0.5 is:
dt dt
where r(t) and c(t) are input and output a. 1
respectively. The transfer function of the b. 4
system is equal to c. 16
1 d. 64
a.
(
s +s+2
2
) 44. For type 2 system, the steady-state error
1 due to ramp input is equal to:
b.
(s + 3s + 2
2
) a. zero
b. finite constant
2
c.
(s + 3s + 2
2
) c. infinite
d. indeterminate
1
d. The type number of the control system
(s + 5s + 3
2
) 45.
with
40. Consider the function: K ( s + 2)
G(s) H (s) = is
ω s ( s 2 + 2 s + 3)
F (s) =
s +ω2
2
a. one
where F(s) = Laplace transform of f(t). b. two
The final value of f(t) is equal to c. three
a. infinite d. four
b. zero 46. A discrete-time system is stable if all the
c. finite constant poles of the Z-transfer function of the
d. a value in between —1 and +1 system lie
41. Given the Laplace transform of f(t) = F(s) a. outside the circle of unit radius on the
the Laplace transform of [f(t)e-at] is equal Z-plane
to: b. within a circle of unit radius on the Z-
a. F(s + a) plane
F ( s) c. to the left of imaginary axis on the Z-
b. plane
(s + a
d. to the right of imaginary axis on the Z-
c. easF(s)
plane
d. e-asF(s)
47. The Nyquist plot of a system passes
through (-1, j0) point in the G(jω) H(jω)
plane, the phase-margin of the system is:
6 of 13
a. infinite (Where ω s is the sampling
b. greater than zero but not infinite frequency and ω s is the maximum
c. zero frequency contained in the signal.)
d. less than zero 53. For a tachometer if θ (t ) is the rotor
48. If the poles of a system lie on the displacement, e(t ) is the output voltage
imaginary axis, the system will be: and Kt it the tachometer constant, then the
a. Stable transfer function is defined as
b. Conditionally stable a. Kt.s2
c. Marginally stable b. Kt.s
d. Unstable c. Kt/s
49. The transfer function of a P-I controller is d. Kt
a. Kp+Ki.s 54. A tachometer is added to a servo-
b. Kp + (K/s) mechanism because
c. (Kp/s) + K.s a. It is easily adjustable
d. Kp.s + (Ki/s) b. It can adjust damping
50. Given the matrix c. It converts velocity of the shaft to a
proportional d.c. voltage
⎡0 1 0⎤
d. It reduces steady-state error
A = ⎢⎢ 0 0 1 ⎥⎥
55. Assertion (A): Ferrites are useful at very
⎢⎣− 6 − 11 − 6⎥⎦ high frequencies.
the eigenvalues of A are Reason (R): Ferrites have high
a. -1, -2, -3 permeability and high resistivity.
b. -1, 2, -3 a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. 0, 0, -6
d. -6, -11, -6 R is not the correct explanation of A
51. The state-variable description of a linear c. A is true but R is false
autonomous System is X& = AX where X
is a two-dimensional state vector and A is
56. Assertion (A): A percisison instrument is
⎡0 2⎤ always accurate.
a matrix given by A = ⎢ ⎥
⎣2 0⎦ Reason (R): A precision instrument is one
The poles of the system are located at: where the degree of reproducibility of the
a. -2 and +2 measurements is very good.
b. -2j and +2j a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. -2 and -2
d. +2 and +2
52. The information contained in a signal is
preserved in the sampled version if
a. ω s = ω m
57. Assertion (A): A PMMC instrument is
b. ω s = 0.5ω m used for reading both d.c. and a.c. signals.
c. ω s = 0.1ω m Reason (R): The deflecting torque in a
PMMC instrument is directly proportional
d. ω s = 2ω m to the current in the moving coil.
7 of 13
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Balun transformer
R is not the correct explanation of A b. Single stub of adjustable position
c. A is true but R is false c. Double stub
d. A is false but R is true d. Broad band directional coupler
58. Assertion (A): Piezoelectric transducers 63. The capacitance of an insulated conducting
can be used for measurement of both static sphere of radius R in vacuum is:
and dynamic phenomena.
a. 2πε 0 R
Reason (R): Piezoelectric transducers have
very good high frequency response. b. 4πε 0 R
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. 4πε 0 R 2
d. 4πε 0 / R
R is not the correct explanation of A 64. Two materials having temperature
c. A is true but R is false coefficient of 0.004 and 0.004 respectively
are joined in series. The overall
temperature coefficient is approximately:
59. Assertion (A): Sampled-data system
a. 0.08
requires hold circuit.
b. 0.04
Reason (R): Hold circuit converts the
signal to analog form. c. 0.001
a. Both A and R are individually true and d. 0.0001
R is the correct explanation of A 65. A 10 μF capacitor is fed from an a.c.
b. Both A and R are individually true but voltage source containing a fundamental
R is not the correct explanation of A and a third harmonic of strength one-third
c. A is true but R is false of fundamental. The third harmonic
current flowing through the capacitor
expressed as percentage of the
60. Assertion (A): Capacitive transducers can fundamental under steady-state condition
be used for measurement of both static and will be:
dynamic phenomena.
a. 150%
Reason (R): capacitive transducers are
b. 100%
extremely sensitive.
c. 50%
R is the correct explanation of A d. 33%
b. Both A and R are individually true but 66. In a two element series network, the
R is not the correct explanation of A voltage and current respectively are given
as, v(t) = 50 sin (314 t) + 50 sin (942 t) V
i(t) = 10 sin (314 t+ 60°) + 8 sin (942t +
d. A is false but R is true 45°) A, then the power factor of the
61. Two coils are coupled in such a way that network is approximately:
the mutual inductance between them is 16 a. 0.9
mH. If the inductances of the coils are 20
b. 0.6
mH and 80 mH respectively, the
coefficient of coupling is: c. 0.3
a. 0.01 d. 0.1
b. 0.4 67. The network function, F ( s) =
(s + 2 )
c. 0.1 (s + 1)(s + 3)
d. 0.0025 represents an:
62. For a transmission line load matching over a. RL impedance only
a range of frequencies, it is best to use a b. RC impedance only
c. RL admittance and RC impedance
8 of 13
d. RC admittance and RL impedance
68. In a CRO astigmatism is:
a. A source of generating fast electrons
b. A medium for absorbing secondary
emission electrons For circuit shown above, the black box
c. An additional focus control contains resistors and independent sources
only. The current I is 3 A and 1.5 A for R
d. A time-delay control in the vertical
= 0 and 2Ω, respectively. For R = 1Ω,
deflection system
what is the current I?
69. In an electrometer, the movable plate is 11
a. 1A
cm in diameter. When 12 kV is applied
between the movable plate and the fixed b. 2A
plate, the force is 0.006 N. The change in c. 3A
capacitance for 1.5 mm movement of the d. 4A
movable plate is:
74. What is the Laplace transform of a
a. 0.44 × 10-12F function δ (t-2) ?
b. 0.37 × 10-6F a. 2
c. 0.125 × 10-12F b. 0
d. 12.5 × 10-12F c. e-2s
70. Continuous recording of a signal is not d. 2s
possible in a
75.
a. Magnetic tape recorder
b. Strip chart recorder
c. X Y recorder
d. Galvanometric recorder
71. The successive approximation A/D output
for a 4-bit converter to a 8.217 Volt input What is the time constant of the circuit
(if the reference is 5 V) will be: above?
a. 1101 a. 0.5 s
b. 0110 b. 1s
c. 1010 c. 2s
d. 1001 d. 4s
72.
76.
In the circuit shown above, when is the In the network shown above, it is given
power absorbed by the 1 Ω resistor dv
that v = 1 V and = -10 V/s at a time t,
maximum? dt
a. R = 0 where t is the time after the switch S is
closed. What is the value of C?
b. R = 2 Ω
a. 0.05 F
c. R = 4 Ω
b. 0.1 F
d. R = ∞
c. 0.15 F
73.
d. 0.2 F
9 of 13
77. A series R-L circuit is to be connected to
an a.c. source v(t ) = Vm sin(ωt + ϕ ) volt.
Which one of the following is correct?
The transient current will be absent if the b.
source is connected at a time t0 such that
a. ω t0 = 0
π c.
b. ω t 0 =
2
ωL
c. ω t0 = tan −1
R
d. ω t 0 has any arbiter value d.
78. A series R-L-C circuit is switched on to a 82.

step voltage V at t = 0. What are the initial
and final values of the current in the
circuit, respectively?
a. V/R, V/R
b. Zero, Infinity
c. Zero, Zero
d. Zero, V/R For the network shown above, if the
current i (t ) = 2 sin(ωt − 30°), then what is
79.
the value of R?
a. 1Ω
b. 3Ω
c. 3Ω
d. 3 3 Ω
What does the function f(t) plotted in the
above figure represent? 83. A control system has a transfer function
a. Unit step function K (1 + 0.5s )(1 + 2s + 5s 2 )
.
b. Unit impulse function s 2 (1 + s )(1 + 5s + 10 s 2 )(1 + 100s + 500 s 2 )
What is the type of the system?
c. Unit ramp function
a. 0
d. Unit Parabolic function
b. I
80. A lossy capacitor is represented by an
ideal capacitor C with a high resistance R c. II
in parallel. What is the Q of the circuit at d. III
frequency ω? 84. Which one of the following is correct?
a. ωCR Final value theorem is not applicable for
the system when the input is:
b. 1/(ωCR)
a. Step
c. ωC/R
b. Ramp
d. R/(ωC)
c. Parabolic
81. A voltage of V = 100∠30° is applied to an
impedance Z = 3 + j4. Which one of the d. Exponential
following is the power triangle? 85. Which one of the following statements
regarding steady state errors in control
system is not correct?
a. Steady state error analysis relies on the
a.
use of initial value theorem.
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b. Steady state error is a measure of
system accuracy when a specific type
of input is applied to a control system.
c. The error constants do not give
information regarding steady state
error when inputs are other than step,
ramp and parabolic. The transfer function for the diagram
d. Steady state error docs not provide shown above is given by which one of the
information on how the error varies following?
with time. a. 1/(1+sRC)
86. Which one of the following is the most b. sRC/(1+sRC)
likely reason for large overshoot in a c. sRC/(1-sRC)
control system?
d. 1+sRC
a. High gain in a system
90. The instrumentation amplifiers are used
b. Presence of dead time delay in a principally to amplify signals from which
system of the following?
c. High positive correcting torque a. Transducers
d. High retarding torque b. Active fillers
87. In the time domain analysis of feedback c. Choppers
control systems which one pair of the
d. D/A converters
following is not correctly matched?
91. Which of the following primary detector
a. Under damped:- Minimizes the effect type transducers are employed for
of nonlinearities displacement measurement?
b. Dominant Poles:- Transients die out
1. Thermistor
more rapidly
2. diaphragm
c. Far away poles to the left half of s-
plane:- Transients die out more rapidly 3. Thermocouple
d. A pole near to the left of dominant 4. Pivot Torque
complex poles and near a zero:- Select the correct answer using the code
Magnitude of transient is small given below:
88. Which of the following transfer functions a. 1 and 2
is/are minimum phase transfer function(s)? b. 2 and 4
1 c. 3 and 4
1.
( s − 1) d. 1 and 4
( s − 1) 92. Match List-I with List-II and select the
2.
( s + 3)( s + 4) correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
( s + 2)
3. List-I
( s + 3)( s − 4)
A. Variable capacitance device
B. Orifice meter
given below:
C. Thermistors
a. 1 and 3
List-II
b. 1 only
1. Flow Measurement
c. 2 and 3
2. Temperature measurement
d. None
3. Pressure transducer
89. 4. Force and torque measurement
Code:
11 of 13
a. A3, B1, C2 c. Very small resistance
b. A2, B4, C3 d. Capacitance and its power factor
c. A2, B1, C3 100. What is a differential transformer?
d. A3, B4, C2 a. Constant pressure transducer
93. Which displacement transducer is used for b. Variable pressure transducer
accurate and linear measurement? c. Constant displacement transducer
a. LVDT d. Variable inductance transducer
b. Strain gauge 101. The imperfect capacitance which is
c. Potentiometer shunted by a resistance can be measured
d. Capacitive displacement transducer by which one of the following?
94. Which amplifier is used in an electronic a. Carey Foster bridge
multimeter? b. Owen bridge
a. Power amplifier c. Schering bridge
b. Buffer amplifier d. Wien bridge
c. Differential amplifier 102. Due to which one of the following reasons
d. Wideband amplifier bearings of PMMC Instrument are made of
Jewel?
95. For low resistance (from few micro ohms
to one ohm) measurement, which bridge is a. To avoid wear and tear of the moving
used? system
a. Wheatstone bridge b. To provide a small support
b. Kelvin bridge c. It can be easily replaced
c. Guarded Wheatstone bridge d. To make the system robust
d. Maxwell bridge 103.
96. Which bridge is used to determine
frequency?
a. Anderson bridge
b. De Sauty bridge
c. Wien bridge
d. Campbell bridge
97. The dielectric loss of a capacitor can be For the circuit shown, what is the voltage
measured by which one of the following? V if the source voltage is reduced by 50%?
a. Wien bridge a. IR + E
b. Owen bridge b. E – IR
c. Schering bridge c. 2IR – (E/2)
d. Maxwell bridge d. (E/2) – IR
98. Inductance is measured by which one of 104.
the following?
a. Wien bridge
b. Schering bridge
c. Maxwell bridge
d. Owen bridge
99. Schering bridge can be used to measure Voltage source is represented as shown in
which one of the following? the figure given above.
a. Q of a coil What is the equivalent current source?
b. Inductance and its Q-value
12 of 13
If the voltage V across 10 Ω
resistance is 10 V, what is the voltage E of
the voltage source in the circuit shown
a. above?
a. -50 V
b. -10 V
c. +10 V
b.
d. +50 V
108.
c.
In the circuit shown above, what is the

d.
value of the current I?
a. 1A
105. b. 2A
c. 3A
d. 4A
109. Why is the core of the transformer built up
of lamination?
For the network shown in the figure, what a. To reduce eddy current loss
is the voltage across the current source I? b. For convenience of fabrication
a. V – RI c. No specific advantage
b. V + RI d. For increasing the permeability
c. Zero 110. Materials which lack permanent magnetic
d. RI – V dipoles are known as:
106. a. Paramagnetic
b. Diamagnetic
c. Ferromagnetic
d. Ferrimagnetic
What is the value of the current I in the correct answer using the code given below
circuit shown above? the lists:
a. 20 A List-I (Material)
b. 25 A A. Silicon steel
c. 30 A B. Ferrites
d. 36 A C. Alnico
107. List-II (Application)
1. High frequency transformers
2. Permanent magnets
3. Current transformers
4. Power transformers
Code:
13 of 13
A B C a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 1 2 4 b. 1 and 2 only
b. 4 3 2 c. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 4 1 d. 1 and 3 only
d. 4 1 2 117. Which one of the following is the correct
112. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
statement? When a p-n junction is reverse-biased,
The orientational polarizability in a then
polyatomic gas is proportional to a. Holes and electrons move away from
a. temperature T the junction
b. 1/T b. Depletion region decreases
c. T2 c. Barrier breaks down
d. independent of T d. Minority carriers are not affected
113. In the case of a dielectric subjected to an 118. Consider the following statements about p-
alternating electric field of frequency f, the n junctions:
dielectric loss is proportional to which one 1. p-n junction behaves as a capacitor
of the following? when forward biased.
a. f 2. p-n junction has p and n type
b. f2 semiconductors with depletion layer in
between.
c. 1/f
3. p-n junction has a wider depletion
d. 1/f2
layer as compared to a Zener diode.
114. The electronic Polaris ability of an inert
gas atom is proportional to which one of
correct?
the following?
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. R
b. 1 and 2 only
b. R2
c. 2 and 3 only
c. R3
d. 1 and 3 only
d. R4
119. Which one of the following is the correct
(Where R is the radius of the atom)
statement?
115. Fermi level in a p-type semiconductor lies
The type of majority charge carriers in a
close to which one of the following?
semiconductor can be found by
a. The top of the valence band
a. Hall effect
b. The bottom of the valence band
b. Piezoelectric effect
c. The top of the conduction band
c. Photoelectric effect
d. The bottom of the conduction bond
d. Meissner effect
116. Consider the following statements about
120. Which one of the following is the correct
semiconductors?
statement?
1. The forbidden energy gap in
During the process of magnetization of
semiconductors lies between the
ferromagnetic material, the magnetic
valence band and conduction band.
domains
2. The forbidden energy gap in
a. Only expand
germanium at 0 K is about 0.72 eV.
b. Rotate first and then expand
3. Semiconductors have negative
temperature coefficient of resistivity. c. Expand first and then rotate
Which of the statements given above are d. Neither rotate nor expand
correct?
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1997 1 of 16
PAPER-II
1. When a thyristor is negatively biased above the rated speed of the motor. Which
a. All the three junctions are negatively one of the following methods is best suited
based for this purpose? (Va = armature voltage,
b. Outer junctions are positively biased If = field current and If rated = field current
and the inner junction is negatively at rated speed)
biased. a. If = If rated ‘Va variable
c. Outer junctions are negatively biased b. Va fixed’ If variable
and the inner junction is positively c. Va and If variable, with If ≤ If rated
biased d. Va and If variable, with If ≥ If rated
d. The junction near the anode is 6. A separately excited dc motor is required
negatively biased and the one near the to be controlled from a 3-phase source for
cathode is positively biased operation in the first quadrant only. The
2. Consider the following semiconductor most preferred converter would be:
devices: a. Fully controlled converter
1. Triac b. Fully controlled converter with
2. Thyristor freewheeling diode
3. Amplifying gate thyristor. c. Half-controlled converter
The correct sequence of these devices in d. Sequence control of two series
increasing order of their di/dt capabilities connected fully controlled converters
is 7. If the commutation angle of a diode
a. 1, 3, 2 rectifier (due to source inductance effect)
b. 1, 2, 3 is μ, then the inductive voltage regulation
c. 3, 1, 2 will be
d. 3, 2, 1 1 + cos μ
a.
3. In dc choppers feeding highly inductive 2
loads, the waveforms for input and output cos μ
currents are b. 1 +
2
a. Discontinuous and continuous cos μ
respectively c. 1 −
2
b. Both continuous
1 − cos μ
c. Both discontinuous d.
d. Continuous and discontinuous
2
respectively 8. Consider the following statements:
4. A. single-phase voltage source square- The diodes in a voltage source inverter
wave inverter feeds pure inductive load. (McMurray inverter) should be able to
The waveform of the load current will be 1. Withstand a large voltage in the
a. Sinusoidal reverse direction.
b. Rectangular 2. Carry the commutating current excess
of load current.
c. Trapezoidal
d. Triangular 3. Provide the required reverse bias to the
outgoing thyristor.
5. In machine tool drive application, the
speed of a separately excited dc motor is 4. Feedback the reactive current to the
source.
required to be controlled both below and
2 of 16
Of these statements 3. Suitable for low-power circuits.
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. Suitable for high-power circuits.
b. 1, 3 and 4 are correct Of these statements
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct a. 1 and 2 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct b. 1 and 3 are correct
9. The ac-to-dc voltage ratio of a converter in c. 2 and 3 are correct
the state of discontinuous conduction is d. 2 and 4 are correct
a. Dependent upon the firing angle but 13. In dc choppers, per unit ripple is maximum
independent of load time constant when the duty cycle α is
b. Dependent upon load time constant but a. 0.2
independent of firing angle b. 0.5
c. Dependent upon both firing angle and c. 0.7
load time constant
d. 0.9
d. Independent of both firing angles and 14. Match the 3 curves labelled A, B, C and D
load time constant with the characteristics given under list-II
10. In a 3-phase bridge rectifier fed from the and select the correct answer using the
star connected secondary winding of a codes given below the figures:
transformer, let the voltage to the neutral
of the A - phase (phase sequence A, B, C)
be Vm sin ω t. At the instant when the
voltage of A-phase is maximum, the
output voltage at the rectifier terminals
will be
a. Vm / 2
b. Vm
c. 1.5 Vm
d. 3Vm
regarding speed control of induction
List II: Control characteristic of a
motors by means of external rotor
resistors: 1. 3-pulse converter feeding pure
resistance
1. Reduction in speed is accompanied by
reduced efficiency 2. Fully controlled converter feeding R-L
load with perfect smoothing
2. With a large resistance in the rotor
circuit, the speed would vary 3. Single-phase ac voltage controller
considerably with variation in torque. feeding pure inductive load
3. The method is very complicated. 4. 6-pulse half -controlled converted
The Disadvantages of such a method of A B C D
speed control would include a. 1 2 3 4
a. 1 and 2 b. 1 2 4 3
b. 2 and 3 c. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 and 3 d. 2 1 4 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 15. A 3-pulse converter feeds a pure resistive
12. Consider the following statements: load at a firing angle of α = 60°. The
average value of current flowing in the
Switched mode power supplies are
load is 10 If a very large inductance is
preferred over the continuous types,
connected in the load circuit, then the
because they are
a. Average value of current will remain
1. Suitable for use in both ac and dc.
as 10 A
2. More efficient.
3 of 16
b. Average value of current will become b. 10 V
greater than 10A c. 14V
c. Average value of current will become d. 20V
less than 10 A 20. A difference amplifier is shown in the
d. Trend of variation of current cannot be figure transistors Q1 and Q2 have identical
predicted unless the exact value, of the parameters. Assuming that VBE = 0.7 V
inductance connected is known and β = 200 for each transistor and given
16. In a 3-phase rectifier circuit, thyristor that VSI = VSI = VS2 = 0, the value of the
number 1,2 and 3 are connected collector current IC will be
respectively to R, Y and B phases of the
star- connected transformer secondary.
When the current is being commutated
from thyristor No. 1 to No. 2 the effect of
the transformer leakage and the ac system
inductance will be such that it will
a. Prolong the conduction in No. 1 and
a. 2 mA
delay the turn- on of No. 2
correspondingly b. 1 mA
b. Stop the conduction in No. 1 at the c. 0.5 mA
scheduled time, but delay the turn-on d. 2.5 μA
of No.2 21. A junction transistor operating at room
c. Produce conduction in both No. 1 and temperature with IC =2 mA where kT/q =
No.2 in parallel for an overlapping 25 mV has β = 100. The values of the
period through a transient parameters gm in mhos and rπ in ohms will
d. Double the voltage output through a be respectively
commutation transient a. 0.04 and 2500
17. If an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with b. 0.08 and 1250
a very small amount of boron, then in the c. 0.5 and 800
extrinsic semiconductor so formed, the d. 0.08 and 5000
number of electrons and holes will
22. An amplifier with mid-band gain |A| = 500
a. Decrease 1
b. Increase and decrease respectively has negative feedback |β| = . If the
100
c. Increase. upper cut-off without feedback were at 60
d. Decrease and increase respectively kHz, then with feedback it would become
18. If α = 0.98, Ico = 6μA and Iβ = 100μA for a a. 10 kHz
transistor, then the value of Ic will be b. 12 kHz
a. 2.3 mA c. 300 kHz
b. 3.1 mA d. 360 kHz
c. 4.6 mA 23. The circuit shown in the figure has a Zener
d. 5.2 mA regulated dc power supply. Assuming that
19. The given figure shows a silicon transistor the Zener diode is ideal, the MINIMUM
connected as a common emitter amplifier. value of RL down to which the output
The quiescent collector voltage of the voltage would remain constant is
circuit is approximately
a. 15 ohms
a. 20/3 V b. 24 ohms
c. 27 ohms
4 of 16
d. 45 ohms ⎡ R2 R4 ⎤
24. A non-inverting OP-AMP summer is ⎢ R + R + R3 ⎥
shown in the figure. The output voltage V0 c. − ⎢ 2 4
⎥
⎢ R 1 ⎥
is ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
⎡ R + R3 ⎤
d. − ⎢ 2 ⎥
⎣ R1 ⎦
regarding an RC phase-shift oscillator:
1. The amplifier gain is positive.
a. sin 100 t 2. The amplifier gain is negative.
3 3. The phase shift introduced by the
b. sin100t feedback network is 180°.
2
4. The phase shift introduced by the
c. 2 sin 100 t feedback network is 360°.
d. 3 sin 100 t Of these statements
25. The expression for the output voltage V0 in a. 1 and 3 are correct
terms of the input voltages V1 and V2 in
the circuit shown in the figure, assuming
the operational amplifier to be ideal is: c. 2 and 4 are correct
V0 = AV1 1 + A2V2
28. If an input signal with non-zero dc
The values of A1 and A2 would be component is applied to a low pass RC
respectively network, the dc component in the output
will be
a. The same as that in the input
b. Less than in the input
c. More than that in the input
d. Zero
a. 9 and -10 29. For the given input, the output waveform
b. 9.9 and -10 across the diode shown in the figure will
c. -9 and 10 be
d. -9.9 and 10
26. The transfer gain for the circuit shown in
the figure is given by
a.
⎡ R2 R3 ⎤
⎢ R2 + R3 + R ⎥ b.
a. − ⎢ 4
⎥
⎢ R 1 ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
⎡ R3 R4 ⎤
⎢ R + R + R2 ⎥ c.
b. − ⎢ 3 4
⎥
⎢ R1 ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
5 of 16
d.
d.
30. The waveform of the output of a low pass
filter to a step input will bw as in
a.
33. In a half-adder having two inputs A and B

and two outputs (S and C are the Sum and
b. Carry output bits respectively), the
Boolean expressions for S and C in terms
of A and B is:
a. S = AB + A.B ; C = A.B
c. b. S = AB + AB; C = A + B
c. S = A.B + AB; C = A + B
d. S = AB + A.B ; C = A + B
d. 34. A combinational circuit has inputs A, B
and C and its Karnaugh Map is as shown.
The output of the circuit is given by
31. The voltage levels for a negative logic

system.
a. Must necessarily be negative
b. Could be negative or positive a. ( AB + AB ) C
c. Must necessarily be positive
d. Must necessarily be either zero or – 5V
b. ( AB + AB ) C
32. Which one of the following is the truth c. ABC
table of the given logic circuit? d. A ⊕ B ⊕ C
35. The output Qn of a J-K flip-flop is zero. If
changes to 1 when a clock pulse is applied.
The inputs Jn and Kn are respectively
a. 1 and X
a.
b. 0 and X
c. X and 0
d. X and 1
36. To realize the given truth table from the
circuit shown in the figure, the input to J in
b. terms of A and would have to be
c.
a. AB
b. A
6 of 16
c. B c. Frequent disk I/Os s
d. AB d. Need for a data-wind path
37. The circuit schematic shown in the 40. DB. DW and DD directives are used to
following figure place data in particular locations or to
simply allocate space without reassigning
anything to space. The DW and DD
directions are used to generate
a. Offsets
Represents 4-bits b. Full address of variables
a. Static shift register c. Full address of labels
b. Dynamic shift register d. Offsets or full address of labels and
c. Asynchronous counter variables
d. Synchronous counter 41. Match List-I (Type of instruction) with
38. Match List-I (Function/circuit) with list-II list-II (Instruction) and select the correct
circuit realization) and select the correct answer
answer List I
List I A. One byte instruction
A. D-flip flop B. Two bytes instruction
B. T-flip flop C. Three bytes instruction
C. Exclusive OR D. Register indirect addressing
D. Half adder List II
List II 1. MOV A, data
1. 2. MOV A, B
3. MOV A, M
4. JMP addr.
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
2.
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 3 4
42. Consider the following set of instructions:
3. STC
CMC
MOV A,B
RAL
MOV B,A
4. This set of instructions
a. Doubles the number in Register be B
b. Divides the number in Register by 2
c. Multiplies B by A
A B C D d. Adds A and B
a. 2 3 1 4 43. The number bits needed to address 4K
b. 2 3 4 1 memory is
c. 3 2 4 1 a. 6
d. 3 2 1 4 b. 8
39. The large the RAM of a computer, the c. 12
faster is its speed. since it eliminates d. 16
a. Need for ROM 44. The ESC instruction of 8086 may have
b. Need for external memory two formats. In one of the formats, on
7 of 16
memory operand is used. Under this 49. A carrier signal of frequency fc is
format, the number of external op-codes modulated by a signal
(for the co-processor) which can be 2 A cos 2π f1t − A sin 2π f 2t
specified is
The spectrum of the modulated signal will
a. 64 include which of the following frequency
b. 128 components?
c. 256 1. f c + f1 + f 2
d. 512
2. f c − f1 − f 2
45. The TRAP is one of the interrupts
available in TNTEL 8085. Which one of 3. f c + 2 f1 − f 2
the following statements is true of TRAP? 4. f c − 2 f1 + f 2
a. It is level triggered
b. It is negative edge triggered
given below:
c. It is positive edge triggered
a. 1 and 2
d. it is both positive edge triggered and
b. 3 and 4
level triggered
c. 3 alone
46. Consider the following figures showing
clock periods of Instruction Fetch machine d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
cycle for INTEL 8085. 50. Which one of the following is the
advantage of base modulation over
collector modulation of a transistor Class
C amplifier?
a. Requires lower modulation power
b. Higher power output per transistor
c. Better efficiency
d. Better linearity
51. In a narrow band FM system. the highest
An ERROR in the above diagram relates modulating frequency is fm. The
to the signal bandwidth of the system will be
a. IO/M a. 6fm
b. SO b. Fm
c. SI c. 2fm
d. R D d. 10fm
47. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are 52. A telephone channel will PCM gives good.
stored in two consecutive memory performance at a transmission rat” of 64k
locations. The entire word can be read in bits/s. With companding and complex
one operation provided the first version pf delta modulation (DM), to
a. Word is even achieve the same performance, the
b. Word is odd transmission rate must be close to
c. Memory location is odd a. 64 k bits/s
d. Memory address is even b. 100 k bits/s
48. A 3×8 decoder with two enable inputs is to c. 64 M bits/s
be used to address 8 blocks of memory. d. 100 M bits/s
What will be the size of each memory 53. Equalizing pulses in IV are placed during
block when addressed from a sixteen bit the
bus with two MSBs used to enable the a. Vertical blanking period
decoder? b. Horizontal blanking period
a. 2 K c. Serrations
b. 4 K d. Horizontal retrace
c. 16 K
d. 64 K
8 of 16
54. The most useful approach to radar system b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
for monitoring the speed of moving correct explanation of A
vehicles is: c. A is true but R is false
a. Pulsed radar d. A is false but R is true
b. Monopulse 59. Assertion A: In a salient-pole
c. Dopier radar synchronous motor, the angular
d. Auto-tracking radar displacement of rotor per unit change of
55. Consider the following statements: power is less than that for a similar
The maximum range of radar can be cylindrical rotor machine.
increased by Reason R: A reluctance torque is
1. Increasing the peak transmitted power developed in the salient- pole machine due
to the effect of direct axis flux on the
2. Increasing the gain of the receiver
damper winding.
3. Increasing the diameter of the antenna
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
4. Reducing the wavelength used correct explanation of A.
Of these statements b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
a. 1,3 and 4 are correct correct explanation of A
b. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct c. A is true but R is false
c. 2 and 4 are correct d. A is false but R is true
d. 1 and 3 are correct 60. Assertion A: During the load flow study,
56. Consider the following statements about a voltage controlled bus is treated as a load
broadband communications using bus when the magnitude of the voltage is
submarine cables: very much higher or very much lower than
1. A submarine cable repeater contains the scheduled voltage.
filters for the two directions of Reason R: A tap changing transformer is
transmission. represented as an net work in the load flow
2. Armoured submarine cable is used for model.
the shallow- shore ends of the cable. V a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
3. Fibre-optic submarine cable is used to correct explanation of A.
prevent inadvertent plugging- in of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
cable. correct explanation of A
Of these statements c. A is true but R is false
a. 1 and 2 are correct d. A is false but R is true
b. 2 and 3 are correct 61. Assertion A: In the residual type earth
c. 1 and 3 are correct compensation used in the distance
d. 1, 2, and 3 are correct protection schemes with solidly earthed
57. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire neutral systems, the residual compensation
line, it is best to use a circuit uses auxiliary current transformers.
a. Slotted line Reason R: A fraction of the residual
b. Balun current is added to the fault current Ia for
an earth fault on phase ‘a’. This fraction is
c. Directional coupler
so chosen that the relay measures the
d. Quarter-wave transformer positive sequence impedance Z1.
58. Assertion A: A differentially compounded a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
dc motor has the possibility of starting in correct explanation of A.
the reversed direction.
Reason R: Owing to higher inductance in correct explanation of A
the series field, the resultant main flux
reverses during starting.
correct explanation of A. 62. Assertion A: In HVDC systems, the dc
voltage should be as high as possible and
9 of 16
the rectifier control angle alpha should be degree of modulation of the original radio
as low as possible. frequency signal in AM detector.
Reason R: Control of dc voltage is Reason R It depends primarily on the ratio
exercised by the rectifier and inverter of the source impedance of the radio
control angles alpha and gamma frequency voltage to the diode load
respectively. impedance.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
63. Assertion A: A-3 phase induction motor 67. Assertion A: The different components of
operation on a 3-phase voltage controller a composite video signal are needed
for speed control cannot be used for consecutively and not simultaneously at
constant torque loads. the TV receivers.
Reason R: The output voltage waveform Reason R: The different components of
of the controller is distorted, the composite video signal are sent to the
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the receiver on a frequency division basis.
correct explanation of A. a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
64. Assertion A: TTL and CMOS cannot be d. A is false but R is true
normally used together. 68. If the applied voltage of a certain
Reason R: TTL operates on a (+ 5 ± 0.25) transformer is increased by 50% and the
V regulated supply voltage and some mA, frequency is reduced to 50% (assuming)
while the CMOS operates on unregulated that the magnetic circuit remains
supply voltage of +3V to +15V and unsaturated), the maximum core /flux
someμA. density will
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the a. Change to three, times the original
correct explanation of A. value
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a b. Change to 1.5 times the original value
correct explanation of A c. Change to 0.5 times the original value
c. A is true but R is false d. Remain the same as the original value
d. A is false but R is true 69. The low-voltage winding of a core-type
65. Assertion A: Machine language program transformer is subdivided into two equal
is written in hexadecimal. halves, each of half the original width of
Reason R: Microprocessor can under the single winding with the high-voltage
stand hexadecimal number system. winding in between these two halves of
low-voltage winding (instead of having
correct explanation of A. usual construction of low-voltage winding
adjacent to the core and surrounded b the
high-voltage winding.) Such an interlacing
of coils would make the combined primary
c. A is true but R is false and secondary leakage reactance (in terms
d. A is false but R is true of the primary) nearly
66. Assertion A: The degree of modulation of a. Twice
radio- frequency voltage present at the b. Equal
input terminals of the diode is less than the
c. Half
d. One-fourth
10 of 16
70. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected b. The first and the second terms cancel
transformers are supplied from’ the same each other
source. One of the transformers is of Dy 1 dL1 dL2
and the other is of Dy 11 connection. The c. and have opposite signs and
dθ dθ
phase difference between the dL1
corresponding phase voltages of the two
dθ
second Aries would be
( i2 )
2
dL2
a. 0° =
dθ ( i1 )
2
b. 30°
c. 60° d. L1 and L2 do not very with respect to
d. 120° θ
71. In a transformer fed from a fundamental 75. Match List-I (Parts of electrical machines)
frequency voltage source, the source of with List - II (The approximate nature of
harmonics is the the air-gap mmf pattern produced by them)
a. Overload and select the correct answer
b. Poor insulation List I
c. Iron loss A. DC machine, stator
d. Saturation of core B. DC machine, rotor
72. A 40k VA transformer has a core loss of C. Salient-pole synchronous machine,
400W and. a full-load copper loss of 800 stator
W. The proportion of full-load at D. Squirrel-cage rotor of induction motor
maximum efficiency is List II
a. 50% 1. Sinusoidal
b. 62.3% 2. Trapezoidal
c. 70.7% 3. Triangular
d. 100% A B C D
73. A single-phase transformer has a. rating of a. 1 2 1 3
15 k VA, 600/120V. It is reconnected as b. 3 1 3 1
an auto- transformer to supply at 720 V c. 2 3 1 3
from a 600 V primary source. The d. 2 3 1 1
maximum load it can supply is 76. A dc shunt generator, when driven at its
a. 90 kVA rated speed, is found to be not generating
b. 18 kVA any voltage. Which of the following would
c. 15 kVA account for this?
d. 12 kVA 1. There is no residual magnetism.
74. The general expression for the 2. The connection of the field winding is
instantaneous value of the torque of not proper with respect to the armature
dynamo-electric machines is given by terminals.
1 2 dL1 1 2 dL2 dM 3. The resistance of the field circuit is
T = ( i1 ) + ( i2 ) + i1i2
2 dθ 2 dθ dθ greater than the critical field resistance.
Where i1 and i2 are rotor and stator 4. The load resistance is less than the
currents respectively, L1 and L2 are rotor critical armature resistance.
windings’ self inductances. Select the correct answer using the codes
M is the mutual inductance between stator given below:
and rotor windings and θ is the angular a. 3 and 4
displacement of the rotor. b. 1, 2 and 4
For a synchronous machine (cylindrical c. 1, 2 and 3
rotor), the torque is given by only the third d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
term of the equation, because 77. To have spark less commutation, the
a. The average value of (i1)2 and (i2)2 armature reaction effect in a dc machine is
each is zero neutralized by
11 of 16
a. Using compensating winding and
commutating poles
b. Shifting the brush axis from the
geometrical neutral axis to the
magnetic neutral axis
c. Fixing the brush axis in line with the A B C D
pole axis a. 3 1 4 2
d. Increasing the field excitation b. 3 1 2 4
78. In a dc shunt generator working on load, c. 1 3 2 4
the brushes are moved forward in the
d. 1 3 4 2
direction of rotation. As a result of this,
commutation will 80. Which one of the following figures best
represents the variation in armature current
a. Improve but terminal voltage will fall
and speed with time during the stating of a
b. Worsen and terminal voltage will fall dc shunt motor?
c. Improve and terminal voltage will rise a.
d. Worsen and terminal voltage will rise
79. Match List-I (Ways of compounding series
and shunt field windings of a dc compound
generator) with list-II (Volt- ampere
characteristics at constant speed) and
select the correct answer using the codes
b.
given below the Lists:
List I
A. Over compounded
B. Level compounded
C. Differentially compounded
D. Under-compounded c.
List II
1.
d.
2.
81. A dc over compounded generator was

operating satisfactorily and supplying
3. power to an infinite bus when the prime
mover failed to supply any mechanical
power. The machine would then run as a
a. Cumulatively compounded motor with
speed reversed
b. Cumulatively compounded motor with
4. direction of rotation as before
c. Differentially compounded motor with
speed reversed
d. Differentially compounded motor with
direction of speed as before
12 of 16
82. A 3-phase alternator with high rotational 85. Match list-I (Type of winding) with list-Il
inertia and negligible armature resistance (Feature) and select the correct answer
was delivering power to an isolated load using the codes given below the Lists:
when the armature terminals got short- List I
circuited. After a while, the mechanical A. Fractional slot windings
power input to the shaft of the machine is B. Chorded and distributed windings
terminated at time t0. The short-circuit
C. Damper windings
current Is circulating in the armature will
very till the machine comes to rest at time D. Single-phase windings
ts. Which one of the curves shown in the List II
following figures best reflects this 1. Only two- third of the pole pitch is
variation? occupied by the winding
a. 2. Effects of slot harmonics are reduced
or even eliminated
3. The effects of phase belt harmonics are
reduced
4. Additional asynchro nous torque
capability in projected pole motors
b. A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 3 2 4 1
c. 86. While conducting a “slip’ test for the
determination of direct and quadrature-
axis synchronous reactance’s Xd and Xq of
a salient pole synhronous machine, the
rotor of the machine is run with a slip’s’
and stator supply frequency ‘f’. The
d. frequency of
1. Voltage induced across open field
terminals.
2. Envelope of the armature terminal
voltage,
3. Envelope of the armature current and
83. When a synchronous motor is running at 4. Armature current will be respectively
synchronous speed, the damper winding
a. sf, sf, sf and f
produces
b. sf, f, sf and f
a. Damping torque
c. f, sf, f and sf
b. Eddy current torque
d. f, (1– s) f, (2 – s) f and sf
c. Torques aiding the developed to torque
87. If two induction motors A and B are
d. No torque
identical except that the air-gap of motor
84. For a given developed power, a ‘A’ is 50% greater than that of motor ‘B’
synchronous motor operating from a then
constant voltage and constant frequency
a. The no-load power factor of A will be
supply, will draw the minimum and
better than that of B
maximum armature currents, Imin and Imax
respectively, corresponding to b. The no-load power factor of A will be
poorer than that of B
a. Imm at unity pf, but Imax at zero pf
c. The core losses of A will be more than
b. Imax at unity pf, but Imin at zero pf
those of B
c. Both Imin and Imax at unity pf
d. The operating flux of A will be smaller
d. Both Imin and Imax at zero pf than that of B
13 of 16
88. A 6-pole, 50Hz, 3-phase synchronous
motor and an 8-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase slip-
ring induction motor are mechanically
coupled and operate on the same 3-phase,
50 Hz supply system. If they are left open-
circuited, then the frequency of the voltage
produced across any two slip rings would The values of A and B will be
be a. K2 R1 and R2
a. 12.5 Hz b. SK2R1 and R2
b. 25.0 Hz c. K2 R1 and SR2
c. 37.5 Hz d. SK2R1 and SR2
d. 50.0 Hz 92. A 3-phase wound rotor induction motor,
89. Which of the following statements when stated with load connected to its
regarding skewing of motor bars in a shaft, was found to start but settee down at
squirrel-cage induction motor are correct? about half synchronous speed. If the rotor
winding as well as the stator winding were
1. It prevents cogging.
star connected, then the cause of the
2. It produces more uniform torque. malfunctioning could be attributed to
3. It increases starting torque. a. One of the stator phase windings being
4. It reduces motor ‘hum’ during its short-circuited
operations b. One of the supply fuses being blown
Select the correct answer using the codes c. One of the rotor phases being open-
given below: circuited
a. 2,3 and 4 d. Two of the rotor phases being open-
b. 1,2, and 3 circuited
c. 1, 2 and 4 93. Consider the following statements
d. 1, 3 and 4 regarding fractional horse power shaded-
90. The rotor power output of a 3-phase pole motor:
induction motor is 15k Wand the 1. Its direction of rotation is from
corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor copper unshaded to shaded portion of the
loss will be poles.
a. 600 W 2. Its direction of rotation is from shaded
b. 625 W to unshaded portion of the poles.
c. 650W 3. It can remain stalled for short periods
d. 700 W without any harm.
91. For a more accurate analysis of the torque 4. It has a very poor power factor.
slip relationship, the equivalent circuit of Of these statements
a 3-phase induction motor for running a. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
condition is to be derived from the given b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
stand-still condition: c. 2 and 4 are correct
94. In the case of a converter- inverter speed
control arrangement for an induction
v
motor operating with constant and with
K1 = ratio of transformation f
E1 = V1 (applied voltage) - Iμs X1 negligible stator impedance
Iμ = magnetizing current a. The maximum torque is independent of
At running condition, if the two resistances frequency
in the equivalent circuit are denoted by A b. The maximum torque is proportional to
and B, then frequency
14 of 16
c. The slip at maximum torque is c. Obtain redial electric stress
proportional to frequency d. Obtain longitudinal electric stress
d. The starting torque is proportional to 100. Galloping in transmission line conductors
frequency arises generally due to
95. The load curve of a system is shown in the a. Asymmetrical layers of ice formation
figure. The load factor of the system is: b. Vortex phenomenon in light winds
c. Heavy weight of the line conductors
d. Adoption of horizontal conductor
configurations
101. In matrix form, the equation of a 4-
terminal network representing a
a. 1.66% transmission line a given by
b. 6.013%
⎡Vs ⎤ ⎡ A B ⎤ ⎡VR ⎤
c. 16.6% ⎢ I ⎥ ⎢C D ⎥ ⎢ I ⎥
d. 60.13% ⎣ s⎦⎣ ⎦⎣ R⎦
96. If the discharge is I m3/s and the head of The two networks considered are
water is 1, then the power generated by the A.
alternator in one hour (assume 100%
efficiency of the generator and turbine)
will be
a. 10 kW
B.
b. 73/75 k W
c. 746/75 k W
d. 100 kW
97. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are
made of The plausible transfer matrix for the
networks (A) and (B) could be:
a. Zirconium
i.
b. Boron
c. Beryllium
d. Lead
98. Consider two parallel short transmission ii.
lines of impedances ZA and ZB
respectively as shown in. the figure.
Currents IA and IB are both lagging and the
sending-end voltage is Vs. If the reactance iii.
to resistance ratio of both the impedances
⎡1 Z ⎤
ZA and ZB are equal then the total current ⎢Y
‘I’ will ⎣ (1 + YZ )⎥⎦
iv.
⎡1 + YZ Z ⎤
⎢ Y 1 ⎥⎦
⎣
a. Lag both IA and IB The correct combination for the two
b. Lead both IA and IB networks (A) and (B), would be:
c. Lag one of IA and IB but lead the other a. (i) and (ii)
d. Be in phase with both IA and IB b. (i) and (iii)
99. In a 3-core extra high voltage cable, a c. (ii) and (iv)
metallic screen around each core- d. (iii) and (iv)
insulation is provided to 102. The incremental generating costs of two
a. Facilitate heat dissipation generating units are given by
b. Give mechanical strength IC1 = 0.1 X +20 Rs./MWhr.
15 of 16
IC2= 0.15 Y+20Rs./MWhr. 107. In the solution of load-flow equations,
Where X and Y are power (in MW) Newton Raphson (NR) method is superior
generated by the two units. For a total to the Gauss-Seidel (OS) method, because
demand of 300 MW, the values (in MW) the
of X and Y will be respectively a. Time taken to perform one iteration in
a. 172 and 128 the NR method is less when compared
b. 128 and. 172 to the time taken in the GS method
c. 175 and 125 b. Number of iterations required in the
d. 200 and 100 NR method is more when compared to
that in the GS method
c. Number of iterations required is not
To provide reliable protection for a
independent of the size of the system
distribution transformer against over
in the NR method
voltages using lighting arrestors, it is
essential that the d. Convergence characteristics of the NR
method are not affected by the
1. Lead resistance is high.
selection of slack bus
2. Distance between the transformer and
108. In a synchronous generator, a divided
the arrestor is small.
winding rotor is preferable to a
3. Transformer and the arrestor have a conventional winching rotor because of
common interconnecting ground.
a. Higher efficiency
4. Spark over voltage of the arrestor is
b. Increased steady-state stability limit
greater than the residual voltage.
c. Higher short-circuit ratio
d. Better damping
109. A power system network consists of three
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
elements 0 – 1, 1 2 and 2 – 0 of per unit
d. 1 and 4are correct impedances 0.2, 0.4 and 0.4 respectively.
104. The reflection coefficient of a short- Its bus impedance matrix is given by
circuited line is 1 2
a. -1
1 ⎡ 7.5 2.5⎤
2 ⎢⎣ −2.5 5.0 ⎥⎦
b. +1 a.
c. 0.5
d. zero 1 ⎡0.16 0.5 ⎤
2 ⎢⎣ 0.08 0.24 ⎥⎦
b.
105. The propagation constant of a transmission
line is: 1 ⎡ 0.16 −0.08⎤
0.15 ×10−3 + j1.5 ×10−3
2 ⎢⎣ −0.08 0.24 ⎥⎦
c.
The wavelength of the traveling wave is
1 ⎡0.16 0.4 ⎤
1.5 ×10−3
2 ⎢⎣ 0.4 0.8⎥⎦
d.
a.
2π
2π 110. Zero sequence currents can flow from a
b. line into a transformer bank if the
1.5 ×10−3 windings are in
1.5 ×10−3 a. Grounded star/delta
c.
π b. Delta/star
π c. Star/grounded star
d.
1.5 ×10−3 d. Delta/delta
106. Hollow conductors are used in 111. When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the
transmission lines to current in a faulted phase is 100 A. The
a. Reduce weight of copper zero sequence current in this case will be
b. Improve stabi1ity a. zero
c. Reduce corona b. 33.3 A
d. Increase power transmission capacity c. 66.6 A
16 of 16
d. 100 A 116. The combined frequency regulation of
112. When a 50 MVA, 11kV, 3-phase generator machines in area of capacity 1500 MW
is subjected to a 3-phase fault, the fault and operating at a nominal frequency of 60
current is –j5 pu (per unit). kHz is 0.1 pu on its own base capacity.
When it is subjected to a line-to-line fault, The regulation in HZ/MW will be
the positive sequence current is –j4 pu. a. 0.1/1500
The positive and negative sequence b. 60/1500
reactance’s are respectively c. 6/1500
a. j 0.2 and j 0.05 pu d. 60/150
b. j 0.2 and j 0.25 Pu 117. The per unit impedance of a synchronous
c. j 0.25 and j 0.25 Pu machine is 0.242. If the base voltage is
d. j 0.05 and j 0.05 pu increased by 1.1 times, the per unit value
113. The power generated by two plants are: will be
P1=50 MW, P2=40 MW. If the loss a. 0.266
coefficients are B11 = 0.001, B22 = 0.0025 b. 0.242
and B12 = – 0.0005, then the power loss c. 0.220
will be d. 0.200
a. 5.5 MW 118. The following figure shows the single line
b. 6.5 MW diagram of a power system with all
c. 4.5 MW reactance’s marked in per unit (pu) on the
d. 8.5 MW same base
114. Given that Vm = maximum value of the
phase voltage, the average value of the dc
voltage for a 3-phase 3-pulse, uncontrolled
rectifier is given by The system• is on no-load when a 3-phase
3 3 fault occurs at ‘F’ on the high voltage side
a. Vd = Vm
2π of the transformerT2. The fault current will
be
3 3
b. Vd = Vm a. – j 0.8187 pu
π
b. + j 0.8187 pu
3
c. Vd = Vm c. – j8.1871 pu
π d. +j8.1871 pu
3 119. Rated breaking capacity (MVA) of a
d. Vd = Vm
π circuit breaker is equal to
115. The following data pertain to two a. The product of rated breaking current
a1tematot working in parallel and (kA) and rated voltage (kV)
supplying a total load of 80 MW: b. The product of rated symmetrical
Machine 1:40 MVA with. 5% speed breaking current (kA) and rated
regulation voltage (kV)
Machine 2:60 MVA with 5 % speed c. The product of breaking current (kA)
regulation. and fault voltage (kV)
The load sharing between machines 1 and d. Twice the value of rated current (kA)
2 will be: and rated voltage (kV)
P1 P2 120. If, in a short transmission line, resistance
a. and inductance are found to be equal and
48 MW 32 MW
regulation appears to be zero, then the load
P1 P2 will
b.
40 MW 40 MW a. Have unity power factor
c. 30 MW b. Have zero power factor
d. 48 MW c. Be 0.707 leading
d. Be 0.707 lagging
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1998 1 of 15
PAPER-II
1. If a 230 V dc series motor is connected to Permanent magnet dc motors used in
a 230 V ac supply, cassette tape recorder have
a. the motor will vibrate violently 1. magnets on stator and armature on the
b. the motor will run with les efficiency rotor.
and more sparking 2. magnets on the rotor and armature on
c. the motor will not run the stator.
d. the fuse will be blown 3. electronic commutation and no
brushes.
2. The interpoles in dc machines have a
tapering shape in order to 4. mechanical commutation and brushes.
a. reduce the overall weight 5. automatic speed governors.
b. reduce the saturation in the interpole Of these statements
c. economise on the material required for a. 1, 3 and 5 are correct
interpoles and their windings. b. 1, 4 and 5 are correct
d. increase the acceleration of c. 2, 3 and 5 are correct
commutation d. 1 and 4 are correct
3. Consider the following statements: 6. Two single-phase transformers with turns
At starting, the field excitation of a dc ratios 1 and 2 respectively are connected to
shunt motor is kept at its maximum value a 3-phase supply on the primary side as
to reduce shown in the figure. The voltmeter V2, will
1. sparking at brushes read
2. acceleration time.
3. starting current.
4. voltage dip in supply.
of these statements
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct a. 100 V
c. 1,3 and 4 are correct b. 173 V
d. 1,2,3 and 4are correct c. 200 V
4. As compared to the use of a single series d. 265 V
dc motor for electric traction for a given 7. In a 3-phase transformer shown in the
starting time t. the series-parallel control figure, the phase displacement of
using two similar motors with time t/2 for secondary line voltages with
each series and parallel operation would corresponding primary line voltages will
give a saving in starting energy of be
a. 100%
b. 50 %
c. 25 %
d. Zero
a. zero
2 of 15
b. 300 lag 2. fractional slot winding.
c. 30° lead 3. short - chorded winding
d. 180° 4. distributed winding.
8. Three 3-phase transformers each rated at Of these statements
75 MVA, 132 kV/1 kV, have the following a. 1 and 2 are correct
different methods of cooling.:
b. 2, 3 and 4 correct
1. Self oil cooled
c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
2. Forced oil cooled.
3. Forced air cooled.
13. Which one of the following methods
The correct sequence in ascending order in would give a higher than actual value of
terms of the weights of these transformers regulation of an alternator?
is
a. ZPE method
a. 1,2,3
b. MMF method
b. 2, 3, 1
c. EMF method
c. 3, 1, 2
d. ASA method
d. 3, 2, 1
14. A turbo alternator set feeds power to a 3-
9. A single-phase induction regulator is a phase constant-voltage, constant-
constant input transformer to obtain frequency bus. If the steam supply to the
smooth variation of the output voltage by set is cut off, then the set will
varying the
a. continue to run at rated sped in the
a. ratio of turns between primary and same direction
secondary windings
b. continue to run at a reduced speed in
b. frequency the same direction
c. flux density in the core c. run at rated speed in the reverse
d. angle between the magnetic axes of the direction
primary and secondary windings d. come to a stop
10. An auto-transformer having a 15. An ideal synchronous motor has no
transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load starting torque because the
of 10 kW. The power transferred
a. rotor is made up of salient poles
inductively from the primary to the
secondary is b. relative velocity between the stator and
the rotor mmf’s is zero
a. 10 kW
c. relative velocity between stator and
b. 8 k W
rotor mmf’s is not zero
c. 2kW
d. rotor winding is highly reactive
d. Zero
16. A synchronous motor is operating on no-
11. If the dimensions of all the parts of a load at unity power factor. If the field
synchronous generator, and the number of current is increased, the power factor will
field and armature turns are doubled, then become
the generated voltage will change by a
a. leading and the current will decrease
factor of
b. lagging and the current will increase
a. 1
c. lagging and the current will decrease
b. 2
d. leading and the current will increase
c. 4
17. A 3-phase induction machine draws active
d. 8
power ‘P’ and reactive power ‘Q’ from the
12. Consider the following statements grid. If it is operated as a generator, P’ and
The effects of slot harmonics are Q will respectively be
1. skewing the slots a. positive and negative
3 of 15
b. negative and negative b. non-sinusoidal nature of the supply
c. positive and positive voltage
d. negative and positive c. stator circuit asymmetry
18. The deep bar rotor of an induction motor is d. rotor circuit asymmetry
considered equivalent to a double cage 23. The phenomenon of crawling in a 3-phase
rotor for the purposes of starting and cage induction motor may be due to
performance. At the time of starting, the a. unbalance supply voltages
current distribution in deep bar rotor slot
b. 7th space harmonic of air-gap field
will be as shown in
c. 7th time harmonic of voltage wave
d. 5th space harmonic
24. Zero sequence impedance of a 3-phase
cage induction motor is due to
a. stator circuit 3rd time harmonic
19. A 3-phase induction motor fed f a 3-phase
voltage controller is suitable for driving b. stator circuit 3rd space harmonic
loads whose torque is c. rotor circuit 3rd time harmonic
a. constant irrespective of speed d. rotor circuit 3rd space harmonic
b. inversely proportional to the square of 25. Consider the following statements:
speed Star-delta starter is used in 3-phase.
c. directly proportional to the square of induction motor because it
speed 1. prevents heating of the motor
d. inversely proportional to speed windings.
20. A 3-phase induction motor is used as an 2. ensures permissible minimum starting
adjustable speed drive from zero to 2.0 per current.
unit speed using a variable frequency 3. is regulated by electricity authorities.
inverter. In the speed range of 1.0 to. 2.0
4. ensures smooth run-up to full speed.
per unit, in order to ensure satisfactory
operation. Of these statements :
Which one of the following sets of a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
quantities is to be maintained b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
approximately constant? c. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
a. Voltage and power d. 1 and 2 are correct
b. Flux and torque 26. Match List-I (Types of motor) with List-II
c. Voltage and torque (Applications) and select the correct
d. Flux and power answer using the codes given below the
lists :
21. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor has
chopper controlled resistance in the rotor List-I
circuit. Its power factor and efficiency can A. Shaded pole motor
be characterised respectively as B. Capacitor motor
a. good and poor C. Permanent magnet motor
b. poor and good D. Steppermotor
c. good and good List-II
d. poor and poor 1. Robotics
22. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor when 2. Rockets
started picks up speed but runs stably at
3. Ceiling fan
about half the normal speed. This is
because of 4. Table fan
a. unbalance in the supply voltages A B C D
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a. 4 3 1 2 c. one-third of the average
b. 3 4 2 1 d. zero
c. 3 4 1 2 31. Match List-I (parameter) with List-II
d. 4 3 2 1 (Effects) and select the correct answer
27. Hysteresis motors are used for Hi-Q record
players because of their List-I
a. constant (synchronous) speed A. Percent power lost in transmission
b. extremely steady torque B. For a given current density, the
conductor size
c. insensitivity to supply voltage
fluctuations C. Power handling capacity of a line at a
given voltage
d. non-dependence on centrifugal switch
requirement D. Surge impedance of a transmission line
28. Which of the following are the features of List-II
a shaded pole motor? 1. Decreases with system Voltage
1. Salient-pole stator. 2. Reduces with line length
2. Uniform air-gap 3. Remains independent of line length
3. Two stator windings one of which is a 4. Increases with line length
short-circuited ring A B C D
4. Squirrel cage rotor. a. 1 2 4 3
Select the correct answer using the codes b. 3 4 2 1
given below:
c. 3 2 4 1
a. 1 and 4
d. 1 4 2 3
b. 2 and 4
32. “Expanded ACSR” are conductors
c. 1, 3 and 4 composed of
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. larger diameter individual strands for a
29. A hydel power plant of run-off-river type given cross-section of the aluminium
should be provided with a pondage so that strands
the b. larger diameter of the central steel
a. firm-capacity of the plant is increased strands for a given overall diameter of
b. operating head is controlled the conductor
c. pressure inside the turbine casing c. larger diameter of the aluminium
remains constant strands only for a given overall
diameter of the conductor
d. kinetic energy of the running water is
fully utilised d. a filler between the inner steel and the
outer aluminium strands to increase the
30. If within an untransposed 3-phase circuit
overall diameter of the conductor
of a transmission lines the series
impedance of each of the conductors is 33. Which of the following are the advantages
considered, it is found to contain resistive of interconnected operation of power
⎛d ⎞ systems?
terms of the form K 1og, ⎜ 12 ⎟ K being a 1. Less reserve capacity requirement.
⎝ d13 ⎠
2. More reliability.
constant and d12 and d11 etc. being
spacings between the conductors. These 3. High power factor.
terms represent power transfer from one 4. Reduction in short-circuit level.
phase to another. The sum of these terms Select the correct answer using the codes
over the three phases is given below;
a. three times the average a. 1 and 2
b. 3 times the average b. 2 and 3
5 of 15
c. 3 and 4 c. ordinate of the post-fault power-angle
d. 1 and 4 characteristic is higher than that of
during-fault characteristic
34. Steady-state stability of a power system is
improved by d. voltage behind the transient reactance
increases to a higher value
a. reducing fault clearing time
b. using double circuit line instead of
single circuit line The transient stability of the power system
under unbalanced fault conditions can be
c. single pole switching
effectively improved by
d. decreasing generator inertia
1. Excitation control
35. Equal area criterion gives the information
2. phase-shifting transformer
regarding
3. single-pole switching of circuit
a. stability region
breakers
b. absolute stability
4. increasing the turbine input.
c. relative stability
Of these statements
d. swing curves
36. With a number of generators of MVA
capacities S1, S2, S3 ………………Sn and
inertia constants H1, H2 …………Hn,, c. 3 and 4 are correct
respectively connected to the same bus bar d. 1 and 3 are correct
in a station, the inertia constant of the 40. The non-uniform distribution of voltage
equivalent machine on a base of Sb is across the units in a string of suspension
given by type insulators is due to
n
a. ∑H S
i =1
i i
a. unequal self-capacitance of the units
b. non-uniform distance of separation of
n
Sb the units from the tower body
b. ∑S
i =1
.H i c. the existence of stray capacitance
i
between the metallic junctions of the
n
Si
c. ∑S .H i units and the tower body
i =1 b d. non-uniform distance between the
n
Si 1 cross-arm and the units
d. ∑S
i =1
.
Hi 41. Whenever the conductors are dead-ended
b
or there is a change in the direction of
37. The critical clearing time of a fault in transmission line, the insulators used are of
power systems is related to the
a. reactive power limit a. pin type
b. short-circuit current limit b. suspension type
c. steady-state stability limit c. strain type
d. transient stability limit d. shackle type
38. The use of fast acting relays and circuit 42. Consider the following statements :
breakers for clearing a sudden short-circuit In the case of suspension-type insulators,
on a transmission link between a generator the string efficiency can be improved ‘by
and the receiving-end bus improves the
transient stability of the machine because 1. using a longer cross arm.
the 2. using a guard ring.
a. short-circuit current becomes zero 3. grading the insulator discs.
b. post-fault transfer impedance attains a 4. reducing the cross-arm length.
value higher then that during the fault Of these statements
6 of 15
b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct figure. To improve the through-fault
c. 2 and 4 are correct stability, a stabilizing resistor is connected
between the points
43. In a power system, each bus or node is
associated with four quantities, namely
1. real power,
2. reactive power,
3. bus-voltage magnitude and
a. R and P in series
4. phase-angle of the bus voltage.
b. P and S in series
For load-flow solution, among these four,
c. P and T in series
the number of quantities to be specified is
d. P and Q in parellel
a. an one
47. One current transformer (CT) is mounted
b. any two
over a 3-phase 3-core cable with its sheath
c. any three and armour removed from the portion
d. all the four covered by the CT. An ammeter placed in
44. Match List-I (Type of relay) with List-Il the CT secondary would measure
(For the protection of) and select the a. the positive sequence current
correct answer using the codes given b. the negative sequence current
below the Lists :
c. the zero sequence current
List-I
d. three times the zero sequence
A. Buchholtz relay
48. In connection with the arc extinction in
B. Translay relay circuit breaker, resistance switching is
C. Negative sequence relay employed wherein a resistance is placed in
D. Directional over current relay parellel with the poles of the circuit
breaker as shown in the figure. This
List-II
process introduces damping in the LC
1. Feeder circuit. For critical damping, the value of
2. Transformer ‘r’ should be equal to
3. Generator
4. Long Overhead line
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4 C
a.
c. 2 1 4 3 L
d. 1 2 4 3 C
b. 0.5
45. A line trap in carrier current relaying tuned L
to carrier frequency presents
L
a. high impedance to carrier frequency c. 0.5
but low impedance to power frequency C
b. low impedance to both carrier and 1 L
d.
power frequency 2π C
c. high impedance to both carrier and 49. Load frequency control is achieved by
power frequency properly matching the individual
d. low impedance to carrier frequency but machine’s
high impedance to power frequency a. reactive powers
46. The basic circuit of circulating current b. generated voltages
system of protection is shown in the
7 of 15
c. turbine inputs a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. turbine and generator ratings b. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
50. If a voltage-controlled bus is treated as c. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
load bus, then which one of the following d. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
limits would be violated?
55. Analysis of voltage waveform of a single-
a. Voltage phase bridge converter shows that it
b. Active power contains x% of 6th harmonic. The 6th
c. Reactive power harmonic content of the voltage waveform
of a 3-phase bridge converter would be
d. Phase angle
a. less than x% due to an increase in the
51. In a conventional reverse blocking
number of pulses
thyristor
b. equal to x%, the same as that of the
a. external layers are lightly doped and
single-phase converter
internal layers are heavily doped
c. greater than x% due to changes in the
b. external layers are heavily doped and
input and output voltages of the
internal layers are lightly doped
converter
c. the p-layers are heavily doped and n-
d. difficult to predict as the analysis of
layers are lightly doped
converters is not governed by any
d. the p-layers are lightly doped and the generalised theory
n-layers are heavily doped
56. In a single-phase semi-converter with
52. If the amplitude of the gate pulse to resistive load and for a firing angle α, each
thyristor is increased, then SCR conduction and freewheeling action
a. both delay, time and rise time would take place respectively, for
increase a. α, 0°
b. the delay time would increase but the
b. π — α, α
rise time would decrease
c. π + α, α
c. the delay time would decrease but the
rise time would increase d. π — α, 0°
d. the delay time would decrease while 57. The torque produced by a single phase
the rise time remains unaffected induction motor fed through an ac voltage
53. In order to obtain static voltage controller for speed control is due to
equalization in series- connected SCRs, a. fundamental component of current as
connections are made of well as harmonics, both odd and even
a. one resister across the string b. fundamental component and even
b. resistors of different value across each harmonic of current
SCR c. fundamental component and odd
c. resistors of the same value across each harmonics of current
SCR d. fundamental component of current
d. one resistor in series with the string alone
54. Consider the following statements : 58. A dc chopper is fed from a constant
voltage main. The duty ratio α of the
The overlap angle of a phase-controlled chopper is progressively increased while
converter would ‘increase on increasing, the chopper feeds a RL load. The per unit
the current ripple would
1. supply voltage a. increase progressively
2. supply frequency b. decrease progressively
3. load current
c. decrease to a minimum value at α =
4. source inductance 0.5 and then increase
Of these statements
8 of 15
d. increase to a maximum value at α = List-II
0.5 and then decrease 1. Voltages spikes in the output voltage
59. In a two quadrant dc to dc chopper, the 2. Peaks in the inverter current
load voltage is varied from positive 3. Inductive loads of phase-controlled
maximum to negative maximum by converter
varying the time ratio of the chopper from
4. Inductive loads of dc to ac inverters
a. zero to unity
A B C D
b. unity to zero
a. 4 3 1 2
c. zero to 0.5
b. 3 4 1 2
d. 0.5.to zero
c. 3 4 2 1
60. The purpose of feedback transformer and
diode in complementary commutated in d. 4 3 2 1
verters is to 64. Match List-I with List-II and select the
a. improve the power factor of the load correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
b. return the trapped energy to source
List-I
c. improve the input power factor
A. Discontinuous conduction of the
d. adsorb more reactive power from the converter
source
B. Source inductance of the converter
61. Use of a reverse conducting thyristor in
place of antiparallel combination of C. Use of free-wheeling diode
thyristor and feedback diode in an inverter D. Symmetrical angle control
a. effectively minimises the peak List-II
commutating current 1. Additional reactive power loading
b. decreases the operating frequency of 2. Better displacement factor
operation 3. Poor power factor
c. minimises the effects to lead 4. Unity displacement factor
inductances on the commutation
performance A B C D
d. causes deterioration in the a. 3 1 2 4
commutation performance b. 1 3 2 4
62. A voltage source inverter is normally c. 1 3 4 2
employed when d. 3 1 4 2
a. source inductance is large and load 65. Avalanche photodiodes are. preferred over
inductance is small PIN diodes in optical communication
b. source inductance is small and load systems because of
inductance is large a. speed of operation
c. both source and load inductances are b. higher sensitivity
small c. larger bandwidth
d. both source and load inductances are d. larger power handling capacity
large
66. The drain source voltage at which the
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the drain current becomes nearly constant is
correct answer using the codes given called
below the Lists :
a. barrier voltage
List-I
b. breakdown voltage
A. Freewheeling diode
c. pick - off voltage
B. Feedback diode
d. pinch-off voltage
C. Current source inverter
D. Voltage source inverter
9 of 15
67. In the case of a BJT amplifier, bias b. 20 V
stability is achieved by c. 17.98 V
a. keeping the base current constant d. 14. 12 V
b. changing the base current In order to 71. A transformer coupled amplifier would
keep the IC and VCB constant give
c. keeping the temperature constant a. maximum voltage gain
d. keeping the temperature and the base b. mipedance matching
current constant
c. maximum current gain
68. The voltages at V1 and V2 of the
d. larger bandwidth
arrangement shown in the figure will be
respectively 72. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
List-I
A. Class A amplifier
B. Class B amplifier
C. Class C amplifier
D. Class AB amplifier
a. 6 V and 5.4V List-II
b. 5.4 V and 6 V 1. Hi Fidenlity
c. 3 V and 5.4 V 2. Tuned amplifier
d. 6 V and 3 V 3. Power amplifier
69. The best approximation for VC in the 4. Low distortion power
circuit shown in the figure will be (assume
5. amplifier
β to be high)
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 3 2 4
73. The overall bandwidth of two identical
voltage amplifiers connected in cascade
a. 4 V will
b. 6.8 a. remain the same as that of a single
c. 8.7 V stage
d. 10.7 V b. be worse than that of a single stage
70. For the full-wave rectifier shown in the c. be better than that of a single stage
figure, the rms voltage across each diode d. be better if stage gain is low and worse
will be (assume the diodes and the if stage gain is high
transformer to be ideal)
74. If the differential and common mode gains
of a differential amplifier are 50 and 0.2
respectively, then the CMRR will be
a. 10
b. 49.8
c. 50.2
d. 250
a. 28.28 V
10 of 15
75. An operational amplifier can be connected 78. A unit positive step is applied at the input
as a non-inverting voltage comparator as of the circuit shown in the figure. After 20
shown in seconds, the output V0 will be
a.
a. + 20 V
b. + 10 V
c. – 10 V
b. d. – 20 V
79. A clipping circuit is shown in the given
Fig. I. Its transfer characteristic will be as
shown. in
c.
d.
output voltage will be
a.
a. 9 V
b. 10 V b.
c. 11 V
d. 12V
77. The open-loop gain of an operational
amplifier is 105. An input signal of 1 m V
is applied to the inverting input with the
non-inverting connected to the ground.
The supply voltages are ±10 V. The output c.
of the amplifier will be
a. + 100V
b. – 100V
c. 10 V (approximately)
d. – 10 V (approximately)
d.
11 of 15
80. Which one of low-pass filter the following b. ( A + B) + ( A + B)
correctly depicts the output of a to a pulse
input c. ( A + B ) AB
d. A + B + AB
83. Which one of the following is an non-valid
BCD code?
a. 0111 1001
b. 0101 1011
a. c. 0100 1000
d. 0100 1001
84. The expression X + Y( )( X + Y ) ( X + Y ) is
equivalent to
a. XY
b. XY
b.
c. X Y
d. XY
85. The output X of the circuit shown in the
figure will be
c.
a. AB
b. AB
c. AB
d. AB
d. 86. The output ‘F of the circuit shown in the
81. The output voltage of the circuit shown in given figure is
the given figure is
a. 1.0 V
b. 1.5 V
c. 2.0 V
a. AB
d. 2.5 V
82. The output of an EX-OR gate with A and b. AB
B as inputs will c. AB + AB
a. AB + AB d. AB + AB
12 of 15
87. The block diagram of an AM receiver is d. None of the counts
shown in the figure. The missing block 91. Which one of the following is an example
and its location are respectively of non-vola-tile memory
a. Static RAM
b. Dynamic RAM
c. ROM
d. Cache memory
92. Ab RRC instruction in 8085
microprocessor instruction set will affect
a. CY, S, Z flags
a. BPF at A
b. CY flag
b. HPF at B
c. S flag
c. BPF at C
d. Z flag
d. LPF at D
93. In a 8085 microprocessor, the following
88. In the circuit shown in the figure, Q = 0,
sequence of instructions is executed :
initially. When clock pulses are applied,
the subsequent states of ‘Q’ will be STC
CMC
MOVE A, B
RAL
MOVE B,A
After the last unstruction the output will
a. rotate the contents of the accunulator
and store it in B
a. 1,0,1,0…………… b. get the contents of B register into
b. 0,0,0,0…………… accumulator and rotate it to left by one
bit
c. 1,1,1,1……………
c. double contents of B register
d. 0, 1,0, 1…………..
d. manipulate carry in A and B
89. For the diode matrix shown in the figure,
the output Y1 will be 94. The highest priority in 8085
microprocessor system is
a. RST 7.5
b. RST 6.5
c. INTR
d. TRAP
95. In 8085 microprocessor system, the direct
addressing instruction is
a. X0X2 a. MOV A, B
b. X1X3 b. MOV B, OAH
c. X1 + X3 c. MOV C, M
d. X0 + X2 d. STA addr
90. If a mod-6 counter is constructed using 3- 96. A fragment of assembly code is given
flip-flops, the counter will skip below for 8085 :
a. 4 counts El
b. 3 counts MVI 09
c. 2 counts SIM
13 of 15
This sequence of instructions d. zero
a. Enables RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and RST 101. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by
5.5 two sine waves with modulation indices of
b. Enables RST 7.5 and RST 6.5 and 0.4 and 0.3. The resultant modulation
disables RST 5.5 index will be
c. Enables RST7.5 and disables RST 6.5 a. 1.0
and RST 5.5 b. 0.7
d. Disables RST 7.5, RST 6.5 and RST c. 0.5
5.5 d. 0.35
97. Consider the following Assembly 102. In FM, modulation index mf is equal to (Δ
Language program: f is the frequency deviation and fm is the
MVIA, 30 H modulating signal frequency)
ACI, 30H a. Δf.f m
XRA, A fm
POP H b.
Δf
After the execution of the above program, Δf
the contents of the c.
fm
Accumulator will be
a. 30 H 1
d.
b. 60 H Δf .f m
c. 00 H 103. The most useful modulation technique for
high fidelity audio broadcasting on radio
d. contents of Stack
in current practice is
98. The rms thermal noise currents of three
a. amplitude modulation
resistors are I1, 12 and I3 respectively. If
these resistors are connected in parallel, b. frequency modulation
the total equivalent noise current ‘I’ will c. pulse amplitude modulation
be d. pulse code modulation
a. I1 + I2 + I3 104. In a 100% amplitude modulated signal, if
b. (I1 + I2 + I3)1/3 the total transmitted power is P, then the
c. I21 + 122 + I23 carrier power will be
d. √ I1 + I2 + I3 a.
2
P
99. The capacity of channel is given by the 3
a. number of digits used in coding 1
b. P
b. volume of information it can take 2
c. maximum rate of information 1
c. P
transmitted 3
d. bandwidth required for information 1
d. P
100. In respect of the block diagram shown in 4
the figure, the input power is I m W. The 105. Match List-I (Types of analog
output power P0 will be communication) with List-II (System
bandwidth) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I
a. 2 m W A. Single sideband AM
b. 1 m W B. Wideband FM
c. 0.5 m W C. Vestigial sideband AM
14 of 15
D. Double sideband AM Reason (R) : Skewing of the rotor slots of
List-II an induction motor reduces the effects of
slot harmonics.
1. BW proportional to modulation index
2. Bw = 2x maximum signal frequency,
Fmax
3. fmax < BW < 2fmax
4. BW = fmax
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
111. Assertion (A) : In a cylindrical rotor
b. 4 1 3 2 synchronous machine, the armature
c. 1 4 2 3 reaction flux a Φ is in phase with the
d. 4 1 2 3 armature current I but in a salient-pole
106. A speech signal occupying the band width machine Φa is not in phase with I.
of 300 Hz to 3 kHz is converted into PCM Reason (R) : The reluctances along the
format for use in digital communication. If direct axis and the quadrature axis being
the sampling frequency is 8 kHz and each different, the ratios of the mmfs and the
sample is quantized into 256 levels, than respective fluxes in the two cases are not
the output bit rate will be equal.
a. 3 kb/s a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. 8 kb/s correct explanation of A
c. 64 kb/s b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
d. 256kb/s
107. Message switching in computer
communication d. A is false but R is true
a. is a store and forward system 112. Assertion (A) : One-phase supply can be
converted to a 3- phase supply with the
b. requires a dedicated path between help of a suitable transformer.
transmitter and receiver
Reason (R) : 3-phase supply can be
c. is used only for long messages converted to a 1-phase supply by a suitable
d. does not require a buffer at transmitter transformer.
108. In order to obtain monochrome display in a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a colour TV monitor, the green, red and correct explanation of A
blue colors are respectively added in the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
proportion correct explanation of A
a. 0.59, .20, and 0.21 c. A is true but R is false
b. 0.60, 0.25 and 0.15 d. A is false but R is true
c. 0.59, 0.30, and 0.11 113. Assertion (A) : The concept of self-GMD
d. 0.60, 0.10 and 0.30 is applicable for the calculation of
109. A broadcast radio receiver with IF = 455 inductance of transmission lines.
kHz is tuned to 1500 kHz. The image Reason (R) : The radius of a conductor of
frequency will be transmission lines, in the expression for
a. 1045 kHz. inductance is not the self GMD of the
b. 1500 kHz conductor.
c. 1955 kHz a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. 2410 kHz
110. Assertion (A) : The winding factor of slot correct explanation of A
harmonics is equal to that of the
fundamental. c. A is true but R is false
15 of 15
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : A thyristor requires a definite
114. Assertion (A): The bulk supply into the amount of time to regain forward blocking
large urban areas is often carried out by capability after its current has become
underground cables operating at 132 kV zero.
and above. This results in large generation a. Both A and R are true and R is the
of VARs by the cable and consequent rise correct explanation of A
in voltage at the receiving end. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
Reason (R) : These VARs may be correct explanation of A
neutralised by using series capacitance in c. A is true but R is false
the line at appropriate intervals.
118. Assertion (A) : A 3-phase thyristorised full
converter feeding a purely resistive load
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a with delayed firing angle of thyristors will
correct explanation of A draw reactive power from the ac supply.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : The ac supply current at
d. A is false but R is true delayed firing angle will be non-sinusoidal
115. Assertion (A) : A short length of cable and its fundamental component would lad,
between an overhead line and the the supply voltage.
substation is effective in reducing the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
incoming surge voltage. correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The surge impedance of the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
cable is quite low when compared with correct explanation of A
that of the incoming overhead line. c. A is true but R is false
119. Assertion (A) : The gain of an RC coupled
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a CE amplifier falls off at low frequencies.
Reason (R) : The low frequency response
c. A is true but R is false depends on the transistor junction
d. A is false but R is true capacitance.
116. Assertion (A) : Residual earth fault relays a. Both A and R are true and R is the
cannot give satisfactory protection in the correct explanation of A
case of resonant earthed system. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
Reason (R) : Earth fault currents are very correct explanation of A
large. c. A is true but R is false
120. Assertion (A) : Read only memory (ROM)
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a is a random access memory.
Reason (R) : Time taken to access any
c. A is true but R is false location of ROM is the same.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are true and R is the
117. Assertion (A) : During inverter operation correct explanation of A
of a phase controlled thyristor power b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a
converter, the upper value of firing angle correct explanation of A
range is limited to a value of less than
1800.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 1999 1 of 14
PAPER–II
1. A thermal generating station has an d. 0.1 pu
installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a 5. A short transmission line has a total
daily load of 10 MW for 12 hours and 5 resistance of 2Ω, reactance of 3Ω, current
MW for remaining 12 hours. The plant of 125 A and pf of 0.8. Regulation in
capacity factor for this station is percentage is equal to
a. 1 a. 1.9
b. 0.75 b. 0.38
c. 0.67 c. 3.8
d. 0.5 d. 0.19
2. Power output (in kW) of a hydro power 6. A star-connected 3-phase 11 kV. 25 MVA
station is equal to (Q = discharge in m3/s, q alternators with its neutral grounded
overall. efficiency of the plant, h = head in through a 0.033 Pu reactance (based on the
m, ω = density of water) alternator rating) has positive negative and
75 Qω h zero-sequence reactance’s of 0.2 pu, 0.1 pu
a.
0.736 η and 0.1 pu respectively. A single line to
ground fault on one of its terminals would
0.736
b. Qω hη result in a fault current of
75 a. 150 MVA
750 Qθη b. 125 MVA
c.
0.736 h c. 100 MVA
0.736 Qhη d. 50 MVA
d.
750 ω 7. Compared to Gauss-Seidel method,
3. Consider following moderators used in Newton-Raphson method takes
nuclear reactors: a. less number of iterations and more
1. Graphite time per iteration
2. Beryllium b. less number of iterations and less time
3. Heavy water per. iteration
Their correct sequence in increasing order c. more number of iterations and more
of their neutron absorption cross-sections time per iteration
is d. more number of iterations and less
a. 1, 3, 2 time per iteration
b. 2, 1, 3 8. An infinite bus of 1 Pu is fed from a
c. 3, 1, 2 synchronous machine having E = 1.1 Pu.
If the transfer reactance between them is
d. 3, 2, 1
0.5 pu, the steady stat? power limit will be
4. 3-phase alternator rated at 50 MVA, 22 kV
a. 1.1 pu
has a synchronous reactance per phase of 5
Pu on its thermal rating. The pu value of b. 0.5 pu
this reactance on a base of 100 MVA and c. 2.2 Pu
220 kV is d. 1 pu
a. 25 pu 9. The positive sequence current for a L - L
b. 12.5 Pu fault of a 2 kV system is 1400 A, and
c. 1 pu corresponding current for a L - L - G fault
2 of 14
is 2220 A. The zero sequence impedance
of the system is
a. 62.75 Ω
b. 4.5275 Ω
c. 5.275 Ω
d. 0.5275 Ω
10. The inertia constant of a 100 MVA, 50 Hz,
4-pole generator is 10 MJ/MVA. If the
The equivalent capacitor arrangement of a
mechanical input to the machine is
two-string insulator is shown in the above
suddenly raised from 50 MW to 75 MW
figure. The maximum voltage that each
the rotor acceleration will be equal to
unit can withstand should not exceed 17.5
a. 225 electrical degree/s2 kV. The line-voltage of the complete string
b. 22.5 electrical degree/s2 is
c. 125 electrical degree/s2 a. 17.5 kV
d. 12.5 electrical degree/s2 b. 33 kV
11. A surge of 260 kV traveling in a line of c. 35 kV
natural impedance of 500Ω arrives at a d. 37.3 kV
junction with two lines of natural
impedances of 250Ω and 50Ω
1. By using bundle conductors in an
respectively. The voltage transmitted in
overhead line, the corona loss is
the branch lines is
reduced.
a. 400kV
2. By using bundle conductors, the
b. 260 kV inductance of transmission line
c. 80 kV increases and capacitance reduces;
d. 40 kV 3. Corona loss causes interference in
12. Insulation coordination of UHV lines adjoining communication lines.
(above 500 kV) is, done based on Which of these statements are correct?
a. lightning surges a. 1 and 2
b. lightning surges and switches surges b. 2 and 3
c. switching surges c. 1 and 3
d. None of the above d. 1, 2 and 3
13. The number of discs in a string of 17. Which one of the following sequences of
insulators for 400 kV ac overhead operations represents the rated operating
transmission line lies in the range of duty cycle of a circuit breaker?
a. 32 to 33 (O - open; C - close; t = 3 sec.; T = 3 mm.)
b. 22 to 23 a. O – t - C0 – T - CO
c. 15 to 16 b. O – CO – t – CO – T – C
d. 9 to 10 c. O – C – T – OC – T
14. The insulation resistance of a single-core d. O – CO – T – CO – T - C
cable is 200 MΩ/km. The insulation 18.
resistance for 5 km length is
a. 40 MΩ
b. 1000 MΩ
c. 200MΩ
d. 8 MΩ
15.
3 of 14
With the usual notation, the impedance
matrix for the system shown in the above
figure is
⎡3 1 ⎤
a. ⎢ ⎥
⎣1 3⎦
⎡ 3 / 8 −1/ 8⎤ The distribution system shown in the
b. ⎢ ⎥ above figure is to be protected by over-
⎣ −1/ 8 3 / 8 ⎦ current system of protection. For proper
⎡ 6 / 5 4 / 5⎤ fault discrimination, directional over-
c. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 4 / 5 6 / 5⎦ current relays will be required at locations
a. 1 and 4
⎡5 4⎤
d. ⎢ ⎥ b. 2 and 3
⎣4 5⎦ c. 1, 4 and 5
19. A 3-phase circuit breaker is rated at 2000 d. 2, 3 and 5
MVA, 33 kV; its making current will be
23. If the fault current is 2 kA, the relay
a. 35 kA setting is 50% arid the CT ratio is 400/5,
b. 49 kA then plug setting multiplier will be
c. 70 kA a. 25
d. 89 kA b. 15
20. Line trap at coupling capacitors are used c. 50
for carrier current protection in which d. 12.5
a. line trap has high impedance to 50 Hz 24. A three-phase 11/66 kV, delta/star
signal but low impedance to carrier transformer, protected by Merz-price
current signal whereas a coupling scheme has CT ratio of 400/5 on L.T. side.
capacitor has low impedance to 50 Hz Ratio of C.T. on H.T. side will be equal to
signal but high impedance to carrier
a. 1 : 23
signal
b. 23 : 1
b. line trap has low impedance to 50Hz
signal but high impedance to carrier c. 23 : 3
current signal, whereas a coupling d. 3 : 23
capacitor has high impedance to 50 Hz
signal but low impedance to carrier 25. Which one of the following statements in
signal respect of HVDC transmission line is not
correct?
c. both line trap and coupling capacitor
have low impedance to 50 Hz signal a. the power transmission capability of
but high impedance to carrier current bipolar line is almost the same as that
signal of single circuit ac line
d. both line trap and coupling capacitor b. HVDC link line can operate between
have high impedance to 50 Hz signal two ac systems whose frequencies
but low impedance to carrier current need not be equal
signal c. There is no distance limitation for
21. Four alternators, each rated at 5 MVA, 11 HVDC transmission by UG cable
kV with 20% reactance are working in d. Corona loss is much higher in HVDC
parallel. The short-circuit level at bus bars transmission line
is 26. In a 3-phase converter used in HVDC
a. 6.25 MVA transmission, the three anodes conduct
b. 20 MVA sequentially. Due to overlap caused by the
circuit inductance, two anodes conduct
c. 25 MVA simultaneously during the overlap period
d. 100 MVA The output voltage waveform during this
22. period is the
4 of 14
a. voltage of the 1st anode, because the firing angle α min = φ where
2nd anode has not completely taken
φ = tan −1 (ω L / R ) .
over
b. mean of the two anode voltages, as Reason (R): In an ac voltage regulator
they conduct together feeding R — L load, control is lost if
c. voltage of the 2nd anode, because the α min < φ .
voltage of this anode is greater than a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
that of the 1st correct explanation of A
d. sum of the 1st and the 2nd anode b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
voltages, because both the anodes are the correct explanation of A
conducting c. A is true but R is false
27. If, for a given alternator in economic d. A is false but R is true
operation mode, the incremental cost is 32. Assertion (A): A 64 input MUX can be
given by (0.012P +8) Rs./mwh, dPL / dP = built by using eight 8 input multiplexers
0.2 and plant λ = 25, then the power
Reason (R): Any six variable functions can
generation is
always be implemented by a multiplexer
a. 1000 MW with six address lines.
b. 1250 MW a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
c. 750 MW correct explanation of A
d. 1500 MW b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
28. Load frequency control uses the correct explanation of A
a. proportional controllers alone c. A is true but R is false
b. integral controllers alone d. A is false but R is true
c. both proportional and integral 33. Assertion (A): The input resistance of a
controllers silicon JFET is of the order of tens or
d. either proportional or integral huntlreds of megaohms.
controllers Reason (R): The gate-source junction of
29. Two generators rated at 200 MW and 400 JFET is a reverse biased silicon diode and
MW are operating in parallel. Both the hence only a very small leakage current
governors have a drop of 4%, when the flows through the gate.
total load is 300 MW They share the load a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
as (suffix ‘1’ is used for generator 200 correct explanation of A
MW and suffix ‘2’ is used for generator b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
400 MW) the correct explanation of A
a. P1 = 100 MW and P2 = 200MW c. A is true but R is false
b. P1 = 150 MW and P2 = 150 MW d. A is false but R is true
c. P1 = 200 MW and P2 = 100 MW 34. Assertion (A): The per unit impedance of a
d. P1 = 200 MW and P2 = 400 MW synchronous machine is the reciprocal of
30. Assertion (A): dc series motors are used short-circuit ratio of the machine
to drive electric locomotives. Reason (R): For the computation of the
Reason (R): dc series motor develop high short-circuit ratio, the field excitation to
torque at high speed. generate rated voltage on open-circuit
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the should be read from the open-circuit
correct explanation of A characteristic of the machine.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
31. Assertion (A): If an ac-voltage regulator is
feeding and R — L ked, the minimum d. A is false but R is true
5 of 14
35. Assertion (A): The switching function F = b. 22.22 mA, 8.61 mA and 12.3mA
Σ(0 - 3, 12 - 15) does not have a unique c. 28.33 mA, 14.61 mA and 13.33 mA
minimal sum of product form. d. 40 mA, 20 mA and 25 mA
Reason (R) The switching function F = 39. The transition capacitance of a diode is 1
Σ(0 - 3, 7, 12 - 15) has cyclic prime nF and it can withstand reverse potential of
implicants. 400 V.A capacitance of 2 nF which can
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the withstand a reverse potential of 1 kV is
correct explanation of A obtained by connecting
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. two 1 nF diodes in parallel
the correct explanation of A b. six parallel branches with each branch
c. A is true but R is false comprising three 1 nF diodes in series
d. A is false but R is true c. two 1 nF diodes in series
36. Assertion (A): The maximum possible d. three parallel branches with each
output frequency of the basic series branch comprising six 1 nF diodes in
inverter, using SCR’s T1 and T2 is limited series
to the resonant frequency. 40.
Reason (R): Thyristor T2 can only be fired
when thyristor T1 is OFF and vice-versa,
otherwise a dead short-circuit will take
place across the dc supply.
the correct explanation of A The circuit of a class B push-pull amplifier
c. A is true but R is false shown in the above figure. If the peak
d. A is false but R is true output voltage VO is 16 V, the power
37. drawn from the dc source would be
a. 10 W
b. 16 W
c. 20 W
d. 32 W
41. An FET source follower circuit has gm of
2 m band rd of 50 k . If the source
resistance RS is 1 kΩ, the output resistance
of the amplifier will be
A 5 V reference is drawn from the circuit a. 330 Ω
shown in the above figure. If the zener b. 450 Ω
diode is of 5 mV and 5 V, then RZ will be
c. 500 Ω
a. 50 Ω
d. 1 k Ω
b. 500 Ω
42. If the counters of INTEL 8253
c. 5000 Ω (programmable interval timer) are loaded
d. 50000 Ω with a hew value while counting, then
38. A voltage of 200 cos 100 t is applied to a a. the counter will stop counting
half-wave rectifier with a load resistance b. the counter will ignore the new. loaded
of 5 kΩ. The rectifier is represented by an value d continue to count as per
ideal diode in series with a resistance of 1 previous loaded value
kΩ. The maximum value of current, dc c. the counter will start counting
component of current and rms value of backwards
current will be respectively d. counting will restart from the new
a. 33.33 mA, 10.61 mA and 16.67 mA value of count which has been loaded
6 of 14
43.
In the circuit shown in the above figure,

the value of output ‘vo’ is
a. + 3 V
Assume VBE = 0.7 V and β = 50 for the b. - 3 V
transistor in the circuit shown in the above c. - 7 V
figure. For VCE = 2 V, the value of RB is d. + 7 V
a. 200 kΩ 48.
b. 242 kΩ
c. 283 kΩ
d. 300 kΩ
44. In the shunt series feedback amplifier, the
basic amplifier and the feedback network
are parallel connected at the input and
series connected at the output. The signal
sampled and the summing done will be
The Op-amp in the above circuit shows a
respectively
unity-gain bandwidth of 1 MHz and a
a. current and current dominant pole at 10 Hz. The bandwidth of
b. current and voltage the non-inverting amplifier will be
c. voltage and current a. 10 MHz
d. voltage and voltage b. 1 MHz
45. A transistor amplifier has a voltage gain of c. 250 kHz
50, input resistance of 1 kΩ and output d. 200 kHz
resistance of 40 kΩ. The amplifier is now 49. The speed of rotation of a shaft is
provided 10% negative voltage feedback measured by using a 120 teeth wheel and
in series with the input. With feedback, the an inductive pick up. The reading on a
voltage gain, input resistance and output digital frequency meter is 3000 with a
resistance will be respectively gating period of 10 micro-seconds. The
a. 8,7 kΩ and 3 kΩ shaft speed would be
b. 8.33, 6 kΩ and 6.66 kΩ a. 750 rpm
c. 5.33, 8.33 kΩ and 8.66 kΩ b. 1500 rpm
d. 6.66, 8.86 kΩ and 6.66 kΩ c. 3000 rpm
46. In an inverting amplifier, the two input d. 3600 rpm
terminals of an ideal Op-amp are at the 50. Consider the following statements
same potential because 1. A NAND gate is equivalent to an OR
a. the two input terminals are directly gate with its inputs inverted.
shorted internally 2. A NOR gate is equivalent to an AND
b. the input impedance of the Op-amp is gate with its inputs inverted.
infinity 3. A NAND gate is equivalent to an OR
c. CMRR is infinity gate with its outputs inverted.
d. the open-loop gain of the Op-amp is 4. A NOR gate is equivalent to an AND
infinity gate with its output inverted.
47. Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
7 of 14
b. 2 and 3 Consider the following statements:
c. 3 and 4 The circuit in the above figure is the high
d. 1 and 4 frequency equivalent of a CE amplifier,
51. lithe upper cut-off frequency ωH = 1/ T
where T = RC, then
1. R = RS = rπ
2. R = RS parallel rπ
3. C = Cπ + Cμ
4. C = Cπ + Cμ (1 + gm RL)
a. 1 and 3
An Op-amp with an open-loop gain of b. 1 and 4
10,000. Rm =2 kΩ and RO = 5000 is used
c. 2 and 3
in the non-inverting configuration as
shown in the above figure. The output d. 2 and 4
resistance Rof is 55.
a. 250.5 Ω
b. 21 Ω
c. 2 Ω
d. 0.998 Ω
52.
The counter shown in the above figure has
initially Q2Q1 Q0 = 000. The status of Q2
Q1 Q0 after the first pulse is
a. 001
b. 010
Which one of the gates labelled 1, 2, 3 and c. 100
4 in the network shown in the above figure d. 101
is redundant? 56. A system which accepts as M-bit word and
a. 1 establishes the state “1” on one and only
b. 2 one of 2M output lines is called
c. 3 a. decoder
d. 4 b. demultiplexer
53. In a JK flip-flop, J is connected to Q and K c. multiplexer
is connected to Q outputs. The JK flip-flop d. encoder
converrts into a 57. The number of comparators needed in a 4-
a. R — S flip-flop bit flash-type A/D converter is
b. D flip-flop a. 32
c. T flip-flop b. 15
d. clocked R — S flip-flop c. 8
54. d. 4
58. in 8085 microprocessor whenever the POP
H instruction is executed
a. data bytes in the HL pair are stored in
the stack
b. two data bytes at the top of the stack
are transferred to the HL pair
8 of 14
c. two data bytes at the top of the stack II (their function) and select the correct
are transferred to PC answer:
d. two data bytes horn the HL registers List I
that were previously stored on the A. 8255 A
stack on transferred back to the HL B. 8254
pair
C. 8259
59. A 3-bit resistance ladder D/A (R-2R
D. i 8096
network) has resistor values of R = 10 kΩ
List II
and 20 kΩ. If Vref = 8 V. I0 for a digital
input of 111 will be 1. Interrupt controller
a. 0.1 mA 2. Microcontroller
b. 0.2 mA 3. Counter
c. 0.7mA 4. Pripheral interface
d. 1 mA Codes;
60. Which one of the following is a correct A B C D
statements in connection with commands a. 3 4 2 1
of CMP and CPI b. 4 3 2 1
a. CMP takes less number of m/c cycles c. 4 3 1 2
compared to CP1 d. 3 4 1 2
b. CMP takes more number of m/c cycles 65.
compared to CPI
c. Both CMP and CPI take the same
number of m/c cycles
d. CMP takes either less or the same
number of m/c cycles as compared to
CPI
61. The instruction queue length in INTEL Consider a signal f(x) sampled at t = 0, 1,
8086 and 8088 are 2, 3, ……. as shown in the above figure.
a. 6 bytes in both processors. The expression for the sampled signal is
b. 4 bytes in both processors. a. {f(x).n} where n = number of samples
c. 4 bytes in 8086 and 6 bytes in 8088 b. {f(x)δ(t, n)} where δ(t, n) kronek or
d. 6 bytes in 8086 and 4 bytes in 8088 delta n = 0, 1,2, ………
62. A four-bit BCD(DCBA) for numeral 9 can c. {f(x).Δn} where Δ = constant equal to
be decoded most economically by the sample duration
logic operation d. not possible to write
a. AD 66. If the clock has a frequency of 5 MHz,
b. ABD then the execution time for ADD memory
c. ACD to register instruction using based indexed
relative addressing (result put in register)
d. ABCD required is
63. A program accesses ten continuous
a. 4.8 μs
memory locations. The CPU will take less
time if the addressing mode used is b. 4.9 μs
a. direct c. 5 μs
b. implicit d. 5.1 μs
c. register indirect 67. In conventional AM super heterodyne
d. immediate receivers, the detectors employed to
extract intelligence include
64. Match List I (chips related to
microprocessors and controllers) with List a. peak detectors
b. ratio detectors
9 of 14
c. phase locked loops a. depends upon the sampling frequency
d. slope detectors employed
68. The characteristic impedance of a b. is independent of the value of n
transmission line with series impedance Z c. decreases with increasing value of n
ohms per unit length and shunt admittance d. increases with increasing value of n
Y mhos per unit length, is given by 74. A PWM signal can be generated by
(Z +Y )
2
a. a. an astable multivibrator
b. a monostable multivibrator
b. ( Z .Y ) c. integrating a PPM signal
c. (Z / Y ) d. differentiating a PPM signal
75. Medium wave radio signal can be received
(Z / Y )
2
d. at far off distances at night because
69. The suitable programmable counter for a. radio waves travel faster at night
8086 microprocessors is b. ground wave attenuation is lower at
a. 8253 chip night
b. 8254 chip c. sky wave is stronger at. Night
c. 8259A chip d. there is no fading at night
d. 8251 chip 76. The fetch and execute instructions are
repeatedly executed by the microprocessor
70. 70. If two stages with noise figures F1 and
until the power is switched OFF The
F2 and gall-is G1 and G2 are cascaded, the
microprocessor enters into a loop
resultant noise figure F will be
described by while power is on do
F −1
a. F1 + 2 begin
G1
fetch the next instruction
F2 − 1 execute this instruction
b. F1 +
G2 end
F1 − 1 These two tasks are sequential. Which one
c. + F2 of the following microprocessors does not
G2
follow this sequence?
F1 − 1
d. + F2 a. 8085
G1 b. Z 80
71. In TV systems, the modulation methods c. 8086
employed for video and audio signals are d. 68000
a. both amplitude modulation 77. Which one of the, following layers is the
b. both frequency modulation service provider for transport layer of OSI
c. respectively amplitude modulation and model?
frequency modulation a. Network layer
d. respectively frequency modulation and b. Session layer
amplitude modulation c. Transport layer of another station
72. For an AM wave having a power of 800 W d. Physical layer
at its carrier frequency and modulation
78. A 4-bit Johnson counter is initialized to
index of 90%, the power content of each
0101. Whenever the state 1011 is reached
side-band is
the counter is reinitialized to 0000 at the
a. 81W next closed active edge. Again when the
b. 162W state 0001 s reached, the counter is
c. 200W initialized back to 0101 at the next clock
d. 400W active edge. The cycle length of the
73. The signal to quantization noise ratio in an counter is
n-bit PCM system a. 6
10 of 14
b. 8 a. 3 (V + V
1
2
3
2
)
c. 16
d. 32 b. 3V1
79. ⎛ V ⎞
c. 3 ⎜ V1 + 3 ⎟
⎝ 3⎠
V32
d. V12 +
3
82.
1.
An electromechanical energy conversion
device is shown in the above figure. The
instantaneous values of armature induced
emf, bus bar voltage and armature current
are respectively e, v and i, Te, Ta and ωr
present external torque, armature
developed torque and angular velocity of
shaft respectively. Assume that the given 2.
directions of parameters in the figure are
positive. If the device is working in
generating mode then
a. all parameters will have the positive
direction
b. e, v, Te and ωr will have negative
direction and others will remain in 3.
positive direction
c. Ta and i will have negative direction
and others will remain in positive
direction
d. Te and ωr will have negative direction
and others will remain in positive
Three singly-excited electromagnetic
direction
structures are shown in the above figures
80. A torroidal ferromagnetic ring is uniformly labelled 1, 2 and 3 (R - Rotor, S - Stator).
wound with copper wire of certain turns. A The reluctance torque can be developed in
dc voltage V1 is applied across the
a. 1 and 3
winding to cause a uniform flux density in
the ring. If the linear dimensions of the b. 1 alone
ring, number of turns and length of a mean c. 2 and 3
turn are doubled without changing the d. 2 alone
gauge of the wire, the dc voltage required 83. Consider the following statements
to be applied across the new winding to regarding the magnetisation characteristics
produce the same flux density will be of a dc generator:
a. V1/2 1. It represents the variation of field flux
b. V1 with field current.
c. 2V1 2. Variation of open-circuit terminal
d. 4V1 voltage with field current is
81. In a 3-phase star connected generator, if independent of speed.
the fundamental and third harmonic rms 3. It is non-Linear from zero to rated field
voltages in each phase are respectively V1 current.
and V3, the line voltage of he generator 4. It helps to determine critical field
will be resistance at a given period.
11 of 14
5. It always starts from the origin. d. rich in third harmonic and its
Which of these statements are correct? fundamental would lag the voltage by
a. 1 and 4 less than 90°
b. 1, 2 and 5 89. The zero power factor characteristic for
the Potier’s diagram can be obtained by
c. 2, 3 and 4
loading the alternator using
d. 3 and 5
a. lamp load
84. If two 8-pole & machines of identical
b. synchronous motor
armatures are wound one with lap winding
arid the other with wave winding, then c. water load
a. wave wound machine will have more d. dc motor
rated current and more voltage 90. If all other requirements for parallel
b. lap wound machines will have more operation of transformer are fulfilled,
rated voltage and more current which one of following pairs of three-
phase transformers, with given VECTOR
c. lap wound machine will have more
GROUPS, can be operated in parallel?
rated voltage and less current
a. Y d 1 and Yy 0
d. wave wound machine will have more
rated voltage and less current b. Y d 1 and Dy 11
85. If the speed of a dc motor increases with c. Dd 6 and Dy 1
load torque, then it is a d. Dd 0 and Dy 11
a. series motor 91. When short-circuit test on a transformer is
b. permanent magnet motor performed at 25 V, 50 Hz, the drawn
current ‘I1’ is at a lagging p.f. angle of φ1.
c. differentially compounded motor
If the test is performed at 25 V, 25 Hz and
d. cumulatively compounded motor the drawn current “I2’ is at a lagging p.f.
86. Full-load voltage regulation of a power angle of φ, then
transformer is zero, when power factor of
a. I2 > I1 and φ2 < φ1
the load is neat
a. unity and leading b. I2 > I1 and φ2 < φ1
b. zero and leading c. I2 < I1 and φ2 > φ1
c. zero and lagging d. I2 < I1 and φ2 > φ1
d. unity and lagging 92. A synchronous motor with negligible
armature resistance runs at a load angle of
87. In a single-phase transformer, the
20° at the rated frequency. If supply
magnitude of leakage reactance is twice
frequency is increased by 10%, keeping
that of resistance of both primary and
other parameters constant, the new load
secondary. With secondary short-circuited,
angle will be
the input power factor is
a. 16°
a. 1/ 2
b. 18°
b. 1/ 5 c. 20°
c. 2/ 5 d. 22°
d. 1/3 93. A synchronous motor is running from an
88. If a sinusoidal voltage source is connected infinite bus of voltage Vt in steady-stat, at
to a power transformer, its no-load current about 50% of its rated load with a power-
would be angle δ1, between Vt and Ef (induced
a. sinusoidal and lagging the voltage by voltage). The load is suddenly decreased to
90° 25%. Ef attains its new steady-state power-
angle δ2 with Vt by initially,
b. sinusoidal and lagging the voltage by
less than 90° a. falling behind and making a complete
rotation
c. rich in third harmonic and its
fundamental would lag the voltage by b. advancing and making a complete
90° rotation
12 of 14
c. falling behind, followed by oscillation 97. A 3-phase induction motor is driving a
about δ2 content torque load of 1 Pu at 5% slip. It
d. advancing, followed by oscillation has a maximum torque of 2 Pu at 10% slip.
about δ2 Torque-speed variation in stable zone is
assumed to be linear. For the stable
94. The two-reaction phasor diagram of a
operation of the motor, the minimum pu
salient-pole synchronous generator is
supply voltage is approximately
considered, where
a. 0.25
Ia = armature current per phase, X1 =
armature leakage reactance per phase, Xd = b. 0.50
direct-axis synchronous reactance, Xq = c. 0.707
quadrature-axis synchronous reactance and d. 0.80
V = generator terminal voltage, taken as 98. Slip test is performed to determine
reference. a. Slip
The voltage in phase with the direct-axis b. direct axis reactance and quadrature
will be the phasor-sum of axis
a. V + Iara + IaX1 c. positive sequence reactance and
b. V + Iara + IaXd negative sequence reactance
c. V + Iara + IaXq d. sub-transient reactance
d. V + Iara + Ia(Xd + Xq) 99. Match List I (methods of full-load
95. Consider the following statements : The regulation of 25 MVA alternator at 0.8
syunchronous generators used in thermal Power factor lagging) with list II (%
power stations have regulation):
1. cylindrical rotors List I
2. slip rings and brushes A. emf
3. laminated rotor B. mmf
4. stator slots in multiples of 6 C. ZPF
5. 3-phase star connected stator windings List II
Which of these statements are correct? 1. 13%
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. 18%
b. 1, 2, 3 and 5 3. 32%
c. 3, 4 and 5 A B C
d. 1, 2, 4 and 5 a. 3 1 2
96. Match List I with List II and select the b. 1 3 2
correct answer: c. 2 3 1
List I d. 1 2 3
A. Single-phase inductor motor 100. 100. As compared to DOL starting, a cage
B. 3-phase slip ring induction motor induction motor with star-delta starting
C. 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor shall have
List II a. more starting torque
1. Rotor resistance starting b. more starting time
2. Not self-starting c. reduced starting current
3. Auto-transformer starting d. smoother acceleration
Codes; 101. The speed of a 3-phase induction motor is
A B C controlled from 1 pu to 2 pu using a
variable frequency inverter. The equivalent
a. 2 1 3
circuit parameter most likely to vary is
b. 1 2 3
a. stator leakage inductance
c. 2 3 1
b. rotor leakage inductance
d. 3 1 2
c. magnetizing inductance
13 of 14
d. core loss resistance a. one resistor across the suing
102. b. resistors of different values across each
SCR
c. resistors of the value across each SCR
d. one resistor in series with the string
107. An SCR has half cycle surge current of
rating-of 3000 A for 50 Hz supply. One
cycle urge current rating will be
The phasor diagram of a synchronous
a. 1500 A
machine connected to an infinite bus is
shown i above figure The machine is b. 2121.32A
acting as a c. 4242.64 A
a. generator and operating at a lagging d. 6000 A
power factor 108. The correct sequence of the given devices
b. generator and operating at a leading in the decreasing order of their speeds. of
power factor operation is
c. motor and operating at a leading power a. Power BJT power MOSFET, IGBT
factor SCR
d. motor and operating at a lagging power b. IGBT, power MOSFET, power BJT,
factor SCR
103. Which one of following statements c. SCR, power BJT, IGBT, MOSFET
regarding a capacitor start, capacitor run d. MOSFET, IGBT, power BJT, SCR
single-phase induction motor is correct? 109. Match List I (SMPS topology) with List II
a. One of the capacitors is in the circuit (output voltage) and select the correct
during starting and both are in the answer:
circuit during running List I
b. Both the capacitors are in the circuit A. Boost
during starting and one of them is in B. Buck
the circuit during running
C. Buck-Boost
c. Both the capacitors are in the circuit
D. Isolated Buck-Boost
during starting and running
List II
d. One of the capacitors is in the circuit
during starting and the other is in the 1. VO = VD
circuit during running 2. VO = -VD/1-D
104. ‘Crawling’ is an in4qction motor is due to 3. VO = V/1 - D
a. time harmonics in supply 4. VO = VD/a(1 - D)
b. slip ring rotor A B C D
c. space harmonics produced y winding a. 2 1 3 4
currents b. 3 1 2 4
d. insufficient starting torque c. 2 4 3 1
105. A two-phase servomotor develops d. 3 4 2 1
maximum torque at 110. Commutation overlap in the phase-
a. forward speed of one-half of the controlled ac to dc converter is due to.
synchronous speed a. load inductance
b. backward speed of one-half of the b. harmonic content of load current
synchronous speed c. switching operation in the converter
c. synchronous speed d. source inductance
d. a speed of twice the synchronous speed 111. A three-pulse converter has a freewheeling
106. Static voltage equalization in series- diode across its load. The operating range
connected SCRs is obtained by the use of of the converter is
14 of 14
a. 0° ≤ α ≤ 150° Full-bridge inverter is shown in the above
b. 60° ≤ α ≤ 120° figure. The maximum rms output voltages
‘Vo’at fundamental frequency is
c. 30° ≤ α ≤ 150°
a. 24 V
d. 180° ≤ α ≤ 360°
b. 33.94 V
112. A single-phase ‘fully controlled Iin’
commutated ac to dc converter operates as c. 43.2 V
an inverter, when d. 48 V
a. 0° ≤ α ≤ 90°’ 117. Which one of the following controls
reduces the size of the transformer in a
b. 90° ≤ α ≤ 180°
switch mode ac power supply?
c. it supplies to a ‘back emf load
a. Resonant control
d. 90° ≤ α ≤ 180°’and there is a suitable b. bidirectional control
dc source in the load circuit
c. PWM control
113. A step up chopper is fed from a 220 V dc
d. Phase control
source to deliver a load voltage of 660 V.
If the non-conduction time of the thyristor 118. The output voltages e1 and e2 of two full-
is 100 μs, the required pulse width will be bridge inverters are added using output
transformer. In order to eliminate the 5th
a. 100 μs harmonic from output voltage, the phase
b. 200 μs angle between e1 and e2 should be
c. 220 μs a. π/3rad
d. 660 μs b. it/4rad
114. In a type -A chopper, given that source c. π/5rad
voltage = 100 V d, ON-period = 100 μs, d. π/6rad
OFF-period = 150 μs and load R = 2Ω, L
119. In single-phase cyclo-converter, if α1 and
=5 mH with back emf E = 10 V connected
in series for continuities conduction, α2 are the trigger angles of positive
average output voltage and average output converter and negative converter, then
current will be respectively a. α1 + α 2 = π / 2
a. 40V and 15 A b. α1 + α 2 = π
b. 66.66 V and 28.33 V c. α1 + α 2 = 3π / 2
c. 60 V and 25 A
d. α1 + α 2 = 2π
d. 40 V and 20 A
115. If an ac chopper is feeding an inductive 120. In a 3-phae to 1-phase cyclo-converter
load, the firing pulse to the SCR employing 6-pulse bridge circuit, if the
a. may have a width equal to turn ON input voltage is 200 V per phase the
time of the SCR fundamental rms value of output voltage
will be
b. should be a series of pulses of short
duration 600
a. V
c. should be a single pulse of long π
duration b. 300 3V
d. should be a train of pulses of duration 300 3
equal to the conduction period of the c. V
SCR π
116. 300
d. V
π
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000 1 of 14
PAPER-II
1. If the bandwidth of ith channel is ‘Wi’ and a. 900 kHz
the total number of channels b. 450 kHz
accommodated in a time interval of T is
c. 300 kHz
‘N’, then the minimum bandwidth ‘Bmin’
for TDM is equal to d. 225 kHz
N 6. In the circuit shown in the given figure, if
a. N ∑ wi gm is 0.5 × 10–3, then the current ‘I’ will be
i =1
N
b. N
∑w
i =1
i
N
c. ∑w
i =1
i
a. Is
1 b. 100 Is
d. N
∑w
i =1
i
c. 101 Is
d. 200 Is
2. In a DSB-SC system with 100% 7. In a delta modulation scheme the step
modulation, the power saving is height is 75 mV and step width is 1.5 ms.
a. 50% The maximum slope that the staircase can
b. 66% track is
c. 75% a. 50 V/s
d. 100% b. 55 V/s
3. The noise figure of an amplifier is 6 dB. If c. 60 V/s
the input SI N ratio is 38 dB, then the d. 65 V/s
output S/N ratio will be 8. Two signals have the same frequency
a. 44dB spectrum but different phase function.
b. 40dB Their power density spectrum will
c. 36 dB V a. differ in phase
d. 32 dB V b. differ by eωt0
4. The output VR of the ratio detector and the c. differ by ω0
output VF of similar Foster-Seeley d. be identical
discriminator are related as 9. For the network shown in the given figure,
a. VF = VR the hybrid parameter h21 is
b. VF > VR
c. VF = 0.51 VR
d. VF = 2.51 VR
5. Without any filtering, a broadcast station
at 1600 kHz is heard together with another
station at 2500 kHz on a superheterodyne
receiver. The IF employer would have
been
2 of 14
r2 2. Polarity of interpole must be the same
a.
r1 + r2 as that of the main pole in advance
3. Distortion of the main field under the
r1 + r2
b. pole shoes is not affected by the use of
r1 + r2 + r3 interpoles
r2 Which of these statements regarding
c. −
r1 + r2 interpole used in dc motors is/are correct?
r1 a. 1 and 2
d. − b. 2 and 3
r1 + r2
c. 1 and 3
10. In a dc machine, the armature is always on
the rotor unlike an ac machine where it d. 1 alone
could be either on the stator or rotor, 14. A series motor drawing an armature
because current of Ia is operating under saturated
a. commutation action would otherwise magnetic conditions. The torque developed
not be possible in the motor is proportional to
b. armature reaction demagnetising action a. 1 / Ia
would otherwise be more b. 1 / I 2a
c. otherwise it would not be possible to c. I 2a
place compensating winding in pole
shoes d. Ia
d. self-starting of dc motor would not be 15. A dc shunt motor having unsaturated
possible otherwise magnetic circuit runs at 1000 rpm with
11. The armature mmf of a dc machine has rated voltage. If the applied voltage is half
of the rated voltage, the motor will run at
a. triangular space distribution and
rotates at the speed of armature a. 2000 rpm
b. trapezoidal space distribution and is b. 1000 rpm
stationary in space c. 750 rpm
c. stepped distribution and rotates at the d. 500 rpm
speed of the armature 16. A 200 V dc shunt motor delivers an output
d. triangular space distribution and is of 17 kW with an input of 20 kW. The
stationary in space field winding resistance is 50 Ω and
12. Consider the following statements : armature resistance is 0.04Ω. Maximum
efficiency will be obtained when the total
For a level compounded dc generator to
armature copper losses are equal to
run at constant speed, the series field mmf
must effectively compensate a. 2632 W
1. armature reaction mmf b. 3000 W
2. armature resistance voltage drop c. 3680 W
3. brush contact voltage drop d. 5232W
Which of these statements is/are correct? 17. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
a. 2 alone
List I
b. 1 and 2
A. Voltage drop test
c. 1 and 3
B. Hopkinson’s test
d. 1, 2 and 3
C. Swineburne’s test
D. Retardation test
1. Interpole windings are connected in
series with armature winding List II
1. Efficiency
3 of 14
2. Separation of iron and friction losses c. 198 V
3. Open- and short-circuited armature d. 390 V
coild 20. A 3-phase alternator is connected to a Dd
4. Temperature rise transformer. The hysteresis and eddy
A B C D current losses of the transformer are
respectively 300 W and 400 W. If the
a. 3 1 4 2
speed of the alternator is reduced by 10%,
b. 2 4 1 2 then the hysteresis and eddy current losses
c. 3 4 1 2 of the transformer will be respectively
d. 2 1 4 3 a. 228 W and 262.44 W
18. Match List I with List II and select the b. 243 W and 324 W
correct answer: c. 243 W and 360 W
List I d. 270 W and 400 W
A. Shell type with wound core 21. In an autotransformer of voltage ratio V1 /
B. Core type with core of laminated V2 and V1 > V2, the fraction of power
sheets transferred inductively is
C. Shell type with laminated core V1
a.
D. Core type with wound core V1 + V2
List II V2
b.
V1
V1 − V2
c.
V1 + V2
1.
V1 − V2
d.
V1
22. The windings of a Q kVA, V1 / V2 volts,
2. three phase Dd core type transformer are
reconnected to work as a single-phase
transformer, the power rating and the
maximum voltage ratio of the new
configuration will be respectively
3. a. Q/3 kVA and V1/V2 volts
b. 3Q kVA and 3V1 / 3V2 volts
c. 2Q kVA and 3 V1 / 3 V2 volts
d. 2/3Q kVA and 2V1 / 2V2 volts
4.
23. The mmf produced by the current of a 3-
A B C D
phase induction motor
a. 4 3 1 2
a. rotates at the speed of rotor in the air
b. 4 2 1 3 gap
c. 1 2 4 3 b. is standstill with respect to stator mmf
d. 1 3 4 2 c. rotates at slip speed with respect to
19. A 10 kVA, 400 V/ 200 V single-phase stator mmf
transformer with a resistance of 3% and a d. rotates at synchronous speed with
reactance of 6% is supplying a current of respect to rotor
50 A to a resistive load. The voltage across
24. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor is
the load is
wound for 4 poles on stator and 6 poles on
a. 194 V rotor. When 3-phase balanced voltage
b. 196 V
4 of 14
source at 50 Hz is applied to the motor, it 29. An induction motor and synchronous
will run at : motor are connected to a common feeder
a. 1500rpm line. To operate the feeder line at unity pf,
the synchronous motor should be
b. 1000rpm
a. under-excited
c. 750 rpm
b. over-excited
d. zero speed
c. normally excited
25. If the rotor power factor of a 3-phase
induction motor is 0.866, the spatial d. disconnected from the common
displacement between the stator magnetic terminals
field and the rotor magnetic field will be 30. Consider the following statements
a. 30° regarding the design of distributed
armature winding in a 3-phase alternator :
b. 90°
1. It reduces the phase belt harmonics
c. 120°
2. It increases utilisation of armature iron
d. 150°
and copper
26. The stator of a 6-pole, 3-phase induction
3. It increases rigidity and mechanical
motor is fed from a 3phase, 50 Hz supply
strength of the winding
which contains a pronounced fifth time
harmonic. The speed of the fifth space 4. It reduces copper in the overhang of
harmonic field produced by the fifth time the winding
harmonic in the stator supply will be Which of these statements are correct?
a. 200 rpm a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1500 rpm b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1000 rpm c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 5000 rpm d. 1, 2 and 4
27. A 6-pole, 50 Hz wound rotor induction 31. Match List I (Power factor) with list II
motor when supplied at the rated voltage (Armature reaction of an alternator) and
and frequency with slip-ring open- select the correct answer :
circuited, developed a voltage of 100 V List I
between any two rings. If the rotor is
A. UPF
driven by an external means at 1000 rpm
opposite to the direction of stator field, the B. ZPF lagging
frequency of voltage across slip-rings will C. ZPF leading
be D. Intermediate Lagging
a. zero List II
b. 50 Hz 1. Fully demagnetising
c. 100 Hz 2. Fully magnetising
d. 200 Hz 3. Cross - magnetising
28. In a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor, 4. Partly cross-magnetising and
skewing of rotor slots reduces 5. partly demagnetising
a. parasitic torque and noise but increases A B C D
pullout torque
a. 3 1 4 2
b. parasitic torque and noise but increases
starting torque b. 3 1 2 4
c. noise but increases pullout torque and c. 1 3 2 4
parasitic torque d. 1 3 4 2
d. parasitic torque, noise, pullout torque 32. ac tachometers are often built with thin
and starting torque metallic drag cup rotor to
a. reduce inertia
5 of 14
b. obtain low Q 3. SCRs have lower power losses than
c. make them suitable for high frequency MOSFETs and IGBTs
(400 Hz) operation Which of these statements are correct?
d. eliminate direct coupling between two a. 1, 2 and 3
stator windings b. 1 and 2
33. In a synchronous machine, damper c. 2 and 3
windings are used to
d. 1 and 3
a. help in starting as a motor
37. A thyristor converter of 415 V, 100 A is
b. run it as an induction motor operating at rated load. Details of the.
c. help in starting as a motor and to thyristor used are, as follows :
reduce hunting ‘ON’ state power loss = 150 W,
d. increase efficiency Thermal resistance
34. Match List I with list II and select the Junction to case = 0.01° C/W
correct answer:
Case to sink = 0.08° C/W
List I
Sink to atmosphere = 0.09° C/W
Flux due to
Assume ambient temperature as 35°C. The
A. currents in damper windings junction temperature for 100% load is
B. currents in field windings a. 48.5° C
C. armature currents with unity internal pf b. 54.5° C
D. armature currents with zero pf c. 60° C
List II d. 62° C
1. Direct axis synchronous reactance 38. When compared to those of a symmetrical
2. Quadrature axis synchronous reactance thyristor, the turn-off time and reverse
3. Transient reactance blocking voltage of an asymmetrical
thyristor are respectively
4. Sub-transient reactance
a. large and large
A B C D
b. large and small
a. 4 3 1 2
c. small and large
b. 3 4 2 1
d. small and small
c. 3 4 1 2
39. Match List I (Devices) with List II
d. 4 3 2 1
(Properties) and select the correct answer :
35. During the turn - off process of a thyristor,
List I
the current flow, does not stop at the
instant when the current reaches zeros but A. Triac
continues to flow to a peak value in the B. Reverse conducting thyristor (RCT)
reverse direction. This is due to C. Gate turn-off thyristor (GTO)
a. commutation failure D. Amplifying gate thyristor
b. hole storage effect List II
c. presence of reverse voltage across the 1. Good di/dt behaviour even at low gate
thyristor currents
d. protective inductance in series with the 2. Normally provided with a small
thyristor continuous negative, gate pulse during
36. Consider the following statements: off state
1. BJT has lower power losses than 3. Negative gate pulse for reverse
MOSFETs. conduction
2. MOSFETs have lower power losses 4. No gate pulse for reverse conduction
than IGBTs A B C D
6 of 14
a. 4 3 1 2 43. In a 2-pulse bridge converter with
b. 3 4 2 1 freewheeling diode, the width of the diode
c. 3 4 1 2 current pulse is (α is the firing angle)
d. 4 3 2 1 a. π + α
40. In a 3-phase semi-converter, if the firing b. π—α
angle is less than or equal to 60°, then the c. π
duration of conduction of each thyristor d. 2α
and diode would be respectively
44. A single-phase ac voltage regulator is fed
a. 60° and 60° from a 50 Hz supply system. If it supplies
b. 90° and 30° a load comprising a resistance of 2 Ω
c. 120° arid 120° connected in series with an inductance of
d. 180° and 180° 6.36 mH, then the range of firing angle ‘α’
providing controlled voltage would be
41. A 3-pulse converter feed an RLE Load.
The source has a definite inductance a. 0° < α < 180°
causing overlap. The thyristors are ideal. It b. 450 < α < 1800
has an overlap angle ‘μ’ of 200 at the c. 900 < α < 1800
minimum firing angle ‘α’. The current
remains constant in the complete range of d. 0° < α < 45°
firing angles. The range of firing angles of 45. The most accurate and versatile method of
the converter would be achieving reactive power compensation is
by using
a. 00 < α < 180°
a. switched capacitors
b. 20° < α < 180°
b. fixed capacitor with controlled reactor
c. 200 < α < 160°
c. saturable reactor with capacitor bank
d. 0° < α < 160°
d. switched capacitor with controlled
42. Match List I with List II and select the reactors
correct answer
46. A voltage source inverter will have better
List I performance if its
A. Phase-controlled rectifier feeding RL a. load inductance is small and source
load with perfect smoothing inductance is large
B. Single-pulse converter feeding RL load b. both load and source inductances are
C. A constant dc voltage-fed dc to ac small
inverter feeding RL load c. both load and source inductances are
D. A constant dc current-fed dc to ac large
inverter feeding RL load d. load inductance is large and source
List II inductance is small
1. Output voltage depends on the values 47. Consider the following features:
of R and L of the load 1. Inherent short-circuit protection
2. Depends on firing angle 2. Regeneration capability
3. Constant and independent of R and L 3. Need for inverter grade thyristors
of the load
4. Voltage spikes across the load
4. Depends on firing angle and also
impedance angle of the load Which of these are the features associated
with current source inverter?
A B C D
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2 4 3 1
7 of 14
48. A series capacitor commuted inverter can a. iron rods
operate satisfactorily b. cadmium rods
1 R2 c. graphite rods
a. if > 2
LC 4 L d. brass rods
1 R2 54. In the statement, “In a star/delta
b. if = 2 transformer, there exists a phase difference
LC 4 L
of ‘X’ between the corresponding
1 R2
c. if < 2 phases of primary and secondary ‘Y’ ”,
LC 4 L ‘X’ and ‘Y’ stand respectively for
d. irrespective of the values of R, L and C a. 60° and voltages
49. A single-phase full-bridge voltage source b. 60° and currents
inverter operating in square wave mode c. 30° and voltages
supplied a purely inductive load. If the
d. 30° and currents
inverter time period is T, then the time
duration for which the feedback diodes 55. Which of the following conditions is/are
conduct in a cycle is necessary for the parallel operation of two
transformers?
a. T
a. Percentage impedance should be the
b. T/2
same
c. T/4
b. Polarities of both secondaries should
d. T/8 be’ the same
50. If power P available from a hydro scheme c. Voltage ratings should be the same
is given by the formula P = 9.81 QH,
d. All the conditions mentioned above in
where Q is the flow rate through the
(a), (b) and (c)
turbine in l / s and H is the head in metres,
then P will be in units of 56. The impedance per phase of a 3-phase
transmission line; on a base of 100 MVA,
a. W
100 kV is 2 pu. The value of this
b. HP impedance on a base of 400 MVA and 400
c. kJ/s kV would be
d. kWH a. 1.5 Pu
51. A coal-fired steam power station working b. 1.0 pu
at a plant load factor of 80% has one 500 c. 0.5 pu
MW generating unit. If the heat content of
d. 0.25 Pu
coal is 2 kWh/kg, the overall plant
efficiency is 40% and a train load of coal 57. The values of A, B, C and D constants for
is 2000 metric tons, then the number of a short transmission line are respectively
trains required daily for the plant is a. Z, 0, 1 and 1
a. 1 b. 0, 1, 1 and Z
b. 6 c. 1, Z, 0 and 1
c. 10 d. 1, 1, Z and 0
d. 24 58. The self GMD of a conductor with three
52. In a nuclear power station using Boiling strands each of radius ‘r’ arid touching
Water Reactor (BWR), water is used as each other is
a. a moderator but not as a coolant a. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2)1/3
b. a coolant but not as a moderator b. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2 × 2)
c. both moderator and coolant c. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2 × 2)3
d. neither moderator nor coolant d. r (0.7788 × 2 × 2)3
53. In a nuclear reactor, chain reaction is
controlled by introducing
8 of 14
59. If a short transmission line is delivering to 64. An overhead line with a surge impedance
lagging pf load, the sending-end pf would of 400 Ω is connected to a transformer by
be (notations have their usual meaning) a short length of cable of surge impedance
VR cos φ + IR sin φ 100 Ω. If a rectangular surge wave of 40
a. kV travels along the line towards the
VS
cable, then the voltage, of the wave
VR cos φ + IR travelling from the junction of the
b.
VS overhead ,line through the cable towards
the transformer would be
VR cos φ + IR
c. a. 16 kV
VS
b. 24 kV
VR sin φ + IR cos φ
d. c. 32 kV
VS
d. 36 kV
60. If the positive, negative and zero sequence 65. Disruptive corona begins in smooth
reactances of an element of a power cylindrical conductors in air at NTP if the
system are 0.3, 0.3 and 0.8 respectively, electric field intensity at the conductor
then the element would be a surface goes up to
a. synchronous generator a. 21.1 kV(rms) / cm
b. synchronous motor b. 21.1 kV(peak) / cm
c. static load c. 21.1 kV(average) / cm
d. transmission line d. 21.1 kV(rms) / m
61. An isolated synchronous generator with 66. Load flow studies involve solving
transient reactance equal to 0.1 pu on a simultaneous
100 MVA base is connected to the high
a. linear algebraic equations
voltage bus through a step up transformer
of reactance 0.1 Pu on a 100 MVA base. b. non - linear algebraic equations
The fault level at the bus is c. linear differential equations
a. 1000 MVA d. non-linear differential equations
b. 500 MVA 67. A 12-bus power system has 3 voltage
c. 50 MVA controlled buses. The dimensions of the
Jacobian matrix will be
d. 10 MVA
62. If a generator of 250 MVA rating has an a. 21 × 21
inertia constant of 6 MJ/MVA, its inertia b. 21 × 19
constant on 100 MVA base is c. 19 × 19
a. 15 MJ/MVA d. 19 × 21
b. 10.5 MJ/MVA 68. An over-current relay, having a current
c. 6 MJ/MVA setting of 125% is connected to a supply
d. 2.4 MJ/MVA circuit through a current transformer of
ratio 400/5. The pick-up value is
63. An overhead line with surge impedance of
400 Ω is terminated through a resistance a. 6.25 A
‘R’. A surge travelling over the line will b. 10 A
not suffer any reflection at the junction, if c. 12.5 A
the value of R is d. 15 A
a. 100 Ω 69. If the inductance and capacitance of a
b. 200 Ω power system are respectively 1 H and 001
c. 400 Ω μF and the. instantaneous value of
interrupted current is 10 A, then the
d. 800 Ω
voltage across the breaker contact will be
a. 50 kV
9 of 14
b. 57 kV alternator ‘2’ is rated for 8 MW When the
c. 60 kV total load is 10 MW the Loads shared by
alternators 1 and 2 would be respectively
d. 100 kV
a. 4 MW and 6 MW
70. A three-phase circuit breaker is rated at’
2000 MVA; 33 kV. Its making current will b. 6 MW and 4 MW
be c. 5 MW ad 5 MW
a. 35 kA d. 10 MW and zero
b. 70 kA 76. The cost function of a 50 MW generator is
c. 89 kA given by (Pi is the generator, loading)
d. 161 kA F(Pi) = 225 + 53 Pi + 0.02 Pi2
71. In Merz Price percentage differential When 100% loading is
protection of a Δ–Y transformer, the CT a. Rs. 55 per MWh
secondaries connection in the primary and b. Rs. 55 per MW
secondary windings of the transformer c. Rs. 33 per MWh
would be in the form
d. Rs. 33 per MW
a. Δ–Y
77. In terms of power generation and Bmm
b. Y–Δ coefficients, the transmission loss for a
c. Δ–Δ two-plant system is (Notations have their
d. Y–Y usual meaning)
72. When there is interference in an overhead a. P 12 B11 + 2 P1P2 B12 + P 22 B22
communication line running parallel and in
b. P 12 B11 – 2 P1P2 B12 + P 22 B22
close proximity to an overhead power
Line, the voltage induced in the c. P 22 B11 + 2 P1P2 B12 + P 12 B22
communication line in the longitudinal and
lateral directions by ‘the power line are d. P 12 B11 + P1P2 B12 + P 22 B22
due to 78. Assertion (A) : A threshold effect is
a. magnetic induction and electric observed in square law detectors.
induction respectively Reason (R) : Square law detector is
b. electric induction and magnetic nonlinear.
induction respectively a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. both magnetic induction and electric correct explanation of A
induction b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. magnetic induction only the correct explanation of A
73. In the case of a HVDC system, there is c. A is true but R is false
a. charging current but no skin effect d. A is false but R is true
b. no charging current but skin effect 79. Assertion (A) : PSK is inferior to FSK.
c. neither charging current nor skin effect Reason (R) : PSK requires less bandwidth
d. both charging current and skin effect than FSK.
74. Shunt compensation in an EHV Ine is used a. Both A and R are true and R is the
to improve correct explanation of A
a. stability and fault level b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. fault level and voltage profile
c. voltage profile and stability
d. stability, fault level and voltage profile
80. Assertion (A) : The op-amp is known for
75. Two alternators each having 4% speed
its very high voltage gain and broad
regulation are working in parallel.
bandwidth.
Alternator ‘1’ is rated for 12 MW and
10 of 14
Reason (R) : The op-amp has high R 84. Assertion (A) : The rotor resistance of a
CMRR. deep bar type cage induction motor is
a. Both A and R are true and R is the higher than the running resistance.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The extra resistance present
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT in the rotor circuit at starting is cut out by
the correct explanation of A a centrifugal switch during normal
running.
81. Assertion (A) : A MOSFET amplifier
offers very high input impedance
irrespective of its circuit configuration.
Reason (R) : MOSFET has extremely low
gate current. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 85. Assertion (A) : It is easy to parallel power
correct explanation of A MOSFETs for increased current handling
capability.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The ON state resistance of a
power MOSFET has a positive
temperature coefficient.
82. Assertion (A) : In a bipolar junction correct explanation of A
transistor, the emitter region width (in
comparison to base region width) is
immaterial in the design so long as the
base doping is kept lower than the emitter c. A is true but R is false
doping. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : The emitter injection 86. Assertion (A) : It is strongly recommended
efficiency is also dependent on both that the GTO (Gate Turn— Off thyristor)
emitter and base region width and their should not be turned ‘on’ until it has been
relative dopings. ‘off’ for a specified time.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the Reason (R) : There may be poor current
correct explanation of A sharing between the various cathode
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT islands.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
83. Assertion (A) : On supplying 2-phase
voltages to balanced two-phase windings c. A is true but R is false
(two identical windings in space d. A is false but R is true
quadrature), a rotating field is developed. 87. Assertion (A) : Variable frequency square
Reason (R) : The amplitude of rotating wave inverter providing variable voltage
field is 1.5 times that of each phase. cannot be operated below 10% of base
a. Both A and R are true and R is the frequency.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The thyristors get damaged
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT due to high di/dt.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
11 of 14
d. A is false but R is true 3. a hyper abrupt junction with both sides
88. Assertion A : Voltage-time insulation heavily doped.
coordination curves for the equipment to 4. a majority camer device.
be protected and the lightning arrester to Which of these statements are correct?
be employed are used for determining the
a. 1 and 2
required insulation levels.
b. 3 and 4
Reason (R) : Voltage - time insulation
coordination curves indicate the time of c. 1, 3 and 4
arrival of the peak of surge wave at the d. 1, 2 and 4
equipment location. 94. The sensitivity of a photodiode depends
a. Both A and R are true and R is the upon
correct explanation of A a. light intensity and depletion region
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT width
the correct explanation of A b. depletion region width and excess
c. A is true but R is false carrier life time
d. A is false but R is true c. excess carrier life time and forward
89. Assertion (A) : In a high- or medium-head bias current
hydroelectric power station having a long d. forward bias current and light intensity
penstock, a surge-tank is provided near the 95. In the pnp transistor circuit shown in the
turbine. given figure, the transistor is in V,
Reason (R) : A surge-tank stores saturation with values of Vbe = 0.7 V,
additional water to be released during the Vce(sat) = 0.3 V and βmin = 20. The value of
peak-load period. IC will be
90. The main functions of the presentation
layer of the OSI model include
a. encryption and authentication
b. authentication and compression
c. compression and coding a. 4.7 mA
d. encryption and compression b. 5.3 mA
91. Which one of the following signal c. 8.6 mA
combinations will generate MEMR signal?
d. 10 mA
a. IO / M ^ RD 96. The mobility of electrons in a material is
b. IO / M ^ RD expressed in units of
a. V / s
c. IO / M ^ RD
b. m2 / V-s
d. IO / M ^ RD c. m2 / s
92. An ADC normally used in a 3½ digit d. J / K
multimeter is of
97. Match List I (Symbols) with List II
a. dual slope integration type (Devices) and select the correct answer :
b. voltage to frequency converter type
c. flash (or parallel) type List I
d. successive approximation type
A tunnel diode is
1. made of Ge or GaAs.
A.
2. an abrupt junction with both sides
heavily doped.
12 of 14
100. Consider the following features regarding
an amplifier:
1. Voltage gain being less than one
B. 2. High input impedance
3. High output impedance
4. High current gain
Which of these are the characteristic
C. features of an emitter follower amplifier?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
D. d. 2, 3 and 4
List II 101. The upper cut-off frequencies f21 and f22 of
1. Depletion mode MOSFET the two stages of a cascaded amplifier are
2. p - channel JFET respectively 5 MHz and 3.3 MHz, The
equivalent upper cut-off frequency of the
3. n - channel JFET cascaded amplifier would be
4. Enhancement mode MOSFET a. 4.16 MHz
A B C D b. 3.33 MHz
a. 2 1 4 3 c. 2 MHz
b. 4 3 2 1 d. 5 MHz
c. 2 3 4 1 102. Match List I with List II and select the
d. 4 1 2 3 correct answer :
98. FET voltage divider bias circuit is shown List I
in the given figure. If ID = 4mA, then VGS A. When bridge oscillator
and VDS will be respectively.
B. Voltage shunt feedback amplifier
C. Crystal oscillator
D. Current shunt feedback amplifier
List II
1. Low output impedance
2. RF frequency range
3. Audio frequency range
4. High input impedance
5. High output impedance
a. — 3.78 V and 4 V
A B C D
b. 4 V and — 3.78 V
a. 2 1 3 5
c. —3.78 V and —4V
b. 3 4 2 1
d. —4 V and —3.78 V
c. 5 4 2 1
99. If Vm is peak value of an applied voltage
in a half-wave rectifier with a large d. 3 1 2 5
capacitor across the load, then the peak 103. An amplifier circuit has an overall current
inverse voltage will be gain of –100 and an input resistance of 10
a. Vm / 2 kΩ with a load resistance of 1 kΩ. The
overall voltage gain of the amplifier is
b. Vm
a. 5 dB
c. 2 Vm b. 10 dB
d. 2Vm c. 20 dB
13 of 14
d. 40 dB 109. The states of a RS flip-flop are given in the
104. An op-amp has a common mode gain of following table :
0.01 and a differential mode gain of 105.
Its common mode rejection ratio would be
a. 10–7
b. 10–3
c. 103 The mode of operation of states 1, 2 and 3
are respectively
d. 107
a. indeterminate, set and reset
105. The Barkhausen criterion for sustained
oscillation is given by b. prohibited, set and hold
c. set, hold and reset
a. Aβ = 1
d. hold, set and reset
b. |Aβ| ≥ 1
110. Match List I (Circuits) with List II
c. |Aβ| < 1 (Applications) and select the correct
d. ∠Aβ = 180o answer :
106. An op-amp circuit is shown in the given List I
figure. The current ‘I’ is A. Astable multivibrator
B. Schmitt trigger
C. Bistable multivibrator
List II
1. Counter
2. Sweep generator
3. Voltage to frequency converter
a. zero
4. Comparator
b. 6mA
A B C
c. 10 mA
a. 3 4 1
d. 12 mA
b. 3 2 1
107. The waveform of the output voltage ‘V0’
c. 1 4 3
for the circuit shown in the given figure
(RC > >1) is a d. 1 2 3
111. A monostable multivibrator circuit is
shown in the given figure. The value of C
would be nearly
a. sinusoidal wave
b. square wave
c. series of spikes
d. triangular wave
108. A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit a. 0.001 μF
ripple counter. The frequency of the third b. 0.01 μF
flip-flop’s output would be c. 0.1 μF
a. 2 MHz d. 1 μF
b. 1.25 MHz 112. A 4-bit modulo 16 ripple counter uses JK
c. 50 MHz flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each
d. 615 MHz
14 of 14
flip-flop is 50 ns, the maximum clock a. IO / M , RD , WR ,
frequency that can be used is
b. S1, S0 , INTA
a. 20 MHz
b. 10 MHz c. IO / M , S1, S0
c. 5 MHz d. S2, S1, S0
d. 4 MHz 117. Control bus is used for transmitting and
receiving control signals between
113. The circuit shown in the given figure is
a. processor and key board
b. processor and various devices
c. processor and memory
d. input devices and memory
118. If (BX) = 0158
(DI) = 10A5
Displacement = 1B57
a. an AND gate (DS) = 2100
b. an OR gate (where DS is used as a segment register)
c. a XOR gate then the effective and physical addresses
produced using “RELATIVE BASE
d. a NAND gate INDEXED INDIRECT ADDRESSING”
114. In the case of a 16-bit processor, a single will be respectively
instruction is enough to process a function. a. 2D54 and 23D54
For processing the same function.
b. 23D54 and 2D54
a. more than one 8-bit processors will be
required to work in sequence c. 1B57 and 1CAF
b. more than one 8-bit processors will be d. 1CAF and 1B57
required to work in parallel 119. A sequence of instruction is executed as
c. a long sequence of instructions will be follows :
required for a 8-bit processor begin
d. the same instruction will do for a 8-bit decode the instruction fetched;
processor also if operand in memory then fetch, operand;
115. Consider the following functions of an execute instructions;
8086 microprocessor: end
1. Temporary storage of data This sequence of instructions has
2. Storing offset of a memory address in performed
DS a. fetch cycle
3. String instructions b. both fetch and execute cycles
4. JNLE instructions c. execute and decode cycles
5. JCXZ instructions d. execute cycle.
Which of these functions require the use of 120. An 8085 microprocessor based system
the SI and DI registers? drives a multiplexed 5-digit, 7-segment
a. 1, 2 and 3 display. The digits are refreshed at a rate
b. 1, 2 and 4 of 500 Hz. The ON time for each digit
c. 2, 3 and 5 (assumed equal) is
d. 3, 4 and 5 a. 4 × 10–3 s
116. Which one of the following sets of status b. 0.4 × 10–3 s
signals is used in an 8085 microprocessor c. 10–2 s
to uniquely identify the seven machine d. 2.5 × 10–2 s
cycles ?
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 14
ELECTRONICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
1. 3. Ordinary water can be used as

moderator with natural uranium as fuel
4. The multiplication factor is kept
slightly greater than unity during its
normal functioning
Of these statements
The load duration curve for a power b. 3 and 4 are correct
station is as shown in the above figure. c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
The reserve capacity in the plant at 70%
d. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
capacity factor is
5. If a 250 MVA, 11/400 kV three-phase
a. Zero
power transformer has leakage reactance
b. 10 MW of 0.05 per unit on the base of 250 MVA
c. 30 MW and the primary voltage of 11 kV, then the
d. 50 MW actual leakage reactance of the transformer
2. In pump storage hydropower plant, the referred to the secondary side of 400 kV is
electrical machine is made to work a. 0.8 Ω
alternately as generator and motor. The
b. 0.0032Ω
efficiency of the generator working at the
same electrical power Level is c. 0.03125Ω
a. Greater than that as motor d. 32.0Ω
b. Equal to that as motor 6. In a short transmission line, voltage
c. Less than that as motor regulation is zero when the power factor
angle of the load at the receiving end side
d. Greater or less than that as motor
is equal to
depending on the type of the machine
3. The ABCD constants of a 3-phase a. tan −1 ( X / R )
transmission line are b. tan −1 ( R / X )
A = D = 0.8 ∠ 1°
c. tan −1 ( X / Z )
B = 170 ∠ 85°Ω
C = 0.002 ∠ 90.4°mho d. tan −1 ( R / Z )
The sending end voltage is 400 kV. The 7. Consider the following statements:
receiving end voltage under no-load Surge impedance loading of a transmission
condition is line can be increased by
a. 400 kV 1. Increasing its voltage level
b. 500 kV 2. Addition of lumped inductance in
c. 320 kV parallel
d. 417 kV 3. Addition of lumped capacitance in
4. In a thermal nuclear reactor series
1. The purpose of moderator is to slow 4. Reducing the length of the line
dawn fast neutrons produced due to Of these statements
fission a. 1 and 3 are correct
2. The moderator material must have low b. 1 and 4 are correct
molecular weight c. 2 and 4 are correct
2 of 14
8. The load current in short circuit power-angle. At the power-limit condition
calculation are neglected because i.e. for maximum PR
1. Short-circuit currents are much larger a. Leading VARs (QR) goes to the load
than load, currents for any values of VS and VR
2. Short circuit currents are greatly out of b. Leading VARs (QR) goes to the load
phase with load currents ONLY for VS=VR
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct? c. Lagging VARs (QR) goes to the load
a. Neither 1 nor 2 for any values of VS and VR
b. 2 alone d. Lagging VARs (QR) goes to the load
c. 1 alone ONLY for VS = VR
d. 1 and 2 13. A traveling wave 400/1/50 means crest
9. The surge impedance ‘of a 3-phase, 400 value of
kV transmission line is 400Ω . The surge a. 400 V with rise time of 1/50 s
impedance loading (SIL) is b. 400 kV with rise time 1 s and fall time
a. 400MW 50 S
b. 100MW c. 400 kV with rise time 1 μs with fall
c. 1600MW time 50μs
d. 200MW d. 400 MV with rise time 1μs and fall
10. Two 50 Hz generating units operate in time 50μs
parallel within the same power plant and 14. If a 500 MVA, 11 kV three-phase
have the following ratings generator at 50 Hz feeds, through a
Unit 1 : 500 MVA, 0.85 power factor, 20 transfer impedance of (0.0 + J 0.605)Ω per
kV, 3000 rpm, phase, an infinite bus also at 11 kV; then
H1=5MJ/MVA the maximum steady state power transfer
Unit 2 : 200 MVA, 0.9 power factor, 20 on the base of 500 MVA and 11 kV is
kV, 1500 rpm, H2 = 5 MJ/MVA. a. 1.0 Pu
The equivalent inertia constant H in b. 0.8 Pu
MJ/MVA on 100 MVA base is c. 0.5 Pu
a. 2.5 d. 0.4 Pu
b. 5.0 15. Installation of capacitors at suitable
c. 10.0 locations and of optimum size in a
d. 35.0 distribution system results in
11. If a traveling-wave traveling along a loss- 1. Improved voltage regulation.
free overhead line does not result in any 2. Reduction in distribution power losses.
reflection after it has reached the far end, 3. Reduction of kVA rating of
then the far end of the line is distribution transformers
a. Open circuited Select the correct answer using the codes
b. Short circuited given below:
c. Terminated into a resistance equal to a. 1 alone
surge impedance of the line b. 1 and 2
d. Terminated into a capacitor c. 1,2 and 3
12. The active and the reactive power d. 3 alone
delivered at the receiving end of a short 16. In a three unit insulator string, voltage
transmission line of impedance Z∠Ψ are across the lowest unit is 17.5 kV and string
respectively given by efficiency is 8428%. The total voltage
VV V2 across the string will be equal to
PR = S R cos ( Ψ − δ ) − R cos Ψ, and a. 8.825 kV
Z Z
b. 44.25 kV
VV V2
QR = S R sin ( Ψ − δ ) − R sin Ψ, with c. 88.25 kV
Z Z d. 442.5 kV
Vs and VR being the magnitude of voltage
at the sending and receiving ends, δ the
3 of 14
17. Bundled conductors are used for EHV
transmission lines primarily for reducing
the
a. Corona loss
b. Surge impedance of the line A three-phase transformer having zero-
c. Voltage drop across the line sequence impedance of Z0 has the zero-
d. I2R losses sequence network as shown in the above
18. The good effect of corona on overhead figure. The connections of its windings are
lines is to a. star — star
a. Increase the line carrying capacity due b. delta — delta
to conducting ionized air envelop c. star – delta
around the conductor d. delta — star with neutral grounded
b. Increase the power factor due to 23. Which one of the following relays has the
corona loss capability of anticipating the possible
c. Reduce the radio interference from the major fault in a transformer?
conductor a. Over current relay
d. Reduce the steepness of surge fronts b. Differential relay
19. The principal information obtained from c. Buchholz relay
load flow studies in a power system are. d. Over fluxing relay
1. Magnitude and phase angle of the 24. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and
voltage at each bus capacitance up to the circuit breaker
2. Reactive and real power flows in each location are 25mH and 0.025μF
of the lines respectively. The value of resistor required
3. Total power loss in the network to be. connected across the breaker
4. Transient stability limit of the system contacts which will give no transient
Select the correct answer using the codes oscillations, is
given below: a. 25 Ω
a. 1 and 2 b. 250Ω
b. 3 and 4 c. 500Ω
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1000Ω
d. 2 and 4 25. Match List I with List II and select the
20. Three generators rated 100 MVA, 11 kV correct answer:
have an impedance of 0.15 Pu each. If in List I (Equipments)
the same plant, these generators are being
A. Metal oxide arrester
replaced by a single equivalent generator,
the effective impedance of equivalent B. Isolator.
generator will be C. Auto-reclosing C.B
a. 0.05 pu D. Differential relay
b. 0.15 pu List II (Applications)
c. 0.25 Pu 1. Protects generator against short circuit
d. 0.45 Pu faults
21. If all the sequence voltages at the fault 2. Improves transient stability
point in a power system are equal, then the 3. Allows C.B. maintenance
fault is a 4. Provides protection against surges
a. Three-phase fault A B C D
b. Line to ground fault a. 4 3 2 1
c. Line to line fault b. 3 4 1 2
d. Double line to ground fault c. 4 3 1 2
22. d. 3 4 2 1
26.
4 of 14
b. 15 p.u.
c. 20 p.u.
d. 25 p.u.
29. The speed regulation parameter R of a
control area is 0.025 Hz/MW and load
The operating characteristic of a distance frequency constant D is 2 MW/Hz. The
relay in the R-X plane is shown in the area frequency response characteristic
above figure. It represents operating (AFRC) is,
characteristic of a a. 42.0 MW/Hz
a. Reactance relay b. 40.0 MW/Hz
b. Directional impedance relay c. 20 M/Hz
c. Impedance relay d. 2 MW/Hz
d. Mho relay 30. In the HVDC system, the ac harmonics
27. which gets effectively eliminated with 12
pulse bridge converters, are
a. Triplen harmonics
b. Triplen and 5th harmonics
c. Triplen, 5th and 7th harmonics
Two power plants interconnected by a tie- d. 5th and 7th harmonics
line as shown in the above figure have loss 31. In an electromechanical energy conversion
formula coefficient B11 = 10-3 MW-1. device, the developed torque depends upon
Power is being dispatched economically a. Stator field strength and torque angle
with plant ‘1’ as 100 MW and plant ‘2’ as b. Stator field and rotor field strengths
125 MW The penalty factors for plants 1 c. Stator field and rotor field strengths
and 2 are respectively and the torque angle
a. 1 and 1.25 d. Stator field strength only
b. 1.25 and 1 32. Consider the following statements:
c. 1 and zero The use o. inter poles in dc machines is to
d. Zero and 1 counteract the
28. 1. Reactance voltage
2. Demagnetizing effect of armature mmf
in the commutating zone
3. Cross-magnetizing effect of armature
mmf in the commutating zone
Which of these statement (s) is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
The above diagram shows the layout of a
c. 1 and 3
power station having two generators A and
B, connected to the 11 kV buses which are d. 3 alone
also fed through two transformers C and D 33. In an alternator, if m is the number of slots
from a 132 kV grid. The 11 kV buses are per pole per phase and γ is the slot pitch
interconnected through a reactor R. angle, then the breadth or the distribution
The reactance’s of A, B, C, D and R are, in factor for the armature winding is
p.u. on a common MVA- and kV-base. All γ
sin
the generated voltages in A, B and grid are a. 2
each 1.0 p.u. and assumed as in phase at mγ
m sin
the time of fault. 2
The steady state symmetrical fault-current ⎛ mγ ⎞
for a 3-phase fault on the 11 kV feeders is b. sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
a. 10 p.u.
5 of 14
γ B. Series motor
m sin
2 C. Cumulative compound motor
c.
mγ D. Differential compound motor
sin
2 List II
⎛ mγ ⎞
sin ⎜ ⎟
d. ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛γ ⎞
sin ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠
34. The current drawn by a 220V dc motor of
armature resistance 0.5Ω and back emf A B C D
200V is a. 3 2 1 4
a. 40A b. 4 1 2 3
b. 44A c. 3 1 2 4
c. 400A d. 4 2 1 3
d. 440A 38.
35. Match List I (Type of machine) with List
II (Characteristic/application) and select
the correct answer:
List I
A. dc shunt generator
B. dc series motor In the ‘V’ curve shown in the above figure
C. Level compounded dc generator for a synchronous motor, the parameter of
D. dc series generator x and y coordinates are, respectively
List II a. Armature current and field current
1. Electric tr4action b. Power factor and field current
2. Has good voltage regulation c. Armature current and torque
3. Must have residual flux d. Torque and field current
4. Used as boosters 39. The advantage of the double squirrel-cage
A B C D induction motor over single cage rotor is
a. 4 1 2 3 that its
b. 3 2 1 4 a. Efficiency is higher
c. 4 2 1 3 b. Power factor is higher
d. 3 1 2 4 c. Slip is larger
36. A dc shunt generator when driven without d. Starting current is lower
connecting field winding shows an open 40. An induction motor when started on load
circuit terminal voltage of 12V. does not accelerate up to full speed but
When field winding is connected and runs at 1/7t) of the rated speed. The motor
excited the terminal voltage drops to zero is said to be
because a. Locking
a. Field resistance is higher than critical b. Pluming
resistance c. Crawling
b. There is no residual magnetism in the d. Cogging
field. Circuit 41. Match List I (Equivalent circuit parameter)
c. Field winding has got wrongly with List II (Values) for a 50 MVA three
connected phase alternator arid select the correct
d. There is a fault in armature circuit answer:
37. Match List I (dc motors) with List II List I
(Characteristics labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) and A. Armature resistance
select the correct answer: B. Synchronous reactance
List I C. Leakage reactance
A. Shunt motor List II
6 of 14
1. 1 Pu A B C D
2. 0.1 Pu a. 1 2 3 4
3. 0.01 pu b. 1 2 4 3
A B C c. 2 1 3 4
a. 1 2 3 d. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 1 2 45. In a cylindrical rotor synchronous
c. 3 2 1 machine, the phasor addition of stator and
d. 1 3 2 rotor mmfs is possib1 because
42. Synchronous condenser means a. Two mmfs are rotating in opposite
a. A synchronous motor with capacitor direction
connected across stator terminals to b. Two mmfs are rotating in same
improve pf direction at different speeds
b. A synchronous motor operating at full c. Two mmfs are stationary with respect
load with leading pf to each other
c. An over-excited synchronous motor d. One mmf is stationary and the other
partially supplying mechanical load, mmf is rotating
and also improving. Pf of the system to 46. The rotor power output of 3-phase
which it is connected induction motor is 15 kW The rotor copper
d. An over-excited synchronous motor losses at a s1p of 4% will be
operating at no-load with leading pf a. 600W
used in large power stations for b. 625W
improvement of pf c. 650W
43. Match List I with List II aid select the d. 700W
correct answer: 47. Skewing of the rotor in a three-phase
List I (Tests) squirrel-cage induction motor reduces
A. No-load and blocked rotor test a. Noise, parasitic torque, starting torque
B. Sumpner’s test and pullout torque
C. Swinburne’s test b. Noise and parasitic torque, but
List II (Machines) increases starting torque and pullout
1. Transformer torque.
2. Induction motor c. Noise and pullout torque, but increases
3. Synchronous motor parasitic torque and starting torque
4. dc motor d. Noise, parasitic torque and starting
A B C torque, but increases pullout torque
a. 1 4 2 48. In a shaded-pole induction motor, the rotor
b. 2 1 4 runs from the
c. 3 4 2 a. Shaded portion to the unshaded portion
of the pole while the flux in the former
d. 3 1 4
leads that of the latter
44. Match List 1 with List II and select the
b. Shaded portion to the unshaded portion
correct answer:
of the pole while the flux in the former
List I (Regulation method) lags that in the latter
A. Synchronous impedance method
c. Unshaded portion to the shaded portion
B. Mmf method while the flux in the former leads that
C. Zero power factor (ZPF) method in the latter
D. American standard Association method d. Unshaded portion to the shaded portion
List II (Relevant phasor) while the flux in the former lags that in
1. emf phasor the latter
2. Predominantly mmf phasor 49. The torque of a reluctance motor can be
3. Both emf and mmf phasors effectively increased by
4. emf and mmf phasors including a. Increasing reluctance of the magnetic
saturation circuit along the direct axis
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b. Decreasing the reluctance of the ( Psc / Pc )
2
d.
magnetic circuit along the quadrature
axis 54. For a given amount of kinetic energy to be
c. Increasing the ratio of the quadrature released by the flywheel of ward-Leonard-
axis reluctance to direct axis reluctance Ilgner control system at a given percentage
reduction in speed, the mass of the
d. Decreasing the ratio of quadrature axis
flywheel would depend upon its radius of
reluctance to direct axis reluctance
gyration rg and its initial peripheral speed
50. The starting current of a 3φ induction Up1
motor is 5 times the rated current, while
the rated slip is 4%. The ratio of starting a. Directly proportional to both rg2 and
torque to full-load torque is U p21
a. 0.6
b. Directly proportional to rg2 , but
b. 0.8
c. 1.0 inversely to U P21
d. 1.2 c. Inversely proportional to rg2 , but
51. A single-phase transformer when supplied
directly to U P21
from 220 V, 50 Hz has eddy current loss
of 50 W. If the transformer is connected to d. Inversely proportional to both rg2 and
a voltage of 330V, 50 Hz, the eddy current U P21
loss will be
a. 168.75 W 55. Match list I with list II and select the
b. 112.5 W correct answer:
c. 75W List I (Motors)
d. 50W A. Dc series motor
52. In case of auto-transformers, which of the B. Squirrel-cage induction motor
following statements are correct? C. dc shunt motor
1. An auto-transformer requires less List II (Applications)
copper as compared to a conventional, 1. Shearing and pressing
2-winding transformer of the same 2. Haulage and hoisting
capacity. 3. Rolling mill
2. An auto-transformer provides isolation A B C
between the primary and secondary a. 1 2 3
windings. b. 2 3 1
3. An auto-transformer has less leakage c. 3 1 2
reactance as compared to the d. 3 2 1
conventional, 2-winding transformer of 56. Match List 1 (1–φ Rectifier topology –
the same capacity. feeding resistive Load) with List II
Select the correct answer using .the codes (Average output voltage) and select the
given below: correct answer: ( α is the firing angle)
a. 1, 2 and 3 A. Uncontrolled - half wave
b. 1 and 2 B. Controlled - half wave
c. 1 and 3 C. Controlled - full wave
d. 2 and 3 D. Semi-controlled full wave
53. If Pc and Psc represent core and full-load List II
1. V peak / π (1 + cos α )
ohmic losses respectively, the maximum
kVA delivered to load corresponding to
maximum efficiency is equal to rated kVA 2. 2V peak / π cos α
multiplied by 3. V peak / π
a. Pc / Psc
4. V peak / 2π (1 + cos α )
b. Pc / Psc
A B C D
( Pc / Psc )
2
c. a. 3 2 4 1
8 of 14
b. 1 4 2 3 b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. 3 4 2 1 the correct explanation of A
d. 1 2 4 3 c. A is true but R is false
57. Switched reluctance motor means d. A is false but R is true
a. Salient pole synchronous motor 62. Assertion (A): Linear AM detector
without excitation winding applied with two amplitude-modulated
b. A stepper motor with salient poles waves simultaneously, one being very
c. Synchronous motor with salient poles weak with respect to the other, detects
on stator and rotor only the strong signal.
d. A steeper motor with closed loop Reason (R): Detector selectivity is
control and with rotor position sensor increased in the presence of strong signal.
58. Assertion (A): In avalanche breakdown, a. Both A and R are hue and R is the
the reverse current sharply increases with correct explanation of A
voltage due to a field emission. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R): The field, emission requires the correct explanation of A
highly doped p and n regions. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 63. Assertion (A): Coherent FSK system is
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT preferred over non-coherent FSK.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R): Coherent FSK requires less
c. A is true but R is false power than non-coherent FSK.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are hue and R is the
59. Assertion (A): In small signal class ‘A’ correct explanation of A
amplifier, the output is a magnified replica b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
of the input without any change in the correct explanation of A
frequency. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): The dc operating point is d. A is false but R is true
fixed in class ‘A’ position. 64. Assertion (A): High frequency power
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the supplies are lightweight.
correct explanation of A Reason (R): Transformer size get reduced
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT at high frequency.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are hue and R is the
60. Assertion (A): D-latch and edge-triggered the correct explanation of A
D-flip flop (FF are functionally different. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): In D-latch the output (O) can d. A is false but R is true
change while enable (EN) is high. In D-FF 65. A speciment of intrinsic germanium with
the output can change only on the active the density of charge carries of 2.5
edge of CLK. ×1013/cm3, is doped with donor impurity
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the atoms such that there is one donor
correct explanation of A impurity atom for ever 106 germanium
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT atoms. The density of germanium atoms is
the correct explanation of A 4.4×1022/cm3. The hole density would be
c. A is true but R is false a. 4.4 ×1016 / cm3
d. A is false but R is true b. 1.4 ×1010 / cm3
61. Assertion (A): D-flip flops are used to c. 4.4 ×1010 / cm3
construct a buffer register.
Reason (R): Buffer registers are used to d. 1.4 ×1016 / cm3
store a binary word temporarily. 66. In a forward biased photo diode, an
a. Both A and R are hue and R is the increase in incident light intensity causes’
correct explanation of A the diode current to
9 of 14
a. Increase b. Coupling capacitor at high frequency
b. Remain constant arid bypass capacitor at low frequency
c. Decrease c. Coupling junction capacitance at low
d. Remain constant while the voltage frequency and coupling capacitor at
drop across the diode increases high frequency
67. If for intrinsic Silcon at 27°C, the charge d. Device junction capacitor at high
concentration and mobilities of free- frequency and coupling capacitor at
electrons and holes are 1.5×1016 per m3, low frequency
0.13m2/(Vs) and 0.05 m2/(Vs) 72. The Darlington pair has a current gain of
respectively, its conductivity will be approximately β2, the voltage gain AV, the
a. 2.4×10-3 (Ω-m)-1 input resistance Ri and the output
b. 3.15×10-3 (Ω-m)-1 resistance R0. when the Darlington pair is
used in the emitter follower configuration,
c. 5×10-4 (Ω-m)-1
AV, Ri and R0 are respectively
d. 4.32×10-4 (Ω-m)-1 a. Very large, very large and very small
68. b. Unity, very large and very small
c. Unity, very small and very large
d. Very large, very small and very large
correct answer:
List I
A. hie
A circuit using the .BJT is shown in the B. hfe
above figure, the value of β is C. hre
a. 120 D. hoe
b. 150 List II (Units/delimitations)
c. 165 1. Current transfer ratio
d. 166 2. Ohms
69. Bridge rectifiers are preferred because 3. Siemens
a. They require small transformer 4. Voltage transfer ratio
b. They have less peak inverse voltage A B C D
c. They need small transformer and also a. 2 1 3 4
have less peak inverse voltage b. 1 2 4 3
d. They have low ripple factor c. 1 2 3 4
70. d. 2 1 4 3
74. An amplifier having an output resistance
of 4 Ω gives an open circuit output voltage
of 6 V (rms). The maximum power that it
can deliver to a load is
a. 1.5 W
For the circuit shown in the above figure b. 2.25 W
h11, h12, h21 and h22 are respectively c. 2.4 W
a. – 0.5, 0.5, 0.125 and 6 d. 9 W
b. 6, 0.5, – 0.5 and 0.125 75. Active load is used in the collector of the
c. 0.5, – 0.5, 6 and 0.125 differential amplifier of an op-amp to
d. 0.125, 6, 0.5 and – 0.5 a. Increase the output resistance
71. In an RC coupled amplifier, the gain b. Increase the differential gain Ad
decreases in the frequency response due to c. Increase maximum peak to peak output
the voltage
a. Coupling capacitor at low frequency d. Eliminate load resistance from the
and bypass capacitor at high frequency circuit
10 of 14
76.
A circuit with op-amp .is shown in the

above figure. The voltage V0 is
a. 3Vs1 − 6Vs2
b. 2Vs1 − 3Vs2
For the circuit shown in the above figure,
c. 2Vs1 − 2Vs2
β=100 for the transistor, the transistor will
be in d. 3Vs1 − 2Vs2
a. Cut off region 81. A sinusoidal waveform can be converted
b. Inverse active region to a square waveform by using a
c. Active region a. Two stage transistorized ovel7driven
d. Saturation region amplifier
77. “Slope overload” occurs in delta b. Two stage diode detector circuit
modulation when the c. Voltage comparator based on op-amp
a. Frequency of the clock pulses is too d. Regenerative voltage comparator
low circuit
b. Rate of change of analog waveform is 82.
too large
c. Step size is too small
d. Analog signal varies very slowly with
time
78. The slew rate of an op-amp is 0.5V/micro
sec. The maximum frequency of a
sinusoidal input of 2 V rms that can be For the circuit shown in the above figure,
handled without excessive distortion is by assuming β=200 and VBE = 0.7V, the
best approximation for the collector
a. 3kHz
current Ic in the active region is
b. 30kHz
a. 1 mA
c. 200kHz
b. 2.4 mA
d. 2MHz
c. 3 mA
79.
d. 9.6 mA
83. High power efficiency of the push-pull
amplifier is due to the face that
a. Each transistor conducts on different
cycle of the input
b. Transistors are placed in CE
An op-amp is used in the circuit as shown configuration
in the above figure. Current I0 is
c. There is no quiescent collector current
RL
a. Vs × d. Low forward biasing voltage is
Rs ( RL + Rs ) required
b. Vs / Rs 84. Which one of the following is the output
of the high pass filter to a step input?
c. Vs / RL
a.
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
d. Vs ⎜ + ⎟
⎝ Rs RL ⎠
80.
b.
11 of 14
d. Delay time
88.
c.
For the circuit shown in the above figure,

the output F will be
a. 1
d. b. X
c. Zero
d. X
89. In the CMOS inverter, the power
dissipation is
85. a. Low only when VEN is low
b. Low only when VEN is high
c. High during dynamic operation
d. Low during dynamic operation
90.
The Schmitt trigger circuit is shown in the

above figure. If Vsat = ± 10 V, the tripping
point for the increasing input voltage will
be
a. 1 V
b. 0.893 V An NMOS circuit is shown in the above
c. 0.477V figure. The logic function for the output
d. 0.416V (o/p) is
86. In Boolean Algebra, a. ( A + B ) .C + D.E
( )
If F = ( A + B ) A + C , then
b. ( AB + C ) .( D + E )
a. F = AB + AC
c. A. ( B + C ) .D.E
b. F = AB + AB
d. ABCDE
c. F = AC + AB
d. F = AA + AB correct answer:
87. List I (Type of gates)
A. ECL
B. TTL
C. CMOS
D. NMOS
List II (Values of propagation delay)
1. 5ns
A switch circuit using the transistor is 2. 20ns
shown in the above figure. Assume hFE(min) 3. 100 ns
= 20 and f τ = 100MHz. The most 4. 1ns
dominant speed limitation is brought by A B C D
a. Rise time a. 1 4 3 2
b. Fall time b. 4 1 3 2
c. Storage time c. 1 4 2 3
12 of 14
d. 4 1 2 3 96. In the frequency modulation if f m is
92. The length of a bus cycle in 8086/8088 is modulating frequency, Δf is maximum
four clock cycles, T1, T2, T3, T4 and an frequency deviation and B is bandwidth,
indeterminate number of wait state clock then
cycles denoted by Tw. The wait states are
a. B = Δf + f m
always inserted been
a. T1 and T2 b. B = Δf − f m
b. T2 and T3 c. B = 2 ( Δf + f m )
c. T3 and T4
d. T4 and T1 d. B = 2 ( Δf − f m )
93. When RET instruction is executed by any 97. In 8085 microprocessor, a number of the
subroutine then form 000XXXXO stored in the
a. The top of the stack will be popped out accumulator is processed by the
and assigned to the PC programme (Assume Cy = 0) as follows
b. Without any operation, the calling ANI OFFH
program would resume from RAL
instruction immediately following the MOV
call instruction ANI B,A
c. The PC will be incremented after the RAL
execution of the instruction ANI
d. Without any operation, the calling RAL
program would resume from ADD B
instruction immediately following the The operation carried out by the
call instruction, and also the PC will be programme is
incremented after the execution of the a. Multiplication of accumulator content
instruction by 10
94. Consider the following set of 8085 b. Complement of accumulator content
instructions used to read a byte of data
c. Multiplication of accumulator content
from the output of an ADC. The byte
by 9
represents digital equivalent of analog
d. Rotation of accumulator content three
input voltage Vin applied to ADC when
times
RD is asserted. 98. Which one of the following circuits
ADC EQU 30H transmits two messages simultaneously in
GETADC: IN ADC one direction?
RET a. Duplex
When RET is executed b. Diplex
1. Op-code of IN is fetched c. Simplex
2. port address 30H is decoded d. Quadruplex
3. Op-code of IN is decoded 99.
4. I/O read operation is performed
The correct sequence of these operations is
a. 3, 1, 4, 2
b. 1, 3, 2, 4 A DSB suppressed carrier reception is
c. 1, 3, 4, 2 shown in the above figure. If (SNR)i is the
d. 3, 1, 2, 4 S/N ratio for direct (incoherent) detection
95. In an AM signal when the modulation and (SNR)s is that for (coherent)
index is one, the maximum power Pt, synchronous detection, then
(where Pc is the carrier power) is equal to a. (SNR)s = 2(SNR)i
a. Pc b. (SNR)s = (SNR)i
b. 1.5pc c. (SNR)s = 4(SNR)i
c. 2pc d. (SNR)s = ½ (SNR)i
d. 2.5pc
13 of 14
100. An AM super-heterodyne receiver with IF d. Inverter
of 455kHz is tuned to the carrier frequency 106. The snubber circuit is used in thyristor
of 1000 kHz. The image frequency is circuits for
a. 545 kHz a. Triggering
b. 1 MHz b. dv/dt protection
c. 1455kHz c. di/ dt protection
d. 1910 kHz d. Phase shifting
101. A 4 GHz carrier is amplitude-modulated 107. It is preferable to use a train of pulse of
by a low-pass signal of maximum cut off high frequency for gate triggering of SCR
frequency 1 MHz. If this signal is to be in order to reduce
ideally sampled, the minimum sampling a. dv/dt problem
frequency should be nearly b. di/dt problem
a. 4 MHz c. The size of the pulse transformer
b. 4 GHz d. The complexity of the firing circuit
c. 8 MHz 108. A four quadrant chopper cannot be
d. 8 GHz operated as
102. If the modulation index of an AM wave is a. One quadrant chopper
changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power b. Cycloconverter
a. Increases by 50% c. Inverter
b. Increases by 75% d. Bi- directional rectifier
c. Increases by 100% 109. Match List I (Waveforms) with List II
d. Remains unaffected (Descriptions) and select the correct
103. answer:
List I
A.
B.
Which one of the following PCM schemes
is depicted in the above figure?
a. Adaptive DM
b. Differential PCM
c. Companding C.
d. Delta Modulation
104.
D.
The latching current in the above circuit is

List II
4 mA. The minimum width of the gate
pulse required turn on the thyristor is 1. Single phase fully controlled ac to dc
converter
a. 6 μs
2. Voltage commuted dc to dc chopper
b. 4 μs with input dc voltage E
c. 2 μs 3. Phase voltage of a three phase inverter
d. 1 μs
with 180° conduction and input dc
105. Triac cannot be used in
voltage E
a. ac voltage regulators
b. Cycloconverters
c. Solid state type of switch
14 of 14
4. Line voltage of a three phase inverter 114. The most suitable solid state converter for
with 120° conduction and input dc controlling the speed of the three-phase
voltage E cage motor at 25 Hz is
5. Three-phase diode bridge rectifier a. Cycloconverter
A B C D b. Current source inverter
a. 3 4 1 5 c. Voltage source inverter
b. 5 1 4 2 d. Load commutated inverter
c. 3 1 4 5 115. In case of voltage source inverter, free-
d. 5 4 1 2 wheeling can be avoided for the load of
110. The total harmonic distortion (THD) of ac a. Inductive nature
supply input current of rectifiers is b. Capacitive nature
maximum for c. Resistive nature
a. Single - phase diode rectifier with dc d. Back emf nature
inductive filter 116. PWM switching is preferred in voltage
b. 3-phase diode rectifier with dc source inverters for the purpose of
inductive filter a. Controlling output voltage
c. 3-phase thyristor rectifier with b. Output harmonics
inductive filter c. Reducing filter size
d. Single-phase diode rectifier with d. Controlling output voltage, output
capacitive filter harmonics and reducing filter size
111. A single phase ac voltage controller 117. Which one of the following is NOT the
feeding a pure resistance load has a load advantage of solids state switching of ac
voltage of 200 V (rms) when fed from a capacitors into ac supply over relay based
source of 250 V(rms). The input power switching?
factor of the controller is a. Low transients
a. 0.64 b. Low losses
b. 0.8 c. Fast response
c. 0.894 d. Long life
d. Difficult to estimate because of 118. The most suitable device for high
insufficiency of data frequency inversion in SMPS is
112. In a thyristor-controlled reactor, the firing a. BJT
angle of thyristor is to be controlled in the b. IGBT
range of
c. MOSFET
a. 0° to 90°
d. GTO
b. 0° to 180°
119. The quality of output ac voltage of a
c. 90° to 180° cycloconverter is improved with
d. 90° to 270° a. Increase in output voltage at reduced
113. A 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is frequency
controlled by a chopper-controlled b. Increase in output voltage at increased
resistance in its rotor circuit. A resistance frequency
of 2Ω is connected in the rotor circuit and c. Decrease in output voltage at reduced
a resistance of 4Ω is additionally frequency
connected during OFF periods of the d. Decrease in output voltage at increased
chopper. The average resistance in the frequency
rotor circuit for the chopper frequency of
120. A cycloconverter is operating on a 50 Hz
200 Hz is
supply. The range of output frequency that
a. 26/5Ω can be obtained with acceptable quality, is
b. 24/5 Ω a. 0 – 16 Hz
c. 18/5Ω b. 0 – 32 Hz
d. 16/5Ω c. 0 – 64 Hz
d. 0 – 128 Hz
I.E.S (OBJ) - 2002 1 of 13
PAPER–II
1. A d.c. series motor is accidentally d. Variable - reluctance motor
connected to single- phase a.c. supply. The 6. A 6-pole, 3-phase alternator running at
torque produced will be 1000 rpm supplies to an 8-pole, 3-phase
a. of zero average value induction motor which has a rotor current
b. oscillating of frequency 2 Hz. The speed at which the
c. steady and undirectional motor operates is
d. pulsating and unidirectional a. 1000 rpm
2. The ‘synchronous - impedance method’ of b. 960 rpm
finding the voltage regulation by a c. 750 rpm
cylindrical rotor alternator is generally d. 720 rpm
considered 7. For maximum current during ‘Slip Test’
a. a pessimistic method because on a synchronous machine, the armature
saturation is not considered V and aligns along
b. an optimistic method because a. d-axis
saturation is not considered b. q-axis
c. a fairly accurate method even if power c. 45° to d-axis
factor is not taken into account while d. 45° to q-axis
determining synchronous impedance
d. a fairly accurate method when power correct answer:
factor is taken into account while
List I (Name of test)
determining synchronous impedance
A. Open circuit and short circuit tests
3. Generally the no-load losses of an
electrical machine is represented in its B. Open circuit and zero power factor
equivalent circuit by a tests
a. parallel resistance with a low value C. Slip test
b. series resistance with a low value D. Maximum lagging current test
c. parallel resistance with a high value List II (Result)
d. series resistance with a high value 1. Leakage reactance
4. The power factor of a synchronous motor 2. Direct axis synchronous reactance
a. improves with increase in excitation 3. Quadrature axis synchronous reactance
and may even become leading at 4. Ratio, of direct axis synchronous
higher excitations reactance to quadrature axis
b. decreases with increase in excitation synchronous reactance
c. is independent of its excitation Codes;
d. increases with loading for a given A B C D
excitation a. 1 2 4 3
5. When the excitation of normally operating b. 1 2 3 4
unloaded salient-pole synchronous motor c. 2 1 4 3
suddenly gets disconnected, it continues to d. 2 1 3 4
run as a 9. A 3-phase 50 MVA 10 kV generator has a
a. Schrage motor reactance of 0.2 ohm per phase. Hence the
b. Spherical motor per-unit value of the reactance on. a base
c. Switched- reluctance motor of 100 MVA 25 kV will be
2 of 13
a. 1.25 List I (Transformer)
b. 0.625 A. Power transformer
c. 0.032 B. Auto transformer
d. 0.32 C. Welding transformer
10. The results of a ‘Slip Test’ for determining D. Isolation transformer
direct-axis (Xd) and quadrature-axis (Xq) List II (Voltage ratio)
reactance’s of a star-connected salient - 1. 230 V / 230 V
pole alternator are given below
2. 220 V / 240V
phase values: Vmax = 108V ; Vmin = 96V , 3. 400 V / 100V
I max = 12 A, I min = 10 A. Hence the two 4. 132 k V / 11 kV
reactance will be Codes;
a. Xd = 10.8 ohms and Xq = 8 ohms A B C D
b. Xd = 9 ohms and Xq = 9.6 ohms a. 4 2 3 1
c. Xd = 9.6 ohms and Xq = 9 ohms b. 4 2 1 3
d. Xd = 8 ohms and Xq = 10.8 ohms c. 2 4 1 3
11. Stepper motors are widely used because of d. 2 4 3 1
a. wide speed range 16. A two-winding transformer is used as an
b. large rating auto-transformer. The kVA rating of the
c. no need for field control auto-transformer compared to the two-
d. compatibility with digital systems winding transformer will be
12. a. 3 times
b. 2 times
c. 1.5 times
d. same
17. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, 1-phase
transformer has nameplate leakage
A 3-phase transformer having zero - impedance of 8% Voltage required to be
sequence impedance Z0 has zero-sequence applied on the high - voltage side to
network as represented in the figure. The circulate full - load current with the low-
connections of its windings are voltage winding short-circuited will be
a. star with isolated neutral - delta a. 16 V
b. star with grounded neutral- delta b. 56.56 V
c. delta- star with grounded neutral c. 160 V
d. delta-delta d. 568.68 V
13. A 2-phase servomotor in control system 18. The full-load copper-Loss and iron-loss of
a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
a. uses drag - cup rotor
respectively. The copper-loss and iron-loss
b. solid cylindrical rotor without slots or at half load will be, respectively
windings
a. 3200 W and 2500 W
c. ordinary squirrel - cage rotor
b. 3200 W and 5200 W
d. slip - ring rotor with inherent low
c. 16O0 W and 1250 W
rotor resistance
d. 1600 W and 5000 W
14. Capacitor in a single-phase induction
motor is used for 19. In a 100 kVA, 1100/220 V, 50 Hz single -
phase trans former with 2000 turns on the
a. improving the power factor
high -voltage side, the open- circuit test
b. improving the starting torque result gives 220 V, 91 A, 5 kW on low
c. starting the motor voltage side. The core-loss component of
d. reducing the harmonics current is, approximately
15. Match List I with List II and select the a. 9.1 A
correct answer:
3 of 13
b. 22.7 A d. 3 4 2 1
c. 45.0 A 23. Match List I with list II and select the
d. 91 A correct answer:
20. Match List I with List II and select the List I
correct answer: A. Commutation
List I (Types of electrical loads) B. V-curves
A. Hoist C. Free wheeling diode
B. Fans D. Overlap
C. Machine Tools (Lathe, Milling List II
machine etc.) 1. Inductive load
D. Loads with fluid friction 2. Capacitive load
List II (Torque-speed characteristics) 3. Interpole
1. Torque ∝ (speed)2 4. Source inductance
2. Torque ∝ (speed) 5. Synchronous motor
3. Constant Torque Codes;
4. Torque ∝ 1/ (speed) A B C D
Codes; a. 3 5 1 4
A B C D b. 2 4 3 5
a. 1 3 2 4 c. 3 4 1 5
b. 1 3 4 2 d. 2 5 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2 24. Possible three -to - three phase transformer
d. 3 1 2 4 connection for parallel operation is
21. For a given torque, reducing the diverter- a. Δ - Y to Δ - Y
resistance of a d.c. series motor b. Δ - Δ to Δ - Y
a. increases its speed but armature current c. Y – Y to Δ - Y
remains the same d. Δ - Y to Y - Δ
b. increases its speed demanding more 25. Match list I with list II and select the
armature current correct answer:
c. decreases its speed demanding less List I
armature current
A. Silica Gel
d. decreases its speed but armature
B. Porcelain
current remains the same
C. Mercury
22. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer: D. Fins
A. List I (Types of motors) List II
B. d.c. series motor 1. Bushing
C. d.c. shunt motor 2. Buccholz relay
D. 3-phase induction motor 3. Tank
E. Synchronous motor 4. Breather
List II (Characteristics) Codes;
1. Constant speed A B C D
2. High starting torque a. 2 1 4 3
3. Low starting torque b. 4 3 2 1
4. Poor stability c. 2 3 4 1
A B C D d. 4 1 2 3
a. 2 4 3 1 26. A 4 kVA, 400/200 V single-phase
transformer has resistance of 0.02 p.u. and
b. 3 1 2 4
reactance of 0.06 p.u. Its actual resistance
c. 2 1 3 4
4 of 13
and reactance referred to h.v. side, are, b. in the inverse ratio of their ratings
respectively c. in the direct ratio of their ratings
a. 0.2 ohm and 0.6. ohm d. purely reactive
b. 0.8 ohm and 2.4 ohm 32. The per-unit impedance of a circuit
c. 0.08 ohm and 0.24 ohm element is 0.15. lithe base kV and base
d. 2 ohm and 6 ohm MVA are halved, then the new value of the
27. A certain R - L series combination is per-unit impedance of the circuit element
connected across a 50 Hz single-phase a.c. will be
supply. If the instantaneous power drawn a. 0.075
was found to be negative for 2 b. 0.15
milliseconds in one cycle, the ‘power c. 0.30
factor angle’ of the current must be d. 0.60
a. 9° 33. The per-unit impedance of an alternator
b. 18° corresponding to base values 13.2 kV and
c. 36° 30 MVA is 0.2 p.u. The p.u. value of the
d. 45° impedance for base values 13.8 kV and 50
28. Stepper motors are mostly used for MVA in p.u. will be
a. high power requirements a. 0.131
b. control system applications b. 0.226
c. very high speed of operation c. 0.305
d. very low speed of operation. d. 0.364
29. A delta/star transformer has a phase-to- 34. Match List I with List II and select the
phase voltage transformation ratio of K correct answer:
⎛ List I (Phenomenon)
delta phase voltage ⎞
⎜K = ⎟ A. Voltage stability
⎝ star phase voltage ⎠
B. Transient stability
The line -to - line voltage ratio of star/delta C. Oscillatory instability
connection is given by
D. Steady-state Dynamics
a. K / 3 List II (Dominant features)
b. K 1. Power system stabilizer
c. K 3 2. Damping power
d. 3 /K 3. ‘Angle’ stability
30. Two 10 kV/440V, 1-phase transformers of 4. Reactive power
ratings 600 kVA and 350 kVA are Codes;
connected in parallel to share a load of 800 A B C D
kVA. The reactances of the transformers, a. 1 3 2 4
referred to the secondary side are 0.0198 b. 4 2 3 1
Ω and 0.0304 Ω respectively (resistances c. 1 2 3 4
negligible). The load shared by the two d. 4 3 2 1
transformers will, be, respectively
35. For transmission line which one of the
a. 484.5 kVA and 315.5 kVA following relations is true?
b. 315.5 kVA and 484.5 kVA a. AD - BC = 1
c. 533 kVA and 267 kVA b. AD - BC = 1
d. 267 kVA and 533 kVA c. AD - BC = - 1
31. Two transformers, with equal voltage ratio d. AD - BC = 0
and negligible excitation current,
connected in parallel, share load in the 36. For a given base voltage and base volt-
ratio of their kVA rating only, if their p.u. amp, the per-unit impedance value of an
impedances (based on their own kVA) are element is X. What will be the per-unit
impedance value of this element when the
a. equal
5 of 13
voltage and volt-amp bases are both 40. A cable has inductance of 0.22 mH per km
doubled? and capacitance of 0.202 μF per km. The
a. 4X surge impedance of the cable is
b. 2X a. 28 Ω
c. X b. 33 Ω
d. 0.5 X c. 42 Ω
37. d. 50 Ω
41. For some given transmission line the
expression for voltage regulation is given
V − VR
by s ×100% . Hence,
VR
The reflection coefficient for the a. this must be a ‘short’ line

transmission line shown in figure at point b. this may either be a ‘medium line’ or a
P is ‘short line’
a. + 1 c. this expression is true for any line
b. 0.5 d. this may either by a ‘medium line’ or a
c. 0 ‘long line’
d. - 1 42. The capacitance of an overhead
transmission line increases with
38. A 3-phase transmission line has its
conductors at the corners of an equilateral 1. increase in mutual geometrical mean
triangle with side 3 m. The diameter of distance
each conductor is 1.63 cm. The inductance 2. increase in height of conductors above
of the fine per phase per km is ground
a. 1.232 mH Select the correct answer from the
b. 1.182 mH following
c. 1.093 mH a. Both 1 and 2 are true
d. 1.043 mH b. Both 1 and. 2 are false
39. Match List I with List II and select the c. Only 1 is true
correct answer: d. Only 2 is true
List I (Design parameters) 43. Consider the following statements:
A. Number of suspension insulator discs Addition of lumped capacitances in
B. Permissible sag of transmission line parallel to a loss-free transmission line
conductor for a given tower increases
C. Corona discharge 1. characteristic impedance *
D. Inductance of transmission line 2. Propagation constant
conductor 3. system stability
List II (Factor(s) on which they depend) 4. charging current
1. Voltage and Tower footing resistance Which of these statements are correct?
2. Voltage a. 1 and 3
3. Voltage and conductor configuration b. 2 and 4
4. Conductor configuration and Tower c. 2, 3 and 4
configuration d. 1, 2 and 4
Codes; 44. In a certain single-phase a.c. circuit the
A B C D instantaneous voltage is given by
a. 1 2 3 4 v = V sin (ωt + 30°) p.u. and the
b. 4 3 2 1 instantaneous current is given, by i = I sin
c. 1 3 2 4 (ωt — 300) p.u. Hence the per-unit value
of reactive power is
d. 4 2 3 1
a. 1/4
6 of 13
b. 1/2 c. 900
c. 3 /4 d. 1000
50. Match list I with list II and select the
d. 3 /2
correct answer:
45. In a multimachine interconnected system, List I (Load flow methods)
subsequent to a 3- phase fault, the transient
A. Gauss-Siedel load flow
stability is examined by
B. Newton-Raphson load flow
a. equal -area criterion
C. Fast decoupled load flow
b. solution of wing equation
D. Real time load flow
c. either by equal - area criterion or by
solution of swing equation List II (System environment)
d. combination of equal - area criterion 1. Gauss –Elimination
and solution of swing equation 2. L — U factors
46. The electrical stiffness of a synchronous 3. Contingency studies
generator connected to a very large rid can 4. Off-line solution
be increased by Codes;
a. increasing the excitation or the power A B C D
angle of the machine a. 4 3 2 1
b. reducing the excitation or the b. 2 1 4 3
synchronous reactance of the machine c. 4 1 2 3
c. increasing the synchronous reactance d. 2 3 4 1
of the machine
51. Match List I with list II and select the
d. Operating the generator at a much correct answer:
lower MW level compared to the
List I (Types of relays)
steady -state limit
A. Negative –sequence relay
47. A. surge of 100 kV travels along an
overhead line towards it junction with a B. Harmonic - restraint differential relay
cable. The surge impedance for the C. Over-current relay with time - delay
overhead line and cable are 400 ohms and D. Mho relay
50 ohms respectively. The magnitude of List II (Protective schemes)
the surge transmitted through the cable is 1. Distribution feeder protection
a. 11.11 kV 2. Long h.t. lines protection
b. 22.22 kV 3. Transformer protection
c. 12.50 kV 4. Rotor protection of alternators
d. 82.89 kV Codes;
48. A surge voltage rising at 100 kV/μs travels A B C D
along a Loss-less open-circuited a. 4 3 1 2
transmission line. It takes 10 μs to reach
b. 1 2 4 3
the open end. The reflected wave from the
open end, will be rising at c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2
a. 100 kV/μs
52. The inverse characteristics of an induction
b. 200 kV/μs
– disc relay are shown below
c. 1000 kV/μs
d. 2000 kV/μs
49. The YBUS matrix of a 100-bus
interconnected system is 90% sparse.
Hence the number of transmission lines in
the system must be
a. 450 Match list I with list II and select the
b. 500 correct answer
7 of 13
List I (x, y co-ordinates and parameter) d. 1, 3 and 4
A. x — co-ordinate 56. The junction capacitance of a linearly
B. y — co-ordinate graded junction varies with the applied
C. Parameter reverse bias Vr as
List II (Variables) a. Vr−1
1. Plug settling voltage b. Vr−1/2
2. Current as multiplier of plug setting
c. Vr−1/3
3. Operating time
4. Time multiplier setting d. Vr1/2
5. Power factor 57. The diffusion capacitance of a forward
Codes; biased p+ - n junction diode with a steady
A B C current I depends on
a. 5 4 1 a. width of the depletion region
b. 2 3 4 b. mean lifetime of the holes
c. 5 3 4 c. mean lifetime of the electrons
d. 2 4 1 d. junction area
53. Two generators rated 200 MW and 400 58. The modified work function of an n-
MW having governor droop characteristics channel MOSFET is — 0.85 V. If the
of 4% and 5% respectively are operating in interface charge is 3 × 10-4 C/m2 and the
parallel. If the generators operate on no oxide capacitance is 300 μF/m2, the flat
load at 50 Hz, the frequency at which they band voltage .is
would operate with a total load of 600 a. - 1.85 V
MW is b. - 0.15 V
a. 48.50 Hz c. + 0.15 V
b. 47.69 Hz d. + 1.85 V
c. 46.82 Hz 59. In the circuit shown below,
d. 49.04 Hz
54. The bonding forces in c9mpound
semiconductors, such as GaAs, arise from
a. ionic bonding
b. metallic bonding
c. covalent bonding
d. combination of ionic and covalent the average value of vo(t) will be
bonding a. 0
55. Consider the following statements in b. −Vm / π
connection with the biasing of
semiconductor diodes ; c. −Vm / 2
1. LEDs are used. Sunder forward - bias d. −Vm
condition 60. Match list I with List II and select the
2. Photodiodes are used under forward- correct answer:
bias condition List I (Amplifier’s mode of operation)
3. Zener diodes are used under reverse- A. Class A
bias condition
B. Class B
4. Variable capacitance diodes are used
C. Class C
under reverse-bias condition
D. Class D
List II (Properties/characteristics)
a. 1, 2 and 3
1. Clips off half. a cycle
b. 1, 2 and 4
2. Leads to most stable biasing circuit
c. 2, 3 and 4
3. Transistor acts as switch
8 of 13
4. Amplification of the resonant
frequency only
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 4 3 the resistance Rg is chosen as R1 | | R2 in
d. 2 1 3 4 order to
61. Early effectin BJT refers to a. increase gain
a. avalanche breakdown b. reduce offset voltage
b. thermal runaway c. reduce offset current
c. base narrowing d. increase CMRR
d. Zener breakdown 66. An amplifier of gain A is bridged by a
62. In the circuit shown below, the average capacitance C as shown below.
value of Vo(t) will be
The effective input capacitance is

a. 0 a. C/A
b. −Vm / π b. C(1 - A)
c. C (1.+ A)
c. −Vm / 2
d. CA
d. −Vm 67. The resolution of a 12 bit Analog to
63. The Darlington pair is mainly used for Digital converter in per cent is
a. impedance matching a. 0.01220
b. wideband voltage amplification b. 0.02441
c. power amplification c. 0.04882
d. reducing distortion d. 0.09760
64. In the op-amp circuit shown below, 68.
vi > 0 and i = Io .eαv. The output vo will be
proportiona to
a. vi
The Boolean expression for the output Y
b. vi in the logic circuit in
c. ekvi a. A B C
d. l n ( kvi ) b. A B C
c. ABC
d. A B C
69. To add two M-bit numbers, the required
number of half adders is
a. 2m — 1
65. In the inverting op-amp circuit shown b. 2m — 1
below, c. 2m + 1
d. 2m
70. Consider the following
9 of 13
Any combinational circuit can be built d. 19
using 76. Consider the execution of the following
1. NAND gates instructions by a 8085 microprocessor
2. NOR gates LXI H, 01FFH
3. DC - OR gates SHLD 2050H
4. Multiplexeis After execution the contents of memory
Which of these are correct? locations 2050H and 2051H and the
a. 1, 2 and 3 registers H and L, will be
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. 2050H → FF ; 2051H → 01; H → FF ; L → 01
c. 2, 3 and 4 b. 2050H → 01; 2051H → FF ; H → FF ; L → 01
d. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2050H → FF ; 2051H → 01; H → 01; L → FF
71. The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal
d. 2050H → FF ; 2051H → 01; H → 00; L → 00
number 2 A OF is
a. 17670 77. Which one of the following functions is
performed by the 8085 instruction MOV
b. 17607
H, C?
c. 17067
a. Moves the contents of H register to C
d. 10767 register
72. The binary equivalent of hexadecimal b. Moves the contents of C register to H
number 4 F 2 D is register
a. 0101 1111 0010 1100 c. Moves the contents of C register to H
b. 0100 1111 0010 1100 L pair
c. 0100 1110 0010 1101 d. Moves the contents of HL pair to C
d. 0100 1111 0010 1101 register
73. A 3-to-8 decoder is shown below: 78. For 8085 microprocessor; the instruction
RST.6 restarts subroutine at address
a. 00H
b. 03H
c. 30H
d. 33H
79. Memory-mapped I/O-scheme for the
allocation of address to memories and I/O
devices, is used for
All the output lines of the chip will be
a. small systems
high, when all the inputs 1, 2 and 3
b. large systems
a. are high; and G1, G2 are low
c. both large and small systems
b. are high; and G1 is high, G2 is high
d. very large systems
c. are high; and G1 is low, G2 is high
80. The interfacing device used for the
d. are high; and G1 is high, G2 is low
generator of accurate time delay in a
74. Which logical operation is performed by microcomputer system is
ALU of 8085 to complement a number?
a. Intel — 8251
a. AND
b. Intel — 8257
b. NOT
c. Intel — 8253
c. OR
d. Intel — 8259
d. EXCLUSIVE OR
81. Let x(t) be a real signal with the Fourier
75. The number of output pins of a 8085 transform X(f). Let X*(f) denote the
microprocessor are complex conjugate of X(f). Then
a. 40 a. X(-f) = X*(f)
b. 27 b. X(-f) = X(f)
c. 21 c. X(-f) = - X(f)
10 of 13
d. X(-f) = - X*(f) B. FM
82. Let the transfer function of a network be C. PCM
H ( f ) = H ( f ) e ( ) = 2e− j 4π f If a signal
jθ f
D. Delta modulation
x(t) is applied to such a network, the List II (Disadvantages)
output y(t) is given by 1. Threshold effect
a. 2x(t) 2. Granular noise
b. x(t - 2) 3. Image frequency interference
c. 2x(t - 2) 4. Quantization noise
d. 2x(t - 4π) Codes;
83. The maximum number of quantized A B C D
amplitude levels, than a 3-digit ternary a. 1 3 4 2
PCM system can be used to represent is b. 3 1 4 2
a. 8 c. 1 3 2 4
b. 9 d. 3 1 2 4
c. 27 89. Consider a binary Hamming code of block
d. 81 length 31 and rate equal to (26/31). Its
84. The waveform A cos (ω1t + k cos ω2t ) is minimum distance is
a. 3
a. amplitude modulated
b. 5
b. frequency modulated
c. 26
c. phase modulated
d. 31
d. frequency as well as phase modulated
90. A satellite channel can be fairly accurately
85. Let x(t) = 5 cos (50t + sin 5t). Its modelled as a
instantaneous frequency (in rad/s) at t = 0
a. random delay channel
has the value
b. panic button channel
a. 5
c. additive white Gaussian noise channel
b. 50
d. fading channel
c. 55
91. One, disadvantage of adaptive delta
d. 250
modulation over linear delta modulation is
86. The performance of the DPCM - Coder that it
improves as the
a. requires more bandwidth
a. input probability density becomes
b. is more vulnerable to channel errors
more and more Gaussian
c. requires a large number of comparators
b. input power spectral density tends to
in the encoder
be white
d. is not suitable for signals with periodic
c. input dynamic range increases
components
d. sample-to-sample correlation of the
92. An MTI radar is operating at the
input increases
wavelength of 5 × 10-2 m and the pulse
87. An FM wave uses a 2-5V, 500 Hz repetition frequency (PRF) is 1000. Then
modulating frequency and has a the first blind speed (in m/s) occurs at
modulation index of 50. The deviation is
a. 25
a. 500 Hz
b. 50
b. 1000 Hz
c. 500
c. 1250 Hz
d. 1000
d. 25000 Hz
If the maximum range of a radar has to be
correct answer:
doubled,
List I (Modulation / reception techniques)
1. the peak transmitted power may be
A. Super heterodyne receiver increased 16 fold
11 of 13
2. the antenna diameter may be doubled a. reduce dv/dt across it
3. the sensitivity of the receiver may be b. reduce di/dt through it
doubled c. limit current through the thyristor
4. the transmitted pulse width may be d. ensure its conduction after gate signal
doubled is removed
Which of these statements are correct? 98. For a step up d.c. - d.c. chopper with an
a. 1 and 2 input d.c. voltage of 220 volts, if the
b. 2 and 3 output voltage required is 330 volts and
c. 3 and 4 the non-conducting time of thyristor is 100
μs the ON time of thyristor would be
d. 1 and 4
a. 66.6 μs
94. With reference to a pulsed radar match
List I (Problem) with List II (Causes) and b. 100 μs
select the correct answer: c. 150 μs
List I (Problem) d. 200 μs
A. Second time around echo 99. A thyristor controlled reactor is used to get
B. Blind speeds a. variable resistance
C. Inadequate range resolution b. variable capacitance
D. False –alarms c. variable inductance
List II (Causes) d. improved reactor power factor
1. Broad transmitted pulse 100. A single-phase full-bridge converter with a
2. Inadequate detection threshold free-wheeling diode feeds an inductive
3. MTI filter load. The load resistance is 15.53Ω and it
has a large inductance providing constant
4. Inadequate Inter Pulse period
and ripple free d.c. current. Input to
Codes; converter is from an ideal 230 V, 50 Hz
A B C D single phase source. For a firing delay
a. 4 3 1 2 angle of 60°, the average value of diode
b. 1 2 4 3 current is
c. 4 2 1 3 a. 10 A
d. 1 3 4 2 b. 8.165 A
95. When cathode of a thyristor is made more c. 5.774 A
positive than its anode d. 3.33 A
a. all the junctions are reverse biased 101. The operation of an inverter fed induction
b. outer junctions are reverse biased and motor can be shifted from motoring to
central one is forward biased regenerative braking by
c. outer junctions are forward biased and a. reversing phase sequence
central one is reverse biased b. reducing inverter voltage
d. all the junctions are forward biased c. decreasing inverter frequency
96. The sharing of the voltages between d. increasing inverter frequency
thyristors operating in series is influenced 102. In a three-phase full wave a.c. to d.c.
by the converter, the ratio of output ripple-
a. di/dt capabilities frequency to the supply-voltage frequency
b. dv/dt capabilities is
c. junction temperatures a. 2
d. static v - i characteristics and leakage b. 3
currents c. 6
97. R - C snubber is used in parallel with the d. 12
thyristor to
12 of 13
103. A’6-phase bridge-converter feeds a purely 108. How many switches are used to construct a
resistive load. The delay angle α is three-phase cycloconverter?
measured from the point of natural- a. 3
commutation. The effective control of b. 6
voltage can be obtained when a lies in the
range c. 12
d. 18
a. 0 ≤ α ≤ 105°
109. A 3-phase cycloconverter is used to obtain
b. 0 ≤ α ≤ 120°
a variable- frequency single-phase a.c.
c. 0 ≤ α ≤ 150° output. The single phase a.c. load is 220 V.
d. 0 ≤ α ≤ 180° 60 A at a power factor of 0.6 lagging. The
104. a.c. voltage regulators are widely used in rms value of input voltage per phase
required is
a. traction drives
a. 376.2 V
b. fan drives
b. 311.12 V
c. synchronous motor drives
c. 266 V
d. slip power recovery scheme of slip-
ring induction motor d. 220 V
105. When fed from a fully controlled rectifier, 110. Assertion (A): Even at no load a large
a d.c. motor, driving an active load, can three - phase squirrel- cage. Induction
operate in motor is started at reduced voltage.
a. forward motoring and reverse braking Reason (R): If a large three – phase
mode squirrel -cage induction motor with no
load is started at full voltage, it is
b. forward motoring and forward braking
damaged.
mode
c. reverse motoring and reverse braking
mode
d. reverse motoring and forward braking
mode
106. Compared to a single - phase half-bridge
inverter, the output power of a single- d. A is false but R is true
phase full-bridge inverter is higher by a 111. Assertion (A): A single-phase induction
factor of motor is not self-starting.
a. 12 Reason (R): A three-phase induction motor
b. 8 is self-starting.
c. 4 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. 2
107. In a switched-mode power supply (SMPS),
after conversion of a.c. supply to a highly
filtered d.c. voltage, a switching transistor c. A is true but R is false
is switched ON and OFF at a very high d. A is false but R is true
speed by a pulse width modulator (PWM) 112. Assertion (A): The distribution
which generates very-high frequency transformers are designed for minimum
square pulses. The frequency of the pulses core losses.
is typically in the range of Reason (R): Primary windings of
a. 100 Hz - 200 Hz distribution transformers are energized
b. 500 Hz – 1 kHz throughout the day.
c. 2 kHz – 5 kHz a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. 20 kHz - 50 kHz correct explanation of A
13 of 13
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
113. Assertion (A): The maximum operating c. A is true but R is false
temperature of overhead Line conductors d. A is false but R is true
made of aluminum or copper is restricted 117. Assertion (A): A tunnel diode can be used
to 75°C. as an oscillator.
Reason (R): Conductor temperature Reason (R): Voltage controlled negative
beyond 75°C may shatter porcelain resistance is exhibited by a tunnel diode.
insulators. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A): The intrinsic carrier
114. Assertion (A): In the modeling of medium concentration of Si at room temperature is
and long transmission lines the nominal-it more than that of GaAs.
and T circuits are not equivalent to each Reason (R): Si is an indirect bandgap
other. semiconductor while GaAs is a direct
Reason (R): A star-delta transformation bandgap semiconductor.
can be used to derive the one circuit from a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the other. correct explanation of A
119. Assertion (A): Slope overload is a problem
d. A is false but R is true in D.P.C.M.
115. Assertion (A): When a Line -to-Line (L - Reason (R): D. P.C. M. makes use of
L) faults takes place at the terminals of an adjacent sample correlations.
open-circuited generator, phase voltages
are sometimes ‘indeterminate’, though line a. Both A and R are true and R is the
-to- line voltages are always determinable. correct explanation of A
Reason (R): During a line-to-line fault, b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
zero-sequence voltage is always the correct explanation of A
indeterminate. c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A 120. Assertion (A): Thermal noise in metallic
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT resistors can be characterized by Gaussian
the correct explanation of A probability density function.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) Power spectral density of
d. A is false but R is true thermal noise is essentially constant for a
very large frequency range.
116. Assertion (A): In L. P. S. (Longitudinal
Power Supply) system, the voltage a. Both A and R are true and R is the
regulation is generally poor? correct explanation of A
Reason (R): L. P. S. system has low level b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
of short-circuit M. V.A. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003 1 of 15
PAPER-II
1. The direction of rotation of V d.c series a. 2 and 3
motor can be reversed b. 1 and 4
a. By interchanging supply terminals c. 3 and 4
b. By interchanging field terminals d. 1 and 2
c. Either by interchanging supply 5. The dummy coils in d.c. machines are
terminals or by interchanging field useful to
terminals a. Increase the efficiency
d. By interchanging supply terminals as b. Improve the commutation
well as field terminals
c. Reduce the cost of the machine
correct answer: d. Maintain mechanical balance of
armature
List I (Machine)
6. The speed of a d.c. shunt motor may be
A. DC Motor varied by varying
B. DC Generator 1. Field current
C. Alternator 2. Supply voltage
D. Induction Motor 3. Armature circuit
List II (Graph) Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Circle Diagram given below
2. V-Curve a. 1, 2 and 3
3. Open Circuit Characteristics b. 1 and 2
4. Speed-Torque Characteristics 4. 1 and 3
A B C D 5. 2 and 3
a. 4 3 1 2 7. If the field of a synchronous motor is
b. 3 4 2 1 under excited, the power factor will be
c. 4 3 2 1 a. Lagging
d. 3 4 1 2 b. Leading
3. The current drawn by a 120 V d.c. motor c. Unity
with back e.m.f. of 110 V and armature d. More than unity
resistance of 0.4 ohm is 8. Which of the following graphs represents
a. 4A the speed-torque characteristic of a
b. 25A synchronous motor?
c. 275 A a.
d. 300 A
4. Armature torque of a d.c. motor is a
function of which of the following factors?
1. Speed
2. Field Flux b.
3. Armature Current
4. Residual Magnetism
given below:
2 of 15
11. The synchronous reactance is the
a. Reactance due to armature reaction of
the machine
b. Reactance due to leakage flux.
c. c. Combined reactance due to leakage
flux and armature reaction
d. Reactance either due to armature
reaction or leakage flux
12. Match List I (Type of AC Winding) with
List II (Feature of AC Windings) and
d. select the correct answer :
List I
A. Single Layer
B. Double Layer
C. Full Pitch
9. Match List I (Machine Components) with D. Chorded
List II (Functions) and select the correct List II
answer : 1. Coil span and pole pitch are. equal
List I 2. Coil span is shorter than pole pitch
A. Damper Winding 3. Number of slots is equal to number of
B. Interpole Winding coils
C. End Ring 4. Number of slots is twice the number of
D. Conservator coils
List II A B C D
1. Used in synchronous motor to provide a. 3 4 1 2
starting torque b. 4 3 2 1
2. Used in d.c. generator to neutralize the c. 3 4 2 1
reactance voltage and cross d. 4 3 1 2
magnetizing effect of armature 13. Match List I (Machines) with List II
reaction (Tests) and select the correct answer :
3. Used to short circuit rotor bars of cage- List I
type induction motor
A. Transformer V
4. Used to protect transformers from
B. DC Motor
damage when oil expands due to rise in
temperature C. Alternator
A B C D D. Induction Motor
a. 2 1 3 4 List II
b. 1 2 4 3 1. Slip Test
c. 2 1 4 3 2. Blocked Rotor Test
d. 1 2 3 4 3. Sumpner’s Test
10. An induction motor having 8 poles runs at 4. Swinburne’s Test
727.5 r.p.m. If the supply frequency is 50 A B C D
Hz, the e.m.f. in the rotor will have a a. 3 4 1 2
frequency of b. 4 3 2 1
a. 1.5 Hz c. 3 4 2 1
b. 48.5 Hz. d. 4 3 1 2
c. 51.5 Hz 14. The leakage reactance of a three-phase
d. 75 Hz alternator determined by performing
3 of 15
a. Open circuit and zero power factor c. A high value for satisfactory speed
tests control
b. Zero power factor and slip tests d. The same phase as the rotor e.m.f. and
c. Open- and short-circuit tests a high value for satisfactory speed
d. Short-circuit and slip tests control
15. Consider the following types of single- 20. In an induction motor, when the number of
phase motors: stator slots is equal to an integral multiple
of rotor slots
1. Capacitor start induction motor
a. There may be a discontinuity in
2. Capacitor start and run induction motor torque-slip characteristics
3. Permanent split capacitor motor
b. A high starting torque will be available
4. Shaded pole motor
c. The maximum torque will be high
The correct sequence of these in the
d. The machine may fail to start
ascending order or magnitude of starting
torque is 21. The use of higher flux density in the
transformer design
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
a. Reduces the weight per kVA
b. 2, 3, 4, 1
b. Increases the weight per kVA
c. 3, 4, 2, 1
c. Has no relation with the weight of
d. 4, 3, 2, 1 transformer
d. Increases the weight per kW
correct in respect of an induction motor ?
22. The function of oil in a transformer is to
a. The maximum torque will depend on provide
rotor resistance
a. Insulation and cooling
b. Although the maximum torque does
not depend on rotor resistance, yet the b. Protection against lightning
speed at which maximum torque is c. Protection against short circuit
produced depends on rotor resistance d. Lubrication
c. The maximum torque will not depend 23. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a core. A
on standstill rotor reactance current of 1 A flowing through the coil
d. The slip of induction motor decreases creates a core fluex of 1 mWb. The energy
as torque increases stored in the magnetic field is
17. The crawling in the induction motor is a. 0.25 J
caused by b. 0.5 J
a. Improper design of stator laminations c. 1 J
b. Low voltage supply d. 2 J
c. High loads 24. Consider the following statements relating
d. Harmonics developed in motor to the constructional features of a large
18. The rotor slots are slightly skewed in power transformer:
squirrel-cage induction motor to 1. The conservator is used to maintain the
a. Increase the strengths of rotor bars level of oil in the transformer tank
b. Reduce the magnetic hum and locking 2. The bushing is used to protect
tendency of rotor transformer insulation against lightning
over-voltages
c. Economise on the copper to be used
3. The Buchholz relay is an over current
d. Provide ease of fabrication relay
19. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of 4. Silica gel is used to absorb moisture.
induction motor must have
a. The same frequency as the slip
frequency a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. The same phase as the rotor e.m.f. b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
4 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 4 A. Moderator
25. Two transformers operating in parallel will B. Control Rod
share the load depending upon their C. Coolant
a. Ratings D. Shield
b. Leakage reactance List II (Materials)
c. Efficiency 1. Boron
d. Per unit impedance 2. Concrete
26. A 1 kVa, 200/100 V, 50 Hz, single-phase 3. Graphite
transformer gave the following test results 4. Sodium
on 50 Hz :
A B C D
OC (LV side) : 100 V, 20 watts
a. 3 1 4 2
SC (HV side) : 5 A, 25 watts
b. 1 3 2 4
It is assumed that no-load loss components
are equally divided. The above tests were c. 3 1 2 4
then conducted on the same transformer at d. 1 3 4 2
40 Hz. 30. The bus admittance matrix of a power
Tests results were : system is given as
OC (HV) :160 V, W1 watts.
SC (LV) : 10 A, W2 watts
Neglecting skin effect, W1 and W2 will be
a. W1 = 16 watts, W2 = 25 watts The impedance of line between bus 2 and
b. W1 = 25 watts, W2 = 31.25 watts 3 will be equal to
c. W1 = 20 watts, W2 = 20 watts a. + j 0.1
d. W1 = 14.4 watts, W2 = 25 watts b. – j 0.1
27. A generated station has a maximum c. + j 0.2
demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% d. – j 0.2
and a plant capacity factor of 50%. The 31. Th.e component inductance due to the
reserve capacity of the plant is internal flux-linkage of a non-magnetic
a. 5 MW straight solid circular conductor per metre
b. 4 MW length has a constant value, and is
c. 6 MW independent of the conductor-diameter,
because
d. 10 MW
a. All the internal flux due to a current
28. When a ‘pumped storage’ power plant is remains concentrated on the peripheral
operated in conjunction with a steam region of the conductor
power plant
b. The internal magnetic flux-density
a. The operating cost of the steam plant along the radial distance from the
becomes optimum centre of the conductor increases
b. Load factor .of the steam plant is proportionately to the current enclosed
increased c. The entire current is assumed to flow
c. Chances of the tripping of the system along the conductor-axis and the
decrease because of the use of two internal flux is distributed uniformly
heterogeneous types of plants and concentrically
d. Operation of the storage plant in the d. The current in the conductor is
puming-mode during the low-load assumed to be uniformly distributed
period improves the steam-plant throughout the conductor cross-section
stability 32. Match List I with List II and select the
29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
correct answer : List I
List I (Components)
5 of 15
A. Graetz Bridge Converter end of the line being short-circuited. On
B. Series Compensation reaching the end of this line
C. Sag Templates a. The current wave is reflected back
D. Grading Ring with positive sign, but the voltage
wave with negative, sign
List II
b. The current wave is reflected back
1. EHV/UHV AC Transmission
with negative sign, but the voltage
2. HVDC Transmission wave with positive .sign
3. Insulators c. Both the current and the voltage waves
4. Tower Location are reflected with positive sign
A B C D d. Both the current and the voltage waves
a. 2 1 3 4 are reflected with negative sign
b. 1 2 4 3 36. Two insulator discs of identical
c. 2 1 4 3 capacitance value C make up a string for a
22 kV, 50 Hz, single-phase overhead line
d. 1 2 3 4
insulation system. If the pin to earth
33. A 100 km long transmission line is loaded capacitance is also C, then the string
at 110 kV. If the loss of line is 15 MW and efficiency is
the load is 150 MVA, the resistance of the
a. 50%
line is
b. 75%
a. 8.06 ohms per phase
c. 90%
b. 0.806 ohm per phase
d. 86%
c. 0.0806 ohm per phase
d. 80.6 ohms per phase
not correct for the use of bundled
34. conductors in transmission lines ?
a. Control of voltage gradient
b. Reduction in corona loss
c. Reduction in radio interference
d. Increase in interference with
communication lines
The above circuit shows a 3-phase system 38. A power system consists of two areas
having a balanced self-inductive reactance connected via a tie line. While enter in the
of XL per phase a mutual reactance of Xm data for load flow the tie line parameters
between pairs of phases. The line currents and its connectivity data were
are Ia, Ib and Ic, and they may be inadvertently left out, if the load flow
unbalanced. program is run with this incomplete data,
The series voltage-drop relations would be then the load flow calculations will
Vaa’ = Ia XL + Ib Xm + Ic Xm converge only if
Vbb’ = Ia Xm + Ib XL + Ic Xm a. One slack bus is specified in the first
area
Vcc’ = Ia Xm + Ib Xm + Ic XL
b. One slack bus is specified in the
The positive, negative and zero-sequence
second area
reactances X1, X2 and X0, respectively,
would be c. One slack bus is specified in either of
the two areas
a. (XL – Xm), (XL – Xm) and (XL – 2 Xm)
d. TWO slack buses, one in each area, are
b. (XL + Xm), (XL – 2Xm) and (XL + 2Xm)
specified
c. (XL – 2Xm), (XL + Xm) and (XL + Xm)
39.
d. (XL + 2Xm), (XL + 2Xm) and (XL + Xm)
35. A rectangular voltage wave is impressed
on a loss-free overhead line, with the far
6 of 15
generator-base. Each generator has a
reactance of 0.2 p.u.
The value of the reactor x to limit a
symmetrical short-circuit (a-b-c) current
through the circuit breaker to 1500 MVA
is
In the network as shown above, the a. 0.05 p.u.
marked parameters are p.u. impedances.
b. 0.10 p.u.
The bus-admittance matrix of the network
is c. 0.15 p.u.
d. 0.20 p.u.
⎡10 −5⎤
a. ⎢ ⎥ 42. The zero sequence current of a generator
⎣ −5 5 ⎦ for line to ground fault is j 2.4 p.u. Then
⎡ 5 −5⎤ the current through the neutral during the
b. ⎢ ⎥ fault is
⎣ −5 10 ⎦
a. j 2.4 p.u.
⎡ −10 5 ⎤
c. ⎢ ⎥ b. j 0.8 p.u,.
⎣ 5 −5⎦ c. j 7.2 p.u.
⎡ −5 5 ⎤ d. j 0.24 p.u.
d. ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 5 −10 ⎦ 43. In HVDC transmission there are
40. Consider the following statements with predominant
reference to protective relays a. Voltage harmonics on d.c. side and
1. The minimum relay coil current at current harmonics a.c. side of
which the relay operates is called pick- converters
up value. b. Current harmonics on d.c. side and
2. The pick-up value of a relay is 7.5 A voltage harmonics on a.c. side of
and fault current is 30 A. Therefore, its converters
plug setting multiplier is 5. c. Current harmonics only on the d.c. side
3. An earth fault current is generally of converters
lesser than the short-circuit current. d. Voltage harmonics only on the a.c.
4. Induction relays are used with both a.c. side of converters
and d.c. quantities. 44. Match List I (Different Configurations for
Which of these statements are correct ? Asynchronous Interconnection) with List
II (Corresponding Figures) and select the
a. 1 and 2 correct answer :
b. 2 and 3 List I
c. 1 and 3 A. Two-terminal DC Link
d. 1, 2 and 4 B. Back to back HVDC Link along with
41. AC feeder
C. Back to back HVDC Link at border
List II
1.
2.
Four identical 100 MVA, 33 kV
generators are operating in parallel, as
shown above, in two bus-bar sections,
interconnected through a current limiting 3.
reactor of x p.u. reactance on the
7 of 15
A B C
a. 3 2 1
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 2 1 3
45. Consider a silicon transistor connected as a
common emitter amplifier as shown
above. The quiescent collector voltage of
the circuit is approximately
a. 6.67
b. 10 V
c. 14
d. 20 V
48.
Consider a power system with two plants
S1 and S2 connected through a tie line as
shown above.
When the load-frequency control of the
system is considered, the ‘Flat tie-line
control’ system is preferred over the ‘Flat
frequency regulation system’, because
a. It is advantageous to control the
In the transistor circuit as shown above,
frequency from any one particular
the collector to ground voltage is + 20 V.
plant without disturbing the other one
The possible condition is
during load-swings on either S1 or S2
areas a. Collector-emitter terminals shorted
b. This ensures that only the more b. Emitter to ground connection open
efficient plant’s input is controlled for c. 10 kilo-ohms resistor open
load, variation in any area d. Collector-base terminals shorted
c. Only the tie line is required to absorb 49. In an RC coupled common emitter
the load-swing amplifier
d. The load-change in a particular area is a. Coupling capacitance affects the h.f.
taken care of by the generator in that response, and bypass capacitance
area resulting in the tie-line loading to affects the 1.f response
remain constant b. Both coupling and bypass capacitances
46. In a p-n junction, to make the depletion affect the h.f. response
region extent predominantly into p-region, c. Both coupling and bypass capacitances
the concentration of impurities in the p- affect the 1.f. response only
region must be d. Coupling capacitance affects the 1.f.
a. Much less than the concentration of response and the bypass. capacitance
impurities in n-region affects the h.f. response
b. Much higher than the concentration of 50. Consider the following with reference to a
impurities in n-region CE transistor amplifier:
c. Equal to the concentration of 1. The use of negative feedback
impurities in n-region 2. The conversion of d.c. power to a.c.
d. Zero 3. High voltage and current gains
47. 4. The use of a step-up transformer
The power gain is due to
8 of 15
a. 1 and 2 b. 1
b. 2 and 3 c. 3
c. 1 and 3 d. 29
d. 1 and 4 55.
51. The open-loop voltage gain of an amplifier
is 240. The noise level in the output
without feedback is 100 mV. If a negative
feedback with β = 1/60 is used, the noise
level in the output will be
a. 1.66 mV
b. 2.4 mV Consider the following statements with
c. 4.0 mV reference to an ideal voltage follower
d. 20 mV circuit as shown above :
52. 1. Unity gain and no phase shift
2. Infinite gain and 1800 phase shift
3. Very high input impedance and very
low output impedance
4. It is a buffer amplifier
Which’ of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
In the circuit as shown above, the ratio of d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
V0 to (V2–V1) would approximately 56.
(neglecting constant due to Vcc) be
a. RC / RE
b. RE / RC
c. –RC / RE
d. –RE / RC
53. An op-amp has a differential gain of 103
and a CMRR of 100. The output voltage of In the op-amp circuit as shown above, the
the op-amp with inputs of 120 μV and current iL is
80μV will be a. Vi / ZL
a. 26 mV b. Vi / ZL | | R1
b. 41 mV c. Vi / R1
c. 100 mV d. Vi(R1 + ZL)
d. 200 mV 57. Match List I (Circuits) with List II
54. (Characteristics/Applications) and select
the correct answer :
List I
A. High-pass RC circuit
B. Low-pass RC circuit
C. Clamping circuit
D. Clipping circuit
An FET oscillator uses the given phase
List II
shift network as shown above. The
minimum gain required for oscillation is 1. Comparator
a. –29 2. DC Restorer
9 of 15
3. Integrator
4. Differentiator
5. Compensated Attenuator
A B C D
a. 5 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 5 4 1 2 The above shown NMOS circuit is a gate
d. 4 3 2 1 of the type
58. The simplified form of a logic function Y a. NAND
( )(
= A B . A B is ) b. NOR
c. AND
a. A + B d. EXCLUSIVE-OR
b. A B 63. D flip-flop can be made from a J-K flip-
c. A + B flop by making
d. A B + A B a. J = K
59. The reduced form of the Boolean b. J = K = 1
c. J = 0, K = 1
expression A[B + C( AB + AC )] is
d. J = K
a. AB 64.
b. AB
c. AB
d. AB + BC
60. An n-bit AID converter is required to
convert analog input in the range 0-5 V to
an accuracy of 10 mV. The value of n In the circuit as shown above, assuming
should be initially Q0 = Q1 = 0. Then the states of Q0
a. 16 and Q1 immediately after the 33rd pulse
are
b. 10
a. 1 1
c. 9
b. 1 0
d. 8
c. 0 1
61. Consider the following statements in
respect of ECL gate: d. 0 0
1. Its switching speed is high 65. Which one of the following statements is
not correct? Conversion of EXCESS-3
2. It provides OR and NOR logic code to BCD can be achieved by using
operations
a. Discrete gates
3. Its power dissipation is small as
compared to other logic gates b. 4 : 16 de-multiplexer
4. Its logic levels are compatible with c. 4-bit full adder
other logic family gates d. A 4-bit half adder
Which of these statements are correct ? 66.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
62.
10 of 15
The three-stage Johnson Ring Counter as a. A carry and an odd parity number
shown above is clocked at a constant having 1 as the MSB
frequency of fc from the starting state of b. Zero and the auxiliary carry flag being
Q0 Q1 Q2 = 101. The frequency of outputs set
Q0 Q1 Q2 will be c. A number with even parity and I as the
a. fc / 8 MSB
b. fc / 6 d. A number with odd parity and 9 as the
c. fc / 3 MSB
d. fc / 2 71. The program counter in a 8085
67. A 4-bit modulo-16 ripple counter uses J-K microprocessor is a 16-bit register,
flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each because
flip-flop is 50 nanoseconds, the maximum a. It counts 16 bits at time
clock frequency that can be used is equal b. There are 16 address times
to c. It facilitates the user storing 16-bit data
a. 20 MHz temporarily
b. 10 MHz d. It has to fetch two 8-bit data at a time
c. 8 MHz 72. A microprocessor is ALU
d. 5 MHz a. and control unit on a single chip
68. The binary representation 100110 is b. and memory on a single chip
numerically equivalent to the c. register unit and I/O device on a single
1. Decimal representation 46 chip.
2. Octal representation 46 d. register unit and control unit on a
3. Hexadecimal representation 26 single chip
4. Excess-3 representation 13 73. In Intel 8085 A microprocessor ALE
Select the correct answer using the codes signal is made high to
given below : a. Enable the data bus to be used as low
a. 1 and 2 order address bus
b. 2 and 3 b. To latch data D0 — D7 from data bus
c. 1 and 3 c. to disable data bus
d. 2 and 4 d. To achieve all the functions listed
69. A Direct Memory Access (DMA) transfer above
implies 74. Examine the following instruction to be
a. Direct transfer of data between executed By a 8085 microprocessor. The
memory and accumulator input port has an address of 01 H and has a
data 05H to input :
b. Direct transfer of data between
memory and I/O devices without the IN 01
use of microprocessor ANI 80
c. Transfer of data exclusively with in After execution of the two instructions the
microprocessor registers following flag portions may occur :
d. A fast transfer of data between 1. Zero flag is set
microprocessor and I/O devices 2. Zero flag is reset
70. After an arithmetic operation, the flag 3. Carry flag is cleared
register of a 8085 microprocessor has the 4. Auxiliary carry flag is set
following look: Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
The arithmetic operation has resulted in b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3 and 4
11 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 4 79. If the accumulator of n Intel 8085 A
75. Match List I (Introduction) with List Il microprocessor contains 37 H and the
(Type of Addressing) and select the previous operation has set the carry flag,
correct answer : the instruction ACl 56 H will result in
List I a. 8 E H
A. MOVA,M b. 94 H
B. LXIH, E400H c. 7 E H
C. LDA Fl CDH d. 84 H
D. CMC 80. Which one of the following statements
List II about RAM is not correct?
1. Direct addressing a. RAM stands for random-access
memory
2. Register addressing
b. It is also called read/write memory
3. Implicit addressing
c. When power supply is switched off,
4. Register indirect addressing the information in RAM is usually lost
5. Immediate addressing d. The binary contents are entered or
A B C D stored in the RAM chip during the
a. 5 4 1 3 manufacturing state
b. 4 5 3 1 81. A handshake signal in a data transfer is
c. 5 4 2 3 transmitted
d. 4 5 1 3 a. Along with the data bits
76. How many and which types of machine b. Before the data transfer
cycles are needed to execute PUSH PSW c. After the data transfer
by an Intel 8085A microprocessor? d. Either along with the bits or after the
a. 2, Fetch and Memory write data transfer
b. 3, Fetch and 2 Memory write 82. Which one of the following is not a
c. 3, Fetch and 2 Memory read vectored interrupt ?
d. 3, Fetch, Memory read and Memory a. TRAP
write b. INTR
77. Output of the assembler in machine codes c. RST 3
is referred to as d. RST 7.5
a. Object program 83. Ports are used to connect the CPU to
b. Source program which of the following units?
c. Macroinstruction 1. Printer
d. Symbolic addressing 2. Floppy disk drives
78. Three devices A, B and C are connected to 3. Video display unit
an Intel 8085 A microprocessor. Device A 4. Incoming power supply
has the highest priority and device C has Select the correct answer using the codes
the lowest priority. The correct assignment given below :
of interrupt inputs is
a. 1 and 2
a. A uses RST 5.5, B uses RST 6.5 and C
uses TRAP b. 2 and 3
b. A uses RST 5.5 B uses RST 6.5 and C c. 3 and 4
uses RST 7.5 d. 1 and 3
c. A uses RST 7.5, uses RST 6.5 and C 84. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 10
uses RST 5.5 kHz and the highest frequency component
d. A uses TRAP, B uses RST 5.5 and C present is 705 kHz. The carrier frequency
uses RST 6.5 used for this AM signal is
a. 695 kHz
12 of 15
b. 700 kHz b. 16.67%
c. 705 kHz c. 23.34%
d. 710 kHz d. 37.5%
85. If large amount of information is to be 90. Which of the following desirable features
transmitted in a small amount of time, we are possessed by SSB in comparison to
require AM ?
a. Low-frequency signals 1. Less power is required
b. Narrow-band signals 2. Bandwidth required is less
c. Wide-band signals 3. Antenna size can be reduced
d. High-frequency signals 4. Lower frequency can be used
86. Match List I (System) with List II Select the correct answer using the codes
(Application) and select the correct given below :
answer: a. 3 and 4
List I b. 2, 3 and 4
A. Pre-emphasis c. 1 and 2
B. Armstrong Method d. 1, 2 and 4
C. Envelope Detector 91. The detection-gain for coherent DSB
D. De-Emphasis demodulator is
List II a. 2
1. AM Detector b. 4
2. FM Receiver c. 8
3. FM Generator d. 16
4. FM Transmitter 92. Power spectral density of a signal is
5. AM Transmitter a. Complex, even and non-negative
A B C D b. Real, even and non-negative
a. 4 3 2 1 c. Real, even and negative
b. 3 5 1 2 d. Complex, odd and negative
c. 4 3 1 2 93. Which one of the following multiplexing
d. 5 3 2 1 techniques involves signals composed of
87. A modulator is a device to light beams ?
a. Separate two frequencies a. CDM
b. Impress the information on to a radio b. FDM
frequency carrier c. TDM
c. Extract information from the carrier d. WDM
d. Amplify the audio frequency signal 94. In a communication system, a process for
88. A modulation technique in which which statistical averages and time-
bandwidth of the modulated signal is averages are equal, is called
extended well beyond the bandwidth of the a. Stationary
modulating signal, independent of the b. Ergodic
modulating. signal bandwidth, is called c. Gaussian
a. Wide-band modulation d. BIBO stable
b. Extended bandwidth modulation 95. In which type of the switchings given
c. Spread spectrum modulation below, entire capacity of a dedicated link
d. Narrow-band modulation is used ?
89. In AM, the percentage of total power in a. Circuit switching
sideband is b. Data gram packet switching
a. 10% c. Virtual circuit packed switching
13 of 15
d. Message switching 4. Affect the delay time
96. In TV transmission, the modulation A B C D
schemes for Video and Audio are, a. 2 1 4 3
respectively b. 1 2 3 4
a. FM and AM c. 2 1 3 4
b. FM and FM d. 1 2 4 3
c. AM and FM 100. An ideal chopper operating at a frequency
d. AM and AM of 500 Hz, supplies a load having
97. Match List I (Converters) with List II resistance of 3 ohms and inductance of 9
(Type of Conversion) and select the mH from a 60 V battery. The mean value
correct answer : of the load voltage for on/off ratio of 4/1,
List I (assuming that load is shunted by a perfect
A. Controlled Rectifier commutating diode and battery is loss-
less) is
B. Chopper
a. 240 V
C. Inverter
b. 48 V
D. Cycloconverter
c. 15V
List II
d. 4V
1. Fixed DC to variable voltage and
variable frequency AC 101. The characteristic features of
discontinuous conduction compared to
2. Fixed DC to variable DC continuous conduction in a four-pulse,
3. Fixed AC to variable DC single-phase bridge converter are
4. Fixed AC to variable frequency AC a. Larger average value of load voltage
A B C D and larger ripple-content
a. 2 3 1 4 b. Larger average value of load voltage
b. 3 2 4 1 and smaller ripple-content
c. 2 3 4 1 c. Smaller average value of load voltage
d. 3 2 1 4 and smaller ripple content
98. Turn-on and turn-off times of transistor d. Smaller average value of load voltage
depend on and larger ripple-content
a. Static characteristic 102. If the r.m.s. source voltage is V volts, the
minimum and maximum values of firing
b. Junction capacitances
angles for a single-phase, half-wave
c. Current gain controlled rectifier, supplying a load with a
d. None of the above back e.m.f. of 40 volts are
99. Match List I (Characteristic/Action) with a. 00 and 180o
List II (Observations) and select the
b. α = sin–1 (40/ 2V ) and 1800
correct answer:
List I c. α = sin–1 (40/ 2V ) and [π–sin–1
A. Turn-on time of thyristor (40/ 2V )]
B. Turn-on time of transistor d. 00 and [π – sin–1 (40/ 2V )]
C. Rate of rise of gate current in thyristor 103. An AC voltage-regulator using back-to-
D. If the gate pulse is removed, when the back connected SCRs is feeding an RL
thyristor is carrying a current, less than load. The SCR firing angle α < φ (φ is
latching current power factor angle of the load). If SCRs
List II are fired using short-duration gate pulses,
1. Depends on junction capacitances the output load-voltage waveform will be
2. Is the sum of delay and rise times a. Symmetrical chopped ac. voltage
3. Thyristor switches back to OFF-state b. Half-wave rectified
14 of 15
c. Full-wave rectified 2 × 48V
d.
d. Sinusoidal 2 2π
104. In a self-controlled synchronous motor fed 108. A boost-regulator has an input voltage of
from a variable frequency inverter 5V and the average output voltage of 15 V.
a. The rotor poles invariably have damper The duty cycle is
windings a. 3/2
b. There are stability problems b. 2/3
c. The speed of the rotor decides stator c. 5/2
frequency d. 15/2
d. The frequency of the stator decides the 109. An inter-group reactor is used in a single-
rotor speed phase cycloconverter circuit to
105. A d.c. source is switched in steps to a. Reduce current-ripples
synthesize the three-phase output. The
basic three-phase bridge inverter can be b. Reduce voltage-ripples
controlled. The angle through which each c. Limit circulating current
switch conducts, and at any instant the d. Limit di/dt in the semiconductor switch
number of switches conducting 110. Assertion (A) : DC series motors are
simultaneously are, respectively. suitable for cranes.
a. 120° and 02 Reason (R) : DC, series motors provide
b. 120° and 03 high starting torque.
c. 180° and 02 a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. 1800 and 04 R is the correct explanation. of A
106. b. Both A and R are individually true but
111. Assertion (A) : The short circuit, ratio
(SCR) of a three-phase alternator should
be high.
Reason (R) : A high value of SCR will
For a single-phase, full-bridge inverter
decrease the value of voltage regulation
supplying power to a highly inductive load
and will increase the maximum power
as shown above, the correct sequence of
output.
operation of switches and diodes is
a. S1S4 – S3S2 – S1S4 – S3S2
R is the correct explanation. of A
b. D1D4 – S1S4 – D2D3 – S2S3
c. S1D3 – S1S4 – S4D2 – D2D3 R is not the correct explanation of A
d. S2D4 – D4D1 – D1S3 – S3S2 c. A is true but R is false
107. A single-phase, half-bridge inverter has d. A is false but R is true
input voltage of 48 V DC. Inverter is
112. Assertion (A) : Single-phase induction
feeding a load of 2.4 Ω. The r.m.s. output
motor is not self-starting.
voltage at fundamental frequency is
Reason (R) : No rotating magnetic field is
2 × 48V
a. set up in the air gap of a single-phase
π induction motor.
2 × 48V a. Both A and R are individually true and
b.
2π R is the correct explanation. of A
2 × 48V b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. R is not the correct explanation of A
π
15 of 15
113. Assertion (A) : A double-cage induction execution of the following couple of
motor has good starting characteristics. instructions
Reason (R) : At starting, a large position of MVI B, 03
starting current flows in the bottom cage. MOV A, B
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : After the execution of a data
R is the correct explanation of A. transfer instruction, zero-flag is set if the
b. Both A and R are individually true but accumulator content is zero.
R is not the correct explanation of A. a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. A is true but R is false R is the correct explanation. of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are individually true but
114. Assertion (A) : Hydroelectric plants with R is not the correct explanation of A
large storage can be best used as base toad c. A is true but R is false
plants high load factor. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : For a plant to .be used as base 118. Assertion (A): Microwave links are
plant, the unit cost of energy generated by generally preferred to coaxial cable for TV
the plant should be low. transmission.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : Microwave links have greater
R is the correct explanation. of A bandwidth than coaxial cables. .
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation. of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. A is false but R is true R is not the correct explanation of A
115. Assertion (A) : Transistor h-parameter c. A is true but R is false
equivalent circuit can be used for the d. A is false but R is true
analysis irrespective of the configuration 119. Assertion (A) : FM transmission is noise
(CE, CB or CC) of the transistor used. free.
Reason(R) : The values of h-parameter Reason (R) : In FM, information is carried
remain unchanged with transistor as frequency variation.
configuration.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation. of A
R is the correct explanation. of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
120. Assertion (A) : The critical rate of change
116. Assertion (A) : In an asynchronous of forward-voltage is the value of dv/dt, at
counter, output of each FF serves as CLK which the device just goes into conduction
input signal for the next FF without a gate pulse.
Reason (R) : All the FFs do not change Reason (R) : Thyristors go to a state of
states in exact synchronism with the clock conduction with the application of sharp
pulses. rate of change of forward-voltage in the
a. Both A and R are individually true and absence of gate pulse, even before the
R is the correct explanation. of A break- forward voltage limit is reached.
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation. of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are individually true but
117. Assertion (A) :. The zero-flag of a 8085 c. A is true but R is false
microprocessor is not affected after the d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004 1 of 16
PAPER-II
1. The diagram given below shows the 4. Self–starting
connection of a four–wire delta bank for A B C D
obtaining a 3–phase 4–wire distribution a. 3 4 1 2
system. The secondary voltages between
the terminals are as indicated, a b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
4. In a d.c. machine, for the same values of φ,
Z and N; which one of the following
statements is correct ?
What is the voltage between the terminals
b and d in the above system when the a. Armature e.m.f. is more with wave
primary side is energized from an winding than with lap winding
appropriate symmetrical 3–phase system? b. Armature e.m.f. is less with wave
winding than with lap winding
a. 230 / 2 V
c. Armature e.m.f. depends on whether
b. 230 / 3 V the machine is running as a motor or a
c. 115 × 3 V generator
d. Armature e.m.f. is the same as long as
d. 115 × 2 V the flux density in the air gap remains
2. If per unit impedances of two transformers the same
connected in parallel are not equal, then 5. Match List I (Constructional Components)
which one of the following statements is with List II (Machines) and select the
correct? correct answer using the codes given
a. The power factor of the two below :
transformers will be different from that List I
of the connected load
A. Damper bars
b. Transformers will get overloaded
B. Equalizer rings
c. Dead short circuit occurs
C. Skewed slots
d. The transformer with higher per unit
D. Water–cooling ducts
impedance will share more load
List II
3. Match List I (Machine) with List II
(Performance) and select the correct 1. Cylindrical – rotor synchronous
answer using the codes given below : generator
List I 2. Salient pole synchronous motor
A. Three phase induction motor 3. Squirrel–cage induction motor
B. Synchronous motor 4. Direct current generator
C. D. C. series motor A B C D
D. D. C. shunt motor a. 2 4 3 1
List II b. 1 3 4 2
1. Adjustable speed c. 1 4 3 2
2. High starting torque d. 2 3 4 1
3. Not self–starting 6. A d.c. shunt motor is excited from an
alternating power frequency voltage
2 of 16
source. Its brush–axis is rotated by an. 9. What is the increase in the torque
angle α from the geometrical neutral axis. expressed as percentage of initial torque, if
The torque developed will be proportional the current drawn by a d.c. motor is
to which one of the following? increased from 10 A to 12 A (Neglect
a. sin α saturation)?
b. cos α a. 21%
b. 25%
c. tan α
c. 41%
d. cos 2α
d. 44%
7. Four types of d.c. generators of constant
speed are considered (List I). Their 10. Consider the following statements
external characteristics at constant speed In a d.c. machine, iron loss occurs in
are given in List II. Match List I (Type of 1. armature core
d.c. generator) with List II (External 2. yoke
characteristics) and select the correct
3. pole cores
answer using the codes given below :
4. pole shoes
List I (Type of d.c. generator)
A. Separately excited
correct?
B. Series excited
a. 1 and 4
C. Shunt excited
b. 1 and 2
D. Over–compound excited
c. 1 and 3
List II (External characteristics)
d. 2 and 3
1.
11. Four important parameters of alternators
have comparatively larger or smaller
values. In comparison to a steam turbine
driven alternator, a hydraulically driven
machine will have which one of the
following combinations?
Number of Axial Number Operating
armature length of of poles speed
A B C D conductors armature
a. 2 3 1 4 conductors
b. 1 4 2 3 a. Smaller larger smaller higher

c. 1 3 2 4 b. Larger smaller larger lower
d. 2 4 1 3 c. Larger larger smaller lower
8. Consider the following statements: The d. Smaller smaller larger higher
speed of a d.c. motor can be controlled by 12. Which one of the following is the primary
the variation of reason for placing field on rotor in an
1. armature voltage alternator?
2. field current a. Small power .in field circuit
3. armature circuit resistance b. Insulation of high voltage is made easy
on stator than on rotor
4. angle of brush shift
c. Large power in stator
correct ? d. Large current in the stator
a. 1, 2 and 3 13. Consider the following:
b. 2, 3 and 4 1. Supply voltage
c. 1, 3 and 4 2. Excitation current
d. 1, 2 and 4 3. Maximum value of load angle
3 of 16
The maximum power developed by a c. reduce the chance of cogging
synchronous motor is a function of which d. reduce the magnetizing current
of the above? 19. Which one of the following statements is
a. 1 and 2 correct?
b. 1 and 3 In an induction motor, if the air gap is
c. 2 and 3 increased,
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. its speed will reduce
14. When a 3–phase alternator is suddenly b. its efficiency will improve
short–circuited at its terminals, the initial c. its power factor will reduce its
value of the short–circuit current is limited breakdown torque will reduce
by which one of the following ? 20. Which one of the following statements is
a. Subtransient reactance x”d correct?
b. Transient reactance x’d In a 3–phase induction motor, the torque
c. Synchronous reactance xs developed is maximum when the rotor
d. Sum of x”d, x’d and xs circuit resistance per phase is equal to
15. Which one of the following methods gives a. rotor leakage reactance per phase at
more accurate result for determination of standstill
voltage regulation of an alternator? b. slip times the rotor leakage reactance
a. m.m.f. method per phase at standstill
b. Synchronous impedance method c. stator resistance per phase
c. Potier triangle method d. stator leakage reactance per phase
d. American Institution Standard method 21. The supply voltage to an induction motor
16. Which one of the following statements is is reduced by 10%. By what percentage,
correct? approximately, will the maximum torque
decrease?
In a salient pole synchronous machine the
air gap is a. 5%
a. uniform under the whole pole shoe b. 10%
b. least under the middle of the pole shoe c. 20%
and increases outwards d. 40%
c. largest under the middle of the pole 22. Consider the following curve
shoe and decreases outwards
d. least at one end of the pole shoe and
increases to the maximum Value at the
other end
17. Which one of the following is not a
necessary condition to be satisfied for
synchronising an incoming alternator to an Which of the following characteristics of
already operating alternator? the induction represented by the above
a. Same voltage magnitude curve?
b. Same frequency x—axis y—axis
c. Same prime mover speed a. Output p.f.
d. Same phase sequence b. Speed p.f.
18. Which one of the following statements is c. Load efficiency
correct? d. Speed torque
A smaller air gap in a polyphase induction 23. A squirrel–cage induction motor having a
motor helps to rated slip of 4% on full load has a starting
a. reduce the chances of crawling torque same as the full load torque. Which
one of the following statements is correct?
b. increase the starting torque
4 of 16
The starting current is c. 2 and 3
a. equal to the full load current d. 1, 2 and 3
b. twice the full load current 28. Which one of the following equations is
c. four times the full load current correct?
d. five times the full load current a. –AB + CD = –1
24. Which one of the following types of b. AD + CB = 1
motors is most suitable for a computer c. AB – CD = –1
printer drive? d. –AD + BC = –1
a. Reluctance motor where A, B,C and D are generalized circuit
b. Hysteresis motor constants.
c. Shaded pole motor 29. Match List I (Name of Power Plant) with
d. Stepper motor List II (Plant Features) and select the
25. For a reluctance type motor, if the stator correct answer using the codes given
below:
magnetic field angular velocity is ω and
the actual rotor angular velocity is ωr, and List I
then which one of the following equations A. Thermal
is satisfied if the average electromagnetic B. Nuclear
torque is not zero ? C. Hydro
a. ω = ωr / 2 D. Diesel
b. ω = ωr List II
c. ω = 2ωr 1. High operating cost
d. ω = 4ωr 2. High capital cost
26. Which one of the following statements is 3. High plant life
correct? 4. High fuel transportation cost
When a single phase induction motor is A B C D
excited with single phase a.c. voltage, the
a. 3 1 4 2
magnetic field set up is equivalent to
b. 4 2 3 1
a. two fields, rotating in opposite
directions with different speeds c. 3 2 4 1
b. two fields, rotating at synchronous d. 4 1 3 2
speed in opposite directions 30. The combined effect of series and shunt
c. two fields, rotating at synchronous compensation on transmission lines in
speed terms of degree of series compensation
(Kse), degree of shunt compensation (Ksh),
d. two fields rotating in the same
and surge impedance of uncompensated
direction but at different speeds
line (Z0) is given by which one of the
27. Consider the following statements following equations ?
regarding pumped storage plants :
a. Z 0' = Z 0 1 − K se . 1 − K sh
1. A pumped storage plant is a base load
plant. b. Z 0' = ⎡⎣ 1 − K se . 1 − K sh ⎤⎦ / Z 0
2. The starting time of a pumped storage
plant is very short c. Z 0' = Z 0 (1 − K se ) / (1 − K sh )
3. Reversible turbines and pumps are
highly suitable for pumped storage d. Z 0' = Z 0 (1 − K sh ) / (1 − K se )
plants 31. Match List I (Classification based on
Which of the statements given above are Head) with List II (Type of Turbine) and
correct? select the correct answer using the codes
a. 1 and 2 given below :
b. 1 and 3 List I
5 of 16
A. Low head, 2–15 m d. Q, | V |
B. Medium head, 16–70 m (The symbols have their usual meaning)
C. High head, 71–500 m 36. Consider the following quantities :
D. Very high head, > 500 m 1. Real power
List II 2. Reactive power
1. Pelton 3. Power factor
2. Francis or Pelton 4. Input current
3. Kaplan or Francis 5. Bus voltage magnitude
4. Propeller or Kaplan 6. Bus voltage phase–angle
A B C D For the purpose of the load f1ow studies of
a. 4 3 2 1 a power system, each bus or node is
b. 3 4 1 2 associated with which one of the
combinations of the above four quantities?
c. 4 3 1 2
a. 1, 3, 4 and 5
d. 3 4 2 1
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
32. Ds is the GMR of each subconductor of a
four subconductor bundle conductor and d c. 2, 3, 5 and 6
is the bundle spacing. What is the GMR of d. 1, 2, 5 and 6
equivalent single conductor? 37. Consider the following statements
regarding load frequency control :
a. 1.09 Ds × d 3
1. Time constant of automatic load

b. 1.09 Ds 3 × d 3 frequency control is about 15 seconds.
2. Integral control eliminates static
c. 1.09 4
Ds 3 × d 3 frequency drop.
3. In tie-line load bias control, the control
d. 1.09 4
Ds × d 3
signal for each area is proportional to
33. Which one of the following statements is change in frequency as well as change
correct? in tie-line power.
Corona loss increases with Which of the statements given above are
a. decrease in conductor size and increase correct?
in supply frequency a. 1, 2 and 3
b. increase in both conductor size and b. 1 and 2
supply frequency c. 1 and 3
c. decrease in both conductor size and d. 2 and 3
supply frequency 38. Which one of the following statements i.s
d. increase in conductor size & decrease correct?
in supply frequency Normally ZBUS matrix is a
34. For a fixed receiving end and sending end a. Null matrix
voltage in a transmission system, what is
b. Sparse matrix
the locus of the constant power?
c. Full matrix
a. A straight line
d. Unity matrix
b. An ellipse
2π
j
c. A parabola 39. If α = e = e 3 , and I = AIs where I is
d. A circle equal to phase current vector and Is is
35. At slack bus, which one of the following equal to symmetrical current vector, then
combinations of variables is specified ? which one of the following matrices is the
a. | V |, δ symmetrical components transformation
matrix A?
b. P.Q
c. P.| V |
6 of 16
⎡1 1 1⎤ Stability studies constitute
a. ⎢1 α α 2 ⎥⎥
⎢ 1. the major analytical approach V to the
study of power system
⎢⎣1 α 2 α ⎥⎦
electromechanical dynamic behaviour.
⎡1 α α 2 ⎤ 2. the involvement of one or just a few
⎢ ⎥ machines undergoing slow or gradual
b. ⎢1 1 1⎥
changes in operating conditions.
⎢1 α 2 α ⎥
⎣ ⎦ 3. the determination of the locus of
⎡1 1 1⎤ essentially steady-state operating
⎢
c. ⎢1 α 2
α ⎥⎥
points of the system.
4. the determination of whether or not the
⎢⎣1 α α 2 ⎥⎦
rotors of the machines being perturbed,
⎡1 α 2 α ⎤ return to the constant speed operation.
⎢ ⎥ Which of the statements given above are
d. ⎢1 α α 2 ⎥
correct?
⎢1 1 α ⎥
⎣ ⎦ a. 1, 2 and 3
old
40. Zpu is the per unit impedance on the b. 2, 3 and 4
power base SBold and voltage base VBold c. 1 and 4
what would be the per unit impedance on
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
the new power base SBnew and voltage base
VBnew ? 43. If a sudden short circuit occurs on a power
2 system (considered as RL series circuit),
Sold ⎛ VBnew ⎞ the current wave-form consists of
a. Zpu new
= Zpu old B
⎜ old ⎟
Snew
B ⎝ VB ⎠ 1. a decaying a.c. current.
2 2. a decaying d.c. current.
Snew ⎛ VBold ⎞
b. Zpu new
= Zpu old B
⎜ new ⎟ Let the alternator reactance be X and the
Sold
B ⎝ VB ⎠ power system resistance R. Which one of
Snew ⎛ VBold ⎞ the following is correct ?
c. Zpu new = Zpu old B
⎜ new ⎟ a. The decay in (1) is caused by the
Sold
B ⎝ VB ⎠
increase in X but in (2)is caused by R
Sold ⎛ VBnew ⎞ b. The decay in (1) is caused by R but in
d. Zpu new = Zpu old B
⎜ old ⎟
Snew
B ⎝ VB ⎠ (2) is caused by increase in X
41. Consider the following statements c. The decay in both (1) and (2) is caused
regarding the fault analysis : by R
1. The neutral grounding impedance Z d. The decay in both (1) and (2) is caused
appears as 3 Zn, in zero sequence by the increase in X
equivalent circuit. 44. Match List I (Type of Relays) with List II
2. For faults on transmission lines, 3- (Types of Protection) and select the correct
phase faults the least severe amongst answer using the codes given below:
other faults. List I
3. The positive and negative sequence A. Directional relay
networks are not affected by method of B. Impedance relay
neutral grounding. C. Differential relay
Which of the statements given above are D. Pilot relay
correct?
List II
a. 2 and 3
1. Relay operates for fault within certain
b. 1 and 2 distance of its location
c. 1 and 3 2. Relay will trip for fault in one location
d. 1, 2 and 3 and block for all other locations
42. Consider the following statements :
7 of 16
3. High speed protection for entire 48. A synchronous sequential circuit is
transmission line designed to detect a bit sequence 0101
4. The principle of current continuity is (overlapping sequence included). Every
used to devise a simple and effective time this sequence is detected, the circuit
relaying system over a small physical produces an output of ‘1’. What is the
space minimum number of states the circuit must
A B C D have ?
a. 1 2 4 3 a. 4
b. 2 1 3 4 b. 5
c. 2 1 4 3 c. 6
d. 1 2 3 4 d. 7
45. Consider the following statements 49. Match List I (Circuit Symbols) with List II
regarding the suitable choice of HVDC (Nomenclature) and select the correct
converter configuration: answer using the codes given below :
1. Pulse number should be high. List I
2. Ratio of peak inverse voltage to no
load d.c. output voltage should be as A.
high as possible. B.
3. Transformer utilization factor should
be nearly unity.
Which of the statements given above are C.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
D.
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
46. Two identical RC coupled amplifiers, each
having an upper cut-off frequency fu, are List II
cascaded with negligible loading. What is 1. NAND
the upper cut-off frequency of the overall 2. NOR
amplifier? 3. Buffer
fu 4. Schmitt trigger
a.
2 −1 A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. fu 2 −1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. fu / 2 c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2fu d. 3 4 1 2
47. Two identical RC coupled amplifiers, each 50. If x and y are Boolean variables, which
having a lower cut-off frequency fl are one of the following is the equivalent of
cascaded with negligible loading. What is x⊕ y⊕xy ?
the lower cut-off frequency of the overall
amplifier? a. x + y
fl b. x + y
a.
2 −1 c. 0
d. 1
b. fl 2 −1 51. Consider the following bistable
c. fl / 2 multivibrator circuit:
d. 2fl
8 of 16
3. Demultiplexer
4. Register
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 1 2
Which one of the following statements is d. 4 3 2 1
correct ? 55. Which one of the following statements is
In the above circuit, condensers C1 and C2 correct?
are used A photodiode works on the principle of
a. for passing the noise a. photo-voltaic effect
b. to compensate The collector-emitter b. photo-conductive effect
capacitance
c. photo-electric effect
c. to speed up the switching action d. photo-thermal effect
d. to provide negative feedback path 56. Match List I with List II and select the
52. Consider the following statements : correct answer using the codes given
1. TTL has high switching speed and below:
good fan-out capability. List I (Circuit)
2. ECL has the least propagation delay. A. Monostable multi vibrator
3. I2L uses multi-collector transistors B. Bistable multivibrator
4. N MOS has more silicon area. C. Clamping circuit
Which of the statements given above are D. Schmitt trigger
correct ?
List II (Application)
a. 1, 2 and 3 1. Comparator
b. 2 and 4 2. d.c. level translator
c. 1, 3 and 4 3. Delay.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Voltage controlled oscillator
53. Which one of the following statements is 5. Counter
correct?
A B C D
An ideal regulated power supply should
have a. 4 3 1 2
a. 100% regulation b. 3 5 2 1
b. 50% regulation c. 4 5 2 1
c. 0% regulation d. 5 4 1 2
d. 75% regulation 57. What are the values respectively, of R1 and
R2 in the expression
correct answer using the codes given (235)R1 = (565)10 = (865)R2 ?
below a. 8, 16
List I (Operation) b. 16, 8
A. Counting c. 6, 16
B. Decoding d. 12, 8
C. Data selection 58. Match List I (Sections of a Service
D. Code conversion Voltage Regulator) with List II (Elements
used in these Sections) and select the
List II (Associated Device) correct answer using the codes given
1. ROM below:
2. Multiplexer List I
9 of 16
A. Reference source 61. It is required to construct a 2n-to-l
B. Error detector multiplexer by using 2-to-1 multiplexers
C. Control device only. How many of 2-to-1 multiplexers are
needed?
D. Current limit
a. n
List II
b. 22n
1. Op-Amp
c. 2n–1
2. BJT
d. 2n – 1
3. Zener diode
62. A inverter gate has guaranteed output
4. Short circuit protection levels as:
A B C D logic ‘1’ = 3.8 V and logic ‘0’ = 0.7 V.
a. 3 1 2 4 The maximum low level input voltage at
b. 3 2 1 4 which the output remains high 2 V. The
c. 4 2 1 3 minimum high-level input voltage at
which the output remains low = 3.1 V.
d. 4 1 2 3
What are the noise margins of this gate ?
59. Which. one of the following statements is
a. NMH = 2.4 V, NML = 1.8 V
correct?
b. NMH = 1.8 V, NML = 1.3 V
The efficiency of class B push-pull
amplifiers is much higher than that of class c. NMH = 0.7 V, NML = 1.8 V
A amplifiers primarily because d. NMH = 0.7 V, NML = 1.3 V
a. the distortion is kept within acceptable 63. Consider the following circuit :
limits
b. one half of the input signal ,is
amplified using one transistor and the
other half is phase-inverted and fed to
the other transistor
c. matched pair transistors are used in
push-pull operation
Which one of the following gives the
d. the, quiescent d.c. current is avoided function implemented by the MUX-based
the class B digital circuit ?
(
a. f = C2. C1 . S + C 2 . C1 . A + B )
b. f = C 2 . C1 .C2.C1+C2. C1 .S+ C 2 .C1. Ab
c. f = AB + S
d. f = C 2 . C1 + C2. C1 . S + C 2 .C1. AB
Which one of the following is the correct correct?
expression for the Current I0 ? For a 4-input NOR gate, when only two
Vs .RL inputs are to be used, the best option for
a.
Rs ( RL + Rs ) the unused inputs is to
Vs a. connect them to the ground
b. b. connect them to VCC
Rs
c. keep them open
Vs
c. d. connect them to the used inputs
RL
65. A range decoder is a ‘digital circuit which
⎛ 1 1 ⎞ outputs a ‘1’ whenever an m-bit number X
d. Vs ⎜ + ⎟ falls within the range, 2p ≤ X ≤ 2q, 0 ≤ p. q
⎝ RL Rs ⎠
10 of 16
≤m–1. Which one of the following c.
functions describes the range-decoder?
a. ( X .X .L.X .X )
p p+1 q −1 q
( X +X +L + X )
q+1 q+2 m −1
b. ( X ⊕ X ⊕L X )
p p+1 q
(X q+1 +X q+2 + L + X m −1 ) d.
c. (X p +X p+1 + L + X q−1 + X q )
(X q+1 .L.X m −1 )
d. ( X +X +X +L + X )
0 1 2 q
(X q+1 .X q+2 .L.X m −1 ) 68. A silicon transistor with VBE sat = 0.8 V, βdc
66. Consider the following circuit : = 100 and VCE sat = 0.2 V is used in the
circuit shown below :
What is the minimum value of RC for

which transistor is in saturation?
What is the output voltage V0 in the above
circuit ? a. 4286 Ω
a. 9.5 V b. 4667 Ω
b. 3 V c. 5000 Ω
c. 32.2 V d. 1000 Ω
d. 1 V 69. For a JK flip-flop, Qn is output at time step
67. If the coupling capacitors of a CE tn. Which of the following Boolean
transistor amplifier is shorted, which one expressions represents Qn+1 ?
of the following graphs will represent the a. J n Q n + K n Q n
frequency response curve of the amplifier?
b. J n Q n + K n Q n
(Av voltage gain, f = frequency in Hertz,
Amax = maximum value of Av) c. J n Q n + K n Q n
a.
d. J n Q n + K n Q n
correct?
In Intel 8085, me interrupt enable flip-flop
is reset by
a. DI instructions only
b. system RESET only
c. interrupt acknowledgement only
d. either DI or system RESET or interrupt
acknowledgement
b.
11 of 16
71. Match List I (Instruction) with List II b. PC points to the last instruction that
Operation) for Intel 8085 and select the was executed
correct answer using the codes given c. Stack works on the principle of LIFO
below: d. All instructions affect the flags
List I 74. Consider the following multiplication
A. PCHL
(10w1z)2 × (15)10 = (y01011001)2
B. SPHL
Which one of the following gives
C. XTHL appropriate values of w, y and z ?
D. XCHG a. w = 0, y = 0, z = 1
List II b. w = 0, y = 1, z = 1
1. Exchange the top of the stack with the c. w = 1, y = 1, z = 1
contents of HL pair
d. w = 1, y = 1, z = 0
2. Exchange the contents of HL with
75. What must be the contents of the control
those of DE pair
word of Intel 8255 for Mode O(operation)
3. Transfer the contents of HL to the and for the following ports configuration:
stack pointer
Port A – output, Port B – output,
4. Transfer the contents of HL to the
Port Clower – output, Port Cupper — input ?
programme counter
a. 85 H
A B C D
b. 86 H
a. 3 4 1 2
c. 87 H
b. 3 4 2 1
d. 88H
c. 4 3 2 1
76. Which one of the following 8085 assembly
d. 4 3 1 2
language instructions does not affect the
72. Match List I (Instruction) with List II contents of the accumulator?
a. CMA
using the codes given below:
b. CMPB
List I
c. DAA
A. SIM
d. ADDB
B. DAD
77. MC 1488 and MC 1489 are needed when
C. DAA
using RS 232 for which one of the
D. SPHL following?
List II a. To convert the logical levels at the
1. 16-bit addition receiving and sending ends of RS 232
2. Initializing the stack pointer into TTL compatible levels
3. Serial output data b. To convert the TTL level voltages at
4. Checking the current interrupt mask the sending and receiving ends of RS
setting 232 to ± 12 V level
5. BCD addition c. They are not required while using RS
232
A B C D
d. To improve the current drive of the RS
a. 5 4 2 1 232 output signals
b. 3 1 5 4 78. Which one of the following statements for
c. 5 1 2 4 Intel 8085 is correct?
d. 3 4 5 1 a. Program counter (PC) specifies the
73. Which one of the following statements is address of the instruction last executed
correct? b. PC specifies the address of the
a. ROM is a Read/Write Memory instruction being executed
12 of 16
c. PC specifies the address of the 3. LDA 03 FC H
instruction to be executed 4. RAL
d. PC specifies the number of instructions A B C D
executed so far a. 4 1 2 3
79. Match List I (Interrupts) with List II b. 4 2 1 3
(Corresponding Characteristics) and select
the correct answer using the codes given c. 3 2 1 4
below: d. 3 1 2 4
List I 82. A memory system of 64 kbytes needs to be
A. TRAP designed with RAM chips of 1 kbyte each,
and a decoder tree constructed with 2 : 4
B. INTR decoder chips with “Enable” input. What
C. RST 7.5 is the total number of decoder chips ?
D. RST 6.5 a. 21
List II b. 64
1. Level triggered c. 32
2. Non maskable d. 25
3. For increasing the number of interrupts 83. Match List I with List II and select the
4. Positive edge triggered correct answer using the codes given
A B C D below:
a. 2 4 3 1 List I
b. 1 4 3 2 A. Monitor program
c. 1 3 4 2 B. Assembler
d. 2 3 4 1 C. Mnemonic
80. What is the total number of memory D. Program counter
locations and input-output devices that can List II
be addressed with a processor having 16- 1. Used to indicate memory location
bits address bus, using memory mapped 2. A combination of letters, symbols and
I/O ? numerals
a. 64 K memory locations and 256 I/O 3. A program that translates symbolic
devices instructions into binary equivalent
b. 256 I/O devices and 65279 memory 4. An operating system
locations
A B C D
c. 64 K memory locations and no I/O
devices a. 4 3 2 1
d. 64 K memory locations or input-output b. 4 3 1 2
devices c. 3 4 1 2
81. For Intel 8085, match List I (Addressing d. 3 4 2 1
Mode) with List II (Instruction) and select 84. Which one of the following statements is
the correct answer using the codes given correct?
below : In PCM, the conditional probability of
List I error is proportional to
A. Implicit addressing a. noise power (N0)
B. Register-indirect b. Peak signal energy (Emax)
C. Immediate c. N0
D. Direct addressing
List II d. E max
1. JMP 3 FAO H 85. Which one of the following statements is
2. MOV A, M correct?
13 of 16
In TDM, non-essential frequency Si N i
components of the modulating signal are b.
S0 N 0
removed by
Si N 0
a. sampler c.
S0 N i
b. attenuator
c. pre-alias filter S0 N 0
d.
d. modulator Si N i
86. Which one of the following statements is 91. Which one of the following statements is
correct? correct?
For coherent detection of digital signals, One hundred percent modulation of the
the receiver must be carrier for the broadcast FM radio band is
a. synchronized in time only achieved when
b. synchronized in phase only a. carrier frequency changed by ± 100%
c. synchronized in time and phase b. carrier envelope changed by ± 100%
d. unsynchronized c. carrier frequency changes by ± 75 kHz
87. A single-phase inverter has square wave d. audio frequency changes by ± 15 kHz
output voltage. What is the percentage of 92. In case of data transmission, which one of
the fifth harmonic component in relation to the following systems will give the
the fundamental component? maximum probability of error?
a. 40% a. ASK
b. 30% b. FSK
c. 20% c. PSK
d. 10% d. DPSK
88. For a binary symmetric channel, which 93. Which one of the following statements is
one of the following is the correct correct?
expression for entropy ? The type of modulation used generally in
(p = conditional probability of error). TV transmission for video and audio
a. p log2 (1/p) + (1 – p) log2{1/(1–p)} signals, respectively are
b. p log2 (1/(1–p)} + (1 – p) log2 (1/p) a. FM and AM
c. 2 log2 (1/p) + 2 log2 {1/1–p)} b. FM and FM
d. (1–p) {log2 (1/p)} + log2 {(1/1–p)} c. AM and AM
89. In amplitude modulation, the modulation d. AM and FM
envelope has a peak value which is double 94. Match List I (FM Service Type) with List
the unmodulated carrier value. What is the II (Channel Bandwidth) and select the
value of the modulation index ? correct answer using the codes given
a. 25% below :
b. 50% List I
c. 75% A. Commercial FM radio broadcast
d. 100% B. Television sound
90. S1 and S0 denote the signal at input and C. Police, fire, ambulance. etc.
output of a linear network. Ni and N0 are D. Amateur radio
the corresponding noises. Which one of List II
the following is the correct expression for 1. 100 kHz
noise figure of the network?
2. 15 kHz
SiS0
a. 3. 200 kHz
Ni N 0
4. 20 kHz
A B C D
14 of 16
a. 4 2 3 1 a. 1 to 2 microseconds
b. 4 1 3 2 b. 50 to 200 microseconds
c. 3 1 4 2 c. 500 to1000 microseconds
d. 3 2 4 1 d. 1 to 2 milliseconds
95. Which one of the following statements is 100. Which one of the following statements is
correct? correct?
The capacitor charging time in the AM A triac is a
envelope demodulator is based on the time a. 2 terminal switch
for one b. 2 terminal bilateral switch
a. half cycle of the carrier frequency c. 3 terminal unilateral switch
b. quarter cycle of the carrier frequency d. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
c. half cycle of the lowest audio 101. Which one of the following is the most
frequency suitable device for a d.c-d.c. converter?
d. quarter cycle of the highest audio a. BJT
frequency
b. GTO
correct? c. MOSFET
Quantising noise is produced in d. Thyristor
a. all pulse modulation systems 102. Which one of the following is correct?
b. PCM In a switched capacitor network for VAr
compensation the SCRs are commutated
c. all modulation systems by
d. FDM a. forced commutation
97. Which one of the following statements is b. resonant commutation
correct?
c. natural commutation
The equalizing pulses in television
transmission are sent during d. delayed commutation
a. vertical blanking 103. Which one of the following shows current
fold back characteristics curve for an SCR
b. horizontal blanking controlled shunt regulated power supply ?
c. horizontal retrace a.
d. picture forward trace
98. Which one of the following represents the
Fourier Transform X(jw) of the signal
x(t) = t e–at u(t) ?
jw b.
a. X(jw) =
( a+jw )
jw
b. X(jw) =
( a+jw )
2
( a+jw )
2
c. X(jw) = c.
jw
1
d. X(jw) =
( a+jw )
2

correct?
d.
The turn off times of converter grade
SCRs are normally in the range of
15 of 16
correct?
In order to get best results per unit cost,
the heat sinks on which the thyristors are
mounted, are made of
104. Which one of the following statements is a. aluminium
correct? b. copper
In a transistor, the reverse saturation c. nickel
current ICO
d. stainless steel
a. doubles for every 100 C rise in
110. Which one of the following capacitors is
temperature
suitable for compensation of harmonic and
b. doubles for every 10 C rise in reactive power?
temperature
a. Mica capacitor
c. increases linearly with temperature
b. Glass capacitor
d. decreases linearly with temperature
c. Polypropylene capacitor
d. Electrolytic capacitor
correct?
In a thyristor, the holding current IH is
correct?
a. more than the latching current IL
The function of bleeder resistor in a power
b. less than IL supply is
c. equal to IL a. to ensure a minimum current drain in
d. equal to zero the circuit
106. Which one of the following statements is b. to increase the output d.c. voltage
correct? c. to increase the output current
For an SCR, dv/dt protection is achieved d. same as that of a load resistor
through the use of
112. Which one of the following is used as the
a. RL in series with SCR main switching element in a switched
b. RC across SCR mode power supply operating in 20 kHz to
c. L in series with SCR 100 kHz range?
d. RC in series with SCR a. Thyristor
107. A power diode is in the forward b. MOSFET
conduction mode and the forward current c. Triac
is now decreased. The reverse recovery d. UJT
time of the diode is tr and the rate of fall of
113. Assertion (A) : The main advantage of
the diode current is di/dt.
decoupled load flow (DLF) method as
What is the stored charge ? compared to Newton Raphson method is
a. (di/dt) . tr its reduced memory requirements in
b. 1/2 (di/dt) .tr2 storing the Jacobian.
c. (di/dt) . tr2 Reason (R) : An important characteristic
d. 1/2 (di/dt) . tr of any practical electric power
transmission system operating in steady
108. In the buck-boost converter, what is the
state is the strong interdependence
maximum value of the switch utilization
between the real power and bus voltage
factor ?
angles, and between the reactive powers
a. 1.00 and voltage magnitudes.
b. 0.75 a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. 0.50 R is the correct explanation of A
d. 0.25 b. Both A and R are individually true but
16 of 16
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Losses in the d.c. circuit are
d. A is false but R is true not negligible.
114. Assertion (A) : A single-phase induction a. Both A and R are individually true and
motor is not self-starting as such. R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : A single-phase induction b. Both A and R are individually true but
motor develops only pulsating magnetic R is not the correct explanation of A
field which provides zero torque at c. A is true but R is false
standstill. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are individually true and 118. Assertion (A) : Δ-connected tertiary
R is the correct explanation of A windings tend to act as an automatic
b. Both A and R are individually true but feedback control system.
R is not the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : In the event of unbalanced
c. A is true but R is false secondary load currents, both secondary
d. A is false but R is true and primary load voltages are restored, to
115. Assertion (A) : In the “3-point” type of their normal phase magnitude and angle.
starter of a d.c. series motor, the “holding a. Both A and R are individually true and
coil” for holding the starter handle in the R is the correct explanation of A
“ON” stud is connected in such a manner b. Both A and R are individually true but
that it is short-circuited when the “over R is not the correct explanation of A
load” relay picks up. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : In a d.c. series motor starter, d. A is false but R is true
to guard against “racing” due to sudden
119. Assertion (A) : If the load requirement of a
large reduction of shaft-load, the “holding
synchronous motor exceeds the pull-out
coil” is connected in series with the
torque, the synchronous motor action is
armature circuit and the series field
lost.
winding.
Reason (R) : Rotor and stator fields are no
longer stationary with respect to each
other.
116. Assertion (A) : A synchronous motor c. A is true but R is false
operating from constant voltage and
constant frequency source has a
substantially constant resultant air-gap 120. Assertion (A) : In a thyristor-controlled
flux. reactor, a minimum of 3 to 4 thyristors
must be provided as redundant in capacitor
Reason (R) : If the d.c. field current in this
switching.
motor can set up the required resultant air-
gap flux, the lagging reactive volt-amperes Reason (R) : It is desired to protect the
drawn from a.c. source is zero. whole string against unexpected transients.
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A R is not the correct explanation of A
117. Assertion (A) : Transformer is not used in
a d.c. line.
I.E.S (OBJ) - 2005 1 of 16
PAPER–II
1. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a core. A C. Sumpner’s Test
current of 1 A flowing through the coil D. Load Test
creates a core flux of 1 mWb. What is the
energy stored in the magnetic field? List II
1. Copper loss and iron loss
1
a. J 2. Total losses
4
1 3. Iron loss
b. J 4. Copper loss
2
c. 1 J Codes;
d. 2 J A B C D
2. Match List I (Type of Coil) with List II a. 3 4 1 2
(Use of Coil) and select the correct answer b. 2 1 4 3
using the code given below the lists: c. 3 1 4 2
List I d. 2 4 1 3
A. Sandwitch coils 4.
B. Disc coils
C. Cross-over coils
D. Spiral type
List II
1. Low voltage coils for currents above
100 A
2. High voltage windings of small The exact equivalent circuit of a two-
transformers winding transformer is given in the figure
3. Cooling oil is in contact with each turn given above. For affecting simplification,
of the winding the parallel magnetising branch, consisting
of RC and XQ is shifted to’ the left of the
4. Shell-type transformer core
primary leakage impedance (r1 + jx1). This
Codes; simplification introduces the inaccuracy, in
A B C D the neglect of:
a. 2 3 4 1 a. Voltage-drop in ‘the primary
b. 4 1 2 3 impedance due to the secondary
current
c. 2 1 4 3
b. Voltage-drop in the primary
d. 4 3 2 1 impedance due to the exciting current
3. Match List I (Test) with List II c. Voltage-drop in the secondary
(Quantities) and select the correct answer impedance due to the exciting current
using the code given below the lists:
d. Reduction in values of RC and XQ of
List I the exciting circuit
A. O C Test 5.
B. S C Test
2 of 16
4. Sumpner’s test
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 4 2 1
A single-phase, 10 kVA, 2000/200 V, 50
Hz transformer is connected to form an c. 1 4 2 3
auto transformer as shown in the figure d. 3 2 4 1
given above. What are the values of V1 9.
and I2 respectively?
a. 2200 V, 55 A
b. 2200 V, 45 A
c. 2000 V, 45 A
d. 1800 V, 45 A
6. Three single phase 11000/220 V
transformers are connected to form 3- Two single phase transformers A and B
phase transformer bank. High voltage side are connected in parallel, observing all
is connected in star, and low voltage side requirements of a parallel operation,
is in delta. What are the voltage ratings except that the induced voltage Ea is
and turn ratio of 3-phase transformer? slightly greater than Eb; Zea and Zeb being
a. 19052/220V, 50 the equivalent impedances of A and B,
both referred to the secondary side.
b. 19052/220V, 50 3 Under this operating condition with the
c. 11000/381 V, 50 3 primary bus-bars being energized, a
circulating current will flow:
d. 11000/220 V, 50
a. Only in the secondary windings of A
7. If the wave form of the voltage impressed
and B
on the primary of a Y — Δ bank contains
5th harmonics, what are the wave forms of b. In both the primary and the secondary
the resultant voltages of the primary and windings of A and B
the secondary? c. In both the primary and the secondary
Primary Secondary windings of A and B, as well as in the
primary side network
a. Peaked Peaked
d. In the primary and the secondary
b. Peaked Flat-topped windings of A and B, and boost the
c. Flat-topped Peaked voltages on the secondary side of both
d. Flat-topped Flat-topped A and B
8. Match List I (Machine) with List II (Test) 10. The armature resistance of a 6-pole lap
and select the correct answer using the wound d.c. machine is 0.05Ω. If the
code given below the lists: armature is rewound as a wave-winding,
List I what is the armature resistance?
A. DC Motors a. 0.45 Ω
B. Single phase transformers b. 0.30 Ω
C. 3-phase induction motors c. 0.15 Ω
D. Salient pole alternators d. 0.10 Ω
List II 11. In a d.c. compound generator, “flat-
compound” characteristic, required for
1. Slip test
certain applications, may be obtained by
2. Blocked rotor test connecting a variable resistance:
3. Swinburne’s test
3 of 16
a. Across the series field 15. In the measurement of Xd, Xq (in ohms),
b. In series with the series field following data are obtained by the slip test
on a salient pole machine:
c. In parallel with the shunt field
Id max = 10 A Id min = 6.5 A
d. In series with the shunt field
Vd max = 30 V Vd min = 25 V
12. A 6-pole lap wound d.c. machine armature
has 720 conductors and it draws 50 A from Which one of the following is correct?
supply mains. What is the flux distribution a. Xd = 3, Xq = 3.86
produced by the armature reaction per b. Xd = 4.615, Xq = 2.5
pole?
c. Xd = 3, Xq = 2.5
a. Rectangular in wave shape with a peak
of 500 AT d. Xd = 4.61, Xq = 3.86
b. Rectangular in wave shape with a peak 16. What are the conditions to be satisfied for
of 100 AT alternator to be synchronized with an
incoming supply?
c. Triangular in wave shape with a peak
of 500 AT 1. Equal voltage
d. Triangular in wave shape with a peak 2. Equal frequency
of 1000 AT 3. Same power rating
13. Match List I with List II and select the 4. Same phase sequence
correct answer using the code given below Select the correct answer using the code
the lists: given below:
List I (DC Motor) a. 2, 3 and 4
A. Cumulatively compound motor b. 3 and 4
B. Differentially compound motor c. 1, 2 and 3
C. Series motor d. 1, 2 and 4
D. Shunt motor 17. The stator and the rotor of a 3-phase, 4-
List II (Characteristic) pole wound-rotor induction motor are
1. Fairly constant speed irrespective of excited, respectively, from a 50 Hz and a
the load 30 Hz source of appropriate voltage.
Neglecting all losses, what is/are the
2. It may start in reverse direction possible no-load speed/speeds at which the
3. Definite no-load speed motor would run?
4. Is never started without load a. 1500 rpm and 900 rpm
Codes; b. 2400 rpm and 600 rpm
A B C D c. 2400 rpm only
a. 4 1 3 2 d. 600 rpm only
b. 3 2 4 1 18. A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in
c. 4 2 3 1 an induction motor by an auto-transformer
starter with a tapping of 30%. If the
d. 3 1 4 2 tapping of auto-transformer starter is 60%,
14. A synchronous motor is operated from a then what is the starting torque?
bus voltage of 1.0 pu and is drawing 1.0 pu a. 40 Nm
zero power factor leading current. Its
synchronous reactance is 0.5 pu. What is b. I60 Nm
the excitation emf of the motor? c. 240 Nm
a. 2.0 d. 320 Nm
b. 1.5 19. Which of the following methods are
c. 1.0 suitable for the speed control of squirrel
cage induction motors?
d. 0.5
4 of 16
1. Voltage control load, when the D.C. shunt motor takes 50
2. Rotor resistance control A on full load?
3. Frequency control a. 0.94
4. Pole changing method b. 0.8
Select the correct answer using the codes c. 0.6
given below: d. 0.4
a. 2, 3 and 4 25. A linear ac servomotor must have:
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. High rotor resistance
c. 1, 2 and 3 b. High rotor reactance
d. 2 and 4 c. A large air gap
20. A capacitor-start single-phase inductor d. Both high rotor resistance and
motor is used for: reactance
a. Easy to start loads 26. A wound rotor induction motor runs with a
b. Medium start loads slip of 0.03 when developing full load
torque. Its rotor resistance is 0.25 ohm per
c. Hard to start loads phase. If an external resistance of 0.50
d. Any type of start loads ohm per phase is connected across the sup
21. In hand-tool applications, which one of the rings, what is the slip for full torque?
following single phase motors is used? a. 0.03
a. Shaded pole motor b. 0.06
b. Capacitor start motor c. 0.09
c. Capacitor run motor d. 0.1
d. AC series motor 27. Match List I (Characteristics) with List II
22. (Relation) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists
List I
A. Open circuit characteristics
B. Internal characteristics
What is the phase displacement between C. External characteristics
primary and secondary voltages for a star- D. Load saturation curve
delta, 3-phase transformer connection
List II
shown above?
1. V v. If
a. 300 lagging
2. E0 v. If
b. 30° leading
3. E v. Ia
c. 0°
4. V v. I
d. 180°
Codes;
23. What is the shunt resistance component in
equivalent circuit obtained by no load test A B C D
of an induction motor representative of? a. 4 3 2 1
a. Windage and frictional losses only b. 2 1 4 3
b. Core losses only c. 4 1 2 3
c. Core, windage and frictional losses d. 2 3 4 1
d. Copper losses 28. In the block diagram of a separately
24. A 400 V D.C. shunt motor takes 5 A at no- excited dc motor, how does the armature
load. Ra = 0.5 ohms, Rf = 200 ohms. What induced emf appear as?
is the ratio of speed from full load to no- a. Positive feedback
5 of 16
b. Negative feedback 33.
c. Disturbance input
d. Output
29. A Buchholz relay is used for:
a. Protection of a transformer against all
internal faults
A zero-sequence network of a 3-phase
b. Protection of a transformer against transformer is given above. Z0 is the zero-
external faults sequence impedance of the transformer.
c. Protection of a transformer against What is the type of transformer
both internal and external faults connections?
d. Protection of induction motors a.
30. On what basis is the insulation level of a
400 kV, EHV overhead transmission line
decided? b.
a. Lightning over voltage
b. Corona inception voltage
c. Switching over voltage c.
d. Radio and TV interference
31. On which one of the following cycles does
a modern steam power plant work? d.
a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle 34. The charging reactance of 50 km length of
d. Bell-Coleman cycle the line is 1500Ω. What is the charging
reactance for 100 km length of the line?
32. Match List I (Classification of Head) with
List II (Type of Turbines) and select the a. 1500 Ω
correct answer using the code given below b. 3000 Ω
the lists:
c. 750 Ω
List I
d. 600 Ω
A. Low head, 2 – 15 m
35. Equivalent n model is quite suitable for
B. Medium head, 15 – 70 m analyzing the performance of transmission
C. High head, 70 – 500 m line of
D. Very high head > 500 m a. 50 km length
List II b. 150 km length
1. Propeller or Kaplan c. 250 km length
2. Kaplan or Francis d. All of the above lengths
3. Pelton 36. Consider the following statements in
4. Francis or Pelton respect of load flow studies in power
systems:
Codes;
1. Bus admittance matrix is a sparse
A B C D
matrix.
a. 1 3 4 2
2. Gauss-Seidel method is preferred over
b. 4 2 1 3 Newton-Raphson method for load flow
c. 1 2 4 3 studies.
d. 4 3 1 2
6 of 16
3. One of the buses is taken as slack bus 40. A fault occurring at the terminals of an
in load flow studies. unloaded synronous generator operating at
Which of the statements given above are its rated voltage has resulted in the
correct? following values of currents and voltages:
a. 1, 2 and 3 Iao = j 2.37 pu,
b. 1 and 2 Ial = - j 3.05 pu, Ia2 = j = 0.68 pu,
c. 1 and 3 Vao = Va1 = Va2 = 0.237 pu
d. 2 and 3 Which one of the following faults has
occurred?
37. Buses for load flow studies are classified
as: (i) Load bus (ii) PV bus (iii) Slack Bus a. L - L fault
Which one of the following is the correct b. L - G fault
combination of the pair of quantities c. L – L - G fault
specified having their usual meaning for d. L – L – L fault
different buses?
41. For 800 MJ stored energy in the rotor at
Load bus PV bus Slack bus synchronous speed, what is the inertia
a. P, | v | P, Q P, δ constant H for a 50 Hz, four pole turbo-
b. P, Q P, | v | | v |, δ generator rated 100 MVA, 11kv?
a. 2.0 MJ/MVA
c. | v |, Q P, δ P, Q
b. 4.0 MJ/MVA
d. P, δ Q, | v | Q, δ
c. 6.0 MJ/MVA
38.
d. 8.0 MJ/MVA
42. A 50 Hz, 17.32 kV generators is connected
to a power system. The system reactance
and capacitance per phase are 10 mH and
0.02 mF, respectively. What is the
maximum voltage across the contents of
the circuit breaker at an instant when it
passes through zero?
A sample power system network is shown a. 28.28 kV
in the figure given above. The reactances b. 29.28 kV
marked are in pu. What is the pu value of c. 30.28 kV
Y22 of the Bus Admittance Matrix (YBUS)?
d. 31.28 kV
a. j 10.0
43.
b. j 0.4
c. – j 0.1
d. – j 20.0
39. The direct axis reactance Xd of a
synchronous generator is given as 0.4 Pu
based on the generator’s name plate rating
of 10 kV, 75 MVA, The base for The distribution system shown in figure
calculation is 11 kV, 100 MVA. What is given above is to be protected by over
the pu value of Xd on the new base? current system of protection.
a. 0.279 At which locations are directional over
current relays required for proper fault
b. 0.578 discrimination?
c. 0.412 a. 1 and 4
d. 0.44 b. 2 and 3
7 of 16
c. 1, 4 and 5 47. Two p-n junction diodes are connected
d. 2, 3 and 5 back to back to make a transistor. Which
one of the following is correct?
44. Match List I (Relay) with List II (Protected
Power system Component) and select the a. The current gain of such a transistor
correct answer using the code given below will be high
the lists: b. The current gain of such a transistor
List I will be moderate
A. Distance relay c. It cannot be used as a transistor due to
large base width
B. Under frequency relay
d. It can be used only for pnp transistor
C. Differential relay
D. Buchholz relay correct answer using the code given below
List II the lists
1. Transformers List I
2. Turbines A. Modified during fetch phase
3. Busbars B. Holds subscripts of arrays
4. Shunt capacitors C. Needed by the DEBUG program
5. Alternators D. Calculates addresses of data in data-
6. Transmission lines segment
Codes; List II
A B C D 1. DI
a. 6 5 3 1 2. DS
b. 3 1 4 2 3. IP
c. 6 1 3 2 4. TF
d. 3 5 4 1 Codes;
45. Which type of connection is employed for A B C D
current transformers for the protection of a. 2 4 1 3
star-delta connected 3-phase transformer? b. 3 1 4 2
a. Delta-delta c. 2 1 4 3
b. Star-star d. 3 4 1 2
c. Star-delta 49. Consider the following statements about
d. Delta star register indirect addressing:
46. 1. It helps in writing code that executes
faster.
2. It helps in writing compact code.
3. It allows reuse of memory CPU data
transfer instruction.
4. It is essential for stack operations.
For the circuit shown in figure given
above, assume β = hFE = 100. The Which of the statements given above are
transistor is in correct?
a. Active region and VCE = 5 V a. 1, 3 and 4
b. Saturation region b. 1, 2 and 4
c. Active region and YCE = 1.42 V c. 2, 3 and 4
d. Cut-off region d. 1, 2 and 3
8 of 16
50. Which of the following does not take place a. 1, 2 and 4
when 8085 processor is reset? b. 1 and 3
a. 8055 gives reset out signal to reset c. 2, 3 and 4
external hardware
d. 1, 2 and 3
b. 8085 resets program counter to FFFFH
54. Consider the following 8085 instructions:
c. The interrupt system is disabled
ANA A, ORA A, XRA A, SUB A, CMP A.
d. The busses are tristated
Now, consider the following statements:
51. Memory chips of four different sizes as
1. All are arithmetic and logic
below are available:
instructions.
1. 32 k × 4
2. All cause the accumulator to be cleared
2. 32 k × 16 irrespective of its original contents.
3. 8 k × 8 3. All reset the carry flag.
4. 16 k × 4 4. All of them are 1-byte instructions.
All the memory chips as mentioned in the Which of the statements given above is/are
above list are Read/Write memory. What correct?
minimal combination of chips or chip
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
alone can map full address space of 8085
microprocessor? b. 2 only
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 only d. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 only 55. INR instruction of 8085 does not affect
carry flag. Which of the following is
d. 4 only
correct about INR instruction?
52. A good assembly language programmer
a. Overflow cannot be detected
should use general purpose registers rather
than memory in maximum possible ways b. Overflow can be detected
for data processing. This is because: c. If a programme requires overflow to be
a. Data processing with registers is easier detected, ADD instruction should be
than with memory used instead of INR
b. Data processing with memory requires d. It can be used to increase the contents
more instructions in the program than of the BC register pair
that with registers 56. Which of the following is not correct?
c. Of limited set of instructions for data a. Bus is a group of wires
processing with memory b. Bootstrap is a technique or device for
d. Data processing with registers takes loading first instruction
fewer cycles than that with memory. c. An instruction is a set of bits that
53. Which of the following notations have two defines a computer operation
representations of zero? d. An interrupt signal is required at the
1. 1’s complement with radix of number start of every program
being 2 57. The interrupt vector table IVT of 8086
2. 7’s complement with radix of number contains
being 8 a. The contents of CS and IP of the main
3. 9’s complement with radix of number program address to which the interrupt
being 10 has occurred
4. 10’s complement with radix of number b. The contents of CS and IP of the main
being 10 program address to which the control
Select the correct answer using the code has to come back after the service
given below: routine
9 of 16
c. The starting CS and IP values of the a. 118
interrupt service routine. b. 140
d. The starting address of the IVT c. 98
58. Consider the following statements: d. 108
1. A total of about one million bytes can 61. When an 8086 executes an INT type
be directly addressed by the 8086 instruction, it:
microprocessor.
a. Resets both IF and TF flags
2. 8086 has thirteen 16-bit registers.
b. Resets all flags
3. 8086 has eight flags. V
c. Sets both IF and TF
4. Compared to 8086, the 80286 provides
a higher degree of memory protection. d. Resets the CF and TF
Which one of the statements given above 62. An AM voltage signal s(t), with a carrier
is correct? frequency of 1.15 GHz has a complex
envelope g(t) = AC [1+ m(t)], AC = 500 V,
a. 2, 3 and 4 and the modulation is a 1 kHz sinusoidal
b. l, 3 and 4 test tone described by
c. 1, 2 and 4 m(t) = 0.8 sin (2 π × 103t),
d. 1, 2 and 3 appears across a 50Ω resistive load. What
59. The following sequences of instructions is the actual power dissipated in the load?
are executed by an 8085 microprocessor: a. 165kW
1000 LXI SP, 27FF b. 82.5kW
1003 CALL 1006 c. 3.3 kW
1006 POPH d. 6.6 kW
What are the contents of the stack pointer 63. A broadcast AM radio transmitter radiates
(SP) and the HL register pair on 125 kW when the modulation percentage
completion of execution of these is 70. How much of this is carrier power?
instruction?
a. ≈ 25 kW
a. SP = 27 FF, HL = 1003
b. ≈ 50 kW
b. SP = 27 FD, HL = 1003
c. ≈ 75 kW
c. SP = 27 FF, HL = 1006
d. ≈ 100 kW
d. SP = 27 FD, HL = 1006
64. When a radio receiver is tuned to 555 kHz,
60. Consider the program given below, which its local oscillator provides the mixer with
transfers a block of data from one place in an input at 1010 kHz. At the output,
memory to another: another signal is also received along with
MVIC OBH the desired signal. What is the frequency
LXIH 2400 of the other station?
LXID 3400 a. 910 kHz
L1:MOV AM b. 355 kl-Iz
STAX D c. 455 kHz
INR L d. 1465 kHz
INRE 65. Which of the following is not a component
of PLL?
DCRC
a. Frequency multiplier
JNZ LI
b. Phase detector
What is the total number of memory
accesses (including instruction fatches) c. VXD
carried out d. Loop filter
10 of 16
66. Which of the following modulated signals C. Speech Signal
can be detected by an envelope detector? D.
a. DSB-suppressed carrier
b. DSB-full carrier
c. Frequency modulated signal
List II
d. SSB-suppressed carrier
1.
67. A given AM broadcast station transmits an
average carrier power output of 40 kW and
uses a modulation index of 0.707 for sine
wave modulation. What is the maximum 2.
(peak) amplitude of the output if the
antenna is represented by a 50 Ω resistive
load?
a. soy 3.
b. 50 kV
c. 3.414 kv
d. 28.28 kv 4.
68. A microphone with inbuilt amplifier has
an output noise level in a very quiet room
of about 30 μV rms. The maximum output
level is about 300 mV rms before severe Codes:
distortion occurs. What dynamic range A B C D
does this represent in dB?
a. 1 3 2 4
a. 4dB
b. 2 4 1 3
b. 36dB
c. 2 3 1 4
c. 40dB
d. 1 4 2 3
d. 80dB
71. A converter which can operate both in 3-
69. Which one of the following statements is pulse and 6-pulse modes is a
correct?
a. 1-phase full converter
Noise has the greatest effect in a
b. 3-phase half-wave converter
communication system when it interferes
with the signal c. 3-phase semi converter
a. in the transmitter d. 3-phase full converter
b. in the channel 72. Analog data having highest harmonic at 30
kHz generated by a sensor has been
c. in the receiver
digitized using 6-level PCM. What will be
d. in the transducer the rate of digital signal generated?
70. Match List I (Signal) with List II a. 120 kbps
(Spectrum) and select the correct answer
b. 200 kbps
c. 240 kbps
List I
d. 180 kbps
A.
73. The channel capacity of a noiseless
channel is equal to
a. Rate at which information is
B. transmitted
b. Signaling speed
c. Bandwidth
11 of 16
d. Bandwidth-SNR product 78. Power electronic device with poor turn-off
74. Match List I (Coding Technique in Digital gain is
Communication Systems) with List II a. A symmetrical thyristor
(Purpose) and select the correct answer b. A conventional thyristor
c. Power bipolar junction transistor
List I
d. Gate turn-off thyristor
A. Huffman code
79. Match List I (Limiting Factor) with List II
B. Error correcting code (Safe Operating Area Portion) and select
C. NRZ-coding the correct answer using the code given
D. Delta modulation below the lists:
List II List I
1. Elimination of redundancy A. The peak voltage limit
2. Reduces bit rate B. Secondary breakdown limit.
3. Adapts the transmitted signal to the C. Power dissipation limit.
line D. Peak Current limit
4. Channel coding List II
Codes; 1. PQ
A B C D 2. QR
a. 1 2 3 4 3. RS
b. 3 4 1 2 4. ST
c. 1 4 3 2 Codes;
d. 3 2 1 4 A B C D
75. To overcome slope overload problem, a. 2 1 4 3
which type of the integrator is used in b. 4 3 2 1
delta modulation?
c. 2 3 4 1
a. Fixed slope integrator
d. 4 1 2 3
b. Variable slope integrator
c. Linear slope integrator not correct?
d. Bipolar integrator a. Power MOSFETs are so constructed as
76. Quantization noise occurs in to avoid punch through
a. Pulse amplitude modulation b. In a power MOSFET, the channel
b. Pulse width modulation length is relatively large and channel
width is relatively small
c. Pulse code modulation
c. Power MOSFETs do not experience
d. Pulse position modulation any minority carrier storage
77. A gate turn off (GTO) thyristor has d. Power MOSFETs can be put in parallel
capacity to to handle larger currents
a. Amplify the gate-current 81. Carrier frequency gate drive is used for
b. Turn-off when positive current pulse is turn-on of a thyristor to reduce
given at the gate a. di/dt
c. Turn-off when a gate-pulse is given at b. Turn-on time
the gate even though it is reverse
biased c. dv/dt
d. Turn-off when a negative current pulse d. Size of pulse transformer
is given at the gate 82. In a thyristor, di/dt protection is achieved
by the use of
12 of 16
a. An inductance L in series with the b. Back emf load
thyristor c. Inductive load
b. A resistor in series with the thyristor d. Resistive inductive load
c. RC in series with the thyristor 88. A motor armature supplied through phase
d. RL in series with the thyristor controlled SCRs receives a smoother
83. The circulating current inductor is required voltage shape at
in a dual converter to a. High motor speed
a. Improve the p.f. b. Low motor speed
b. Smoothen the waveform of circulating c. Rated motor speed
current d. None of the above
c. Limit the circulating current 89. Which one of the following statements is
d. Increase the circulating current correct? A voltage source inverter is
84. In a single-phase semi converter, with normally employed
discontinuous conduction and extinction a. when the source has low impedance
angle β < π, freewheeling action takes and load has high reactance.
phase for b. when the source has high impedance
a. α and load has low reactance.
b. π − β c. when both the source and load have
high values of impedance and
c. β − π reactance respectively.
d. Zero degree d. when both the source and load have
85. A three pulse converter is feeding a purely high values of impedance and
resistive load. What is the value of firing reactance respectively.
delay angle α, which dictates the boundary 90. The corona loss on a particular system at
between continuous and discountinuous 50 Hz is 1 kW/ km per phase. What is the
mode of current condution? corona loss at 60 Hz in kW/km per phase?
a. α = 0° a. 0.83
b. α = 30° b. 1.0
c. α = 60° c. 1.13
d. α = 150° d. 1.2
86. For a single phase a.c. voltage controller 91. Consider the following statements:
feeding a resistive load, what is the power In memories,
factor?
1. ROMs are used for temporary program
(where α is firing angle measured from and data storage.
voltage zero.) 2. Dynamic RAM is less expensive than
a. Unity for all values of firing angle static RAM.
1/2
⎡1 ⎧ 1 ⎫⎤ 3. MASK ROM is used in high volume
b. ⎢ ⎨(π − α ) + sin 2α ⎬⎥ microprocessor based system.
⎣π ⎩ 2 ⎭⎦
1/2
Which of the statements given above is/are
⎡1 ⎧ 1 ⎫⎤
c. ⎢ ⎨(π + α ) + sin 2α ⎬⎥
correct?
⎣π ⎩ 2 ⎭⎦ a. 1 only
⎡1 ⎧
1/2 b. 1 and 2
1 ⎫⎤
d. ⎢ ⎨(π + α ) − sin 2α ⎬⎥ c. 2 and 3
⎣π ⎩ 2 ⎭⎦
d. 1, 2 and 3
87. Triacs cannot be used in AC voltage
regulator for a 92. In a p-type silicon sample, the hole
concentration is 2.25 ×x 1015/cc. If the
a. Resistive load
13 of 16
intrinsic carrier concentration is 1.5 × 10 96. The dynamic transfer characteristics of a
10
/cc, what is the electron concentration in transistor is represented by
the p-type silicon sample? iC = A1ib + A2ib2
a. zero
Where A1 and A2 are constants. If input
b. 10 10/cc
singnal ib = I1 cos ω1t + I 2 cos ω2t the
c. 10 5/cc output will contain
d. 1.5 × 10 25/cc
a. ω1 , ω2 , 2ω1 , 2ω2
93. What is the reverse recovery time of a
diode when switched from forward bias VF b. dc term, ω1 , ω2 , ω1 + ω2 , ω1 − ω2
to reverse bias VR? c. dc term, ω1 , ω2 , 2ω1 , 2ω2 , 2ω1 + 2ω2 , 2ω1 − 2ω2
a. Time taken to remove the stored
d. dc term, ω1 , ω2 , 2ω1 , 2ω2 , ω1 + ω2 , ω1 − ω2
minority carriers
b. Time taken by the diode voltage to 97. Find the break region (voltage range) over
attain zero value which the dynamic resistance of a diode is
multiplied by a factor of 1000. Let this
c. Time to remove stored minority
region be contained between v1 and v2,
carriers plus the time to bring the diode
then is |v1 - v2| given by
voltage to reverse bias VR
a. logC (1000 VT)
d. Time taken by the diode current to
reverse b. 1000VT
94. Which one of the following statements is c. (loge103) VT
correct? In a transistor, d. The value cannot be computed with the
a. ICBO is greater than ICEO, and does not given data
depend upon temperature 98. An emitter in a bipolar junction transistor
b. ICBO is greater than ICO, and doubles is doped much more heavily than the base
for every ten degrees rise in as it increases the
temperature a. Emitter efficiency
c. ICBO is equal to ICO, and double for b. Base transport factor
every ten degrees rise in temperature c. Forward current gain
d. ICEO is equal to ICO and doubles for d. All the three given above
every ten degrees rise in temperature
99. Match List I (Type of Device) with List II
95. Consider following statements: (Characteristics/Application) and select the
1. BJT is a current controlled device with correct answer using the code given below
high input impedance and high gain the lists:
bandwidth. List I
2. FET is a voltage controlled device with A. Zener diode
high input impedance and low gain
bandwidth. B. Tunnel diode
3. UJT is a negative resistance device and C. Schottky diode
can be used as an oscillator. D. Photo diode
4. BJT, FET and UJT can all be used for List II
amplification. 1. Display panel
Which of the statements given above are 2. Voltage reference
correct?
3. Light detection
a. 1 and 2
4. Negative resistance
b. 2 and 3
5. High frequency switching
c. 3 and 4
Codes;
d. 1 and 4
A B C D
14 of 16
a. 3 4 5 2 4. Voltage variable resistor
b. 2 5 1 3 Codes;
c. 3 5 1 2 A B C D
d. 2 4 5 3 a. 2 3 4 1
100. Match List I (Circuit Symbol) with List II b. 4 1 2 3
(Device) and select the correct answer c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
List I
A.
1. A Hartley oscillator circuit uses a
tapped inductor for inductive feedback.
2. Oscillator circuit can be operated in
B. class A condition for better wave
shape.
3. Frequency stabilization is obtained by
C. use of automatic biasing.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
D. b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
List II 103.
1. N-channel FET
2. Varactor
3. Tunnel diode
4. P channel MOSFET
Codes;
A B C D
In the rectifier circuit shown above, what
a. 3 2 1 4 should be minimum peak-inverse-voltage
b. 1 4 3 2 (Ply) rating of the diode?
c. 3 4 1 2 a. 12 V
d. 1 2 3 4 b. 12 2 V
101. Match List I (Device) with List II c. 24 V
using the code given below the lists: d. 24 2 V
List I 104. Which one of the following statements is
correct? In the case of load regulation
A. p-n junction diode
a. when the temperature changes, the
B. tunnel diode output voltage remains constant
C. WET b. when the input voltage changes, the
D. Schottky barrier diode load current remains constant
List II c. when the load’ changes, the load
1. Microwave generator current remains constant
2. Low frequency rectifier d. when the load changes, the output
voltage remains
3. High frequency rectifier
15 of 16
105. In a centre tap full wave rectifier, 100 V is Removing the small resistance (-100Ω) in
the peak voltage between the centre tap the collector lead of the pull-up transistor
and one end of the secondary. What is the of a totem pole output gate, will result in
maximum voltage across the reverse a. reduced switching time from Vout (I) to
biased diode? Vout (O)
a. 200 V b. incorrect operation of the gate
b. 141V c. lower power dissipation
c. 100 V d. more noise generation in the power
d. 86 V supply distribution at high frequencies
106. Match List I (Type of Logic) with List II 110. In a ripple counter, the stage whose output
(Characteristics/ Application) and select has a frequency equal to 1/8th that of the
the correct answer using the code given clock signal applied to the first stage also
below the lists: has an output periodicity equal to 1/8th that
List I of the output signal obtained from the last
stage. The counter Is
A. Direct coupled logic
a. Modulo-8
B. Diode transistor logic
b. Modulo-6
C. Emitter coupled logic
c. Modulo-64
D. Resistor transistor logic
d. Modulo-16
List II
1. Good for monolithic I.C.
In amplifiers,
2. Slow speed of operation
1. a complementary symmetry amplifier
3. Very fast speed of operation
has 1 PNP and 1 NPN transistor.
4. Current hogging
2. a boot strap incorporates emitter
Codes; follower.
A B C D 3. the main function of transformer used
a. 2 1 3 4 in the output of a power amplifier is to
b. 4 3 1 2 increase its voltage gain.
c. 2 3 1 4 4. the harmonic distortion of the signal
produced in a RC coupled transistor
d. 4 1 3 2 amplifier is due to transformer itself.
107. Which of the following statements is not Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a. X + XY = X a. 1, 2 and 3
b. X ( X + Y ) = XY b. 2, 3 and 4
c. X + XY = X c. 1, 3 and 4
d. ZX + ZXY = ZX + ZY d. 1, 2 and 4
108. The Boolean expression YZ + XZ + XY is 112. In a single stage RC-coupled amplifier
logically equivalent to stage, what are the phase shifts introduced
at lower and upper 3-dB frequencies,
a. YZ + X respectively?
b. YZX + XYZ a. 45°, 225°
c. YX + XZ + XY b. 45°, 135°
d. XYZ + XYZ + XYZ + XYZ c. 90°, 180°
109. Which one of the following statements is d. 45°, 180°
correct? 113. Which one of the following statements is
correct? A Darlington amplifier has a
16 of 16
a. large current gain and high input affecting the magnetic properties in any
resistance way.
b. large voltage gain and low output a. Both A and R are individually true and
resistance R is the correct explanation of A
c. small voltage gain and low input b. Both A and R are individually true but
resistance R is not the correct explanation of A
d. small current gain and high output c. A is true but R is false
resistance d. A is false but R is true
114. The gain of a bipolar transistor drops at 118. Assertion (A): In a d.c. generator, even
high frequencies. This is because of the though the armature magnetic field is in
a. Coupling and bypass capacitors quadrature with the main magnetic field,
b. Early effect each considered alone, the resultant
magnetic field due to interaction of both
c. Inter-electrode transistor capacitances the fields is shifted backwards by certain
d. Coupling and bypass capacitors, and angle from the geometrical neutral axis
inter-electrode transistor capacitances depending upon the load.
115. Assertion (A): Emitter coupled oscillator is Reason (R): In a d.c. generator, the trailing
capable of high frequency operation. pole-tips get magnetically saturated as the
Reason (R): It consists of saturating NPN load reaches its rated value.
BJTs. a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 119. Assertion (A): Vestigial Side Band (VSB)
116. Assertion (A): A pumped storage plant is modulation is used for TV broadcasting.
very suitable for supplying peak loads. Reason (R): Video signals have negligible
During off peak period, water is pumped power at low frequencies.
back from tail race pond to head water a. Both A and R are individually true and
pond. R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R): The starting time of pumped b. Both A and R are individually true but
storage plant is very short. R is not the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. A is true but R is false
R is not the correct explanation of A 120. Assertion (A): An FET operated crystal
oscillator operates on the concept of
c. A is true but R is false feedback.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R): The feedback is provided by
117. Assertion (A): For obtaining improved the drain-to-gate capacitance Cdg
magnetic properties, the transformer a. Both A and R are individually true and
magnetic core is assembled using cold- R is the correct explanation of A
rolled silicon-steel sheets.
Reason (R): The laminations for the core R is not the correct explanation of A
could be cut out of the cold-rolled silicon
steel sheets, cutting either in the direction c. A is true but R is false
of rolling or transverse thereof, without d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 15
PAPER-II
1. Which one of the following is employed as d. tan–1 R/X
a moderator by CANDU type of slow 6. For a loss-free long transmission line, the
thermal nuclear reactors? conventional line equations become,
a. Water Vs = ( cos β l ) VR + ( j sin β l ) I R
b. Heavy water
⎛ j sin β l ⎞
c. Graphite and Is = ⎜ ⎟ VR + ( cos β l ) I R
d. Beryllium ⎝ Zc ⎠
2. A power station has maximum demand of Which one of the following statements is
15000 kW. The annual load factor is 50% correct?
and plant capacity factor is 40%. What is If the line is terminated at the receiving
the reserve capacity of the plant? end by its natural load impedance Zc, then
a. 1875 kW a. the voltage is constant in magnitude at
b. 3750 kW all points along the line and, Vs and VR
c. 6000 kW always remain in phase.
d. 7500 kW b. the voltage is constant in magnitude at
all points along the line but Vs
3. A power station’s plant load factor is
advances in phase relative to VR by an
defined as the ratio of
angle β radians per km.
a. the energy generated to that of
maximum energy that could have been c. the magnitude of the voltage along the
generated line changes in proportion to the line-
length, and the Vs and VR always
b. average load to peak load remain m phase.
c. minimum load to peak load d. the magnitude of the voltage along the
d. minimum load to average load line changes in proportion to the line-
4. In a 7/30 A.C. SR conductor why is grease length, Vs advances in phase relative to
put between steel and aluminium VR by β radians per km.
conductors ? 7. What is the approximate value of the surge
a. To reduce corrosion by electrolytic impedance loading of a 400 kV, 3-phase
action between zinc (galvanising agent 50 Hz overhead single circuit transmission
on steel) and aluminium line?
b. To reduce friction between the strands a. 230 MW
c. To reduce leakage of current from b. 400 MW
aluminium strands to steel strands c. 1000MW
d. To eliminate air pockets d. 1600MW
5. If X is the inductive reactance/phase and R 8. Which one of the following statements is
is the resistance! phase of a short correct?
transmission line, what is the power factor
The elements of each row of a YBUS matrix
angle of the load for maximum voltage
for load flow studies in power system add
regulation?
up to zero,
a. cos–1 X/R
a. always
b. tan–1 X/R
b. if the shunt admittances at the buses
c. cos–1 R/X are ignored.
2 of 15
c. if mutual couplings between overhead, line of surge impedance of
transmission lines are absent. 400Ω and enters a cable of surge
d. if both (b) and (c) are satisfied. impedance of 40 Ω What is the voltage
9. For a synchronous generator connected to entering the cable at the junction?
an infinite bus through a transmission line, a. V/11
how are the change of voltage (ΔV) and b. 4 V/11
the change of frequency (Δf) related to the c. 2 V/11
active power (P) and the relative power
d. V
(Q)?
14. To protect the power transformer (Y — Y
a. ΔV is proportional to P and Δf to Q with neutral grounded) against fault, what
b. ΔV is proportional to Q and Δf to P type of connection do the CTs have ?
c. Both ΔV and Δf are proportional to P a. Δ—Y connection
d. Both ΔV and Δf are proportional to Q b. Δ—Δ connection
10. c. Y—Y connection
d. Y—Δ connection
15. The operating point of RI amplifier m an
AM receiver is normally biased in
a. Class-A
b. Class-B
For the system shown in the diagram given
above, what is a the transformer the line c. Class – C
side of line-to-ground fault on equivalent d. Class B-C condition
to ? 16. Which one of the following signals can be
a. A line-to-ground fault on the generator applied to a delta modulator whose step
side of the transformer size is 0.1 V and sampling frequency is 20
b. A line-to-line fault on the generator π kHz so that no slope overload occurs?
side of the transformer a. 2 sin (1200 πt)
c. A double line-to-ground fault on the b. 1 sin (2600 πt)
generator side of the transformer c. 3 sin (1000 πt)
d. A 3-phase fault on the generator side
d. 4 sin (400 πt)
of the transformer
17. A sinusoidal signal with a random phase is
11. For which one of the following types of
given by x(t) = A sin [π/2 — (2π ft + θ)]
motors, is the equal area criterion for
with the probability density function
stability applicable?
⎧1/ 2π , 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2π
a. Three-phase synchronous motor Pθ (θ ) = ⎨
b. Three-phase induction motor ⎩ 0, otherwise
c. D.C. series motor What is the maximum amplitude of the
d. D.C. compound motor autocorrelation function of this signal ?
12. The steady state stability limits for round a. A
rotor and salient pole 3-phase synchronous b. A/2
generator are attained at the values of c. A2
power angle δ d. A2/2
a. = π/2, and = π/2, respectively 18. Consider the following statements :
b. < π/2, and < π/2, respectively 1. Indirect addressing is not possible for
c. < π/2, and = π/2, respectively I/O mapped I/O port addresses.
d. = π/2, and < π/2, respectively 2. Pointers cannot be used to access
13. A travelling wave due to lightning with an memory mapped I/O addresses.
incident voltage V travels through the
3 of 15
3. Fewer machine instructions can be a. Contents of H and L registers are 20 H
used with I/O mapped I/O addressing and 01 H, respectively
as compared to memory mapped I/O b. Contents of H and L registers are AAH
addressing. and BBH, respectively
4. With an 8085 microprocessor, one can c. Contents of H and L registers are BBH
access at the most 512 devices with and CCH, respectively
unique addresses using 1/0 mapped 1/0 d. Contents of H and L registers are CCH
addressing. and BBH, respectively
Which of the statements given above are 22. How many times will the following loop
correct ? be executed?
a. 1, 2 and 3
LXIB 0010 H
b. 2 and 4 LOOP : DCX B
c. 3 and 4 MOV A, B
d. 1 and 3
ORA C
19. Which one of the following instructions is
JNZ LOOP
a 3-byte instruction?
a. M V I A
given below :
b. L D A X B
a. 10
c. J M P 2050 b. 100
d. MOV A, M c. 16
20. Match List-I (interrupt) with List-II d. 15
(Property) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists : 23. In 8085, the DAA instruction is used for
List-I a. Direct Address Accumulator
A. RST 7.5 b. Double Add Accumulator
B. RST 5.5 c. Decimal Adjust Accumulator
C. INTR d. Direct Mess Accumulator
D. TRAP 24. Processor status word of 8085
microprocessor has five flags. Which are
List-II these five flags?
1. Non -maskable a. S, Z, AC, P, CY
2. Edge sensitive b. S, OV, AC, P, CY
3. Level sensitive
c. S, X, OV, P, CY
4. Non-vectored d. S, Z, AC, P, OV
A B C D 25. Suppose 64 kB, ROM ICs, are available in
a. 1 3 4 2 abundance. 1 MB ROM can be obtained
b. 2 4 3 1 from
c. 1 4 3 2 a. 16 ICs in a row
d. 2 3 4 1 b. 16 ICs in a column
21. The contents of memory locations 2000 H, c. 8 ICs in a column and 2 ICs in a row
2001 H and 2002 H are AAH, BBH and d. None of the above
CCH respectively. What are the contents 26. Which one of the following is the software
of H and L registers after executing the intercept of 8085 microprocessor?
following instructions in sequence ?
a. RST 7.5
LXI H, 2001 H
b. RST 7
LHLD 2001 H
c. TRAP
given below : d. INT1R
4 of 15
27. Match List-I (Device) with List-II List-II
(Application) and select the correct answer 1. Reverse current varies directly with the
using the code given below the Lists : amount of light
List- I 2. Exhibits negative resistance region in
A. Diode its I-C characteristic
B. Transistor 3. Uses only majority carriers and is
C. Tunnel Diode intended for high frequency operations
D. Zener Diode 4. Silicon p-n junction diode that is
designed for limiting the voltage across
List-II
the terminals in reverse bias
1. Amplifier
A B C D
2. Oscillator
a. 2 3 1 4
3. Rectifier
b. 1 4 2 3
4. Voltage Regulator
c. 2 4 1 3
A B C D
d. 1 3 2 4
a. 4 1 2 3
30. Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II
b. 3 2 1 4 (Variation) and select the correct answer
c. 4 2 1 3 using the code given below the Lists :
d. 3 1 2 4 List- I
28. Match List-I (Type of Amplifier/ A. Electron mobility around room
Configuration) with List-II (Characteristic temperature
Property) and select the correct answer B. Energy gap
using code given below the Lists :
C. Intrinsic carrier concentration
List- I
D. Mole density (gm/mole)
A. Common emitter amplifier
List-II
B. Emitter follower
1. Increases with temperature
C. Common base amplifier
2. Decreases with temperature
D. Darlington pair
3. Remains constant as temperature is
List-II varied
1. Very low output resistance A B C D
2. Current gain ≈1 a. 2 1 1 1
3. Beta multiplication b. 1 2 1 3
4. Very high power gain c. 2 2 1 3
A B C D d. 2 2 1 1
a. 4 1 2 3 31. Match List-I (Metal semiconductor Band
b. 2 3 4 1 Diagram under Equilibrium) with List-II
c. 4 3 2 1 (Type of Contact) and select the correct
d. 2 1 4 3 answer using the code given below the
Lists :
29. Match List-I (Type of Diode) with List-IT
(Characteristics! Applications) and select List-I
the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists :
List-I
A. Tunnel diode A.
B. Zener diode
C. Photodiode
D. Schottky diode
B.
5 of 15
b. 6.36 V,130 Ω
c. 6.36 V,115 Ω
d. 4.54 V, 130 Ω
C. 34. What is the value of the load angle when
the power output of a salient pole
synchronous generator is maximum?
a. 00
D. b. 450
List - II c. 90°
1. Rectifier to n-type d. None of the above
2. Ohmic to n-type 35. Which one of the following statements is
3. Rectifier to p-type not correct in respect of synchronous
4. Ohmic to p-type machines ?
A B C D a. In salient pole machines, the direct-
a. 1 4 2 3 axis synchronous reactance is greater
than the quadrature axis synchronous
b. 1 4 3 2
reactance.
c. 4 1 3 2
b. The damper bars help the motor to
d. 4 1 2 3 self-start.
32. Consider the following statements c. Short circuit ratio is the ratio of the
Data that are stored at a given address in a field current required to produce the
random access memory are lost rated voltage on open circuit to the
1. when power goes off. rated armature current.
2. when the data are read from the d. The V-curve of a synchronous motor
address. represents the variation in the armature
3. when new data are written at the current with field excitation at a given
address. output power.
4. because it is non-volatile memory. 36. In which one of the following is reluctance
power developed?
correct? a. Salient pole alternator
a. 1 and 2 b. Non-salient pole alternator
b. 1, 2 and 4 c. Squirrel cage induction motor
c. 2 and 3 d. Transformer
d. 1 and 3 37. When the applied rated voltage per phase
is reduced to one-half, the starting torque
33. of a three-phase squirrel cage induction
motor becomes
a. 1/2 of the initial value
b. 1/4 of the initial value
c. Twice of the initial value
The circuit shown above is the Thevenin’s d. 4 times of the initial value
equivalent circuit of a centre-tapped full 38.
wave rectifier with diode forward
resistance Rf = 100 Ω, transformer
secondary coil resistance Rs = 30Ω, peak
input voltage Vm = 10 V.
What are the values of V and R0,
respectively ?
a. 10 V, 100 Ω
6 of 15
The required load torque line intersects the What is the slip with respect to the
resultant torque- speed characteristic of a backward field?
3-phase squirrel cage induction motor at a. s
points P, Q and R as shown in the figure
b. — s
above. Which is/are the stable opening
point(s) ? c. (1 — s)
a. P and Q d. (2 — s)
b. Q and R 44. Which one of the following has the highest
numerical value in a stepper motor?
c. P and R
a. Detent torque
d. Only R
b. Holding torque
39.
c. Dynamic torque
d. Ripple torque
45. Match List-I (Power Station) with List-Il
(Component) and select the correct answer
using the code given below :
List- I
Which of the points on the torque-speed A. Hydroelectric power station
curve of induction motor represent B. Nuclear power station
operation at a slip greater than the 1? C. Steam power station
a. W D. Pressure gasification combined cycle
b. X power plant
c. Y List-Il
d. Z 1. Grate and stokers
40. If the load on an induction motor is 2. Forebay
increased from no load to full load, its slip 3. Pressurized water reactor
and the power factor will, respectively
4. Fluidized bed gasifier
a. decrease, decrease
A B C D
b. decrease, increase
a. 1 4 2 3
c. increase, decrease
b. 2 3 1 4
d. increase, increase
c. 1 3 2 4
41. The voltage actually, used for setting up of
d. 2 4 1 3
the useful flux in the air gap of a 3-phase
induction motor is 46. In hydro power stations, what is an
enlarged body of water just above the
a. = Applied voltage
intake and used as a regulating reservoir,
b. > Applied voltage called ?
c. < Applied voltage a. Spillways
d. = Rotor induced emf b. Forebay
42. Which one of the following is the type of c. Reservoir
single phase induction motor having the
d. Penstock
highest power factor at full load?
47. For variable heads of near about but less
a. Shaded. pole type
than 30 metres, which type of turbines is
b. Split-phase type used in hydro power stations ?
c. Capacitor-start type a. Pelton
d. Capacitor-run type b. Kaplan
43. A single phase induction motor is running c. Francis
at N r.p.m. Its synchronous speed is Ns. If
its slip with respect to forward field is s,
7 of 15
48. Which one of the following parameters in d. Increase in reverse collector - base
an induction motor influences the saturation current due to rise in internal
magnetizing reactance to the maximum device temperature
extent? 53. The reverse saturation current of a Si-
a. Axial length of the rotor stack based p-n junction diode increases 32
b. Axial length of the stator stack times due to a rise in ambient temperature.
c. Radial length of air gap If the original temperature was 400 C,
what is the final temperature?
d. Number of slots on the stator
a. 90°C
49. Which one of the following equations
represents the energy gap (EG) variation of b. 72°C
silicon with temperature (T)? c. 450 C
a. EG(T) = 2.11 – 3.60 × 10–4 T d. 500 C
b. EG(T) = 1.21 – 3.60 × 10–4 T 54. What is the main difference between
MOSFETs and BJTs in terms of their I —
c. EG (T) = 1.41 – 2.23 × 10–4 T V characteristics?
d. EG(T) = 0.785 – 2.23 × 10–4 T a. Current in quadratic with VGS for
50. MOSFETs and linear with VBE for
BJTs
b. Current in linear with VGS for
MOSFETs and exponential with VBE
for BJTs
Consider the circuit given above where R c. Current is exponential with VGS/VBE in
is the diode forward resistance and RL the both these devices, but rise is faster in
load resistance. What is the average MOSFETs
rectified current equal to ? d. Current in quadratic with V for
a. Vm / (RL + Rf) MOSFETs and exponential with VBE
for BJTs
b. Vm / {π(Rf + RL)}
55.
c. 2Vm / π
d. Vm / { 2 (RL + Rf))
51. In a Hall effect experiment, a p-type
semiconductor sample with hole
concentration p1 is used. The measured
value of the Hall voltage is now replaced
by another p-type sample with hole
concentration p2 where p2 = 2 p1, what is
the new Hall voltage VH2? In the circuit given above, if the output is
taken from point E instead of node C, what
a. 2VH1
will be the result?
b. 4 VH1
a. An increase in the output impedance
c. (1/2) VH1
b. A reduction in the output impedance
d. (1/4) VH1
c. An increase in the input impedance
52. What is the thermal runaway in a bipolar
d. A reduction in the input impedance
junction transistor biased in the active
region due to ? 56. If an input periodic signal with non-zero
d.c. component is impressed upon a high-
a. Heating of the transistor emitter region
pass RC circuit, what will be the d.c.
b. Changes in ‘β’ which increases with component in the output waveform?
temperature
a. Zero
c. Base emitter voltage VBE which
b. It depends on the value of the capacitor
decreases with rise in temperature
c. It depends on the value of the resistor
8 of 15
d. Same as that in input
57.
B.
What is represented by the digital circuit C.

given above ? Select the correct answer using the code
a. An SR flip-flop with A = S and B = R given below :
b. A JK flip-flop with A = K and B = J Gunn diode Photo diode Tunnel diode
c. A JK flip-flop with A = J and B = K a. A B C
d. An SR flip-flop with A = R and B = S b. B A C
58. Which one of the following is not a c. A C B
characteristic of CMOS configuration ? d. B C A
a. CMOS devices dissipate much lower 61. Consider the following statements :
static power than bipolar devices In frequency response of n-stage
b. CMOS devices have low input amplifiers,
impedances 1. lower cut-off frequency is (21/n–1)
c. CMOS devices have higher noise times that of a single stage.
margins 2. upper cut-off frequency is (21/n–1)
d. CMOS devices have much lower times that of a single stage.
transconductance than bipolar devices 3. lower cut-off frequency is (21/n–1)–1
59. For an n-type semiconductor having any times that of a single stage.
doping level, which of the following 4. upper cut-off frequency is (21/n–1)–1
hold(s) good : times that of a single stage.
1. pn ND = n i2 Which of the statements given above are
2. pp ND = n i2 correct ?
a. 1 and 2
3. nn ND = n i2
b. 1 and 3
4. pn nn = n i2 c. 2 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code d. 3 and 4
given below : 62. Consider the following statements :
a. 1 and 4 An applied bias voltage in a p-n junction
b. 2 and 4 diode (n region positive with respect to p
c. 3 and 4 region) results in
d. Only 4 1. increase in potential barrier.
60. Match the I-V characteristics given below 2. reduction in space charge layer width.
with Gunn diode, Photo diode and Tunnel 3. increase in space charge layer width.
diode. 4. increase in magnitude of electric field.
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
A. b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. l, 3 and 4
9 of 15
63. Which one of the following statements is d. 2 kTBR
correct in respect of a BJT? 66. A DSB-SC signal i generated using the
a. Avalanche multiplication starts when carrier signal cos (wct + θ) and modulating
the reverse biased collector-base signal m(t). What is the envelop detector
voltage VCB equals the avalanche output of this DSB-SC signal?
breakdown voltage BVCBO. a. m(t) cosθ
b. The early effect starts as soon as punch b. | m (t) |
through occurs in a transistor.
c. m(t) tanθ
c. The small signal current gain hfe =
large signal current gain hFE when d. m(t) sin θ
∂hFE/∂IC = 0. 67.
d. In the CE mode, a transistor can be cut
off by reducing IB to zero.
64.
Which one of the following sets correctly

describes the Block I and Block II in the
diagram given above?
Block I Block II
Which one of the following is the impulse A. Integrator Phase modulator
response of a matched filter for a singla
B. Integrator Frequency modulator
s(t) of the type shown above?
C. Differentiator Phase modulator
D. Differentiator Frequency modulator
68. The original spectrum of a message
contains 100 Hz, 200 Hz frequency
components. it is amplitude modulated by
a. a carrier of 0.9 kHz. Which frequency
components are contained in the amplitude
modulated signal spectrum?
a. 900, 1000 and 1100 Hz
b. 700, 800 and 900 Hz
b. c. 700, 800, 900, 1000 and 1100 Hz
d. 100, 200 and 900 Hz
69. If two signals modulate the same carrier
with different modulation depths of 0.3
and 0.9, the resulting modulation signal
c. will
a. be over-modulated
b. have the resultant modulation limited
to 1.0
c. have the resultant modulation index
d. around 0.82
65. Which one of the following is the available
noise power produced by a noisy resistor d. have the resultant modulation index
K? [k = Boltzmann Constant, T around 0.95
Temperature and B Bandwidth] 70. Match List-I (Modulation) with List-Il
a. kTB (Application) and select the correct answer
using the code given below:
b. 4 kTh
List- I
c. 4 kTBR
A. Wind band FM
10 of 15
B. Narrow band FM d. 1 and 3
C. AM 73. Consider the following statements about
D. VSB-AM analog data-digital signal :
List-II 1. Amplifiers used in repeaters produce
1. Mobile communicator additive noise.
2. FDM is used for digital signals
2. Superimposition of binary waveform
on carrier whereas TDM is used for analog
signals.
3. TV video
3. With TDM there is no intermodulation
4. TV audio noise whereas this is a concern for
5. Medium wave broadcast FDM.
A B C D 4. Conversion to digital signalling allows
a. 4 3 5 1 the use of efficient digital switching
b. 5 1 2 3 techniques.
c. 4 1 5 3 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
d. 5 3 2 1
a. 1 and 2
71. Match List-I (Parameter) With List-II
(Value of Parameter) and select the correct b. 3 and 4
answer using the code given below: c. 1, 2 and 3
List-I d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. Line blanking period 74. A resistor connected across the gate and
B. Line synchronization pulse cathode of an SCR
C. Vertical field pulse a. increases dv/dt rating of SCR
D. Duration of pre-equalizing pulse b. increases holding current of SCR
sequence c. decreases noise immunity of SCR
List - II d. increases turn-off time of SCR
1. 4.5 to 4.9 μs 75. Turn-on of a thyristor takes place when
2. 155 to 165 μs a. anode to cathode voltage is positive
3. 11.8 to 12.3 μs b. anode to cathode voltage is negative
4. 20,000 μs c. there is a positive current pulse at the
gate
A B C D
d. the anode to cathode voltage is positive
a. 3 1 4 2 and there is a positive current pulse at
b. 4 2 3 1 the gate
c. 3 4 1 2 76. Which is the most suitable power device
d. 4 3 2 1 for high frequency (>100 kHz) switching
72. Which of the following are the advantages application?
of FM broadcasting over AM a. Power MOSFET
broadcasting? b. Bipolar junction transfer
1. Better S/N ratio c. Schottky diode
2. Not subject to signal fading d. Microwave transistor
3. Power efficiency is superior 77. Match List-I with List-II and select the
4. Demodulation is simpler correct answer using the code given below
Select the correct answer using the code the Lists :
given below: List-I
a. 1 and 2 A. Voltage source inverter
b. 1, 2 and 4 B. Current source inverter
c. 2, 3 and 4 C. Phase controlled a.c. to d.c. converter
11 of 15
D. Cycloconverter 81. Which is the main relay for protecting up
List-II to 90% of the transmission line-length in
1. Large source inductance the forward direction?
2. Poor power factor a. Directional over-current relay
3. Inverter limit b. Mho relay
c. Carrier-current protective relay
4. Small source inductance
A B C D d. Impedance relay
a. 4 2 3 1 82. High voltage d.c. transmission requires
filters for
b. 3 1 4 2
a. current harmonics on a.c. side voltage
c. 4 1 3 2 harmonics on d.c. side
d. 3 2 4 1 b. voltage harmonics on a.c. side and
78. In a dual converter, the circulating current current harmonics on d.c. side
a. allows smooth reversal of load current, c. voltage harmonics on both a.c. and d.c.
but increases the response time sides
b. allows smooth reversal of load current d. current harmonics on both a.c. and d.c.
with improved speed of response sides
c. does not allow smooth reversal of load 83. If p is the pulse number and n is an integer,
current, but reduces the response time what is the order of harmonics on a.c. side
d. flows if there is no interconnecting and d.c. side of an HVDC converter?
inductor a. (np + 1) and (np — 1), respectively
79. Match List-I (Type of Fault) with List-Il b. (np — 1) and. np, respectively
(Type of Protection) and select the correct c. (np + 1) and np, respectively
answer using the code given below:
d. (np ± 1) and np, respectively
List- I
84. In a biased step-graded p-n junction, what
A. External phase fault is the correct expression for the
B. Faults between phases equilibrium contact potential (V0)?
C. Phase to earth fault a. V0 = VTln (NA/ND n i2 )
D. Overheating
b. V0 = VTln (ND/NA n i2 )
List-II
1. Differential protection c. V0 = VTln (NAND / n i2 )
2. Earth fault relay d. V0 = VTln (n i2 /NAND)
3. Over-current protection (inverse time
where VT ∝ T/q, T being the temperature,
delay o/c relay)
q the electronic charge, NA and ND are the
4. Thermal relay doping levels of the p and n region
A B C D respectively, and ni is the intrinsic carrier
a. 3 1 2 4 concentration.
b. 4 2 1 3 85. In an unbiased p-n junction, the junction
c. 3 2 1 4 current at equilibrium is
d. 4 1 2 3 a. due to diffusion of majority carriers
only
80. How many relays are used to detect inter
phase fault of a three-line system ? b. due to diffusion of minority carriers
only
a. One
c. zero, because equal and opposite drift
b. Two and diffusion currents for electrons and
c. Three holes cross the junction
d. Six d. zero, because no charges cross the
junction
12 of 15
86. What is the purpose of impedance d. Three phase full wave centre tapped
matching between the output of previous circuit
stage and input of next stage in a cascaded 92. In a three phase voltage source inverter
amplifiers operating in square wave mode, the output
a. To achieve high efficiency line voltage is free from
b. To achieve maximum power transfer a. 3rd harmonic
c. To achieve reduced distortion b. 7th harmonic
d. To achieve reduced noise c. 11th harmonic
87. In a bridge, a.c. to d.c. converter using p-n d. 13th harmonic
diodes, if the input voltage is V sin ωt, 93. A fully controlled line communtated
what is the peak inverse voltage across any converter functions as an invertor when
diode? firing angle (a) is in the range
a. V a. 00 — 90°
b. 2V b. 900 — 180°
c. V/2 c. 90° — 1800 only when there is a
d. V/ 2 suitable d.c. source in the load
88. Why is an external pass resistor used in a d. 900 — 1800 only when it supplies a
voltage regulator? back e.m.f. load
a. For short circuit protection 94. Which of the following devices should be
used as a switch in a low power switched
b. For increasing the current that
mode power supply (SMPS)?
regulator can handle
a. GTO
c. For increasing the output voltage
b. MOSFET
d. For improving the regulation
c. TRIAC
89. What is the power factor of a single phase
a.c. regulator feeding a resistive load? d. THYRISTOR
a. (Per unit power)2 95. Assertion (A) : Under V/f control of
induction motor, the maximum value of
b. (Per unit power)1/2
the developed torque remains constant
( Per unit Power )
2
over a wide range of speed in the sub-
c. synchronous region.
2
Reason (R) : The magnetic flux is
( Per unit Power )
1/2
d. maintained almost constant at the rated

2 value by keeping the ration V/f constant
90. When the firing angle α of a single phase over the considered speed range.
fully controlled rectifier feeding constant a. Both A and R are individually true and
d.c. current into the load is 300, what is the R is the correct explanation of A
displacement factor of the rectifier? b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. 1 R is not the correct explanation of A
b. 0.5 c. A is true but R is false
c. 3 d. A is false but R is true
96. Assertion (A) : Bus admittance matrix is a
d. 3 /2 sparse matrix.
91. For the same voltage output, which one of Reason (R) : In load flow studies, one of
the following has larger peak inverse the buses is taken as a slack bus.
voltage of the thyristor?
a. Single phase full wave centre tapped R is the correct explanation of A
circuit
b. Single phase full wave bridge circuit R is not the correct explanation of A
c. Three phase full wave cridge circuit c. A is true but R is false
13 of 15
97. Assertion (A) : Present day, surge diverters 101. Assertion (A) : Stack is a group of
use nonlinear resistance elements. memory locations in RAM used for
Reason (R) : A non-linear resistance temporary storage of data.
element has the property that its resistance Reason (R) : PUSH and POP instructions
increases sharply as the voltage across it are used to send and retrieve data from
increases. stack.
98. Assertion (A) : In JFET, the phenomenon 102. Assertion (A) : In frequency division
of thermal runaway is not observed around multiplexing (FDM), different carriers are
room temperature. to be generated for different channels.
Reason (R) : The heat dissipation in the Also, each channel occupies a separate
semiconductor increases its temperature frequency band and different band pass
which increases the carrier mobility with filters are employed.
temperature. Reason (R) : The non-linearities in various
a. Both A and R are individually true and amplifiers of an FDM system do not
R is the correct explanation of A produce any harmonic distortion and there
is no interference within, the channels.
R is not the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. A is true but R is false R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are individually true but
99. Assertion (A) : In a good power supply,
the percentage of voltage regulation should
be close to zero. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : Zero percentage regulation 103. A loss-less cylindrical rotor synchronous
means that there will be no change in generator is floating on the system bus-bar
output voltage if the load resistance varies after being, properly synchronised and is
between the limits 0 to ∞. running at no-load. Now, if the prime
mover is acting as a mechanical load on
the machine, then
a. the torque developed by the machine
will act in the same direction as the
prime-mover torque
b. the torque developed by the machine
d. A is false but R is true will act in the opposite direction to that
100. Assertion (A) : A clamping network of the prime-mover torque
produces an output signal which is a c. the machine rotor would fall-back and
replica of the input signal. induced emf would lag behind the
Reason (R) : A clamping circuit removes a terminal voltage
part of the input signal. d. the machine rotor would overspeed and
a. Both A and R are individually true and the induced emf would lead the
R is the correct explanation of A terminal voltage
b. Both A and R are individually true but 104. The resultant flux density in the air gap of
R is not the correct explanation of A a synchronous generator is the lowest
c. A is true but R is false during
14 of 15
a. Open circuit no-load. What reason can be assigned for
b. Solid short circuit this?
c. Full load a. The field circuit resistance is higher
d. Hald load than the critical resistance
b. The initial shunt field emf does not
105. A 50 kW d.c. shunt motor is loaded to
assist the residual resistance
draw rated armature current at any given
speed. When driven (i) at half the rated c. One of the inter-pole connections is
speed by armature voltage control and (ii) reversed
at 1.5 times the rated speed by field d. The brush-axis shifts slightly from the
control, what are the approximate output geometrical neutral axis of the machine
powers delivered by the motor? 109. Wave winding is employed in a d.c.
a. 25 kW in (1) and 75 kW in (ii) machine of
b. 25 kW in (i) and 50 kW in (ii) a. high current and low voltage rating
c. 50 kW in (i) and 75 kW in (ii) b. low current and high voltage rating
d. 50 kW in (i) and’50 kW in (ii) c. high current and high voltage rating
106. For a constant supply voltage, what are the d. low current and low voltage rating
effects of inserting a series resistance in 110.
the field circuit of a d.c. shunt motor, on
its speed and torque ?
a. Speed will decrease and the torque will
decrease
b. Speed will increase and the torque will, A.
increase
c. Speed will increase and the torque will
decrease
d. Speed will decrease and the torque will B.
increase
107. Consider the following statements in
respect of d.c. generators:
C.
1. Compensating windings are located in
teeth cut out in main poles.
2. Compensating windings are series
connected so that the armature reaction
is aided at any load. D.
3. Compensating windings are series An elementary cylindrical machine has
connected for cancellation of the one full-pitch coil in the stator, but the
armature reaction at any load. rotor may have (i) two poles or (ii) four
poles of permanent magnets.
4. Compensating windings are shunt
connected to aid, the poles at any load. The time-varying voltage that could be
induced in the stator coil for one rotation
of the rotor, while the rotor is revolving at
correct?
a constant speed are shown iii the figures
a. 1 and 2 A, B, C and D above.
b. 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct combination from the
c. 1 and 3 code given below:
d. 2, 3 and 4 2-pole 4-pole
108. A self-excited d.c. shunt generator, driven a. A D
by its prime-mover at the rated speed 1ils b. A B
to build up voltage across its terminals at
c. C D
15 of 15
d. B C respectively. What is voltage regulation at
111. What is the form of an air gap flux density power factor 0.8 lagging and 0.8 leading?
waveform of an uncompensated 2-pole d.c. a. 2.4% and –0.8%, respectively
shunt motor at full-load? b. 3.2% and —1.6%, respectively
c. 3.2 % and —3.2%, respectively
d. 4.8% and 1.6%, respectively
a. 116. If P1 and P2 be the iron and copper losses
of a transformer at full load, and the
maximum efficiency of the transformer is
b. at 75% of the full load, then what is the
ratio of P1 and P2 ?
a. 9/16
c. b. 10/16
c. 3/4
d. 3/16
d. 117. If the iron core of a transformer is replaced
112. Which three-phase connection can be used by an air core, then the hysteresis losses in
in a transformer to introduce a phase the transformer will
difference of 300 between its output and a. increase
corresponding input line voltages? b. decrease
a. Star-delta c. remain unchanged
b. Star-star d. become zero
c. Delta-delta 118. The equivalent circuit of a transformer has
d. Delta-zigzag the leakage reactances X1, X '2 and the
113. What is the efficiency of an auto- magnetising reactance Xm. What is the
transformer in comparison to that of a two- relationship between their magnitudes?
winding transformer of the same rating?
a. X1 >> X '2 >> Xm
a. Slightly less than that of a two-winding
transformer b. X1 << X '2 << Xm
b. Same as that of a two-winding c. X1 ≈ X2 >> Xm
transformer
d. X1 ≈ X '2 << Xm
c. More than that of a two-winding
transformer 119. If the voltage applied to a transformer
primary is increased by keeping the V/f
d. As low as 1/5th of the efficiency of a
ration fixed, then the magnetizing current
two-winding transformer
and the core loss will, respectively,
114. A two-winding transformer is converted
a. decrease and remain the same
into an auto-transformer. If we apply
additive polarity and subtractive polarity b. increase and decrease
for the connections, then the secondary c. remain the same and remain the same
voltage is 2640 V and 2160 V, d. remain the same and increase
respectively. What is the ratio of primary 120. Which among the following magnetic
to secondary voltage on the original materials has the highest energy-product to
transformer? make it a permanent magnet?
a. 66 : 54 a. Alnico
b. 54 : 66 b. Ferrite
c. 10 : 1 c. Samarium Cobalt
d. 1 : 10 d. Cobalt-Iron alloy
115. Percentage resistance and percentage
reactance of a transformer are 1% and 4%,
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 15
PAPER-II
the list:
List –I
(Logic Circuit/function)
A. D flip-flop In the circuit given in the above figure, Q
B. T flip-flop =0 initially. What shall be the subsequent
states of Q when clock pulses are given?
C. Exclusive
a. 1, 0,1,0, …
D. Half –adder
b. 0, 0, 0, 0…
List II
c. 1, 1, 1, 1, …
(Circuit realization)
d. 0, 1, 0, 1, …
1.
3. The following truth table has to be realized
with the circuit shown in the figure:
A B Qn+1
0 0 Q’ n
2. 0 1 1
1 0 Qn
1 1 0
3.
What is the output of the combinational

logic circuit to the J input?
4.
a. AB
b. A
c. B
d. AB
Code: 4. A J-K flip-flop can be made form an S-R
A B C D flip-flop by using two additional
a. 1 4 3 2 a. NAND gates
b. 2 3 4 1 b. OR gates
c. 1 3 4 2 c. NOT gates
d. 2 4 3 1 d. NOR gates
2. 5. Three devices P, Q and R have to be
connected to an 8085 microprocessor.
Device P has the highest priority and
device R has the lowest priority. In this
2 of 15
context, which of the following is the d. Registers
correct assignment of interrupt inputs? 9. In an Intel 8085 A, what is the content of
a. P uses TRAP, Q uses RST 5.5 and R the instruction register (IR)?
uses RST 6.5 a. Op-code for the instruction being
b. P uses RST 5.5, Q uses RST 6.5 and R executed
uses RST 7.5 b. Operand for the instruction being
c. P uses RST 7.5, Q uses RST 6.5 and R executed
uses RST 55 c. Op-code for the instruction to be
d. P uses RST 5.5, Q uses RST 6.5 and R executed next
uses TRAP d. Operand for the instruction to be
6. The content of the program counter of an executed next
Intel 8085A microprocessor specifies 10. In an Intel 8085A microprocessor, why is
which one of the following? ready signal used?
a. The address of the instruction being a. To indicate to user that the
executed microprocessor is working and is ready
b. The address of the instruction executed for use
earlier b. To provide proper WAIT states when
c. The address of the next instruction to the microprocessor is communicating
be executed with a slow peripheral device
d. The number of instructions executed so c. To slow down a fast peripheral device
far so as to communicate at the
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the microprocessor’s speed
correct answer using the code given below d. None of the above
the lists: 11. In an Intel 8085A, which is always the first
List-I machine cycle of an instruction?
(Semiconductor technology) a. An op-code fetch cycle
A. TTL b. A memory read cycle
B. ECL c. A memory write cycle
C. NMOS d. An I/O read cycle
D. CMOS 12. The addressing mode used in the
List II instruction JMP F 347H in case of an Intel
(Characteristic) 8085A microprocessor is which one of the
following?
1. Maximum power consumption
a. Direct
2. Highest packing density
b. Register-indirect
3. Least power consumption
c. Implicit
4. Saturated logic
d. Immediate
Code:
13. What is the number of machine cycles in
A B C D
the instruction LDA 2000 H that consists
a. 1 4 2 3 of thirteen states?
b. 4 1 2 3 a. 2
c. 1 4 3 2 b. 3
d. 4 1 3 2 c. 4
8. Both the ALU and control section of CPU d. 5
employ which special purpose storage
14. Match list-I with list-II and select the
locations?
a. Buffers the lists:
b. Decoders List-I
c. Accumulators (Feature of Instruction)
3 of 15
A. Maskable interrupt 120 2
c. V and 0
B. Signal π
C. Instruction
120 2
D. Memory location 002C H d. 0 and V
π
List-II
18. For a step-down d.c. chopper operating
(Instruction) with discontinuous load current, what is
1. RST 5.5 the expression for the load voltage? (K is
2. XTHIL duty ratio of chopper)
3. SID a. V0 = Vd.c ×K
4. RST 6.5 b. V0 = Vd.c /K
Code: c. V0 = Vd.c /(1-K)
A B C D d. V0 = Vd.c (1-K)
b. 4 1 2 3 19. An ideal chopper is operating at a
c. 2 3 4 1 frequency of 500 Hz form a 60 V battery
d. 4 3 2 1 input. It is supplying a load having 3 Ω
e. 2 1 4 3 resistance and 9 mH inductance. Assuming
the load is shunted by a perfect
15. An Intel 8085A microprocessor is operated commutating diode and assuming battery
at a frequency of 2 MHz. If the instruction is lossless, what is the mean load current at
LXI H, E000 H that takes ten T states, is an on/off ratio of 1/1?
executed, then what is the instruction cycle
time? a. 10 A
b. 15 A
a. 10 μs
c. 20 A
b. 5 μs
c. 4 μs
20. The maximum junction-temperature of a
d. 2.5 μs transistor is 150 °C and the ambient
16. For a single-phase a.c. to d.c. controlled temperature is 25 °C. If the total thermal
rectifier to operate in regenerative m ode, impedance is 1 °C/W, what is the
which of the following conditions should maximum power dissipation?
be satisfied? a. 1/175 W
a. Half –controlled bridge, α < 90°, b. 175 W
source of e.m.f. in load
c. 125 W g
b. Half-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source d. 1/125 W
of e.m.f. in load
c. Full-controlled bridge, α > 90°, source correct answer using the code given below
of e.m.f. in load the lists:
d. Full-controlled bridge, α < 90°, source List-I
of e.m.f. in load
(Device)
17. A half-controlled bridge converter is
A. Triac
operating from an r.m.s. input voltage of
120V. neglecting the voltage drops, what B. Reverse conducting thyristor
are the mean load voltage at a firing delay C. Diac
angle of 0°and 180°, respectively? List-II
120 × 2 2 (Monolithic construction of)
a. V and 0
π 1. Two thyristors in anti-parallel
2. A thyristor and a diode in anti-parallel
120 × 2 2
b. 0 and V 3. Two diodes in anti-parallel
π
Code:
A B C
4 of 15
a. 1 2 3 L
b. 3 2 1 b.
Lmin
c. 2 3 1
d. 3 1 2 Lmin
c.
22. Consider the following statements about L
analog communication and multiplexing: L
d.
1. Noise problem for analog Lmin
communication has the greatest effect
on TDM system. 26. With the increase in the transmission
bandwidth, received signal-power in AM
2. Noise problem for analog and FM will, respectively
communication has the least effect on
SDM system. a. Increase, increase
Which of the statements given above is/are b. Remain same , increase
correct? c. Increase, remain same
a. 1 only d. Remain same, remain same
b. 2 only 27. Match list-I with List-II and select the
c. Both 1 and 2 correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
d. Neither 1 nor 2
List-I
(Modulation)
1. An active satellite is one carrying a
receiver, a transmitter and power A. PSK
supplies. B. FM
2. A passive satellite is simply a C. AM
metalized sphere reflecting radio List-II
signals back to the earth. (Detector/Filter)
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Square-law detector
correct? 2. Ratio detector
a. 1 only 3. Matched filter
b. 2 only Code:
c. Both 1 and 2 A B C
d. Neither 1 nor 2 a. 3 1 2
24. If the ASCII character H is sent and the b. 3 2 1
character I is received, what type of error
c. 2 1 3
is represented?
d. 2 3 1
a. Single bit
b. Multiple-bit
c. Burst the lists:
d. Recoverable List-I
25. In coding theory, if (Characteristic)
L = average word length of the code word A. Capture effect is a characteristic of
L min = minimum average word length of B. Granular noise occurs in
the code word C. Guard band is required in
Then what is the efficiency of source-code List-II
(n)? (Modulation)
Lmin 1. FDM
a.
L 2. PCM
3. FM
Code:
5 of 15
A B C 35. When TRAP interrupt is triggered
a. 3 2 1 in an Intel 8085A, the program control is
b. 3 1 2 transferred to which one of the following?
c. 1 2 3 a. 0020 H
d. 1 3 2 b. 0024 H
29. Which signaling scheme is most affected c. 00 28 H
by noise? d. 00 2C H
a. ASK 36. The stack pointer of an 8085A
b. FSK microprocessor contains ABCD H.
c. PSK PUSH PSW
d. QAM XTHL
30. What are the three steps in generating PUSH D
PCM in the correct sequence? JMP EC 75 H
a. Sampling, quantizing and encoding At the end of the execution of the above
b. Encoding sampling and quantizing instructions, what would be the content of
the stack pointer?
c. Sampling encoding and quantizing
a. ABCB H
d. Quantizing, sampling and encoding
b. ABCA H
31. In an AM system, for satisfactory
operation, carrier frequency must be n c. ABC9 H
times the bandwidth of message-signal. d. ABC8 H
What is the value of n? 37. If the HLT instruction of an Intel 8085A
a. > 2 microprocessor is executed
b. > 5 a. The microprocessor is disconnected
c. > 10 form the system bys till the RESET us
pressed
d. > 50
b. The microprocessor halts the execution
32. For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 10
of the program and returns to the
kHz and the highest frequency component
monitor
present is 750 kHz. What is the carrier
frequency used for this AM signal? c. The microprocessor enters into a
HALT state and the buses are tri-stated
a. 675 kHz
d. The microprocessor reloads the
b. 700 kHz
program counter form the locations
c. 705 kHz 0024 H and 0025 H
d. 710 kHz 38. Consider the following statements:
33. What is the main object of trellis coding? Skewing of rotor slots in a 3 phase
a. To narrow the bandwidth induction motor (cage rotor) may
b. To simplify modulation 1. Introduce additional leakage reactance
c. To increase the data rate 2. Eliminate slot harmonics
d. To reduce the error rate Which of the statements given above is/are
34. When zero mean Gaussian noise of correct?
variance N is applied to an ideal half-wave a. 1 only
rectifier, what is the mean square value of b. 2 only
the rectified noise?
c. Both 1 and 3
a. N/4
d. Neither 1 nor 2
b. N/2
39. In the equivalent circuit of a double cage
c. N induction motor, the two rotor cages can
d. 2N be considered
a. To be in parallel
b. To be in series-parallel
6 of 15
c. To be in series (Method of speed control of 3
d. To be in parallel with stator phase wound-type induction motor)
40. A 3 phase squirrel-cage induction motor is A. Stator voltage control
started by means of a star/delta switch. B. Rotor resistance control
What is the starting current of the motor? C. Constant volts/Hz control
a. 3 times the current with direct on line D. Injection of voltage in rotor circuit
starting List-II
1 (Performance achieved)
b. times the current with direct on line
3 1. Both speed and p.f. can be controlled
starting 2. Maximum torque remains constant
c. 1 times the current with direct on 3. Starting torque decreases
3
line starting 4. Starting torque decreases
Code:
d. 3 times the current with direct on
A B C D
line starting
a. 2 1 4 3
41. Sludge formation in transformer oil is due
to which one of the following? b. 4 3 2 1
a. Ingress of dust particles and moisture c. 2 3 4 1
in the oil. d. 4 1 2 3
b. Appearance of small fragments of 45. Cores of large power transformers are
paper, varnish, cotton and other made form which one of the following?
organic materials in the oil a. Hot-rolled steel
c. Chemical reaction of transformer oil b. Cold-rolled non-grain oriented steel
with the insulating materials c. Cold-rolled grain oriented steel
d. Oxidation of transformer oil d. Ferrite
42. A single-phase transformer rated for 46. A transformer has a percentage resistance
220/440 V, 50 Hz. This frequency of 2% and percentage reactance of 4%.
operation at rated voltage results in which What are its regulations at power factor
one of the following? 0.8 leading, respectively?
a. Increases of both eddy-current and a. 4% and - 0.8%
hysteresis losses b. 3.2% and – 1.6%
b. Reduction of both eddy-current and c. 1.6% and – 3.2 %
hysteresis losses
d. 4.8% and – 0.6%
c. Reduction of hysteresis loss and
increase in eddy-current loss 47. The daily energy produced in a thermal
power station is 720 MWh at a load factor
d. Increase of hysteresis loss and no of 0.6. What is the maximum demand of
change in the eddy-current loss the station?
43. What is the load at which maximum a. 50 MW
efficiency occurs in case of a 100 kVA
transformer with iron loss of 1 kW and b. 30 MW
full–load copper loss of 2 kW? c. 72 MW
a. 100 kVA d. 720 MW
b. 70.7 kVA 48. Taking the density of water to be 1000
c. 50.5 kVA kg/m2, how much power would be
developed by a hydroelectric generator
d. 25.2 kVA unit, assuming 100% efficiency, with 1.0
44. Match list-I with list-II and select the m head and 1.0 m3/s discharge?
correct answer using the code given below a. 2.90 kW
the lists:
b. 4.45 kW
List-I
c. 9.80 kW
7 of 15
d. 19.60 kW d. 4 3 2 1
49. Consider the following statements 53. Consider the following statements:
regarding the nuclear power plans: 1. Equivalent- T circuit of a long line is
1. A thermal rector needs a moderator preferred to equivalent - π circuit.
material 2. The nature of reactive power
2. In a nuclear reactor, multiplication compensation is different for peak load
factor is kept almost equal to one. and off-peak load conditions.
3. Nuclear power plants are used as peak 3. Ferranti effect is significant only on
load plants only. medium and long lines.
Which of the statement given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
50. The full-load copper loss and iron loss of a 54. For an extra-high voltage overhead
transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W, transmission line, four conductors are used
respectively. What are the above copper per phase (in a bundle) at the corners of a
loss and iron loss, respectively at half- square of sides meter. The GMR
load? (geometric mean radius) of each conductor
a. 3200 W, 2500W is r m meter.
b. 3200 W, 5000W What is the GMR of the bundle conductor?
c. 1600 W, 1250 W a. (r1m × s2× 2 s ) 1/4
d. 1600 W, 5000 W
(rm' × s3 )
1/4
b.
51. In a 3 phase, 5 kV, 5 MVA systems, what
(rm' × 3s3 )
1/4
is the base impedance? c.
a. 5 ohms
⎡ 3⎤ 1/4
b. 50 ohms d. ⎢ rm' ×
⎣⎢
( 2s ⎥
⎦⎥
)
c. 500 ohms
d. 0.5ohm 55. When is the Ferranti effect on long
overhead lines experienced?
52. Match list-I with list-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below a. The line is lightly loaded
the lists: b. The line is heavily loaded
List-I c. The line is fully loaded
A. Transient stability improvement d. The power factor is unity
B. Economic dispatch 56. What is the surge impedance loading of a
C. Load frequency control lossless 400 kV, 3-phase, 50Hz overhead
line of average of surge impedance of 400
D. Dynamic stability
ohms?
List-II
a. 400 MW
1. Incremental transmission loss
b. 400 3 MW
2. Area control error
3. Power system stabilizers c. 400/ 3 MW
4. Turbine fast valuing d. 400 kW
Code: 57.
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
8 of 15
The figure given above shows a schematic 3. –ve voltage, -ve current
arrangement of a Distance Relay provided 4. +ve voltage, -ve current
with a ‘Replica Impedance’ Zr. The CT Select the correct answer using the code
ratio = I/v and VT ratio = V/v. When a given below:
fault occurs on the line being protected,
a. 1 only
when would the relay operate?
b. 1 and 2 only
a. Zr > Z
c. 1 and 4 only
b. Zr < Z
d. 3 and 4 only
c. Zr > Z. I/i
62.
d. Zr > Z. V/v
58. A 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous generator
has inductance per phase of 15 mH. The
capacitance of generator and circuit
breaker is 0.002 μ F . What is its natural
frequency of oscillation?
a. 29 kHz
b. 2.9 kHz
c. 290 kHz
d. 29 MHz
regarding HVDC power transmission:
1. The modern HVDC systems use 12-
pulse converters.
2. DC systems never use ground or sea
return.
3. Most of present-day d.c. schemes are
two-terminal links.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? For the circuit shown in Fig. A, the V-I
a. 1, 2 and 3 (voltage-current) characteristic of the
b. 1 only circuit using ideal components is given by
c. 2 and 3 only curve a in Fig. B.
d. 1 and 3 only Which curve in Fig. B represents the V-I
characteristic for the circuit shown in Fig
60. Two generating stations connected to a
C?
load centre having capacity of 50 MVA
and 75 MVA deliver 100 MW to the load. a. Curve a
The incremental cost of plant 1 is 15 + b. Curve b
0.15P1 and that of the plant 2 is 18 + c. Curve c
0.15P2. What are the value of P1 and P2, d. Curve d
respectively? 63.
a. 60 MW and 40 MW
b. 50 MW each
c. 72 MW and 28 MW
d. 30 MW and 70 MW
61. A two-quadrant d.c. to d.c. chopper can
operate with which of the following load
conditions?
1. +ve voltage, +ve current What is the peak current through the
2. –ve voltage, +ve current resistor in the circuit given above
assuming the diode to be ideal?
9 of 15
a. 4 mA c. T1 + T2
b. 8 mA R1 R
c. 12 mA d. T1. + T2 . 2
R2 R1
d. 16 mA
69. The contents of Program Counter (PC),
64. For a rectifier circuit, percentage voltage when the microprocessor is reading from
regulation is equal to which one of the 2FFF H memory location, will be
following?
a. 2FFE H
Vno load − V full load
a. ×100 b. 2FFF H
Vno load c. 3000 H
Vno load − V full load d. 3001 H
b. ×100
V full load 70. Carry flag is not affected after the
execution of
Vno load − V full load
c. ×100 a. ADD B
Vno load + V full load b. SBB B
V full load c. INR B
d. × 100 d. ORA B
Vno load
71. Which one is the indirect addressing mode
65. A single-phase current source inverter is in the following instructions?
connected with capacitive load only. The
a. LXIH 2050 H
waveform of the output voltage across the
capacitor for constant source current will b. MOV A, B
be c. LDAX B
a. Sine wave d. LDA 2050 H
b. Square wave 72. An 8254 programmable interval timer
c. Triangular wave consists of independent 16-bit
programmable counters. This number is
d. Step function
a. 2
66. A modern power semiconductor device
that combines the characteristics of BJT b. 3
and MOSFET is c. 4
a. GTO d. 5
b. FCT 73. What are the advantages of switching
c. IGBT power supplies over linear power supplies?
d. MCT 1. The devices operate in linear/active
region.
67. A digital communication system uses 8-
PSK modulation and transmits 3600 bps. 2. The devices operate as switches.
What is the symbol rate? 3. Power losses are less.
a. 10800 symbols/sec Select the correct answer using the code
b. 450 symbols/sec given below:
c. 28800 symbols/sec a. 1 and 3 only
d. 1200 symbols/sec b. 2 and 3 only
68. If two resistors of values R1 and R2 (at c. 1 and 2 only
temperatures T1 and T2) are connected in d. 1, 2 and 3
series to form a white noise source, the 74. Assertion (A): A d.c. motor draws high
equivalent noise temperature is current at the time of starting.
R1T1 + R2T2 Reason (R): While starting a d.c. motor, it
a.
R1 + R2 takes some time to develop a non-zero
value of back e.m.f.
R1T1 − R2T2
b. a. Both A and R are individually true and
R1 + R2 R is the correct explanation of A
10 of 15
b. Both A and R are individually true but c. A is true but R is false
R is not the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 79. Assertion (A): The ‘short-circuit capacity’
d. A is false but R is true of a bus in a large power grid is defined as
75. Assertion (A): For a 3-phase alternator the product of the pre-fault voltage and the
operating on leading p.f at full load, the 3-phase fault current at a point very close
terminal voltage may be more than the no- to the bus.
load induced e.m.f Reason (R): The larger the short-circuit
Reason (R): At leading power factor, the capacity, the large would be the equivalent
effect of armature reaction is source impedance at the bus.
demagnetizing. a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 80. Assertion (A): It is not possible to design a
76. Assertion (A): AC armature windings are current source using operational amplifier.
short chorded by selecting value of coil Reason (R): Operational amplifier is a
span more than the pole pitch. voltage controlled voltage source.
Reason (R): Short chording is done to a. Both A and R are individually true and
eliminate harmonics in the induced e.m.f. R is the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is the correct explanation of A R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false 81. Assertion (A): Each memory cell of a
d. A is false but R is true DRAM requires refreshing every 2, 4 or 8
77. Assertion (A): The leakage reactance of a ms or its data will be lost.
3-phase induction motor should be small. Reason (R): DRAM stores 1s and 0s as
Reason (R): A small value of leakage charges on a small MOS capacitor which
reactance will increase the maximum has tendency to leak off charges after a
power output of motor. period of time.
78. Assertion (A): Both the efficiency and 82. Assertion (A): Bandwidth of angle-
regulation of a 3-winding ideal transformer modulated signal is infinite.
are 100%. Reason (R): Angle modulation of a carrier
Reason (R): The flux leakage and the result in the generation of an infinite
magnetic reluctance of the magnetic core number of an infinite number of sidebands.
in an ideal transformer are zero. Moreover, a. Both A and R are individually true and
losses are absent in ideal transformers. R is the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is the correct explanation of A R is not the correct explanation of A
11 of 15
83. Assertion (A): In television transmission, c. A2, B3, C4, D1
interlaced scanning is used. d. A4, B1, C2, D3
Reason (R): Interlaced scanning provides 87. The AND function can be realized by
increased picture brightness. using only n number of NOR gates. What
a. Both A and R are individually true and in n equal to?
R is the correct explanation of A a. 2
b. Both A and R are individually true but b. 3
R is not the correct explanation of A c. 4
c. A is true but R is false d. 5
88. The Boolean expression A.B + A.B is
84. Consider the following statements in logically equivalent to which of the
Johnson counter: following?
1. A MOD–6 Johnson counter requires 3
1. ( A + B ).( A + B)
FFs.
2. Johnson counter requires decoding 2. ( A + B ).( A + B)
gates. 3. ( A.B + A.B)
3. To decode each count, one logic gate is
used. Each gate requires only two 4. ( A.B ).( A.B )
inputs regardless of the number of FFs. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below:
correct? a. 1 and 2 only
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only d. None of the above
d. 1, 2 and 3 89.
85. What is the simplified form of the Boolean
expression T = ( X + Y )( X + Y )( X + Y ) ?
a. XY
b. XY
c. XY
d. XY In the given circuit, the output Y equals
86. Match List–I with List-II and select the which one of the following?
correct answer using the code given below a. A + B
the Lists: b. AB + AB
List-I (Expression – I)
c. AB
A. ABC + ABC + ABC d. A + B
B. ABC + ABC + BC 90.
C. ABC + ABC + ABC + ABC
D. AB + AB + ABC
List-II (Expression – II)
1. A + BC
2. A( B + C )
3. BC In the circuit given above, the Zener diode
D1 has a reverse breakdown voltage of
4. AB + BC + AC
100 V and reverse saturation current of 25
Codes: μ A. The corresponding values for D2 are
a. A2, B1, C4, D3
b. A4, B3, C2, D1
12 of 15
50 V and 50 μ A. What is the current in the 2. Colpitts oscillator is suitable
circuit? for generating 1 MHz.
a. 25 μ A anticlockwise Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
b. 25 μ A clockwise
a. 1 only
c. 50 μ A anticlockwise
b. 2 only
d. 50 μ A clockwise c. Both 1 and 2
91. d. Neither 1 nor 2
94. A sinusoidal signal of 100 Hz is applied to
an amplifier. The output current is
i0 = 20sin(628t ) + 2sin(1256t ) +1sin(1256t )
What is the approximate percentage
increase in power due to distortion?
a. 1.15
b. 1.25
What is the output voltage vo of the given
c. 1.30
circuit?
d. 1.50
a. −5va + 2.5vb
95. A resistance Rf is connected across the
b. −5va + 3vb collector and base of a BJT amplifier of
c. −2.5va + 2.5vb gain –A(A>0). The input impedance of the
amplifier will consist of transistor internal
d. −2.5va + 3vb resistance rb ' e shunted by which one of the
92. following?
a. Rf (1+A)
b. Rf (1-A)
c. Rf /(1+A)
d. Rf /(1-A)
96. A negative feedback amplifier with open-
Consider the following statements in − A0
loop gain A0 > 0 and feedback
respect of the Wien bridge oscillator ω
1+ j
shown in the figure above: ω0
1. For R = 1 kiloohm factor β (> 0) will have a 3 dB cut-off at
⎛1⎞ what frequency?
C = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎟ μ F , f = 1kHz
⎜⎝ 2π ⎠ a. ω0 A0 β
2. For R = 3 kiloohms b. ω0 (1 + A0β )
⎛ 1 ⎞⎟ c. ω0 / (1 + A0 β )
C = ⎜⎜ μ F , f = 3kHz
⎜⎝18π ⎠⎟⎟
d. ω0 / (1− A0 β )
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 97.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. Wien bridge oscillator is suitable for
generating 1 kHz.
13 of 15
101. Match List-I with List-II and
select the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists:
List – I (DC machine quantity)
A. Developed power
B. Torque
C. Generated e.m.f.
D. Speed
List – II (Relation)
What is the transistor combination shown 1. ∝ N φ
in the figure given above? 2. ∝ Eb I a
a. A Darlington pair 3. ∝ Eb / φ
b. A complementary pair
4. ∝ I aφ
c. It effectively acts as a single p-n-p
transistor Codes:
d. If effectively acts as a single n-p-n a. A2, B4, C1, D3
transistor b. A3, B1, C4, D2
98. What is the effect of cascading the c. A2, B1, C4, D3
amplifier stages? d. A3, B4, C1, D2
a. To increase the voltage gain and 102. A shunt generator has a critical field
increase the bandwidth resistance of 200 Ω at a speed of 800
b. To increase the voltage gain and r.p.m. If the speed of the generator is
reduce the bandwidth increased to 1000 r.p.m., what is the
c. To decrease the voltage gain and change in the critical field resistance of the
increase the bandwidth generator?
d. To decrease the voltage gain and a. Decreases to 160 Ω
reduce the bandwidth b. Remains the same at 200 Ω
99. c. Increases to 250 Ω
d. Increases to 312.5 Ω
103. Which one of the following curves
represents the speed-torque characteristic
of a d.c. series motor?
a.
The graph shown above represents which
characteristic of a d.c. shunt generator?
a. Internal characteristic
b. External characteristic
b.
c. Open-circuit characteristic
d. Magnetic characteristic
100. When is the mechanical power developed
by a d.c. motor maximum?
a. Back e.m.f is equal to applied voltage c.
b. Back e.m.f is equal to zero
c. Back e.m.f is equal to half the applied
voltage
d.
14 of 15
What type of winding will be
selected for this machine?
a. Double-layer, fractional slot, short-
pitched winding
b. Single-layer, fractional slot, short-
104. Match List – I with List – II in respect of pitched winding
synchronous machines and select the c. Single-layer, integral slot, full-pitch
correct answer using the code given below winding
the List: d. Double-layer, fractional slot, full-pitch
List-I (Machine characteristic) winding
A. Open-circuit characteristic 108. When are eddy-current losses in a
B. V-curve transformer reduced?
C. Internal Characteristic a. If laminations are thick
D. Inverted V-curve b. If the number of turns in primary
List-II (Quantity) winding is reduced
1. p.f. vs. If c. If the number of turns in secondary
2. Ea vs. Ia winding is reduced
3. Eg vs. If d. If laminations are thin
4. Ia vs. If 109. Why is a centrifugal switch used in a
single-phase induction motor?
Code:
a. To protect the motor from overloading
a. A3, B1, C2, D4
b. To improve the starting performance of
b. A2, B4, C3, D1
the motor
c. A3, B4, C2, D1
c. To cut off the starting winding at an
d. A2, B1, C3, D4 appropriate instant
105. Which of the following conditions are to d. To cut in the capacitor during running
be satisfied for proper synchronization of conditions
alternators?
110. What is the operating slip of a 400 V, 50
1. Equal terminal voltage Hz, 6-pole, 3-phase induction motor, while
2. Same frequency the speed is 936 r.p.m. with a 400 V, 45
3. Same phase sequence Hz, 3-phase supply?
4. Same kVA rating a. 0.036
5. Same phase displacement b. 0.064
Select the correct answer using the code c. 0.025
given below: d. 0.075
a. 1, 3, and 4 only 111. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor
b. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only having negligible stator impedance drives
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only a constant torque load. If an additional
d. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only resistance is included in the rotor circuit,
what does the motor experience?
106. If the excitation of a 3-phase alternator
operating on infinite bus bars is changed, a. Increase in both the stator current and
which one of the following shall alter? the slip
a. Active power of machine b. No change in the stator current and
increase in the slip
b. Reactive power of machine
c. Increase in the stator current and no
c. Terminal voltage of machine change in the slip
d. Frequency of machine d. Decrease in the stator current and
107. The stator of a 3-phase, 6-pole a.c. increase in the slip
machine has 45 slots. The stator winding 112. Breakdown torque in a 3-phase induction
has 45 coils with a coil span of 6 slots. motor of negligible stator impedance is
15 of 15
a. Directly proportional to rotor d. A pair of 3-phase converter in
resistance sequence control
b. Inversely proportional to rotor 116. A single-phase full-bridge inverter is
resistance connected to a load of 2.4 Ω . The d.c.
c. Directly proportional to rotor leakage input voltage is 48 V. What is the r.m.s.
reactance output at fundamental frequency?
d. Inversely proportional to rotor leakage 4× 48
a. V
reactance 2π
113. Match List – I with List – II and select the 2× 48
correct answer using the code given below b. V
2π
the Lists:
List-I 4× 48
c. V
(Controller) π
A. Chopper-controlled resistance in the 2× 48
d. V
rotor π
B. Sub-synchronous converter-cascade in 117. A buck regulator has an input voltage of
the rotor circuit of an induction motor 12 V and the required output voltage is 5
C. 3-phase a.c. voltage controller V. What is the duty cycle of the regulator?
D. Cyoloconverter a. 5/12
List-II b. 12/5
(Type of load) c. 5/2
1. Very low speed, high-power reversible d. 6
drive 118. A balanced 3-phase induction motor runs
2. Centrifuges in sugar industry at slip S. If ω s is its synchronous speed,
3. Blowers and compressors what is the relative speed between the
4. Loads requiring good starting stator m.m.f. and rotor m.m.f.?
performance a. S ω s
Code: b. (1− S )ω s
a. A3, B4, C2, D1
c. ω s
b. A3, B4, B1, D2
c. A4, B3, C1, D2 d. Zero
d. A4, B3, C2, D1 119. Maximum efficiency of modern coal-fired
steam-raising thermal power plants is
114. A cyclo-converter-fed induction motor restricted to about 0.35 (a low value),
drive is most suitable for which one of the mainly because of
following?
a. Low alternator efficiency
a. Compressor drive
b. High energy loss in boilers
b. Machine tool drive
c. Low steam turbine mechanical
c. Paper mill drive efficiency
d. Cement mill drive d. High energy loss from turbine exhaust
115. A large d.c. motor is required to control to condenser
the speed of blower from a 3-phase a.c. 120. Mho relay is usually employed for the
source. What is the most suitable a.c. to protection of
d.c. converter?
a. Short lines only
a. 3-phase fully controlled bridge
converter b. Medium lines only
b. 3-phase fully controlled bridge c. Long lines only
converter with free wheeling diode d. Any line
c. 3-phase half-controlled bridge
converter
I.E.S- (OBJ) 2008 1 of 11
GENERAL ABILITY TEST

PART-A
SYNONYMS ANTONYMS
Directions (For the 9 items which follow): Directions (For the 7 items which follow):
Each of the following nine items consists of a word or a group of Each of the following seven items consists of a word in capital
words in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital
meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters. letters.
1. BEAVER AWAY 10. SALACIOUS

a. To waste away a. Decent
b. To sleep for long hours b. Satisfying
c. To work hard c. Preciptious
d. To steal something d. Fortifying
2. BADGER 11. SEDULOUS
a. To ricochet a. Lack of emotions
b. To err b. Lack of steady effort
c. To apologize c. Affluent
d. To pester persistently d. Modest
3. SWISH 12. SWINGEINE
a. False a. Dull
b. Fashionable b. Meagre
c. Annulment c. Disrepute
d. Rapid d. Proportionate
4. SURREPTITIOUS 13. TEDIUM
a. To be impatient a. Appreciation
b. Susceptible b. Fixation
c. Supportive c. Neutrability
d. To act stealthily d. Liveliness
5. SURROGATE 14. TENDENTIOUS
a. Surpassable a. Impartial
b. Substitute b. Calm
c. Surfeit c. Supplementary
d. Surveillant d. Super-duper
6. UP-THE CREEK 15. TEMERITY
a. To get lot of money a. Humourous
b. In dire difficulties b. Hybrid
c. To be very successful c. Humility
d. To achieve one’s aim by deceit d. Humiliation
7. CAVEAT 16. CAPRICE
a. Award a. Excuse
b. Controversy b. Steady behaviour
c. Warning c. Accusation
d. Graphic d. Exhortation
8. NIP AND TUCK
a. Close competition Directions (For the 5 items which follow):
b. Heavy rain
c. Fierce attack In each of the following five items, a related pair of words (in
d. Mixture capital letters) is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the
9. COMEUPPANCE original pair (in capital letters).
a. Sudden arrival
b. Parity 17. CALLOW : MATURITY
c. Paradox a. Eager : Anxiety
d. Retribution b. Incipient : Fruition
2 of 11
c. Apathetic : Disinterest (b)
d. Exposure : Weathering I told her the news
18. DAMPEN : ENTHUSIASM (c)
a. Moisten : Throat No error
b. Test : Commitment (d)
c. Reverse: Direction 24. Acting from inside information
d. Mute : Sound (a)
19. RUFFLE : COMPOSURE the police were able to arrest the gang
a. Flourish : Prosperity (b)
b. Adjust : Balance before the robbery occurred
c. Upset : Equilibrium (c)
d. Chaff : Wheat No error
20. LATENT : MANIFESTATION (d)
a. Dormant : Awakening 25. Amit did not have a girl-friend
b. Patent : Appearance (a)
c. Redoubtable : Impress till he was 21, but now
d. Aggrieved : Distress (b)
21. CELERITY : SNAIL he is making up at the lost time
a. Indolence : Sloth (c)
b. Humility : Peacock No error
c. Nervous : Energy (d)
d. Emulation : Rivalry 26. She wanted to be an actress
(a)
SPOTTING ERRORS but her father soon
Directions (For the 6 items which follow) : (b)
nipped that idea in the bud
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The (c)
sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one
is labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out No error
whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence (d)
has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of 27. Captain’s language was uncompromising
the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on (a)
the separate Answer Sheet at the approximate space. You may
feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d)
he told junior officers their work
will signify a ‘No error’ response. (b)
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your must improve or they would be fired
Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your (c)
answer will be considered wrong) Errors may be in grammar, No error
word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there
may be a word which should be removed. (d)
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required
only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. ORDERING OF SENTENCES
Example ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved you for.
(EXAMPLES)
P. The young child singed
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
(a) (b)
A very sweet song. No error In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The
(c) (d) first sentence (S1) and final sentence (S6) are given in the
Explanation: beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed
In item P, the word ‘signed’ in wrong. The letter under this part is and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required
(b); se (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the to find out the correct sequence of the four sentences and mark
correct answer, as the sentence does not certain any error. accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
22. There were gapes of horror Example ‘X’ has been solved for you.
(a)
form the spectators as (EXAMPLE)
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack
(b) S6 : At least she turned him out of the house
the performer fell from the tightrope P: So the mother asked him to find work
(c) Q: They were very poor
No error R: he lived with his mother
(d) S: But Jack refused to work
23. She gazed at me
(a) Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
in misbelief when (a) R–Q–P-S
(b) P–Q–R-S
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(c) Q–P–R-S S6: We are the inheritors of a great
(d) R–P–S-Q world heritage.
P: They try to find out whatever is of value in
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example is R-Q-P- them.
S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is the correct
Q: You will find that other religions are
answer.
studies with sympathy and respect by those
who do not adhere to them
28. S1 : The first aeroplanes were fragile and
R: All that has changed today.
clumsy.
S: The classics of the whole world form the
S6 : In those days people considered flight in
classics of every human being.
an aeroplane to be a miracle
Which one of the following is the correct
P : When they took off they would not fly
sequence?
very high
a. P – S – R – Q
Q : They also broke down frequently
b. R – Q – P – S
R: It was difficult for them to take off
c. P – Q – R – S
S : They flew slowly and only in the
d. R – S – P – Q
vicinity of the airfield
32. S1: Javert was a strong, upright and just man.
S6: So he took the only way out for him-he
sequence?
killed himself.
a. R – P – S – Q
P: But now his life was turned upside down.
b. S – Q – R – P
Q: It was his safe world of rules.
c. R – Q – S – P
R: He would help no one, and he helped no
d. S – P – R – Q
one.
29. S1 : Lions usually live in a family parties
S: He did not want favours from a thief.
called ‘prides’.
S6 : They actack man only when they are
sequence?
wounded or otherwise aroused.
a. Q – P –S – R
P : Wild lions are not normally a menance
b. S – R –Q – P
to man.
c. Q – R –S – P
Q : A pride is commonly made up of a lion,
d. S – P – Q – R
two lionesses and cubs.
33. S1: Nowadays we pay a great deal of attention
R : Sometimes pigs and other animals are
to pure air, open windows and garden cities.
also killed by them.
S6: Pasteurised milk is milk which has been
S : They usually prey on zebras and
treated in this way.
antelopes.
P: Another useful discovery of Pasteur’s was
the process, now called, pasteurization.
sequence?
Q: Pasteur was one of the first to show how
a. P – S – R – Q
necessary all these are if we are to fight
b. Q – R – S - P
against germs and disease.
c. P – R – S – Q
R: Pasteur helped them by showing that by
d. Q – S – R – P
heating win or milk to a temperature of 60
30. S1 : Not long age television was a rarity.
degree Centrigrade, the germs were made
S6: Only a few people understand the
harmless.
technology behind it.
S: Some wine-growers were troubled by a
P: It has become a means of entertainment and
germ which has turned their win sour.
information.
Q: Yet nowadays there is one in virtually
sequence?
every home.
a. R – S –P – Q
R: But most of us do not know much about
b. Q– P – S – R
how an image appears on the television screen
c. R – P – S – Q
S: We have grown used to it.
d. Q– S – P – R
34. S1: Scientist have found that any train running
sequence?
on wheels cannot go faster than 300 kilometres
a. P – R – Q – S
an hour.
b. Q – S – P – R
S6: Japanese engineers are, therefore, planning
c. P – S– Q – R
another kind of train, a magnetic train without,
d. Q – R – P – S
wheels, which would also float above the
31. S1: I have know in my own life, in my own
ground.
experience, people who were hating one
another on account of their religious views.
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P: One way of building such trains has already Q: This work could be termed as
been tried out socially productive labour.
Q: If we want trains which can go still faster R: It consists of cooking, washing, cleaning,
we must build them without wheels. fetching fuel and water etc.
R: But it would not be possible to run them on S: This work is crucial to the survival of
the Tokaido line because in same tunnels there society.
would not be enough air to support them Which one of the following is the correct
S: Here, the whole train floats above the sequence?
ground on top of a cushion of air created by a. P–Q–R–S
powerful fans. b. R–S–P–Q
Which one of the following is the correct c. P–S–R–Q
sequence? d. R–Q–P–S
a. Q–P–S–R
b. S–R–Q–P ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
c. Q–R–S–P Direction (For the 10 items which follow)
d. S–P–Q–R In the following item, some parts of the sentence have been
jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are
35. S1: Newspapers are the cheapest medium of labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sequence. Choose the
information today. proper sequence and marks in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
S6: Consequently, 50 percent of our population Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
is denied across to information vital for the
(EXAMPLE)
functionaries of a democracy. Z. It is well-known that
P: If you cannot buy a paper, you can go to a the effect it very bad
public library. P Q
Q: And yet newspapers do not reach nearly on children of cinema
fifty percent of our population. R S
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
R: They are also easily available to everybody (a) P–S–R–Q
S: It is because people are illiterate. (b) S-P-Q-R
Which one of the following is the correct (c) S-R-P-Q
sequence? (d) Q-S-R-P
Explanation:
a. R–S–Q–P The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is well-known that
b. Q–P–R–S the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by
c. R–P–Q–S the sequence P-S-R-Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
d. Q–S–R–P
36. S1: Social isolation, overcrowding, the 38. Life comes
competitiveness of our society and several Awed by all the things that their words can do
other factors are responsible for stress. with computer and gadgets
S6: Yet some other get totally depressed and P
often much worried. who can get anything done by clinking a few
P: In England we refer to competition in buttons
society as the ‘rat-race’. Q
Q: All of us react to that rat-race in different a full circle when some technologically
ways. challenged mothers
R: But some of us get very much tried and R
bored every easily. begin to believe that their child is a super-kid
S: The pressures on all of us are very great in the digital world
because speed and competition have become S
part of everyday life. Which one of the following is the correct
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
sequence? a. R–P–Q–S
a. R–P–Q–S b. P–R–Q–S
b. S–Q–P–R c. R–P–S–Q
c. R–Q–P–S d. P–R–S–Q
d. S–P–Q–R 39. Unaware
37. S1: It is true that a few women have Reading other periodicals and publication
opportunities to work outside the home. P
S6: If women stop doing this work there would ourselves with merely
be havoc in the public life. Q
P: Women do much work all the time within of the need to build
the house. R
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the intellect we tend to entertain in which Indian Cricket administration
S should definitely
Which one of the following is the correct Q
sequence? denying the benefits of Indian corporate
a. Q–P–R–S sponsorship
b. R–S–Q–P R
c. Q–S–R–P use its financial clout is in
d. R–P–Q–S S
40. Loss of employment Which one of the following is the correct
in a country like India where sequence?
P a. R–P–Q–S
is no social security net to fall back on b. Q–S–R–P
Q c. R–S–Q–P
most people are still poor and there d. Q–P–R–S
R 44. While improvements
or livelihood can be really injurious have definitely helped climbers now carry
S lighter oxygen bottles
Which one of the following is the correct P
sequence? in technology over the years
a. S–R–P–Q Q
b. Q–P–R–S made of titanium and get regular weather
c. Q–R–P–S updates
d. S–P–R–Q R
41. Many people through satellite phones the route to Mt.
organized their energies around a goal Everest remains treacherous as ever
P S
but simply because they have never Which one of the following is the correct
Q sequence?
or brains or even courage a. Q–P–R–S
R b. S–R–P–Q
fail in life not for lack of ability c. Q–R–P–S
S d. S–P–R–Q
Which one of the following is the correct 45. Life
sequence? the number of breaths you take
a. P–Q–R–S P
b. S–R–Q–P that take your breath away
c. P–R–Q–P Q
d. S–Q–R–P is not measured by
42. Being R
to a viewing point a higher more expansive but by the moments
place S
P Which one of the following is the correct
to move from a point of view sequence?
Q a. Q–P–S–R
willing to change allows you b. R–S–P–Q
R c. Q–S–P–R
from which you can seen both sides d. R–P–S–Q
S 46. The greatest
Which one of the following is the correct miss it but that it is too
sequence? P
a. R–Q–P–S danger for most of us
b. Q–R–P–S Q
c. Q–R–S–P is not that our aim is too high and we
d. R–Q–S–P R
43. Yet one area low and we reach it
to players who have violated the spirit of the S
game Which one of the following is the correct
P sequence?
a. Q–S–P–R
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b. P–R–Q–S peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the
c. Q–R–P–S correct answer.
d. P–S–Q–R PASSAGE I
47. The fundamental J.K Galbraith has described the current inflation as a “revolt of the
but an institutional framework that lays down rich against the poor”. Richard Parker supports this view with the
P claim that it is the richest people that benefit by inflation: while the
rest, especially the poorest, suffer in proportion to their relative
and cannot be trampled on by the ruling property. On the other hand, a 1979 study published by the
government Brookings Institute indicates that the lower classes are generally
Q benefited by inflation, while the upper classes lose. The confusion
the rights of the people and rules of political over who suffers from inflation is extended to other questions such
engagement as the major causes of inflation. In addition to the proponents of the
demand theory, there are many who doubt whether inflation is
R essentially an economic problem at all. Konard Kellen holds that
mark of a democracy is not elections inflation is not an economic problem but a psychological one. Paul
S Samuelson cites a social factor, the evaluation of a more humane
Which one of the following is the correct society, as a root cause of inflation.
sequence?
48. What does the author believe?
a. S–P–Q–R
a. Only the rich suffer from inflation
b. P–S–R–Q
b. Only the poor suffer from inflation
c. P–S–Q–R
c. Both the rich and the poor suffer from
d. S–P–R–Q
inflation
d. It is debatable as to who suffers from
inflation
COMPREHENSION
Directions (For the 13 items which follow): 49. From the passage, which one of the following
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, may be inferred?
you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a. The effect of inflation can be studied with
and passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are scientific precision
required to select your answers based on the contents of the
passage and opinion of the author only.
b. The effect of inflation cannot be studied
with scientific precision
Example ‘T’ and ‘J” are solved for you c. Economists are biased towards the rich or
the poor
PASSAGE (EXAMPLE) d. The effect of inflation varies from place to
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact
that confronts us squarely and unmistakable is the desire for peace, place, and people to people
security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of 50. On the basis of the information given in the
existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, passage, what are the causes of inflation?
no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human a. Essentially economic
beings or to the lower groups and as animals, all beings primarily
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature
b. Essentially psychological
as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection c. Essentially social
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to d. Highly controversial
live and not to die, so do all other creature. 51. How des the author write?
a. Objectively
I. The author’s remains point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on earth b. Critically
(b) different levels of existence are possible in nature c. Sympathetically
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all living d. Persuasively
beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life PASSAGE II
J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is Work itself is a very important factor in motivating a person. A
essential in developing the author’s position? person tends to perform a task more enthusiastically if that work
(a) All forms of life have a single over-riding goal affords more satisfaction than the other work. A person’s
(b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a satisfaction out of work is more is it is more need satisfying. A
desire of peace man seeks something from work and if he gets more satisfaction
(c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups from a particular work he will be prone to do that work better or
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and harder. There are incentives for work; these can be financial or
pain and death. non-financial. People like missionaries and some scientists do not
work basically for material gains as such. A person wants to do a
Explanation: work which is personally meaningful.
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all living
being”, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct 52. Which one of the following is correct?
answer. a. Work is the most important factor by
J. The best assumption underlying the passage in “The will which a person is motivated.
to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for
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b. Work is the least important factor that d. The author condemns the attitude
motivates a person displayed by newspapers in the matter of
c. Among the several factors that motivate a promoting popular writing on science.
person, work is an important one. 58. Which one of the following is correct?
d. Nothing can motivate a person who does Popular writing on science in our country
not have some permanent work. appears to be
53. Which one of the following is correct? a. not properly digested and easily
A person’s work satisfaction depends on comprehensible
a. the money and other benefits he receives b. extremely restricted in outlook
from work c. very lucid, intelligible and self explanatory
b. the need satisfying nature of the work he d. based on obsolete knowledge of the topics
does chosen
c. the physical environment in which he 59. Which one of the following is correct?
works The propose of promoting popular scientific
d. the personal relationship he establishes writing in newspapers is
with his colleagues and superiors a. to attract more people to the study of
54. Which one of the following is correct? science
If, a person get more satisfaction from a b. to spread scientific knowledge and
particular work, he will encourage scientific temper among the
a. stick on the that work for every common people
b. certainly achieve mastery over that work c. to give the people information about
soon modern scientific inventions
c. slowly develop a taste for that work d. to help the newspapers to increase their
d. do that work in a better and harder manure circulation among the students of science
55. Which one of the following is correct? 60. The author wants some of the scientists “to
Both the scientists and the missionaries work turn to popularization”. What does that imply?
a. because of the incentives given to them a. The scientists should go round and country
b. without hopping for any material gain and explain to the people the various
c. without receiving any material gain achievements of science
d. because they want to be appreciated b. The scientists should make use of the
56. Which one of the following is correct? television and radio to spread the message
Every person wants to have a work which of science among the common people
a. helps him to get involved meaningfully c. The scientists should write in newspapers
b. helps him to earn substantially about the various aspects of science in
c. is pleasant and easy easily understandable language.
d. can be finished quickly d. The scientists should seek the help of
social organizations to spread scientific
PASSAGE III knowledge among the common people.
In our country there is very little popular writing on science. Those
who write are writing for other scientists. The newspapers these PART-B
days devote a little more space then before for scientific topics but
they appear to be rather ill-digested knowledge not written in 61. The deficiency of which one of the following
simple readable language. So if we are to bridge this gap and leads to anemia?
disseminate scientific knowledge and promote scientific temper, it
has become necessary for some of the scientists to turn to
a. Ascorbic acid
popularization. Today we have almost compulsion for doing this if b. Citirc acid
we are to convey to the people the meaning and relevance of the c. Folic acid
pursuit of science. It is time same scientists enters the field of d. Nicotinic acid
scientific journalism. 62. The highly fatal disease of Rabies is caused by
which one of the following?
57. What does the passage suggest? a. Virus
a. The author is fully satisfied with the role b. Bacteria
of newspapers in promoting popular c. Protozoan
writing on science. d. Nematode worm
b. The author is totally dissatisfied with the 63. How in jasmine plant propagated?
role of newspapers in promoting popular a. Grafting
writing on science. b. Layering
c. The author appreciates the readiness of c. Root cutting
newspapers to allow more space than d. Stem cutting
before to writings on science.
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64. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest a. Ministry of Planning
muscular walls? b. Ministry of Human Resource
a. Right atrium Development
b. Left atrium c. Ministry of Home Affairs
c. Right ventricle d. Ministry of Statistics and Programme
d. Left ventricle Implementation
65. Among the following fruits, which one is not a 74. In terms of both quantity and value, which one
true fruit? of the following countries is the largest cutting
a. Apple and polishing centre of diamonds in the world?
b. Date a. Belgium
c. Coconut b. France
d. Tomato c. India
66. In human body, while one of the following d. South Africa
glands is located in the neck? 75. Regarding the procurement of wheat for
a. Adrenal central pool, which one of the following States
b. Hypothalamus has the highest share of contribution?
c. Pituitary a. Haryana
d. Thyroid b. Madhya Pradesh
67. In human body, which one among the c. Punjab
following secretes digestive enzyme? d. Uttar Pradesh
a. Large institute 76. So far how many times has the countrywide
b. Liver “Economic Census” been done in India?
c. Pancreas a. Thrice
d. Spleen b. Five times
68. Which one among the following is a warm c. Seven times
blooded animal? d. Nine times
a. Anaconda 77. Which among the following was the capital of
b. Crocodile Shivaji?
c. Shark a. Singhagarh
d. Whale b. Raigarh
69. Which one among the following is an ape c. Panhala
naturally found in India? d. Poona
a. Chimpanzee 78. Who among the following arrived in the court
b. Hoolak Gibbon of Jehangir as an official ambassador of King
c. Gorilla of England?
d. Orangutan a. William Hawkins
70. Which one among the following plants b. Sir Thomas Roe
produces seeds without producing flower? c. Sir Edward Terry
a. Cashew nut d. Bernier
b. Date Palm 79. Which Mughal Emperor granted the Dewani
c. Pinus of Bengal to the British East India Company in
d. Toddy the year 1765?
71. The stem of which one of the following plants a. Jehangir
is usually underground? b. Shahjahan
a. Banana c. Aurangzeb
b. Sweet potato d. Shah Alam-II
c. Topioca 80. Who of the following was the representative of
d. Water melon Indian National Congress in the Second Round
72. In the context of Wholesale Prize Index (WPI) Table Conference, held in London?
in India, under the Primary Articles’ group, a. Madan Mohan Malviya
what is the approximate weight of ‘Food b. C. Rajagopalachari
Article’ in WPI? c. Mahatma Gandhi
a. 12 d. Vallabhbhai Patel
b. 15 81. Where did Lala Hardayal and Sohan Singh
c. 18 Bhakna form the Gadar Party in 1913?
d. 21 a. Paris
73. Which one of the following is responsible for b. San Francisco
bringing out the report on National and Per c. Tokyo
Capita Income in India? d. London
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82. Prior to Independence, the elections to the or till they attain the age of 65
Constituent Assembly were held under which years, whichever is earlier.
one of the following? Which of the statements given above is/are
a. Mountbatten Plan correct?
b. Cabinet Mission a. 1 only
c. Cripps Proposals b. 2 only
d. Wavell Plan c. Both 1 and 2
83. Who among the following introduced cashew d. Neither 1 nor 2
nut, pineapple and tobacco into India? 90. According to the provisions of the
a. Dutch Constitution of India, who inquires into all
b. English doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in
c. French connection with the election of Vice-President
d. Portuguese of India?
84. When All India Trade Union Congress was a. The President of India
founded in 1920, who of the following was b. The Supreme Court of India
elected its president? c. The Election Commission of India
a. C.R. Das d. The Attorney General of India
b. Lala Pajpat Rai 91. Who among the following tribes live in the
c. N.M. Joshi Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
d. V.V. Giri Islands?
85. Which one of the following was the occasion a. Apatani
on which Jawaharlal Nehru stepped forward, b. Jarawa
as an important national leader? c. Munda
a. Agitation against Rowlatt Act d. Santhal
b. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement 92. Match List I with List II and select the correct
c. Formation of Swaraj Party answer using the code given below the lists:
d. Agitation against the arrival of Simon List I
Commission (Book)
86. At the time of Tripuri Congress Session in A. Crime and Punishment
1939 in which Subhash Bose has defeated B. Farewell to Arms
Sitaramayya, who among the following had C. The Rights of Man
withdrawn his candidature from D. Unto The Last
Presidentship? List II
a. Abdul Kalam Azad (Author)
b. Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Ernest Hemingway
c. Jayaprakash Narayan 2. Feodor Dostoyevsky
d. Vallabhbhai Patel 3. John Ruskin
87. Which one of the following was not a 4. Thomas Paine
programme of the Non-Cooperation cell given Code:
in 1920? A B C D
a. Boycott of titles a. 2 3 4 1
b. Boycott of Civil Services b. 4 1 2 3
c. Boycott of English education c. 4 3 2 1
d. Boycott of police and army d. 3 1 4 3
88. In which year was Mahatma Gandhi’s famous 93. In India, when both, the offices of the
work Hind Swaraj written? President and the Vice-President happen to be
a. 1907 vacant simultaneously, who will discharge the
b. 1909 duties of the President?
c. 1914 a. The Prime Minister
d. 1934 b. The Union Home Minister
89. Consider the following statements with c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
reference to Union Government: d. The Chief Justice of India
1. The tenure of Chairman/Members of Staff 94. For the review of which of the following was a
Selection Commission is for five years or Commission under the chairmanship of Justice
still they attain the age of 62 years, M.N. Venkatachaliah constituted by Union
whichever is earlier. Government?
2. The tenure of Chairman/Member of Union a. Industrial sickness
Public Service Commission is for six years b. River water disputes
c. The Constitution of India
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d. Centre-State relations d. 3 4 1 2
95. In which one of the following countries did the 102. Where is the Port of East London located?
Industrial Revolution first take place? a. England
a. USA b. Ireland
b. UK c. East coast of USA
c. Germany d. South Africa
d. France 103. Which one of the following pairs is not
96. Who of the following is the author of the correctly matched?
famous book ‘Das Kapital’? a. Northern Rhodesia : Namibia
a. Adam Smith b. Gold Coast : Ghana
b. Karl Marx c. Dutch Guyana : Suriname
c. Rousseau d. Dutch East Indies : Indonesia
d. Voltaire 104. Khmer Rouge atrocities pertained to which
97. Which one of the following is the correct one among the following?
statement? a. South Africa
In the Parliament of India, a money bill can be b. Iraq
introduced only with the recommendation of c. Libya
a. the President of India d. Cambodia
b. the Prime Minister of India 105. Recently, the President of India conferred the
c. the Speaker of Lok Sabha India Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
d. the Union Finance Minister and Development for 2006 on whom among
98. Which one of the following is a place of the following?
famous Hindu pilgrimage as well as a site of a. Kim Dae Jung
important hydroelectric power project? b. Mohamed El Baradei
a. Devaprayag c. Shirin Ebadi
b. Guntur d. Wangari Muta Maathai
c. Nasik-Triambakeshwar 106. In the year 2007, which one of the following
d. Omkareshwar pairs of countries launched spacecrafts to carry
99. State which one of the following groups of out research on the Moon?
oceanic water currents meet near a. Australia and Canada
‘Newfoundland Island’ of Canada? b. China and Japan
a. Gulf Stream and Labrador c. France and Germany
b. Kuroshio and Kurile d. Russia and South Korea
c. Agulhas and Mozambique 107. In December, 2007, which one of the
d. Brazilian and Falkland following countries launched in interceptor
100. How many Indian States border Myanmar? missile called AAD-02 to intercept a ballistic
a. Three missile?
b. Four a. Iran
c. Five b. North Korea
d. Six c. India
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct d. Pakistan
answer using the code given below the lists: 108. Recently, who of the following writers in
List I English, has been awarded the Sahitya
(Name of the River) Akademi Fellowship?
A. Godavari a. Amitav Ghosh
B. Krishna b. Anita Desai
C. Tapti c. Jhumpa Lahiri
D. Cauvery d. Shashi Tharoor
List II 109. In the context of Indian Defence, what is
(Tributary Joining) Admiral Gorshkov, frequently in the news?
1. Parna a. Stealth worship
2. Hemavati b. Nuclear powered submarine
3. Pranhita c. Aircraft carrier
4. Koyana d. Marine oil drilling platform
Code: 110. Hugo Chavez, who is frequently in the news,
A B C D is a President of which one of the following
a. 1 4 3 2 countries?
b. 3 2 1 4 a. Argentina
c. 1 2 3 4 b. Brazil
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c. Cuba
d. Venezuela
111. What is the Defence outlay (approximate) in 116. The well-known sportsman Liu Xiang has
India for the year 2008-09? excelled in which event?
a. Rs. 65,000 crores a. Table Tennis
b. Rs. 85,000 crores b. Weightlifting
c. Rs. 95,000 crores c. Hurdles race
d. Rs. 1,05,000 crores d. Swimming
112. What is a major use of allethrin? 117. Which one of the following subjects is mainly
a. In household insecticides dealt with by Montreal Protocol?
b. In glass manufacture a. Undersea cable network
c. In steel manufacture b. International cooperation against terrorism
d. In paints and varnishes c. Depletion of Ozone layer
113. Which one of the following is not correctly d. Exploration of outer space
match (approximately)? 118. From which year does the 11th Five Year Plan
a. 4 Imperial gallons = 18.18 litres start?
b. 4 pounds = 1.81 kilograms a. 2005
c. 30 pounds per sq. in. = 2.07 kg per sq. cm. b. 2006
d. 5 hectares = 18.35 acres c. 2007
114. Big Mac Index is employed in the d. 2008
determination of which one of the following? 119. In the context of India’s defence, what is C-
a. Infrastructure development 130 J Hercules?
b. Purchasing power parity a. A supersonic fighter jet
c. Defence budget per capita b. A troop transport aircraft
d. Crop yield c. An unmanned patrol aircraft
115. What does the term ‘Pyrrhic Victory’ imply? d. A multi-purpose amphibious vehicle
a. A victory in a war wherein Air Force has 120. Who among the following is a blanker?
played a major role a. Samir Jain
b. A victory achieved at a great cost to the b. Raghav Bahl
winner c. K.V. Kamath
c. A victory of a political party wherein d. G.M. Rao
members of the opposition party have
betrayed their own members
d. A victory achieved in games as a result of
match-fixing

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I.E.

a. Straight along the y-axis

input signal amplitude

89. A unity feedback second order control

The A, B matrix pair of the equivalent

Reason R: For medium-Q coils, the

Reason R: The negative coefficients of

7. For a current element IdI. situated at an c. e = −φ ( B × V ) .d I

31. In the circuit shown in the given figure, if

32. Five cells are connected in series in a row

40. To improve the power factor in three-

daily over a period of one year. The mean ⎝ 2⎠

1. Z2 = R2 in series with L2, Z3 = R3 and

obtained from this compensator is -

Z ⎡⎣1 + exp ( −1) ⎤⎦

The matrix ‘G’ of the system is

10. A system with transfer function G (s) =

its root locus plot

14. A unity feedback control system has a

1. v(t) = u(t — a) — u(t — b)

b. 6.5% conductor at a certain point is 0.3 a x +

shown in the given figure The magnetic

7.5 × 103 × 1000

the negative z - direction. The magnetic d. 21 a x − 28 a y

d. Z1Z 2 113. If the 36o arc AB of a circle shown in the

115. A voltage of 50 sin 1000 t V is applied c. E =

a. 1 V The current i is given by

step response will be

For the circuit given in figure above the

given by which, one of the following c. 1 − 5ε −1u ( t )

The applied voltage v(t) is

The current through the inductor L is

When the inductors are connected as

What is the value of unknown frequency?

Consider the Nyquist diagram for given

105. The output of first order hold between two

loop system is unstable 1

9. A property of phase-lead compensation is 1

The lattice circuit has the following

59. Maxwell equation ∇ × E = − ∂ B / ∂t( ) is

For the circuit shown above, by how much

What will be the magnitude of the voltage

In the above circuit Z ( s ) = 2 as s → ∞

c. ⎡⎣e− s + e−2 s − 2e −3s ⎤⎦ / s

d. ⎡⎣e− s + e−2 s + 2e −3s ⎤⎦ / s

82. The signal flow graph for a certain

Which of the above relations are correct?

What is the minimum number of states of

The black-box, N contains resistors and

For the 2-port network shown in the figure

76. Which one of the following is correct?

For the feedback system shown in the figure

In the circuit shown above, what is the

Which of the above functions can

1 If the driving-point impedance Z11 of the

D. Corresponding to this plot, what is the

78. A series R-L-C circuit is switched on to a 82.

In the circuit shown above, what is the

33. In a half-adder having two inputs A and B

31. The voltage levels for a negative logic

81. A dc over compounded generator was

In the circuit shown in the above figure,

1. 3. Ordinary water can be used as