1.

As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface,

A. their supply of nutrients increases.

B. they become dermal cells.
C. they degenerate and die.
D. they divide continually.

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

2. Sweat from eccrine glands

A. helps regulate body temperature.

B. is most commonly produced in the axilla and groin regions.
C. is not secreted during emotional stress.
D. is usually associated with hair follicles.

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

3. The hypodermis (subcutaneous layer) consists of                 .

A. adipose tissue and skeletal muscle tissue

B. areolar and adipose tissue with pressure-sensitive nerve endings
C. epithelial tissue with touch sensitive nerve endings
D. epithelium and loose connective tissue

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

4. What contributes to the color of skin and absorbs ultraviolet (UV) light?

A. keratin in keratinocytes in the epidermis

B. hemoglobin in capillaries of the dermis
C. melanin in melanocytes and keratinocytes
D. pigments in the stratum lucidum

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

5. Nails are formed from                 .

A. epidermal cells
B. specialized connective tissue cells
C. specialized dermal cells
D. subcutaneous tissue
 Congratulations, your answer is correct!

6. Which layer of skin has no blood vessels?

A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. hypodermis
D. peridermis

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

7. Which layer of skin undergoes cell division (mitosis)?

A. stratum basale
B. stratum granulosum
C. stratum lucidum
D. stratum spinosum

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

8. Which of the following best describes the stratum corneum?

A. 3-5 layers of granular cells containing shriveled nuclei and keratin
B. a single layer of cells that undergo mitotic cell division and contains melanocytes
C. many layers of completely keratinized and dead cells
D. many layers of large oval cells and Merkel's discs in hairless areas

See 5.1: Skin

9. Hair is surrounded by these cells and is also a product of cells of the                 .

A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. hypodermis
D. loose areolar connective tissue of the subcutaneous layer

See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

10. People who rarely venture outdoors or completely cover their skin when outdoors may develop a deficiency of                 .

A. blood circulation to the skin

 B. epidermal cells, resulting in thin skin
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin D

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

11. At what age, on average, do pronounced aging conditions begin to occur more rapidly?

A. early thirties
B. fifty-five
C. late forties
D. twenty-five

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

12. Gray hair and changes in skin pigmentation in older people are due to

A. changes in the DNA of skin cells due to poor diet.

B. decrease in the number of functioning melanocytes.
C. decreased circulation in the dermis of the skin.
D. long exposure to wind and sun.

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

13. Half of burn victims die when the burn area exceeds           percent of the body.
A. 30
B. 50
C. 70
D. 90

See 5.4: Aging and The Integumentary System

14. Nail growth originates at which of the following?

A. cuticle
B. nail body
C. nail matrix
D. nail root

See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

15. Which of the following is the most common cell type found in the epidermis?

A. keratinocyte
B. Langerhans cell
C. melanocyte
D. Merkel cell

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

16. Which of the following are cells of the epidermis that participate in immune responses mounted against microbes that invade the
skin?

A. keratinocytes
B. Langerhans cells
C. melanocytes
D. Merkel cells

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

17. Which of the following does NOT impart color to skin?

A. carotene
B. hemoglobin
C. keratin
D. melanin

See 5.1: Skin

18. Hair and nails are composed primarily of which of the following substances?

A. collagen
B. elastin
C. fibrin
D. keratin

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

19. In which stratum do new skin cells arise, in this figure of the epidermis?
 A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

20. Which of the strata of the epidermis in the figure is missing in thin skin?
 A. Stratum granulosum
B. Stratum basale
C. Stratum corneum
D. Stratum lucidum

See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

21. Constant exposure to friction or pressure stimulates the formation of a                 , which is an abnormal thickening to the
epidermis.
A. abrasion
B. blister
C. contact dermatitis
D. callus

See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

22. Which term means itching?

A. laceration
B. pruritis
C. psoriasis
D. impetigo
 See 5.4: Aging and the Integumentary System

23. __________is a deadly type of skin cancer that metastasizes quickly.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Malignant melanoma
See 5.3: Functions of the Skin

24. __________is the tough, fibrous protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from abrasion, heat, microbes, and
chemicals.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Keratin
See 5.3: Functions of the Skin

25. __________increase the area of the superficial surface of the dermis.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Dermal papillae
See 5.1: Skin

26. __________is the inherited inability to produce melanin.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Albinism
See 5.1: Skin

27. __________is a yellow-orange pigment and a precursor of vitamin A that contributes to skin color.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Carotene
See 5.1: Skin

28. The smooth muscle that gives one "goose bumps" and makes the hair stand on end is called the                 muscle.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Arrector pili
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin
29. The oil glands, or                 glands, produce an oily substance called sebum.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Sebaceous
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

30. A term that means bedsores is                 .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Pressure ulcers
See 5.4: Aging and the Integumentary System

31. The portion of a hair which is below the surface of the skin is the                 .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Root
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

32. The presence of the masculinizing hormones,                 , induces male-pattern baldness, the most common form of baldness.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Androgens
See 5.2: Accessory Structures of the Skin

33. The deepest part of the skin is composed of dense regular connective tissue.

A. True
B. False

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

34. The build-up of bilirubin in the blood makes the mucous membranes, nail beds, and skin appear blue in color (cyanotic).

A. True
B. False

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

 35. Most sweat glands are eccrine (rather than apocrine).

A. True
B. False

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

36. The skin is the largest organ of the body both in surface area and in weight.

A. True
B. False

1. Hemopoiesis occurs in
A. yellow marrow.
B. red marrow.
C. periosteum.
D. the osteogenic layer.

See 6.1: Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System

2. In osseous tissue, blood vessels and nerves are found in the                 .

A. canaliculi
B. haversian canals
C. lamellae
D. osteocytes

See 6.3: Structure of Bone

3. When there is too little calcium in blood, which cells begin resorption of bone to release calcium into the blood?
A. chondrocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. osteocytes

See 6.3: Structure of Bone

4. In adults, triglycerides are stored in the                 .

A. endosteum
B. metaphysis
C. red marrow
 D. yellow marrow

See 6.3: Structure of Bone

5. Which of the following cells is the precursor to bone forming cells?

A. astroblast
B. chondroblast
C. hemocytoblast
D. osteogenic cells

See 6.3: Structure of Bone

6. Which of the following provide a pathway for the diffusion of nutrients within compact bone?
A. canaliculi
B. lamellae
C. medullary cavity
D. periosteum

See 6.3: Structure of Bone

7. A bone which has an epiphysis at each end is a                 .

A. compact bone
B. flat bone
C. long bone
D. spongy bone

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

8. When blood calcium levels rise above normal, osteoclast activity is inhibited by which of the following hormones?

A. calcitonin
B. calcitriol
C. PTH
D. triodothyronine

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

9. Which of the following is/are found in the epiphyseal plate?

A. chondrocytes
 B. endosteum
C. red marrow
D. trabeculae

See 6.4: Bone Formation

10. Which of the following describes a metaphysis?

A. It consists of two layers and is essential for bone growth and repair.
B. It is formed by lacunae and canaliculi.
C. It is the area where the epiphysis joins the diaphysis.
D. It lines the medullary cavity and contains osteoprogenitor cells.

Congratulations, your answer is correct!

11. Bone is somewhat flexible due to the presence of                 .

A. calcium
B. collagen
C. phosphates
D. triglycerides

See 6.3: Structure of Bone

12. As epiphyseal cartilage cells stop dividing and are replaced by bone, the result is a bony structure called the                 .
A. epiphyseal line
B. metaphysis
C. osteon
D. periosteum

13. If epiphyseal plates are visible in an X-ray, the bone is                 .

A. dead
B. diseased
C. still growing in length
D. weak due to lack of calcium

14. The first indication that a cartilage model is beginning to form into a bone is the
A. differentiation of mesenchyme cells into chondroblasts.
B. calcification of the cartilage matrix and formation of a bone collar in the diaphyseal region.
C. formation of the epiphyseal plate.
D. penetration of a nerve into the cartilage.
15. Abnormal growth in height of an individual is caused by excess
A. cancerous growth in the epiphyseal plates.
B. production of insulin.
C. production of vitamin D.
D. secretion of human growth hormone.

16. Which suture is found between the parietal bones?

A. lambdoidal
B. parietal
C. sagittal
D. squamosal

17. In an infant, which curve of the vertebral column develops when the baby starts holding its head erect?
A. cervical
B. lumbar
C. sacral
D. thoracic

18. Spinal nerves enter and leave the spinal cord through passages between the vertebrae called
        .
A. foramen magnum
B. intervertebral foramina
C. pedicles
D. vertebral arches

19. The rib pairs known as the false ribs are the
A. 1st through 7th pairs.
B. 8th through 10th pairs.
C. 8th through 12th pairs.
D. 11th and 12th pairs.

20. _________ are posterior projections from the body of a vertebra that help to form the vertebral foramen.
A. Laminae
B. Pedicles
C. Spinous processes
D. Transverse processes
21. Which of the following bones contains the mandibular fossa and external auditory meatus?
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal

22. The lambdoid suture is found between the                 and                 bones.

A. frontal and parietal bones
B. frontal and sphenoid bones
C. parietal and occipital bones
D. temporal and ethmoid bones

23. Which of the following bones has a styloid process and a mastoid process?
A. ethmoid
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal

24. The foramen magnum is found in which of the following bones?

A. femur
B. occipital
C. scapula
D. temporal

25. The squamous suture lies between the                 and                 bones.

A. frontal, sphenoid
B. parietal, frontal
C. parietal, temporal
D. temporal, occipital

26. In a newborn infant, the                 is located between the angles of the two parietal bones and the two segments of the frontal
bone.
A. anterior fontanel
B. coronal suture
C. temporal foramen
D. vertical plate

27. Which of the following is associated with the ethmoid bone and it separates the two sides of the nose?
A. foramen ovale
B. hypophyseal fossa
 C. mastoid process
D. perpendicular plate

28. Thoracic vertebrae may be distinguished from other vertebrae by the

A. characteristic short, stubby spines and thick bodies.
B. bifid spines and triangular shaped vertebral foramen.
C. presence of articulating facets on the transverse processes.
D. transverse foramina in the transverse processes.

29. Which of the following bones contains paranasal sinuses?

A. frontal
B. mandible
C. temporal
D. zygomatic

30. With which of the following does the manubrium of the sternum articulate?
A. clavicle, first rib and part of second rib
B. humerus
C. second cervical vertebra
D. xiphoid process

31. Which of the following is a moveable bone of the skull?

A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. temporal bone

32. Which of the following type of bones are slightly curved to absorb the stress of the body, and consist mostly of compact bone?
A. flat bones
B. long bones
C. regular bones
D. short bones

33. Which bone does NOT belong in the list with the others?
A. femur
B. rib
C. sternum
D. vertebra
34. Which of the following is a cranial bone?
A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. zygomatic bone

35. A facial bone that contains the mental foramen is the                 .

A. frontal bone
B. mandible
C. maxilla
D. zygomatic bone

36. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the skull?

A. ethmoid bone
B. hyoid bone
C. occipital bone
D. temporal bone

37. Which bone of the skull contains a sinus that is just inferior to the floor of the brain?
A. maxilla
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. sphenoid

38. Which bone of the skull articulates with the vertebral column?
A. hyoid
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal

39. The carotid foramen is a hole through which the carotid artery passes. In what bone is this foramen located?
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal

40. Soft spots in the skull filled with fibrous connective tissue, which will eventually be replaced by bone are called                 .
A. fontanels
B. meatuses
 C. sinuses
D. sutures

41. The hypophyseal fossa, located in the sphenoid bone, is a depression where the _________                
is located.
A. inner ear
B. optic nerve
C. pituitary gland
D. sphenoid sinus

42. Which of the following bones resembles a bat with outstretched wings.
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. sphenoid
D. temporal

43. Which bone is surrounded by and touches all of the other bones of the cranial floor?
A. ethmoid
B. frontal
C. sphenoid
D. temporal

44. Which bones form most of the hard palate?

A. mandible
B. maxilla
C. occipital
D. temporal

45. Which bone does NOT make up part of the bony orbit of the eye?
A. frontal bone
B. maxilla
C. nasal bone
D. sphenoid bone

46. The olfactory foramina are located in the                 bone which makes up most of the nose.
A. ethmoid
B. maxillary
C. nasal
D. sphenoid
47. Which curve of the vertebral column is convex with respect to the anterior side of the body, in other words, it bulges anteriorly?
A. cervical curve
B. sacral curve
C. thoracic curve
D. all have concave curves.

48. The body of the sternum articulates directly or indirectly with the                 .
A. cartilages of the second through tenth ribs
B. clavicle
C. floating ribs
D. thoracic vertebra

49. Abnormal elevation of the longitudinal arch often results from muscle deformities as may result from poliomyelitis. This
condition is called                 .
A. clawfoot.
B. kyphosis.
C. osteoporosis.
D. rickets.

50. Distally, the tibia articulates with the                 of the fibula.

A. fibular notch
B. medial condyle
C. medial malleolus
D. styloid process

51. The narrow, ridge-like projection along the superior aspect of the hip bone is the                 .
A. greater trochanter
B. iliac crest
C. medial epicondyle
D. radial tuberosity

52. The acetabulum

A. contains the coracohumeral ligament.
B. is formed by the ischium, ilium and pubis.
C. is inferior to the obturator foramen.
D. is lined with fibrocartilage.

53. The glenoid cavity is

A. a depression for articulation with the head of the humerus.
B. a depression for articulation with the head of the femur.
 C. a hole in tooth enamel.
D. the area around the spine of the scapula.

54. There is NO styloid process on the                 .

A. radius
B. scapula
C. temporal bone
D. ulna

55. The bones of the fingers are called                 .

A. carpals
B. metacarpals
C. phalanges
D. tarsals

56. The pectoral girdle consists of the                 .

A. coxal bones
B. humerus and scapula
C. ribs, sternum, and clavicle
D. scapula and clavicle

57. Which bone of the foot articulates with both the tibia and the fibula?
A. calcaneus
B. middle cuneiform
C. navicular
D. talus

58. The female pelvis differs from that of the male in that the pelvis of the female has
A. a heart-shaped pelvic brim and deep false pelvis.
B. a large acetabulum and rounded obturator foramen.
C. a more vertical ilium.
D. larger pelvic inlet and shallow false pelvis.

59. The clavicle is attached to the scapula at the                 .

A. acromion
B. coracoid process
C. glenoid cavity
D. spine
60. The carpal most likely to be broken during an injury is the                 .
A. hamate
B. pisiform
C. scaphoid
D. triquetrum

61. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the radius at the                 .

A. styloid process.
B. radial notch.
C. deltoid tuberosity.
D. radial tuberosity.

62. The part of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder is the                 .
A. acromion
B. coracoid process
C. glenoid cavity
D. spine

63. The bony prominence on the posterior surface of the elbow is the                 .
A. medial condyle of the humerus
B. olecranon process of the ulna
C. radial tuberosity
D. trochlea of the humerus

64. When you sit, the part of the hip that touches the seat of the chair is the                 .
A. acetabulum
B. ilium
C. ischium
D. pubis

65. Which of the following is a component of the axial skeleton?

A. clavicle
B. pelvis
C. scapula
D. sternum

66. The vertebra featured is which of the following?

 A. cervical
B. lumbar
C. sacral
D. thoracic

67. Which of the following is NOT part of the thorax?

A. clavicles
B. costal cartilages
C. sternum
D. thoracic vertebrae

68. Which of the following form(s) the posterior portion of the hard palate?
A. ethmoid bone
B. maxillae
C. palatine bones
D. sphenoid bone

69. _____________are the two bones that form the only moveable join in the skull.
A. maxillae and mandible
B. temporal and mandible
C. occipital and atlas
D. occipital and axis

70. Which of the following is a characteristic exclusively of spongy bone, but NOT of compact bone?
A. composed of haversian systems
B. composed of trabeculae
 C. contains lacunae
D. displays concentric lamellae when cut in cross-section

71. Which of the following are bone-forming cells?

A. chondrocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. osteocytes

72. _________are contained within the lacunae of compact bone.

A. Chondrocytes
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Osteocytes

73. The longest, heaviest, and strongest bone of the human skeleton is the                 .
A. femur
B. humerus
C. sacrum
D. tibia

74. The lateral and medial condyles of the femur articulate with the                 .
A. acetabulum of the pelvic girdle
B. fibula
C. tibia
D. tibia and fibula respectively

75. The bony prominence on the lateral surface of the thigh near the hip joint is the                 .
A. acetabulum
B. crest of the ilium
C. greater trochanter of the femur
D. lateral condyle of the femur

76. __________is the bony prominence on the anterior surface of the tibia to which the patellar ligament attaches.
A. Medial malleolus of the tibia,
B. Lateral malleolus of the fibula,
C. Lesser trochanter.
D. Tibial tuberosity.
 77. The lateral malleolus on the lateral surface of the ankle is part of the                 .
A. calcaneus
B. fibula
C. talus
D. tibia

78. The obturator foramen of the female pelvis is                 .

A. round
B. oval
C. smaller than that of the male
D. located within the skull

79. Most cranial bones are classified as which of the following?

A. flat bones
B. irregular bones
C. long bones
D. short bones

80. Which of the following is a fracture in which the broken ends of the bone protrude through the skin?
A. complete
B. compound
C. partial
D. simple

81. All of the following bone markings are located at the proximal epiphysis of a bone except the:
A. condyles of tibia
B. head of femur
C. condyles of femur
D. greater trochanter

82. The                 bone does NOT articulate with any other bone.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

hyoid
See 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone

83. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, incorrectly positioned hands may fracture the
                  and drive it into internal organs.

YOUR ANSWER:
 The suggested answer is
xiphoid process
See 6.9: Thorax

84. _________is a tough sheath of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds and protects a long bone.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Periosteum
See 6.3: Structure of Bone

85. Yellow bone marrow is contained in the                 of long bones.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

medullary cavity
See 6.3: Structure of Bone

86. __________is responsible for bone formation during intramembranous ossification.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Periosteum
See 6.4: Bone Formation

87. ___________is the addition of minerals and collagen fibers to bone.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Bone deposition
See 6.4: Bone Formation

88. ___________is the process of bone formation which occurs directly on or within mesenchyme.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Intramembranous ossification
See 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone

89. The meninges of the brain are attached to the ethmoid bone at the                 .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

crista galli
See 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone
90. The heads of                 are commonly called “knuckles” and are readily visible as features of a clenched fist.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

metacarpals
See 6.11: Upper Limb

91. The                 is the anterior joint that unites the hip bones.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

pubic symphysis
See 6.12: Pelvic (Hip) Girdle

92. ____________is a small triangular bone located in front of the knee joint between the femur and the tibia.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Patella
See 6.13: Lower Limb

93. The single, plow-shaped bone that forms the lower part of the nasal septum is the
        .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

vomer
See 6.7: Skull and Hyoid Bone

94. The human skeleton is composed of ____ bones of which ____ are in the axial skeleton and ____ are in the appendicular skeleton.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

206, 80, 126
See 6.1: Functions of Bone and the Skeletal System

95. The spinal cord passes to and from the brain by passing through an opening in the skull known as the foramen ________.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

magnum
See 6.2: Types of Bones

96. Articular cartilage is composed of elastic cartilage.

A. True
 B. False

97. In adults, red bone marrow is found in the trabeculae of spongy bone tissue.
A. True
B. False

98. The secondary ossification centers in long bones are in the epiphyses.
A. True
B. False

99. The first cervical vertebra is known as the axis.

A. True
B. False

100. Exercise that stresses bone causes bone resorption more so than bone deposition.
A. True
B. False

101. Once bones are formed, they are static and unchanging.
A. True
B. False

102. The structural unit of compact bone is the osteon.

A. True
B. False

1. The type of movement associated with a planar joint is

A. circumduction.
B. many types, but no rotation.
C. rotation around a central axis.
D. side to side and back and forth movement.

2. The                 are fluid-filled sacs that help cushion certain joints.

A. bursae
B. menisci
C. trochoids
D. vesicles
3. The type of movement associated with a pivot joint is
A. many types, but no rotation.
B. side to side and back and forth movement.
C. sliding movement.
D. rotation around its longitudinal axis.

4. An accessory ligament is associated with which type of joint?

A. diarthrosis
B. gomphosis
C. synarthrosis
D. synostosis

5. Which of the following is an example of a synchondrosis?

A. humeroscapular articulation
B. epiphyseal plate
C. pubic symphysis
D. tibiofibular articulation

6. Which of the following types of joints is characterized by the absence of a joint cavity and the presence of fibrous connective tissue
connecting articulating bones?
A. symphysis)
B. synchondrosis
C. fibrous
D. synovial

7. Another term for a freely movable joint is                 .

A. amphiarthrosis
B. diarthrosis
C. gomphosis
D. synarthrosis

8. Which of the following is stretched or torn in about 70% of all serious knee injuries?
A. anterior cruciate ligament
B. articular discs
C. prepatellar bursae
D. medial meniscus

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of diarthrosis?

A. hinge joint
B. planar joint
 C. pivot joint
D. symphysis

10. Which term means forcible wrenching or twisting of a joint that stretches or tears ligaments but does not dislocate the bones?
A. sprain
B. strain
C. bursitis
D. arthralgia.

11. Which of the following special movements is the mandible NOT capable of performing?
A. depression
B. elevation
C. eversion
D. protraction

12. The distal articulation of the tibia and fibula is an example of a                 .

A. gomphosis
B. symphysis
C. synchondrosis
D. syndesmosis

13. Movement along one plane is associated with                 joints.

A. ball and socket
B. condyloid
C. hinge
D. saddle

14. The point of contact between bones is called a(n)                .

A. angle
B. articulation
C. joint line
D. tuberosity

15. Structurally, the knee joint is classified as a                 .

A. symphysis
B. syndesmosis
C. synovial joint
D. suture
16. The inner lining of a synovial cavity is called the                 .
A. articular capsule
B. fibrous capsule
C. periosteum
D. synovial membrane

17. The joint at the base of the thumb is classified as a                 .

A. gliding joint
B. hinge joint
C. pivot joint
D. saddle joint

18. The movement of the head when you tilt it back to look at something above you is called
        .
A. elevation
B. extension
C. hyperextension
D. rotation

19. A pivot joint is found between the                                .

A. femur and the tibia
B. humerus and scapula
C. occipital and the atlas
D. proximal ends of the radius and ulna

20. When you bend the ankle to lift the toes toward the knee your ankle is                 .
A. dorsiflexed
B. everted
C. inverted
D. plantar flexed

21. Movement of a protracted part backward on a plane parallel to the ground is called
        .
A. contraction
B. eversion
C. pronation
D. retraction

22. A synovial, ball-and-socket joint of the lower extremity is the                 .

A. ankle joint
 B. hip joint
C. knee joint
D. toe joint

23. The elbow joint is a                 .

A. hinge joint
B. ball-and-socket joint
C. gliding joint
D. symphysis

24. The cause of the inflammatory disease, rheumatoid arthritis, is

A. a bacterial infection.
B. a dislocation of the joint.
C. an autoimmune reaction.
D. uric acid build-up.

25. Which of the following is classified as an amphiarthrosis?

A. distal articulation between the tibia and fibula
B. epiphyseal plate that connects the epiphysis and diaphysis of an elongating bone
C. joint between the first rib and the manubrium of the sternum
D. suture between skull bones

26. Damage to which of the following would cause a synovial joint to be more easily dislocated?
A. articular cartilage
B. articular fat pad
C. fibrous capsule
D. synovial membrane

27. Which of the following joints is capable of circumduction?

A. atlantoaxial joint
B. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
C. elbow joint
D. hip joint

28. Inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion are movements associated with which of the following?
A. feet
B. hands
C. lower leg
D. upper arms
 29. The posterior cruciate ligament, patellar ligament, and prepatellar bursa are all parts of the _____ joint.
A. ankle
B. hip
C. knee
D. shoulder

30. Dislocation of the __________ is the most common upper limb dislocation in children.
A. humerus
B. radius
C. ulna
D. scaphoid bone

31. ___________ is the movement found at the joint between the atlas and axis that allows you to "just say no."

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Rotation
See 7.5: Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

32. In anatomical position, the palms must be                 .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

supinated
See 7.5: Types of Movements at Synovial Joints

33. The pads of fibrocartilage found between the articular surfaces of some bones, such as the knee, are called articular discs or              
.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

menisci
See 7.7: Details of a Synovial Joint: The Knee Joint

34. ____________is a procedure that permits access to the interior of a synovial joint such as the shoulder or hip so that structures can be
observed and surgery can be performed.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Arthroscopy
See 7.7: Details of a Synovial Joint: The Knee Joint
35. __________ is a degenerative joint disease commonly known as "wear-and-tear" arthritis.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Osteoarthritis
See 7.8: Aging and Joints

36. The saddle joint allows the greatest range of motion of any synovial joint.
A. True
B. False

37. Sutures are found only between the bones of the skull.
A. True
B. False

38. All synovial joints are diarthrotic.

A. True
B. False

39. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are types of angular movements.
A. True
B. False

40. To restore a body part to the anatomical position after it has been flexed involves hyperextension.
A. True
B. False

41. As shown in the figure, synovial membrane does cover over articular cartilages.
 A. True
B. False

1. The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the                 .

A. endomysium
B. epimysium
C. perimysium
D. sarcomysium

2. Specific regions on the surface of actin serve as active sites for the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of                 .
A. ATP
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin

3. Myofibrils are composed primarily of                 .

A. actin and myosin
B. ATP
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin
4. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes
A. acetylcholine to break down.
B. ATP to break down to ADP.
C. breakdown of pyruvic acid to lactic acid.
D. troponin to bind to tropomyosin.

5. Creatine phosphate
A. activates ATPase.
B. breaks down ATP.
C. supplies energy to break ATP into ADP.
D. supplies energy for synthesis of ATP.

6. The amount of oxygen needed in part to support the conversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid is called the                 .
A. aerobic concentration
B. anaerobic concentration
C. oxygen debt
D. refractory quantity

7. The oxygen-binding protein found in skeletal muscle fibers is                 .

A. adenosine triphosphate
B. creatine phosphate
C. hemoglobin
D. myoglobin

8. Muscle contraction is triggered by impulses carried over                 .

A. afferent neurons
B. motor neurons
C. myofibrils
D. sensory neurons

9. In the liver, some of the lactic acid is converted to                 .

A. acetylcholinesterase
B. ATP
C. glycogen
D. myoglobin

10. In tetanus,
2+
A. Ca levels drop too low to sustain contractions.
B. muscles tire due to build up of ATP.
 C. muscles undergo sustained contractions.
D. muscles wither away.

11. An increase in the number of motor units activated as the threshold stimulus increases is called                 .
A. peristalsis
B. recruitment
C. treppe
D. wave summation

12. The sarcoplasmic reticulum

A. is the cell membrane around each muscle fiber.
B. opens to the outside through the sarcolemma.
C. produces ATP for muscle contraction.
2+
D. stores Ca when the fiber is at rest.

13. Smooth muscle differs from skeletal because smooth muscle

A. has better developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. has no actin or myosin.
C. is multi-nucleated.
D. is nonstriated.

14. Cardiac muscle fibers are attached to one another at                 .

A. A bands
B. intercalated discs
C. sarcomeres
D. T-tubules

15. Acetylcholine
A. breaks down acetylcholinesterase.
B. is made in synaptic vesicles.
C. is stored in synaptic vesicles.
D. stops nerves impulse transmission.

16. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events leading to muscle contraction?
2+
A. Acetylcholine is released, calcium (Ca ) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm, the troponin-tropomyosin complex changes
shape, and cross bridges form between actin and myosin.
2+
B. Calcium (Ca ) ions are pumped through the sarcolemma, protein receptors are activated, pH of the sarcoplasm changes,
and ATP is produced.
2+
C. Calcium (Ca ) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, cross bridges break, and cholinesterase is released.
2+
D. Cross-bridges form, calcium (Ca ) ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm, and troponin covers tropomyosin.
17. A muscle fascicle is surrounded by                 .
A. endomysium
B. epimysium
C. perimysium
D. sarcomysium

18. Muscle growth due to an increase in the size of existing fibers is called                 .
A. fusion extension
B. hyperplasia
C. hypertrophy
D. pericytosis

19. Which of the following molecules stores energy that is used to synthesize additional ATP molecules?
A. creatine phosphate
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin

20. A motor end plate is part of a                 .

A. cardiac muscle cell at the intercalated disc
B. motor neuron
C. skeletal muscle cell at the synapse
D. muscle cell when two cells meet

21. Calcium (Ca2+) ions move from the cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle cell (sarcoplasm) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, because of
the action of
A. acetylcholine receptors on the cell surface.
B. active transport pumps in the reticulum membrane.
C. ion diffusion channels in the membrane.
D. myosin binding sites.

22. When ATP attaches to the myosin head,

A. actin and myosin both shorten.
2+
B. Ca ions react with the ATP.
C. the head attaches to troponin.
D. the head detaches from actin.

23. When calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm is low the

A. actin detaches from the Z discs.
B. muscle cell membrane releases acetylcholine.
 C. myosin stretches and the muscle relaxes.
D. troponin-tropomyosin complex slides back over the myosin binding sites.

24. Which of the following describes fast oxidative glycolytic (FOG) fibers of skeletal muscle tissue?
A. intermediate diameter, contains a large amount of myoglobin, generates ATP by both aerobic cellular respiration and
glycolysis
B. large diameter, contains a large amount of myoglobin, generates ATP mainly by aerobic cellular respiration
C. large diameter, contains a small amount of myoglobin, generates ATP mainly by glycolysis
D. small diameter, contains a small amount of myoglobin, generates ATP by both aerobic cellular respiration and
glycolysis

25. When examined under a microscope, in which type of muscle tissue are striations NOT apparent?
A. cardiac muscle
B. cardiac and smooth muscle
C. skeletal muscle
D. smooth muscle

26. Which muscle tissue is involuntary, slow in contracting, and able to regenerate considerably better than other types of muscle?
A. cardiac
B. skeletal
C. smooth
D. striated

27. A weakness of muscles caused by an abnormality at the neuromuscular junction that partially blocks contraction is known as        
.
A. fibrillation
B. lumbago
C. muscular dystrophy
D. myasthenia gravis

28. Tendinitis of the tibialis anterior can result in a painful condition commonly known as
        .
A. painful heel syndrome
B. pulled hamstring
C. shinsplints
D. stress fracture

29. The origin of a muscle is the

A. attachment of a muscle tendon to a moveable bone.
B. attachment of a muscle tendon to a stationary bone.
C. fleshy portion of a muscle between tendons.
 D. part of the muscle that crosses the joint.

30. A runner suffers a pulled hamstring. Which of the following muscles might be involved?
A. biceps femoris
B. rectus femoris
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis

31. A muscle which functions as the prime mover is called a(n)                .

A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. fixator
D. third class lever

32. Which of the following is true concerning the quadriceps femoris muscle?
A. All four heads function to flex the thigh.
B. All four muscles in this group function to extend the leg.
C. All of the muscles in this group originate on the femur.
D. It consists of four muscles located in the leg.

33. In order for skeletal muscles to cause movement of a bone they must
A. act as fixators.
B. be associated with an aponeurosis.
C. consist of long fibers.
D. cross at least one joint.

34. The rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles all have one function in common.
What is it?
A. All are classified architecturally as parallel muscles.
B. All are on the posterior surface of the body.
C. All function to compress the abdomen.
D. They are the only muscles never to undergo tetanus.

35. Which of the following is true of synergistic muscle groups?

A. Examples are triceps brachii and biceps brachii.
B. They are always red muscles.
C. They are usually on the opposite of a limb.
D. They contract together for coordinated movement.
36. An example of a circular muscle is the                 .
A. biceps brachii
B. deltoid
C. orbicularis oris
D. sartorius

37. Antagonistic muscle groups

A. are usually circular muscles.
B. are usually located on the same side of a limb.
C. contract together to perform a coordinated movement.
D. perform opposite functions.

38. The deltoid muscle is

A. pear-shaped.
B. saw-toothed shaped.
C. square shaped.
D. triangularly shaped.

39. Muscles that hold the scapula firmly in place while the forearm moves are called the
        .
A. adductors
B. antagonists
C. fixators
D. prime movers

40. An adductor muscle

A. decreases the angle of a joint.
B. decreases the size of an opening in the body.
C. moves a part of the body toward the midline.
D. rotates a bone around its long axis.

41. The gracilis muscle is located in the                 .

A. abdomen
B. forearm
C. leg
D. thigh

42. The masseter muscle is located in the                 .

A. abdomen
B. forearm
 C. head
D. neck

43. Which muscle is contracted when you open your eyes (elevate the upper eyelid)?
A. frontalis
B. levator palpebrae superioris
C. orbicularis oculi
D. orbicularis oris

44. Which muscle is attached to (inserts on) the corners of the mouth and is the "smiling muscle"?
A. buccinator
B. orbicularis oris
C. platysma
D. zygomaticus major

45. Which broad, flat muscle covers the mandible and the sides of the throat region?
A. frontalis
B. masseter
C. occipitalis
D. platysma

46. Which broad, flat muscle originates on the bone over the ears?
A. masseter
B. occipitalis
C. platysma
D. temporalis

47. A muscle originating on the sphenoid bone that moves the lower jaw is the                 .
A. lateral pterygoid
B. masseter
C. platysma
D. temporalis

48. The inferior rectus muscle

A. keeps the eyeball erect.
B. moves the eyeball upward and laterally.
C. rolls the eyeball down.
D. rolls the eyeball medially.
49. All of the extrinsic muscles that move the eyeball insert on the                 .
A. bones of the orbit of the eye
B. ethmoid bone
C. outer surface (sclera) of the eyeball
D. sphenoid bone

50. The brachioradialis muscle is named after its                 .

A. action
B. shape
C. origin and insertion
D. location

51. The action of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is antagonistic to which of the following muscles.
A. digastric
B. erector spinae
C. masseter
D. temporal

52. The transversus abdominis muscle is located                 to the internal oblique muscle.
A. deep
B. lateral
C. medial
D. superficial

53. Which muscle flexes the vertebral column?

A. pectoralis major
B. quadratus lumborum
C. rectus abdominis
D. trapezius

54. The diaphragm muscle inserts on

A. a strong aponeurosis called the central tendon.
B. the first lumbar vertebra.
C. the first three thoracic vertebrae.
D. the inferior border of the eleventh and twelfth ribs.

55. Part of the insertion of the trapezius muscle is on the                 .

A. cervical vertebrae
B. clavicle
 C. occipital bone
D. sternum

56. Which muscle of the pectoral girdle acts as an accessory muscle of inspiration?
A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. serratus anterior
D. trapezius

57. Which muscle originates on the largest number of ribs?

A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. rhomboideus major
D. serratus anterior

58. Which muscle of the pectoral girdle has the broadest origin?
A. levator scapulae
B. pectoralis minor
C. rhomboid major
D. trapezius

59. The latissimus dorsi and the pectoralis major muscles have their insertions on the
                __.
A. cervical vertebrae
B. humerus
C. ribs
D. scapula

60. The strength and stability of the shoulder joint is provided by the
A. pectoralis minor muscle.
B. shape of the articulating bones and ligaments.
C. muscles and tendons of the rotator cuff.
D. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major muscles

61. Which muscle that crosses the shoulder joint moves the arm in the greatest number of different directions?
A. deltoid
B. supraspinatus
C. subscapularis
D. teres major
62. The only muscle that originates on both the clavicle and the scapula is the                 .
A. deltoid
B. pectoralis major
C. supraspinatus
D. trapezius

63. Which muscle acts to extend the forearm?

A. biceps brachii
B. brachialis
C. deltoid
D. triceps brachii

64. The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle originate on the                 .
A. clavicle
B. humerus
C. scapula
D. sternum

65. The flexor digitorum profundus muscle acts to flex the

A. distal phalanges of the fingers.
B. thumb.
C. wrist.
D. proximal phalanges of the fingers.

66. Which muscles that extend the vertebral column run parallel with the vertical axis of the spine?
A. erector spinae
B. psoas major
C. rectus abdominis
D. sternocleidomastoid

67. Which of the muscle groups which extend the vertebral column is located most laterally?
A. iliocostalis
B. longissimus
C. psoas major
D. spinalis

68. The large muscle of the body that extends the thigh is the                 .
A. biceps brachii
B. gluteus maximus
 C. latissimus dorsi
D. quadriceps femoris

69. Of the muscles that flex the thigh, the only one that originates on the vertebral column is the                 A) iliacus
A.  
B. pectineus
C. psoas major
D. tensor fasciae latae

70. Which muscle originates on the ilium and inserts on the medial surface of the tibia?
A. gracilis
B. rectus femoris
C. sartorius
D. tensor fasciae latae

71. Which muscle lies deep to the rectus femoris muscle?

A. sartorius
B. vastus intermedius
C. vastus lateralis
D. vastus medialis

72. The medial compartment of the thigh contains muscles that                 the thigh.
A. abduct
B. adduct
C. extend
D. flex

73. The longest muscle of the human body is the                 .

A. gastrocnemius
B. latissimus dorsi
C. rectus femoris
D. sartorius

74. The hamstring muscles act to

A. extend the leg.
B. extend the thigh and flex the leg.
C. flex the thigh.
D. flex the thigh and extend the leg.
75. The muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg
A. dorsiflex the foot.
B. evert the foot.
C. invert the foot.
D. plantar flex the foot.

76. The Achilles tendon attaches (inserts) on the                 .

A. calcaneus
B. fibula
C. patellla
D. tibia

77. The bone of the leg that is often damaged in a stress fracture is the                 .
A. femur
B. fibula
C. talus
D. tibia

78. Which of the following is NOT a property of muscle cells?

A. ability to expand forcefully when stimulated
B. ability to respond to stimuli by producing electrical signals
C. ability to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension
D. ability to stretch without damage

79. Which of the following contains Ca2+-binding sites, which are important in initiating the contraction cycle?
A. actin subunits
B. myosin heads
C. tropomyosin
D. troponin

80. Receptors for acetylcholine (ACh) are located on which of the following?
A. external surface of T tubules
B. external surface of the sarcolemma
C. external surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. presynaptic membrane of the synaptic bulb

81. Which of the motor unit sizes listed below would allow for the greatest degree of skeletal muscle control?
A. 3 muscle fiber/motor neurons
B. 15 muscle fiber/motor neurons
 C. 90 muscle fiber/motor neurons
D. 150 muscle fiber/motor neurons

82. Which of the following is the proper sequence of the structures, from 1 to 4, labeled in the illustration below?

A. insertion, belly, tendon, origin

B. insertion, origin, belly, tendon
C. origin, belly, tendon, insertion
D. origin, tendon, belly, insertion

83. Contractions of which of the following muscles contribute(s) to forceful exhalation?

A. diaphragm
B. external intercostals
C. internal intercostals
D. sternocleidomastoid

84. Contractions of which of the following pairs of muscles flexes the cervical portion of the vertebral column?
A. erector spinae
B. infraspinatus
C. quadratus lumborum
D. sternocleidomastoid
85. Considering flexion of the forearm, which of the following terms describes the triceps brachii muscle?

A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. prime mover
D. synergist

86. The belly (contractile elements) of the extensor digitorum longus muscle lies entirely in the
                               .
A. anterior compartment of the leg
B. lateral compartment of the leg
C. plantar surface of the foot
D. posterior compartment of the leg

87. A very common muscle injury in individuals who run hard is to the                 .
A. gastrocnemius
B. hamstrings
C. quadriceps femoris
D. sartorius

88. Which is the following is not part of RICE therapy for sports injuries?
A. Rest
 B. Ice
C. Compression
D. Extension

89. All of the following characteristics are true of fibromyalgia except:

A. Pain results from gentle pressure at specific “tender points.”
B. The condition is 15 times more common in men than in women.
C. The condition is most common after the age of 50 years.
D. Fatigue and poor sleep typically occur with fibromyalgia

90. The iliotibial tract is a strong connective tissue structure located on the ________ aspect of the thigh.
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Medial
D. Laterial

91. The                 ___is the basic unit of contraction in skeletal muscle.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

sarcomere
See 8.3: Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle

92. There is a slight delay between the application of the stimulus and the beginning of contraction called the                 .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

latent period
See 8.3: Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle

93. The                 fibers generate ATP mainly by aerobic cellular respiration and have a slow contraction cycle.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

slow oxidative
See 8.3: Contraction and Relaxation of Skeletal Muscle

94. ___________is the integrated system of bones, muscles, and joints functioning together.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

Musculoskeletal system
 See 8.1: Overview of Muscular Tissue

95. After prolonged activity,                 is the inability of a muscle to forcefully contract.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

muscle fatigue
See 8.6: Exercise and Skeletal Muscle Tissue

96. A characteristic of cardiac muscle,                  , is the intrinsic rhythm of cardiac muscle fibers.

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

autorhythmicity
See 8.7: Cardiac Muscle Tissue

97. The tunnel-like extensions of the sarcolemma which carry the muscle action potential deep into the muscle are called                 .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

transverse tubules (T tubules)
See 8.2: Skeletal Muscle Tissue

98. The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium extend beyond the muscle as a
        .

YOUR ANSWER:

The suggested answer is

tendon
See 8.2: Skeletal Muscle Tissue

99. The quadriceps muscles all insert on the tibial tuberosity.

A. True
B. False

100. The thick filaments are found in the I band.

A. True
B. False

101. The four muscles and tendons of the rotator cuff provide stability to the shoulder. The muscles involved are the subscapularis,
the supraspinatus, the infraspinatus, and the teres major.
A. True
B. False
102. Muscular dystrophy refers to a group of inherited conditions in which muscles degenerate.
A. True
B. False

103. Myalgia refers to pain in muscles.

A. True
B. False

104. The flexors of the wrist, hand, and fingers originate on the humerus and form the anterior compartment of the forearm
A. True
B. False