NDA 4 NA C1) 2009 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C. : QOEBB-J-HB Test Booklet Series Serial No. 106013 TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY TEST Time Allowed : Two Hours and Thirty Minutes Maximum Marks : 600 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. }. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions) in two Parts : PART—A and PART_B. Each item in PART—B is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer. Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer bas been given by the candidate, one-third (0-33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, ie., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO war & : age a feed waren ga gfe % Rea ge oT BIPART—A ’ SYNONYMS Directions (For the 8 items which follow) : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters. 1. PESSIMISTIC 5. PENALIZE (a) Indifferent (a) Persecute (b) Ascetic () Punish () Unsettle (Torture (4) Not hopeful (@ Ruin 2. ANALOGOUS 6, REMEDIAL (2) Unsuitable (@) Punitive () Uncritical (b) Stringent (Similar () Corrective (d) Disproportionate (a) Strict 3. EXAGGERATE 7. TRIVIAL (a) Bluff (a) Unimportant (b) Overstate (6) Transparent () Explain (co) Important (d) Underestimate (d) Unexpected 4, EVIDENT 8. INCREDIBLE (@) Prominent (a) Hard to believe (6) Seen () Considerable () Observed (c) Inconsistent . (@) Quite clear (d)_ Unsatisfactory (Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 2Directions (For the 8 items which follow) : ANTONYMS Each of the following items consists of a word or group of words in capital letters, followed by four words. Select the word that is furthest in meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters. 9. RELUCTANT {a} ) o} (a) Optimistic Unwilling Enthusiastic Excited 10. SCARCITY (a) &) (oh (a) Plenty Prosperity Facility Simplicity 11, THICK SKINNED (a) 0) © (a) ‘Thankless Sensitive Pliant Resolute 12. BLEAK a) &) o (aj Bright Confusing Uncertain Great Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 13. 14, 15. 16. STERN (a) Violent () Generous () Mild (d) Forgiving ‘SUPERFICIAL (a) Profound (6) Difficult (©) Secretive (d) Mystical ELEGANCE, (a) Balance (0) Indelicacy () Clumsiness (d) Savagery COARSE (a) Pleasing (b) Rude (c) Polished (d) Soft [P.T.0.ne REARRANGING PARTS OF A SENTENCE. Directions (For the 8 items which follow) : In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Example Z’ has been solved for you. Z. Some people believe that the effect is very bad on children of cinema P Q R s ‘The correct sequence should be (a) P-S-R-Q ) S-P-Q-R () S-R-P-Q (@ Q-S-R-P Explanation : ‘The proper way of writing the sentence is “Some people believe that the effect of cinema on children is very bad”. This is indicated by the sequence P - S - R - Q and so (a)is the correct answer. 17. About 200 years ago, in the south of India an old kit P Q called Rajavarman Ss ‘The correct sequence should be fa) Q-S-R-P fb} P-Q-R-S () Q-P-S-R (d) Q-S-P-R 18. his land a wooden plough the Indian peasant still uses to cultivate P Q R $ The correct sequence should be (a) R-Q-P-S ) Q-P-S-R () S-R-Q-P (dj) R-Q-S-P Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 419. 20. 21. He was a man even if he had to starve who would not beg borrow or steal P Q R from anyone s The correct sequence should be (a) P~Q-R-S @) P-R-Q-S fc) Q-R-S-P (dj) Q-P-R-S in the progress of universities play a crucial role our civilization in the present age P Q R s The correct sequence should be (a) S-Q-P-R () Q-R-S-P fe) Q-R-P-S (a) S-Q-R-P far out into the sea for the néxt two weeks there were further explosions P Q which hurled ashes and debris, s ‘The correct sequence should be (a) Q-R-P-S fo) R-S-P-Q fj} Q-R-S-P (4) S-R-P-Q Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 5 [P.T.0.22, 23. 24, William Shakespeare in his lifetime the great English dramatist P Q wrote thirty-five plays and several poems R Ss The correct sequence should be (a) P-Q-R-S &) R-S-P-Q @ Q-S-R-P (@) Q-R-S-P Whenever I am with an old friend of mine in New Delhi P Q [always try Ss The correct sequence should be (a) S-Q-P-R @) Q-S-R-P () R-P-S-Q ( P-R-Q-s [don’t know must have thought what people sitting next tome P Q R ‘The correct sequence should be fa} R-S-Q-P () R-Q-S-P () P-Q-R-S (da) P~R-Q-S Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 6 to have dinner R but I came away SSPOTTING ERRORS Directions (For the 8 items which follow) (In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (aj, (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (0), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response. (i) You are to indicate only one response for each item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed. You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet. Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you. P, The young child singed a very sweet song. No error (a) (b) () (d) Q. We worked very hard throughout the season. No error (a) (e) (c) @) Explanation : In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under this part is (b), so (b) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error. 25. Inflation and shortages have made it very difficult for him fa) &) to make his both ends meet. No error () (a) Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 726. 27. 28. 29, 30. 31, 32. The most studious boy in the class © was made as the captain. No error (a) (b) () (a) 1am participating in the two-miles race tomorrow morning. No error (a) (b) a (a) The sum and substance of his speech _ were essentially anti-establishment. (a) () « No error (dy It has been such a wonderful evening, I look forward to meet you again (a) (b) after the vacations. No error () (a) When the boy committed a mistake, the teacher made him to do @) (0) the sum again. No error () (a) Unless the government does not revise its poli (a) the growth of the indigenous technology will be adversely affected. No error (b) () (dy of liberalization Supposing if you get a seat in the plane fa) () you will not take more than two hours to reach Mumbai. No error () (a) Q-OFBB-J-HB/24A, 8COMPREHENSION Directions (For the 12 items which foltow) : In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Examples T’ and ‘J’ have been solved for you. PASSAGE (EXAMPLE) In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures. L. The author's main point is that J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in (a). different forms of life are found developing the author's position? on the earth (a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal (b) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace (c) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups (@) different levels of existence are possible in nature (©) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings (a) even the weakest creature (d) A parallel is drawn between struggles to preserve its life happiness and life, and pain and death Explanation : I. The idea which represents the author's main point is “peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings’, which is response (c). So (c) is the correct answer. J. The best assumption underlying the passage is “The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). So (b) is the correct answer. Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 9 [P.T.0.PASSAGE—I No doubt, the ‘green revolution’ has led to self-sufficiency in food production but it has also brought with it the formidable problem of poisoning of food grains and other eatables. This is caused by extessive use of chemicals on crops and pesticide residues. It has also created havoc by exterminating the species of useful parasites and viruses which keep pests under control. Scientists are now worried about the resurgence of such formidable pests in menacing proportions which seem to undermine all that they have achieved in agricultural production. 33. From the reading of the passage, which one of these statements do you think is correct? (a) The ‘green revolution’ has solved all problems in agriculture (®) Application of chemicals has resulted in _ everlasting preservation of grains () The ‘green revolution’ is a mixed blessing (@) Scientists are satisfied with achievements in agricultural production The statement that “the green revolution has also created havoc by exterminating the species of useful parasites and viruses” means (a) all parasites and viruses keep pests under control (®) pesticides and chemicals kill parasites and viruses, which control pests (o} the pests are controlled by parasites (d) application of chemicals to grains has created havoc Q-OFBB-J-HB/24A, 35. Which one of the following statements best reflects the underlying implication of the passage? (a) Man’s effort to control nature to his advantage has always created unseen dangers side by side fb) Research in one area leads to a challenge for further research in the same field () At present, research in preservation of agricultural production is at the cross-roads (a) The excessive use of chemicals and pesticides is dangerous Which one of these phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of ‘menacing proportions’? (a) To an extent which becomes threatening (b) Assuming dimensions that cause concern () Unimagined, dangerous proportion (d) Harmful sizePASSAGE—II Water is the basis of life. Every animal and every plant contains a substantial proportion of free or combined water in its body, and no kind of physiological activity is possible in which this fluid does not play an essential part. Water is, of course, necessary for animal life, while moisture in the soil is equally imperative for the life and: growth of plants and trees, though the quantity necessarily varies enormously with the species. The conservation and utilization of water is thus fundamental to human life. Apart from artesian water, the ultimate source in all cases is rain or snowfall. 37. Water is the basis of life, because (©) water flows easily fa) it is seen everywhere on the earth (a) water does not play any role at all (2) it is obtained from the sea and rain (©) it helps living things to exist 89. The passage is on (dj it is necessary for the birth and growth of alll living things (a) the use of water in day-to-day life 38. No kind of physiological activity is (b) the use of water in agriculture possible without water, because (a) water is a fluid (6) the use of wastewater (6) water plays very important role (a) the importance of water in in it human life PASSAGE—IIl ‘The importance of early detection of tuberculosis (TB), regular treatment and nutritious food are just not known widely enough. Often TB victims discontinue the treatment when the symptoms disappear, without waiting for a complete cure; the next attack is more virulent from bacteria which have thus become drug-resistant. Anti-TB drugs are produced in India. The capability to meet the country’s requirements of anti-TB drugs in full already exists. Yet millions of Indians suffer from TB and thousands of them die every year. Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, a [P. 7.0.Voluntary organizations and government agencies are doing commendable work. But we have so far tackled only the fringe of the problem. What is now needed is a nation-wide determination to fight TB. India eradicated smallpox with a national campaign. We can eradicate TB too. 40. 41. 42. Treatment is discontinued. by TB victims, when (a) they think that the disease is completely cured (®) the apparent signs of TB are no longer visible to them © they run out of resources like money or medicine (d) they are attacked drug-resistant bacteria by Millions of Indians suffer from TB, because (a) people discontinue _— the. treatment too soon or do not start the treatment early enough ) India does not produce anti-TB drugs of the required quality (c} anti-TB drugs are not available at a reasonable price (a) people do not have nutritious food When the treatment of TB is discontinued too early (a) the old symptoms reappear () the patient gradually gets better, although slowly Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 12 43. to) the disease appears in a new, more dangerous form (a) the patient must get good, nutritious food “The fringe of the problem’ means (a) the basic cause of the problem (b) the root of the problem (o) the side effects of the drugs (d) the edge of the problem, not the main point Who or ‘drug-resistant’, passage? what become according to the (a) TB patients who are treated for a long time (b) Pedple who do not want to take medicine for their illness TB bacteria that have not been fully eradicated (o) {d) Patients who have discontinued the treatmentREARRANGING SENTENCES INTO A PARAGRAPH Directions (For the 6 items which follow) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S,) and the final sentence (Sg) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet. Example ‘X’ has been solved for you. x. » 1 2 onow There was a boy named Jack. At last she turned him out of the house. So the mother asked him to find work. ‘They were very poor. He lived with his mother. But Jack refused to work. The proper sequence should be fa) R- ) Q- Explanation : Q-P-S P-R-S ‘The proper sequence in this example is R- Q- P-S, which is marked by (a). Therefore, (aj is the correct answer. 45. 8, Solar hot water systems that can supply hot water at an approximate temperature of 60°C continuously, have recently been introduced. Larger quantities of water can be heated by increasing the number of solar collectors. A similar 200-litre system, but with two collectors, ideal for a family of five or six, would cost around Rs 7,250. A 100-litre per day system, suitable for a family of two or three, would cost around Rs 4,270. Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 13 R fa) @) @ These rates, however, do not include the plumbing acquired to connect the system to the kitchen, bathroom or toilet of the building, transportation, installation and taxes. : This includes the price of solar collector, a 100-litre insulated storage tank with fittings and an automatic water heater to be used during the monsoons or in an emergency. The proper sequence should be R-P-Q-S Q-S-P-R S-R-Q-P Q-P-S-R (a) [P.T.0.46. S, : Corruption has been accepted as a way of life in India. I think no serious effort has been made to eradicate the wide-spread evil in India. P : It is quite rampant in our country, Q + But it is pity that no one hesitates to accept it when he gets a chance. R_: They criticize and condemn others for taking bribe. S_: It is not uncommon to find people talking against corruption. ‘The proper sequence should be (@) P-Q-S-R () P-S-R-Q (} S-P-Q-R ( R-Q-s-P Q-OFBB-J-HB/24a, 14 47. 8, 'm During college, Pamela Johnson had the opportunity to work with a famous anthropologist. She cared a doctorate and today holds = a_——skeey government position. When her son was three, she undertook the four-year hard work of post-graduate studies. But then she married, had a baby and became a full-time mother, None the less, Pamela never lost sight of her desire to study and assist tribal people. She enjoyed the experience and decided to major in Anthropology. The proper sequence should be (a) Q-P-R-S fh) S-R-Q-P () R-S-Q-P (@) S-Q-R-P48, S, : My friend Peter, went to live in a village. S, : It did not like to work. P : But it was a very slow animal. Q : So Peter bought a donkey for five pounds. R : One day his new neighbour told him that he must buy a donkey. S : Every family there had a donkey to carry things for them. The proper sequence should be (a) S-R-Q-P fb) S-P-R-Q () Q-S-R-P (a) Q-R-S-P 49. S, : Miss Sullivan brought Helen Keller a doll. Sg: Her heart was filled with pleasure and pride. P : After some efforts, she succeeded in making the letters correctly. Q : When she had played with it for some time, Miss Sullivan spelt into her hand the letters do, Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 15 The child’s attention was arrested by the gentle movement of the finger on her hand. She tried to imitate the finger’s motion. ‘The proper sequence should be () Q-R-S-P &) R-Q-P-S () P-S-R-Q (fd) S-R-Q-P When she was not yet an adult, Mother Teresa knew that she had a vocation to help the poor. She received permission for this after two years. At the age of 18, she left her home to become a nun. There she taught at a convent high school and became its Principal. She felt she must leave the job and go into slums to serve the poor. After training at Dublin, she was sent to Calcutta where she took her final vows. ‘The proper sequence should be (a) ) () (a) s way -R-P-Q -o- -s- -s- ooa au, [P.7.0.PART—B 51. Consider the following statements 53. Which one of the following is not with respect to the Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT-2) : 1. This is the first Indian satellite with microwave imaging con- figuration on board. 2, The satellite will boost India’s defence capabilities. a component of the scheme ‘Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)’ launched by the Union of India? (a) Scheme for early attraction of talents for science 3. It can take images of the earth ) Scholarship for higher day and night, even under rainy and cloudy conditions. fo) Assured opportunity for Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (@) 1 only (), 2 and 3 only ( 1,2 and3 (d) 1 and 2 only 52. Consider the following statements about Astra : 1. This anti-aircraft missile is procured by India from Russia. 2. It is a single-stage, smokeless, solid-propelled missile. 3. It may be launched from different altitudes. research careers (d) Vocational training after higher education S4. Who among the following has been presented the —_Leontief Award, 2009 for his/her outstand- ing contributions to the field of economic theory? (a) Montek Singh Ahluwalia (b) Prof. Bina Agarwal (o) Prof. Amartya Sen (a) Jagdish Bhagwati 85. Areawise, which one of the following Which of the statements given isthe largest Lok Sabha above are correct? constituency? (a) 1 and 2 only (a) Kutch (b) 2 and 3 only (6) Kangra (c) 1,2 and 3 () Ladakh (a) 1 and 3 only Q-OEBBWJ-HB/24A 16 {@) Patna SahibarI—B $1. %en gfe AtenRe (RISAT-2) watt Prefers seri m Pram aifiry : 1, 3g yee andta Senge (S77) @, fra wonder ‘sree 8 2. Fe THE RTH Mena =z agai 3.38 ater wi Aureos cffeed aft yeh aor afafara ca-fea @ aaa a safes wet 4 aha-a/a we 8/8? (a) 37a 1 (ob) Fara 23iR 3 f) 1,233 (a) Fae 1 ai 2 82. ‘ae watt freien eri me fre Afr : 1. wa 3 se agan-frdet sere (d-erane fag) a ee a me fear 81 2. Fe Gaal, are, staat waar 81 3. 8 fafa quae @ wife fen oT ‘wear 21 sadhs wert 9 8 aaa adi &7 fa) aa 1 32 (o) Fra 23 f) 1,233 @ Fa 13k 3 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 17 53. frafeafd 42 stam we una da ar ye Al 7g dim ‘eae et ae EE vat Feared ferd (INSPIRE) HI Ha wet 8? (a) snes ong & A fa & fee safari at omefia at fae aT (b) Sane Rien % fare oraght () saaurh at F fem gfe STAT (@) va fen % ae anaes fare 54. fefefar 4 8 feast onffs far 55. aa 3 sah fife den & fie af 2009 am farsi staid fear var 8? (a) tia fire orator &) Ste fet ona fo) stem amd ar (a) serdar ser aaa A ef 3, Affe 3a shen wm che am gaa-aa wad ag 8? (a) (e) Fire () Tera (@) ven atta [P. 7.0.rT 56. Indian Military Training Team 59. Consider the following statements : (IMTRAT) imparts training to army 1. Muhammad Hamdulla Sayeed, officers of elected from Lakshadweep (a) Nepal parliamentary constituency, is the youngest MP in the (b) Bangladesh 15th Lok Sabha. K. th fo) Maldives 2. Agatha K. Sangma is the youngest Union Minister in (@ Bhutan the 1Sth Lok Sabha who represents Shillong _parlia- mentary constituency. 57. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given 1. The Green Governance Awards above is/are correct? have been instituted by Bombay Natural —_ History (a) 1 only Society (BNHS). a ¥ 2. Tata Chemicals has won (b) 2 only the Green Governance (c) Both 1 and 2 Award, 2008 for its project on conservation of the whale (d) Neither 1 nor 2 shark. Which of the statements given 60. Consider the following statements above is/are correct? about the accident of AF 447, which crashed over the Atlantic Ocean on Ist June, 2009 : (a) 1 only 1. The Airbus A330-200 was on (be) 2 only its way to Rio de Janeiro from Paris. () Both 1 and 2 2. The scheduled flight usually (d) Neither 1 nor 2 crosses the Tropic of Cancer on its way to its destination. 58. The tourism phrase Paradise Which of the statements given Unexplored refers to above is/are correct? (a) Jammu and Kashmir (@) 1 only (6) North-East India (o) 2 only (c) Chhattisgarh (c) Both 1 and 2 (4) Uttarakhand (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 1856. yer ited sf ay (IMTRAT) Frafafaa 4 8 fra ta & d-orftranteai wr satrerer Bett 87 fa) are (by aireaTeat (co) edt (d) Er 87. frafatan seri x fran Ae 1, Gh Tara snide, aie eee feet hard (BNHS) rt Geena Fe me él 2. wa waa said, 2008 ta wh % cea Ht ave aisle a zat ‘efrnea 3 wm far 21 sede weil Hf 8 ata-a1/S ae 8/87 (a) aa @) Fam 2 () 13m 2 et (@) WAI aD 88. vier waael ‘tega saaraié’ fra ‘fags ach 87 (a) am sit et 0), Be a fo) oaremrg (a) saree Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 19 59. 60. Prefer arti ox fran Aig : 1. wade dada gra-aa @ falar yess wage age isah cite a ‘waif yen Hag Hee 8 2. semen Mo aa sei atm ae A wale gan Sate eA &, sh Rate dada grads a RARE act & rs weet 4S aha -a/8 ae 8/8? (a) aa. () Fae 2 @ 139% 2a @ amisraad2 19, 2009 a srecifees arm we eT ET AF 447 & gent & fawa 4 Peafefisr peat wr fara fifi: 1. WRAG_A330-200 Ata B fet = St or eh of 2. mp ogatia ser ae Te A) ak sit gy WARE: whcte at a afl 81 sede seat FB ata-ar/a aa 2/8? (@ aa (o) Bat 2 @ 13 2a @ aa seaa2 [P.T.0.61. Which one of the following statements about Chandragupta I is not correct? (@) Kalidasa and Amarasimha were famous scholars in his court {b) He expanded his empire both through matrimonial alliances and conquests (c} He married a Naga princess, named Kubera Naga (d) He married his daughter Prabhavati to an Ahom prince 62. Mahatma Gandhi undertook ‘fast unto death’ against the Communal Award. He, however, discontinued the fast, because (a) the Congress leaders success- fully prevailed upon Mahatma Gandhi to accept the Award (o) the British Government with- drew the Communal Award () of the conclusion of the Poona Pact (d) the weaker classes openly opposed the Award Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 68. Consider’ the following statements with regard to Champaran Satyagraha (1917) : 1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Mahatma Gandhi's first appearance in Indian politics as a leader of the masses. 2. Young nationalists —_like Rajendra Prasad and J. B. Kripalani had worked with Mahatma Gandhi at Champaran. 3. It was during this movement that Mahatma Gandhi formu- lated his philosophy of Satyagraha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only fb) 1 and 2 () 2and3 (@) 1 and 3 64. The Passive Resistance Association was first formed by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa in 1906 to organize a campaign against the introduction of (a) Poll Tax (b) Certificate of Registration (c) Legislations against Indian businessmen (d) Legislations to disenfranchise the Indians61. aan fidia & aR 4 Pefefiad seri aa R-a UH wel TET a? (a) 3% Tan 4 serra wd alee wftig far a (b) FR aa wea aw fee Aarts wart wd faa eet 8 fear (o) FR BR AMT aH A aT asTGATE @ faere far @) FA art gh wre wm fae STH TagGaR & are fae 62, NRTA Teh A ATE aeRO (aT waté) % fea ‘ome oa’ fee ‘men Se srr ware ae Ran, wif (a) sikh Fait A ween ai a aafaRefa aaa a Req -woctaTp were aR fer () BR aan 2 afi afihela wana @ fea (tee wetter gon fay were wT cif ar Eee ‘atte feat Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 21 63. war wae (1917) *& far F ‘Prafefad saat a fran sf : 1 wren wae 2 area aera sate & ea Ff aera viet At re sofeaft A Pagifia frat 2, Ta wa ot Bo Ho Brant $8 qa wena 3 wero 4% agen niet & ae am een ea) 3. eh sates & che were Tih A ware % om ai a fem fem weds Hert 3B ate-a1/a wet 2/87 (a) Faas b) 132 @) 233 @ 133 64. set mit 3 1906 4 eft onften # 8 fa (rea aie a ahem Pinto fraftfaa 4 8 fea once fq a & faeg afta daa ae & fee ‘Ferran? (a) Stat tae () Sherer wr () aicda arernet & free Bare fa) sacl a meneame & afta ard Be fart [P.T.0.65. What was the effect of the 67. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can Government of India Act of 1935 resign his office by addressing his on the national movement? resignation to (a) It strengthened the movement fa) the President (b) the Prime Minister (b) It weakened the movement by satisfying the people (c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) It weakened the movement, {d) the Chief Justice of India because separate electorate for the Muslims and Hindus created diseensions 68. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India? (d) It weakened the movement, because the Act introduced (a) Only Lok Sabha federal system (b) Only Rajya Sabha (c) Either House of the Parliament 66. Which one of the following statements about ‘Trusteeship’ is not correct? (a) Any Legislative Assembly 69. The highest body that approves Five- (a) ‘Trusteeship’ provides a means Year Plans in India is of transforming the capitalist (a) Planning Commission order of society into an egalitarian one (b) National Development Council (®) It is based on the faith that (c) Interstate Council human nature is never beyond (a) Union Cabinet redemption 70. Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Government? (€) It does not recognize any right of private ownership of property, except so far as it may be permitted by society for (a) Corporation tax its own welfare (6) Customs duty fd) It excludes _legislative () Sales tax regulation of the ownership and use of wealth (4) Income tax QUOEBB-J-HB/24A 2265. 1935 % ana wot aftfiem a1 aa sitio 1 FT Ware TEI? (a) 3A atten a ware fee () Wat A age wm oe F aersint feat () womies a ansix en, wife feq sit quer & fee gg Prater -avest § nate sera aK Ry (@) FR artes A emi fem, waite aaftfian @ dicta cage ar sree wa 66. Rrffa seri 4 a ata-ar ew ‘Rafe & fea 4 wei adi 2? (a) ‘anften’ ware A Yard ore atu waar ae f earater ae a ate we ae & (bo) We aren TK anata @ ff AKA sept aa of oftate @ ot wel ee (co) we waft fst eats & fart after a areca aél act fara aei We vet TH US A a ara & fee geet agate A a ae . @) we % eafica ok wi & faurh faard a orrasts ae & Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 23 67. ate a mH ag feet aaa a carry fora ara Fe THT TAT 8? (a) went, fb) wari fo) tha at a sR (@) IR Rea =a 68, wea anit & five Haier wee aia SPH wt AeaT 8? (a) Fae are aT () are T8a aT fo) Baa a Sta HB aE ot ae (2) @E feu wr 69, sna f daada dhs er ote we ‘aren fiheet Prat atta 8? © (a) aise sien (b) Ta farare atere, (co) Benoa Gia (a) tea HBese 70. frafefa 4&8 fea me asa AeA A ret franca 87 (a) Pra &) tas () Pain (a) saa [P.T.0.71. Which one of the following theories of Communism is not a doctrine of Karl Marx? (a) (b) ) (a) Dialectical Materialism Historical Materialism Class Struggle ‘Theory of New Democracy 72. Consider the following statements. 1. Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission, headed by late Morarji_ Desai, recommended the establish- ment of Lokpal and Lokayukta institutions. Lokpal is the institution in India to investigate corruption at higher places in Government highest Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) (b) fo} (a) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 73. Which among the following is an extraconstitutional growth in Indian democracy? (a) (6) fe) (a) Attorney General of India Autonomous Districts Political Parties Deputy Chairman of the Council of States Q-OFBB-J-HB/24A 74. Socialism is opposed to (a) (b) @) (a) social security scheme equal distribution of wealth unrestricted competition collective and management ownership 75. Who among the following was the first Muslim military commander who annexed Bihar and Bengal by overthrowing the Sena dynasty? fa) (b) (c) (a Mahmud Gawan Bakhtiyar Khilji Adil Shahis Shams-ud-din 76. Which one of the following was the official language of Gupta period? (a) o) () (aj 77. The Pali Magadhi Prakrit Sanskrit agenda for the Round Table Conferences held in London was to (a) ® o (a) discuss the report of the Simon Commission form a Constitution for India find a solution of the communal problem in India find a solution for the problems of the ‘depressed classes’ of India71. wee % feafataa frari fa ata-at 74, waa Peak free 8? um aaret ured ar frais wet 8? (a) armen een tT (a) waver sifeeraTe (b) waa aa fart fo) ras sites (o) dear fear id) arate eas otk wae (9 wheel (4) we (ay 7a atoms an Rrra 7s, Srafafaa 8a ah ze yo yf dar amet om, frat a wor a ae weeat fag ot dt # ond cer 72. Fafetaa wert x fran Are + Frere? 1. erie stot Aef A seer A fa) FER TAA cif seraies gare arr = feed A chara site sarge Feat A (o) afer Fach amen aegie Ai 7 a . fo) sifta at 2. viet war % Tan ert a (dQ) wa-R a vwern A ata 38 ah mat sitter den 21 76, fraefaa Fa aaah wH aR aa A cot 8 aha m/e AYP conn o wie al " fa) seh (a) Fam 1 fb) re (b) ¥aa 2 (aR fo 13h 2 adi (a) tea (a vai ore 77. de to aa Ee te ta eet A saagh ae of? 73, firafettaa Hata ucta ata Tw fq) wer whe A RE fauna agit 8? fran-firl en (b) a af Prato fa) eam 0) a fee we daar wr (o) ead Bren fo) ra A aren BEN a ATTA ann (co) Tarte at (d) wT “aia ae aA ereNsi wT (a) Wa aT er area aa GSAT Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 28 [P.T.0.78. Freedom of the press in India is (a) (b) to) (a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament specifically provided in the Constitution implied in the right of freedom of expression available to the people of India under executive order 79. Consider the following statements Which of the The vernal equinox falis on March 21. On equinox, the sun is directly overhead at the equator. ‘The changes in the day length on equinox result from the changes in the tilt of the earth with respect to the sun statements given above is/are correct? (a) (b) to) (a) 1 and 2 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 80. Tropical cyclone of Philippines is termed as fa) (b) oy (a) ‘Typhoon Willy-wil ly Hurricane Baguio Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 81. Chambal river is a part of (aj (b) {c} (a) Sabarmati basin Ganga basin Narmada basin Godavari basin 82. Match List with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : pomp List-1 List-t findustry) (Location) Petrochemicals 1. Ranchi Aluminium 2. Hyderabad Electronics 3. Vadodara Heavy Engineering 4. Koraput Code : @ A B Cc D 3 04 2 21 o) A B Cc D 1 2 4 3 (A Bc D 3 92 4 1 A Bo Cc D 1 4 2 3 83. Which one of the following separates North and South Islands of New Zealand? (a) ) fe (a) Foveaux Strait Bass Strait Cook Strait Torres Strait78. ie ta A eae (q) dag A AR & one ahi at sree & (o) Wena 4 faftren: saa @ (9 strate sft F aration & (a) afrerft ota ata une aint at area & 79, Prafation seni x fran Fig + 1, wat faga 21 ard #) year 8) 2, figs & Ra year « a ater fd ar tar 21 3. Ryan Rit A cen a aco a & ate gah & gaa Fahad & sftors 81 sade wert A 8 ahaa we 8/8? (a) aa 1 otk 2 ) a1 @) 1,233 (a) *ae 2 ot 3 80. fefedia % sorefacta ara #) eT wet 8? (a) Be (b) afer fate () wir (a) Fast (Baguio) Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 27 81. wae aa faa fee 8? (a) are Hoh () in io fo) er ahh (a) reraét Roh 82. aa Sa a Gita Ff sik afrd & Aa faq ag ge wr Win ae Te ae ge: we aan (sam) (er) A. Sa-turn ((aéfiees) 1. te B. tetra 2, ReqaTe C. RgihaT 3. wean D. wd effet 4. BRIE ee @ A B Cc D 304 201 ) A B C D 102 4 3 () A B Cc D 3 92 4 21 @aA B C D 104 2 3 83. fatter & & aaa we apis ‘sath oa cf etait ah gery weet 2? (a) at (Foveaux) TASTE (o) 71a seemERE () FF REET (a) Re serereney [P. 7.0.I 84. Consider the following statements : 86. What is the reason for India being a major producer of different varieties 1. The earth’s rotation axis is not af fruits and vegetables? at 90° to its orbital plane. 2. The earth's rotation axis is inclined at 235°. (a) Its large population size Which of the statements given (b) Its large land area above is/are correct? (c) Variation in its agro-climatic | (a) 1 only conditions (e) 2 only (d) Diversity in socio-cultural () Both 1 and 2 phenomenon {d) Neither 1 nor 2 85. Consider the following statements : 1. The difference between the moisture-holding capacity of 87. Which one of the following is the air and its actual humidity is correct order in which the gases called saturation deficit. from the atmosphere disappear as ‘one moves away from the surface of. 2. The temperature to which air the earth? has to be cooled in order to reach saturation is called dew point. (a) Carbon dioxide—Oxygen— Nitrogen Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (o) Oxygen—Nitrogen—Carbon dioxide (a) 1 only () Carbon dioxide—Nitrogen— () 2 only Oxygen () Both 1 and 2 (a) Nitrogen—Oxygen—Carbon (dj Neither 1 nor 2 dioxide (Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 2884, Prafertad seri a fara Ff : 1 yedt an opr stat se seta aaa 8 90° Tae RI 2. yedi ar ala ster 23-5° 1 saa 81 sade wert 4 8 ata-a/e ae 8/8? (a) ¥aa 1 () %aa 2 () 132 et (a) watishaae 85. frafaftra seat x fran Afr : Lag A ah err ame otk seh arate Saat ARR FT ‘Fae wet FL 2. daft am aaa & fie ag wh am we xiifta far orn @, ita Het 1 ght fe a) age wet 49 ahead at 2/8? (a) Fa 1 (o) Ra 2 ( 13% 2 et @ ahisade Q-OEBB4J-HB/24A 29 86. aia % fafa fet & wot ci aie a Be seres SF ar eT aT a? (a) WR Fea TST STK () wae aE BA fo) wet BAe aR A stead (2) Wakrs-aiepite gen F fafauar 87, Refafa 4 8 ae sae ad wr a, fare Saga ae oye 8 oT 8, AE agent @ ae at Set 8? (a) ari sresttaargs—ataio— aR () satis —regor— ard ergs () aids SestiaRge TE tao (a) Tei atari [P.T.0.88. Which of the following regarding Revised Macro Management of Agriculture Scheme (2008-2009) is/are correct? -1, Allocate funds to States and Union Territories on a criterion based on gross cropped area and area under small and marginal holdings. 2, The assistance is provided to the States and Union Territories as 100% grant. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 89. Consider the following statements related to stratification of atmospheric layers : 1. All storms and cloudiness are restricted to stratosphere. 2. Cirrus clouds are formed on the top layers of troposphere. 3, Stratosphere is also an ‘isoclinal layer’, Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1,2 and 3 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 30 90. What is the process that tends to build up the land surface by deposition of solid material in its lower areas, known as? (a) Abrasion (&) Agglomeration () Aggradation (@) Attrition 91. What is the sequential order of vegetation types observed while moving from Assam Valley to Rajasthan Plains? (a) Tropical Wet Evergreen— Tiopical Moist Deciduous— Tropical Dry Deciduous— Tropical Thorn Forest (6) Tropical Thorn Forest— Tropical Dry Deciduous— Tropical Moist Deciduous— Tropical Wet Evergreen (6) Tropical Moist Deciduous— Tropical Wet Evergreen— Tropical Dry Deciduous— ‘Tropical Thorn Forest (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous— ‘Tropical Thorn Forest— Tropical Moist Deciduous— Tropical Wet Evergreena8, detfira of wa wee dhe (Reeve am fete aie diese ein), 2008-2009 wast frafafa 4 a aran/a we B/E 1. amit sit da weft dal a wre wer-da way aml aisle sta at & stun a feat a faa eer 2. weit sit da afta dat at ae FEAT 100% IEE H yt a art 81 49 fee me ge ar en at we aH aft: we: (a) ¥aH 1 (b) *ae 2 fo) 132 et (a) AH HAH? 89. agree wt & ee ware Patera weed at Prat i : 1. &f ger sit taRsaa Ham musa TH wiftra wet ZI 2, Tanta elusa FH sat weit wat 3.0 WRausel ‘eT Ta’ of ele 81 sade wert Fa ahaa wel 8? (a) *aci 1 sik 2 () Fa 1 RS () F233 fd) 1, 233 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 31 90. 4-78 A, ws ser Sai Fate ee a waa a RY, FAM are wie a AAT wed 8? (a) srrerfoy (b) titer (co) weiter (a) Biaeio 91, aan ad 8 owe & fet ye A ott aon aa ye areas TEN aT RT ga fea at 27 fa) sorefeaeeta smd werent aerateatta aa wart — sorataia ys wierd sorftatia dem fo) sorpfeatia Fe6 (co) sorenfeareita a gotaret— (a) sorenfearetter yor wotare}— [P. 7.0.92, 94. What is the reason for the major hot deserts of the world lying in the western part of the tropical B P latitude? A (a) They are influenced by trade winds The above diagram is of a (&) They lie in the rain-shadow mushroom rock. In which of the area of the mountains points in the diagram is the intensity of wind strongest? () They are influenced by monsoon winds (4) They are influenced by dry fa) A winds fo) B 95. Consider the following statements : ae 1. International Date Line is drawn zigeag to avoid D landmass. 2. International Date Line is 180° W as well as 180° E of 93. What does the imaginary line Greenwich. passing through Lake Ontario, 3. A ship sailing westward from Lake Erie, Lake Huron and Lake & a Greenwich when crossing superior represent? International Date Line would put back the date by a day. (a) The southern boundary of Canada Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2) The northern limit of iron and steel industry of USA (a) 1 and 2 only (©) The internal waterway route to (®) 1 and 3 only () 1,2 and3 (4) The internal waterway route to Canada (d) 3 only Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 3292. 93, am stich, as ut, Oa som fear en far ws wae dhe ar 8) far & fara farg 4 ara-dtaen vac 87 fa) A (b) B Cc (a) D a aa wie & yaa ath weahie tar eA Prefer act 8 fa) TET A ae (b) Fo We vo H ve wa wea sir At sat dtr (c) Yo Wo Bo % feu arate sent (a) Fare fore srrates serert Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A a3 ee sorafteeia amie 3 ofint ar A ag a fa) a erent aa 8 waite & (o) 3 saat Gorn Sat A ast E (co) A abrgh waa & wear S (a) Aye ar a wah g 95, Refer ari « fran afte : 1 arate Rete Ren aie aa’ ge A-Ae) A t 2. wantiy fis ta fhe & 180° ofa she are @ 180° wd BL 3, Rita a wr A oi ar aA ata wes, aenigia Rais tar A a we fat a oe fea Hd a AM ‘anf weit #2 aha-an/2 ae 8/87 fa) Fara 13k 2 (o) Fam 1 sie 3 1,233 (@) Fas [P.T.0.96. The carth’s crust is the thinnest (2) under the mountain ranges (b) under continental masses (o) at ocean bottoms (d) at mid-oceanic ridges 97. Which one of the following African countries is not land-locked? (a) Benin (b) Chad () Lesotho (@) “Mali 98. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through (a) Orissa (0) Tripura (c) Chhattisgarh (4) Rajasthan 99. Which of the following crops would be preferred for sowing in order to enrich the soil with nitrogen? (2) Wheat (o) Mustard () Sunflower (a) Gram Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 34 100. Which of the following plants is referred to as a living fossil? (a) Ephedra (b) Cycas (©) Gingko (a) Adiantum 101, The major combustible component of gobar (cow-dung) gas is (a) methane (b) carbon dioxide (co) hydrogen (a) propane 102. Which one of the following vegetables is not obtained from wild cabbage? (a) Lettuce (b) Broccoli () Kale (d) Kohirabi 103. Softening of mature ripe fruits is due to (a) dissolution of middle lamella (b) degradation of primary wall (6) delignification (d) removal of suberin deposits in the cell wall96. yal a yea wel waa weet RP (a) we Aiea A fo) werdtita defeat & ae (oc) WerarR wet (a) Temerarrita see 97. Prifeftaa ohh we A a sea sora a 2? (a) 3a ) we (oy Beet (a) AIR 98, ah tar wel 8 vet yore BF (a) seen ) Bg (co) wetvarrg (a) WRIA 99. ga Haha @ ae aM & few frafafaa wadt #8 fee wat a A wal atte & seh? (a) (b) Bet (wast (a) Q-OFBB-J-HB/24A 100. Prfefd weit Fa fea we a sf fare & wa # fafa Rear sar 8? (a) a fb) RRR fo) Fie (ay eee Lox. sian fa am gE are He aan 8? (a) Ha (bo) wes aeTaTES () weg (@ ae 102, frafefaa wat a a ahem we at saith @ ne srt frat sen? (a) Bea fo) Bratch () (ay Breer 103, stern wat H agar fra aaret ait 8? (a) weradt veteran a Ferrer b) sears Patt ar ore (co) S-RTanTs (Zier) (a) Fiver fife # ge gafta Rast ar ‘rarer {P. 7.0.104, Which part of saffron plantis used to «108. The Haffkine Institute, Mumbai, is obtain the spice ‘saffron’? known for its work on the production of (a) Dry stigma (b) Leaves (a) plague vaccine () Fruits (b) leprosy vaccine (@) Petals {ce} tetanus vaccine 105. Release of which one of the following chemicals is responsible for causing fatigue after muscular activity in human beings? (a) polio vaccine 109. The weight of a body is 9-8N at (a) Glucuronic acid the place where g=9-8ms~. Its (®) Uric acid mass is (6) Pyruvie acid (a) zero {d) Lactic acid (b) 9-8 kg 106. Jaundice in human beings is the (10 kg result of (a) 1 (a) incomplete metabolism’ of @ ike biliverdin {b) complete metabolism of -~—«+140. Ifa light body and a heavy body have biliverdin equal momentum, then () incomplete metabolism — of (a) the lighter body has greater bilirubin kinetic energy than the heavier (4) complete metabolism of body bilirubin fb) the lighter body has lesser kinetic energy than the heavier 107. Which of the following regions/cells body in the human body is involved in controlling blood sugar level? (c) the kinetic energy of the lighter (a) Pituit nd body is equal to the kinetic ary gla energy of the heavier body (o) Islets of Langerhans (d) the kinetic energy of both the bodies are independent of (a) Spleen momentum (co) Hypothalamus Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 36104, Fae & Ad ar a-at wer were “ae! 108. aiff ete, wal fees wre % am et & fey saan fen sre 8? wera 4 om ard & fore ora sie 8? (a) wer afters @ aném we “ ) gaa () Fa ‘ae dia (teh ® (a) Stferd de 105, sgeat 4 aeta fran & ae ar Peafatsd 3a fea ow war & fret a aie 2? fe 109. & fius #1 aK 3a IA K 9.8 NR, Tel (a) REPRE Sc1 9=9-8ms~? 8) sam gemma fet (b) em or ® fe) TIRE Rae srt fa) we (d) afte ort ) 9-8kg 106, ayvat 4 vifeen feat aiomered ae 8? (c} 10 kg (a) faferafss wer ari sare (d) 1 kg (b) fafraféa ar of saree (o) faferePe a angi sare 110. af Pee eet five oft fet and fies a aren oat (a) roan an apt saree (a) ee five A afte wai, one five 107. ara wit 4 frsfefea # a ao Al nfs Sat @ siftes & Stes afiee wr eae Po wy tek fee en oat, wh Fe Anita sai 8 amt (a) Sy fe o) we fxg A afta sat, ane fos to) arte a Byer a & acer & fo) sudan (a) Ot Poet A vita Sai wae a (ay Feet wae Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 37 [P.T.0.111. An object of mass 5 kg is attached to the end of a rope. If the rope is pulled upward with an acceleration of 0-30ms~, what is the tension in the rope? (a) 30-5N () 40.5N (c} 50-SN (d) 60-5N 112. When a mass m is hung on a spring, the spring stretched by 6 em. If the loaded spring is pulled downward a little and released, then the period of vibration of the system will be (a) 0-278 (6) 0-355 () 0-498 (d) 0-645 113. A book is kept on the surface of a table. If the gravitational pull of the earth on the book is the force of action, then the force of reaction is exerted by (a) the book on the table (b) the book on the earth () the table on the book (d) the table on the earth QOEBB-J-HB/24a 38 114, Kinetic viscosity of a given liquid is the ratio of (a) the coefficient of viscosity to the density (b) the coefficient of viscosity to the surface tension () the density to the coefficient of viscosity (a) the surface tension to the coefficient of viscosity 115. When oil floats on water, the surface (a) vanishes immediately (b) decreases considerably (c) increases considerably (d) remains unaffected 116. Consider two hollow glass spheres, one containing water and the other containing mercury. Each liquid fills about one-tenth of the volume of the sphere. In zero gravity environment (@) water and mercury float freely inside the sphere (b) water forms a layer on the glass, while mercury floats , (6). mercury forms a layer on the glass, while water floats (a) water and mercury both form a layer on the glass Pe111. 5 kg 3 HI Ue ae WH wet BH ae 114, fart za A afte vara wae 2) a wah a ed a A ae 0.30ms? & mam & wa dat am, fa) wae BU OH I sa B 3a watt Fora Pefeifiaa 8 staat . am? (b) Je waa 8 ware Is HT TAT e fa) 30-5N (co) YAR Ure Bea a seANTA & (b) 40-5N (a) wr ys Bye ea aT SATA F () 50-SN {d) 60-5N 115, 9a ta ort Kem 8, Aon a OE aT 112, 92m m Zea wh ws Bin Qe TAT ) Gass Borne 2, #81 6 cm ay ord 8) af wai art fan aa A oe ater cla os 0) waar arm 8 fear omar &, & 3a Fern er sera ) wh ag are an em? (a) 0.278 a mt (b) 0-358 fe) 0-498 116, ata & @ Ghat el fran Are, fart ww A orf oft gat foe 81 wks (a) 0-648 va, tra i ae one & oro aad Rea ow we RL Ee IA TET 113, W& germ fee as oo we wal wh A (a) Wes ae wh ait Ee ae a aft germ ot yea & geet ain a wae frr-aa am fern ora, at sfafeea act arena am () WA ata om ae aT 8, Ta UR Oa @ (a) Fare arm As Woe U yA () Ire Ba TH TA TAT &, TAR orf act (o) a a ese @ wi st we ert ata KE at (a) Aa are ge é Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 39 [P.7.0.117. In the relation a = Bt +, @ and Aare measured in metre (m) and t is measured in second (s). The SI unit of B must be (a) m (b) ms fo) s @ ms? 118. An object is kept 5.cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. What will be the nature of the image? (a) Virtual, not magnified (&) Virtual, magnified (c) Real, not magnified (d) Real, magnified 119. The density of cast iron having specific gravity 7-20 is (a) 7-20 kg/m? (2) 720 kg/m? (c) 72 kg/m? (@) 7200 kg/m? Q-OEBB-J-HB/24a 120. What is the telescope designed to 121, search for earth-size planets in the nearby region of our galaxy, termed as? (a) Hubble telescope () Kepler telescope (c) Copernicus telescope (@) Newton telescope <> 1> A current J in a lamp varies with voltage V as shown in the figure given above. Which one of the following is the variation of power P with current 1? « $ T> ) ; T> fo z ( 1? (a aN i>117. a= Be+d were Ao ste A wT aha Gy A 120. ward sraerin & aaa Bat F ges ven C3 Bers (6) Hara sre A BAT ST sre % aaa aa A as & fy wae FT a? saftrattn Gets aA aa wea #? fg m (@) wae ) Rey Oo) ms fo) Paar yaa ss (4) 7IE ate (@) ms! 121. n v| 118. feet ay A 15 cm shea ef aA saat car & wR 5 cm | Ta TAT BAT ad aa ea eT gm? ee dey Hore teem Vs aE-TE fafa at 8, der oe far | Rear (a) arse, satin = var 81 Paria # & stem ee ae 7 Smee afte Pa hada 8? by swat, oatifa @ fy (co) ARs, anata ae (aj areas, saraftier wh / 119. 7-20 afte wa aa cad att a waa wT 8? . . (c] q (@) 7:20 kg/m? 1 (6) 720 kg/m? I> T> 4 (©) 72 kg/m? @ pi \ (4) 7200 kg/m? id Q-OFBB-J-HB/24A, 41 [P.T.0.122, Net charge in a current-carrying conductor is (a) always positive fb) always negative (c) zero (@)_ either positive or negative 123. The audible frequency range of a human ear is (@) 20 hertz to 200 hertz (6) 2 hertz to 20 hertz ()_ 200 hertz to 2000 hertz {d) 20 hertz to 20000 hertz 124. Which one of the following is the resistance that must be placed parallel with 12 resistance to obtain a combined resistance of 40? (aj 22 @ 49 () 62 (dq) 82 Q-OFBB-J-HB/24A 42 125. An electric iron of resistance 202 takes a current of SA. The heat developed in joules in 30s is (a) 5 kJ (b) 10 ks () 15 ks (a) 20 kJ 126. A house, served by a 220 V supply line, is protected by a 9A fuse. What is the maximum number of 60 watt bulbs that can be turned on in parallel? (ay 11 (b) 22 () 33 (da) 44 127. An object is placed at a distance of 12cm from a convex lens on its principal axis and a virtual image of certain size is formed. If the object is moved further’ 8 cm away from the lens, a real image of the same size as that of the virtual image is formed. Which one of the following is the focal length of the lens? (a) 15 cm (b) 16 cm fo) 18 cm {a} 20 cm122, UH aes #, fara ur waits 2, 32 af 125. 209 sfatu A wm faq ge SA A wie? um adi 21 30s 8 sai frafia son (ae 8) Pereet ert? (a) a es fa) 5k ) eta FOOTE (b) 10 ks oe fe) 15 ks (@) 20 Ks (@) Fa eres a aor 126, 220 V sem oe a a WH MOA SH ap & dia 1 60 w & often fir 123, ara sal om oor stra ft afte Prem 7 ‘aca aiiat H ofa fing ot wah 4? (a) 20 8 200 we (@ 11 () 28a 8 20 eee @) 22 fc) 33, (c) 200 8a & 2000 ea (a) 44 {d) 20 #%@ 20000 ea 127. FQ A saa aH Ge aa Tw l2em A Zt Kw mH 8 ok HH 124. 40 dg sftdu WA & fee frafefea # ‘ffia ona a some wfafara saat 21 2 fea ue afte #129 wate a aeq a AaB sit 8 cm | fax ware ven a sree? vam &, Al srr sfafees & @ ara ar we areas sire ara 81 fetter fa) 22 42 shi ww oa A thre at? (a) 15 cm ) 42 (b) 16cm oes fe) 18cm (4) 8a (a) 200m Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A, 43 [P. 7.0.EE T~C~S~S*S 128. Different objects at _—_ different distances are seen by the eye. The parameter that remains constant is (a) the focal length of the eye lens {b) the object distance from the eye lens (c) the radii of curvature of the eye lens (d) the image distance from the eye lens 129. A spring has length 1’ and spring constant ‘k’, It is cut into two pieces of lengths 1; and 1p such that 1, =nl3. The force constant of the spring of length 1; is (a) k(l+n) (b) k (ce) k/(n+}) (a) k[(a+1)/n} 130. A vessel contains oil of density 0-8 gm/em® over mercury of density 13-6 gm/cm*. A homoge- neous sphere floats with half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in CGS unit is (a) 3-3 (b) 6-4 (9 72 (d) 12-8 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 44 131. Water flows out of the hole of a bucket and follows a parabolic path. If the bucket falls freely under gravity, the water flow (ignoring air resistance} (a) follows a straight-line path relative to the falling bucket (b) follows a parabolic path relative to the falling bucket (c) stops (d) decreases but continues to flow 132. 1 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1gm of steam at 100°C. After thermal equilibrium, the temper- ature of the mixture is (a) 0°c (6) 50°C () 80°C (a) 100°C 183. Which one of the following elements exists in liquid state at room temperature? . (a) Mercury (b) Lead () Sodium (4) Calcium 134. Aluminium is more reactive than iron but aluminium is less easily corroded than iron, because (a) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer (} it is a noble metal () iron undergoes reaction easily with water (d) iron forms ions12s, sia fifa aqet at fata afl w ta ee BL arated ve aren ara ata 8? (a) aha aa ht tea ath () siftta aa 8 weg A et (co) siftta aa A apen-fisane (a) aia aa 8 viafers A eet 129, UH aarh A crag 7 otk aart fais 4c 21 Se 1, ST Ly TE H A al 4 ar vat afm 1, = nl; 1, ward wert a aet-feerias a 8? fa) k(l+n) &) () k/fa+y) (@) kia+I/n} 130. U& 347 4 13-6gm/cm® we % IE % FR O-8gm/em? wea w Aa 21 we wart Wear a sta aT aT fee one A site aaa omer fea Fa fafa fire art 1 Cas Haat # te & veel a area eT 8? (a) 3-3 (b) 6-4 () 7-2 (a) 12-8 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A Fn 131. aed & Be a fre oA wacfis we am @1 af aed qece & onda ga wT 2 fret &, a ooh ar were (arg afte A Ren aa |) fa) Pred aed & wile tate ey Fa (6) Pret area % area oaerfes ge a (we (a) aH a arom Alaa se HT. 132. 0 °C % 1.gm @& #1 100 °C & 1 gm am & aa fier fen ara 81 ara BRR ae fhe a are aT eT? (a) °c (6) 50°C () 80°C (d) 100°C 133. fafafta wat 48 sta-a Ge T aT we wa sree A wea 87 fa) WE (&) ter () tifsan fay fe 134, dgfifan sie & orf sfifearetia ger 2 afr tga cite A ate ar orartt & eianfta eat 8, ait (a) Staite Us wat aise Ha aT eae (b) Wem apE TGR () te srart & ont & fee aT 2 (4) ate ora ware B [P.T.0.135. According to which one of the following laws it is indicated that when two or more gases react with one another, their volumes bear a simple ratio? (a) Law of mass action (b) Law of multiple proportions (c) Law of reciprocal proportions (dj Law of combining volumes 136. Equal quantities (50 ml) of the following four samples of water are placed in four beakers of 100 ml capacity. Their boiling points are determined accurately using the same thermometer. Which sample of water will have the lowermost boiling point as compared to other three samples? (a) Distilled water (6) Bottled mineral water (co) Well water (a) Seawater 137. Dry ice is used for making cold-baths in laboratories by mixing with volatile organic solvents. Identify the form of dry ice from the following (a) Gaseous carbon dioxide () Liquid carbon dioxide (6) Solid carbon dioxide (@) Solid hydrogen oxide Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 46 138. Acid turns blue litmus red and base turns red litmus blue. A student tested a liquid with a red litmus paper which remained red with no change. This shows that the liquid (a) is not a base (6) is not an acid () is neither an acid nor a base (a) must be pure water 139. Arrange the following bases in increasing order of their basic strength : 1. Sodium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide 3. Aluminium hydroxide 4. Ammonium hydroxide Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 4-2-1-3 (ob) 4-1-2-3 () 43-21 (a) 1-2-3-4138, finfafta*adt 2 2 fea we fier a % ae afd aa @ RH ae A aT afte 98 wai-gt @ afer aelt @, a FS SA Ue Be TTA Ft Ba #7 (@) Fenn arid after an Fan () Ara ga a Fea () Wr agnd a fam (a) ash sna an Peo 136, WAR AM (50 ml) % aa % Prefers KA 100 mi efter sae att A eet 7a) Sh eeaist a wwe St aa aan Free fara Ten ae a aa A ater WW we Bag a eerie aaa em? fa) TAR a (o) Aare ahs et () Hse” (@) aK wa 137, witrnens F xitagus aA 2g aera edits forat 8 fifa a & faq ae ab oar oer Para rary Fetter aa abd or a eee (@) tha ada sRaieags (b) Fa aT SrgsH ARTES, fo) dra era eRsrieeTes (a) de wegen silanes Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 47 138, are fet fergva a cet Fee & she aTER “ares rere ten aa Bes Prema 9 We xa Hi oe fergna-aa & herr fea, Hh sat ang acona vel ar ae cater 8 fe ae ma (a) ae TET (b) ra TAR (@) AHhawra saad ae (d) Ya wa & ee fey 139, frafafaa ant a a ane weer atin ae omafer Aifarg : 1, aifeam eigghags Soffer ergginegs Rafitian eagiemes corer erg aeres, - 2 bp aR Re omg ge ww a a eT ee: (a) 42-13 (6) 4-1-2-3 (43-21 (d) 1-2-3-4 [P.T.0.ler the following statements : 1, Soap cannot be used in acidic water. 2. Tonic part of a soap is —COO™.Nat. 3. Soap dissolves in water faster than detergent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (o) 2 and 3 (3 only (a) 1 only 141, Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-l (Materia) A. Cement B. Glass C. Ink List-ll (Important Ingredient) 1. Sodium salt of fatty acids 2. Carbon black 3, Silica in the form of quartz 4, Aluminates and silicates of calcium: D. Soap Code : @ a 4 @) A 1 (Aa aa vo OW YD OD e090 80 © Oo ro aD FO KD Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 48 142. The concentration fof hydrochloric acid in a given solution is 10° M. What is the value of pH for this solution? (7 () >7 but not 14 () <7 (a) 14 143. Diamond is a (a) good conductor and soft (b) non-conductor and soft (@) non-conductor and hard (a) good conductor and hard 144. Consider the following statements regarding aluminium paint : 1. Itis fairly good heat-resistant. 2. It possesses good electrical resistance. 3. It cannot be used for hot water Pipe. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? fa) land3 (b) 1 only () Land 2 (da) 2and3140, Prafaftra wert 1 fran aifire : 1. Brg a oncfta se aac at a Waal 2. Wee a aA AT —COO™.Nat a 3. amante (Race) A ote ag va A aed gam 21 sade wert 3 8 ata-a/a wet 8/8? (a) 132 ) 29K 3 () Faa3 (a) Faw 1 141, GH at qu a wien Fie sik ape & AS Re me ae a a we oe afi: aeti-r qn (warel) (yea tae) A die 1. aan snail gr aan am B. aia 2. anda as c. ert 3. eafte wa # fern D. aIga 4. fee & faferme aft daft Re: @aA Bc D 4 3 2 1 ®) A BoC D 1 2 3 4 A B CD 1 3 2 4 @a B Cc D 4 2 3 1 Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 142, ta 4 aegis ora A aT 10-8 M 21 ga aie AI pH AH aT ez? (a 7 (b) > 7 afer 14 at () <7 (a) 14 143. daz (a) Aare 3h ay (bo) sree Shy fo) srarere ik ER (a) Gaver shh wate 144, tgfifad te 8 wate Refaterr ert x fran Ae : 1, Fe are oreo He wists 81 2. wa srr fgg wtdy dat 81 3. ear et at ogg & fee sen wel aaa eds weet 8 & stem ae 8/8? fa) 133 (b) AG () 132 f@ 233 49 [P.7.0.145, Following statements are made in connection with carbon dioxide (Co,) : 1. Cp is a poisonous gas. 2. COp is an acidic oxide. 3. CO, tums limewater milky. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? fa) (b) (@ 1 and 2 2and 3 3 only Land 3 146. Which of the following is the best example of the law of conservation of mass? (a). When 12gm of carbon is heated in vacuum, there is no change in mass (b) Weight of platinum wire is the same before and after heating (c) A sample of air increases in volume when heated at constant pressure but mass remains unchanged (a) 12 gm of carbon combines with 32 gm of oxygen to give 44 gm of carbon dioxide 147. Which one of the following is not a mixture? (a) @) ic) fa) Air Mereury Milk Cement Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 50 Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : (@) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (©) Ais true but R is false (a) Ais false but R is true Assertion (A) : The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament during the American War of Independence. Reason (R) : ‘The Americans had no representa- tion in the British Parliament. (b) 148. 149. Assertion (A) : There was a country-wide agitation against the Simon Commission. Reason (R) : The members of the Simon Commission discontinued their work in face of the country-wide agitation. Assertion (A) : On a wet floor of a bathroom, a small circular area around a pinch of foam appears to be dry. Reason {R) : Soap molecules reduce surface tension and increase surface area of the thin layer of water on the wet floor. 150.145, art sRaitRS (CO,) 2 WZ RK Fs woo HS ARQ TEE 1. COp GH Tete He 81 2. COn wr sree sites 81 3. CO, $F art a aftra a Am 21 sade wert 4 8 ata-a/8 wet 0/8? fa) 13% 2 ) 233 (ce) *ras (a) 13m 3 146. Poafefaa 4 8 aaa deft dem few ar Sa SaTETT 8? (a) #12 gm erda wh Rafa feat A aa fen 9, a xem H aac Fai ten (o) fea are a ass TT 3% EM she are Haar weet fo) Rn wa A awe ue ag wel aT aE ag win 2, afer x aatatea wea 8 (@) 12gm #1 32 gm ateibe @ wmf dat 44 gm a ‘aetaengs att & 147. Reaftiftra 4 8 staan we fie wet 8? (@ 7a @) mm ( (a) ate Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 51 Frade: Prafeitad at (3) west FA ame Fs HS A “am (A) cer et BL “are (RY’ HET TAT AL “Shit aeedt a araurfiggas ater ae sae 3 Sac Re BR aE A RETA a gig : 148, 149, 180. Re: fa) A att R at wa %, sR, A aT ‘wel eater & () AMR at, TAR, AT ad cable TEI & () AWA, WAR Tae (a) ATG R, WERE err (A) : arte adam tae & ae srattfeett A fate dag are aitaia at ya a eat Pea THT (R) : omttfinat ar fafeer tia Hafan sat om oF (A) : age ater & fee teem orate eu TT (R) : wen aie & weet A rei carter @t Rak AE STAT HH ae feat ery (A): armen & shoal ve 3 yee aT 25 ard ate ar gate Oa gen we er a ROT (RY: Wea & ay it oe eae A oat wa % ye wa wu 2a Fo Ww Qaaa Haat 8 81 [P. 7.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 52SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 53 [P. 7.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Q-OEBBJ-HB/24A 84SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ae Q-OEBB-J-HB/24A 55 Js—1"33"Wa we sree ag darn greta Ge wT HET WIE Ta THT Git aft. : Q-OEBB-J-HB udtert yferat saa wadem 106013 uttarot afeerent area aera Ute waa : dove ait ata fire quite : 600 ayia 1. atten area 3 ea are, soe ga Uta Bean A agar seer ax a A Ga az fie oT, wT WRI BHT YE strat wear amis a wi ale ten &, at ga wel Ther gferaT @ aaa wiferel 2. seen # ae ears We ta Yea SH A, B, Cm D anftatt ew we 8 gzag AM ude yar we ae Ree ates A ont aT agri fram Roti gftear afte go a Rr 4. 3 whe Year 7 150 wea (set) @ uri A ere e: weT-A ait WB) a-B 4 wets serie fet ait atte Set a ow Ri zeke wei Fa rege (ser) Re me Bi HA EM A HS, fe Te SALUT Oe Hee AT UTA Hl aE oral Re aw sw 8 ites eget we 8, at a Me wT Sife at Sh ome eaten a) weber wenier & fre Bere eH A sea GAB 5. araat om awh eget sre @ fe Ae SHS TF aia aA EI Tas Re me AEs ef 6. ah weit & aim war &1 7. 8 wea oe de yr & Aa RT A weyTE se we oii OT TE a, oat wae swan 8 wre Ate age a gee Fo rw sas HA EL 8, ony ord aM segedt aH sees Hae are aan aden ee ot dra Se aAT oes wa 3) aval ae ara Gem year a SA AA GA 81 9. eet amr & fa was ote oferan & ara Fe 10. Tera sat & fore ave : megfts wer-aat f sefigere are fe me rem Sut & fore aos fat aE (i) webs wer fore an Safes oer G1 setae are wets wer Pre fq me GH Te sat fore we AY rae faq my aint ar uw-ferg (0-33) we & oy A wer TET! (ii) aR Se aehean TH @ aaftre see Sr 8, A ea rere Ter BET rE, Bah Re We sed A a ew Se eT Ben 8, foc oA ger wer & fee seghrgae se aE a ws fee aT (Gi) AR seseare wre AE wer we FAH ear ren Rafa, gestae arr Fae A fee aren &, at ge wea re aig aus adi fea se Wa we areal ae dao gfe Glert wl a Set Ty wa TH FT Gt nglish version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Booklet. 2 Note :