1.The interdisciplinary study of how humanity affects other organisms and the abiotic environment is termed: A. ecology. B. sociology.

C. political science. D. risk analysis. E. environmental science.

2. Pollution can be defined as: A. any alteration of the physical environment that harms the health or survival of humans and other living organisms. B. the reconstruction of natural habitats. C. over-harvesting plants and animals for human consumption. D. any chemical that binds to an organism's endocrine receptors. E. None of the above

3. The ability of the environment to function indefinitely without declining from the stresses imposed by human activities is called: A. ecology. B. environmental sustainability. C. natural balance. D. synergism. E. environmental science. 4. Examples of non-sustainable human activities or behaviors include: A. green architecture. B. attempts to limit human population growth. C. careful use of renewable resources. D. use of nonrenewable resources as if they were present in unlimited quantities. E. risk analysis.

5. The central problem of environmental science that links all other problems together is that: A. we are using up our supplies of fossil fuels. B. we are polluting the environment.

C. we are using too much fresh water. D. human numbers continue to grow. E. we are depleting needed resources.

6.

? is considered by many to be the number one environmental problem because is aggravates or adds to the other problems. A. Air pollution B. Global warming C. Water pollution D. Human population growth E. Ozone depletion

7. An organism accidentally introduced into the Great Lakes in the mid-1980s that has caused extensive damage is the: A. razor clam. B. comb jelly. C. stickleback fish. D. zebra mussel. E. snapping turtle. 8. Introduction of exotic species to new aquatic habitats often occurs via: A. discharge of ballast water. B. aquaculture. C. import of marine and freshwater species for consumption. D. export of marine and freshwater species for consumption. E. discharge of treated sewage into natural bodies of water.

9. Destruction of tropical rain forests may: A. contribute to global warming. B. result in streams clogged with sediment.

C. limit the quantity and quality of drinking water. D. hasten the decline of biodiversity. E. All of the above

10. Every scientific experiment involves: A. formulation of a theory based on the results. B. testing all of the variables that might be of interest. C. isolating the effect of a single variable. D. proving the proposed hypothesis. E. doing any given experiment only once, since repetition only wastes time and materials. 11. The scientific term for the "educated guess" that explains why the observations occurred as they did, is known as a (an): A) theory. B) conclusion. C) hypothesis. D) experiment. E) assessment.

Use the following scenario to answer the following two questions. A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because it hasn't yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment: Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant. Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m x 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of the rare plant. 12. In this experiment, Site 2 is your: A. variable.

B. control. C. replication. D. hypothesis. E. treatment. 13. Which of the following represents the hypothesis that you are testing with this experiment? A. Kudzu will eventually grow on the west side of the park. B. Kudzu will kill off the trees in the preserve by strangling them. C. Kudzu should be removed from the preserve because it is killing the rare plant. D. Kudzu is negatively affecting populations of the rare plant in the preserve. E. None of the above is an appropriate hypothesis for your study.

14. Which of the following is an abiotic factor? A. living space B. disease organisms C. photosynthesis D. producers 15. The abiotic environment includes a variety of factors including: A. carnivores. B. sunlight. C. primary producers. D. decomposers. E. consumers. 16. The biotic environment includes a variety of components including: A. carnivores. B. protozoa. C. primary producers. D. decomposers. E. All of the above 17. A species is: A. organisms that live together.

B. organisms that live in the same area at the same time. C. a group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another. D. all of the organisms that live together in an area, plus the physical environment that they live in. E. all organisms of a similar type, regardless of their distribution or location. 18. Which of the following series is organized according to the levels of biological organization used by ecologists? A. population -> ecosystem -> community B. species -> community -> abiotic factors C. species -> ecosystem-> population D. population -> community -> biotic factors E. population -> community -> ecosystem

19. An ecosystem can be characterized as: A. populations + community. B. all species, population, and community interactions for organisms in a given area. C. the abiotic components of the environment. D. all of the biological interactions, plus interactions between the biotic and abiotic environment. E. interactions between physical processes and the abiotic environment in which organisms live. 20. All of the following are components of the hydrosphere EXCEPT: A. sea ice. B. tropical rain storms. C. soil. D. hail. E. rivers. 21. The chemical energy stored in a plant is an example of: A. kinetic energy. B. nuclear energy. C. solar energy. D. potential energy.

E. radiant energy. 22. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that: A. energy can be created or destroyed by physical processes. B. entropy always increases. C. energy cannot be created or destroyed. D. the organization of the universe is steadily increasing. E. energy transfer between organisms is highly inefficient and much energy is lost. 23. Entropy is a measure of: A. the amount of energy in a system. B. the amount of work done. C. the disorder in a system. D. the efficiency of a system. E. 24. Energy: A. recycles through an ecosystem. B. is used over and over again. C. flows in only one direction through an ecosystem. D. tends to be concentrated by living organisms. E. is efficiently transferred between trophic levels. 25. Light is the energy source for which process? A. respiration B. photosynthesis C. glycolysis D. mitochondria E. chemical productivity in the deep sea 26. The correct, chemically balanced equation for photosynthesis is: A. 12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY ----> C6H12O6 + 12O2. B. 6CO2 + 12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY ----> C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2. the rate of energy use in a system.

C. 12O + C6H12O6 + 6H2O ----> 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGY. D. 12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O ----> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. E. 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O ----> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. 27. Which of the following organisms are capable of cell respiration? A. green plants B. bacteria C. carnivores D. algae E. All of the above

28. The correct, chemically balanced equation for cell respiration is: A. 12CO2 + 6H2O + RADIANT ENERGY ----> C6H12O6 + 12O2. B. 6CO2 +12H2O + RADIANT ENERGY ----> C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2. C. C6H12O6 + 12 H2O ----> 6CO2 +12H2O + ENERGY. D. 12O2 + C6H12O6 + 12H2O ----> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY. E. 6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O ----> 6CO2 + 12H2O + ENERGY.

29. Which of the following does NOT represent a form of energy that can be found in an ecosystem? A. heat B. sunlight C. work, such as tissue repair D. potential energy in the form of chemical bonds E. None of the above, all are forms of energy that can be found in an ecosystem 30. The amount of energy passed from one trophic level to the next is approximately: A. 1%.

B. 10%. C. 25%. D. 50%. E. 75%. 31. Which of the following is NOT a product of cell respiration? A. carbon dioxide B. water C. sugar D. energy E. A and B 32. Which of these organisms does NOT carry on photosynthesis? A. pine B. moss C. mushroom D. cactus E. grass

33. Which of the following is a good example of a producer? A. nutrient-rich water B. a rabbit C. an alga D. a fungus 34. A secondary consumer would eat: A. tertiary consumers. B. fungi. C. bacteria. D. herbivores. E. lions. 35. A primary consumer would eat: A. secondary consumers. B. plants.

C. bacteria. D. herbivores. E. rabbits. 36. All of the following refer to primary consumers EXCEPT: A. carnivore. B. consumers that eat autotrophs. C. rabbits. D. herbivores. E. second trophic level. 37. Decomposers provide mineral nutrients for: A. consumers. B. producers. C. the second trophic level. D. the third trophic level. E. omnivores 38. Detritivores consume: A. leaf litter. B. animal flesh. C. fungi. D. both plants and insects. E. only microorganisms. 39. Each level or "link" in a food chain or a food web is called: A. a trophic level. B. a consumer. C. an energy flow unit. D. an equivalent. E. entropy. 40. In a pyramid of numbers, the largest number of organisms would typically be found: A. at the highest end of the food chain, with each lower trophic level occupied by fewer organisms.

B. at the highest end of the food chain, with each lower trophic level having the same number of organisms. C. at the lowest end of the food chain, with each successive trophic level occupied by fewer organisms. D. at the lowest end of the food chain, with each successive trophic level having the same number of organisms. E. None of the above 41. In a pyramid of energy, the lowest quantity of energy ( kcal per m2), would be found in the: A. producers. B. primary consumers. C. secondary consumers. D. tertiary consumers. E. herbivores.

42. Net primary productivity represents: A. plant growth per unit area per unit time. B. energy per unit area per unit time. C. the energy available to herbivores. D. amount of biomass found in excess of that broken down by a plant's cell respiration. E. All of the above 43 Keystone species: A. are only found in aquatic habitats. B. are always found at the top of the food chain. C. are usually not the most abundant species in the ecosystem. D. are vital to the geology and soil balance of an entire ecosystem. E. are typically symbiotic. 44. If a keystone species disappears from an ecosystem: A. populations of other species may increase dramatically. B. populations of other species may decrease dramatically. C. only their common prey will be affected.

D. only their typical predator will be affected. E. A and B 45. Which of the following is an example of a keystone species? A. sea urchins B. bats C. kelp D. deer

46. Based on the figure below, as the structural complexity of the vegetation decreases, species diversity: A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains relatively stable. D. exponentially oscillates. E. displays geometric growth.

47.Predation can be defined as: A. one animal consuming another animal. B. one organism consuming another organism, which may be a plant or animal. C. organisms living together. D. a relationship where one organism benefits (the predator) and the other is adversely affected (the prey). E. a relationship that only exerts selective (evolutionary) force on the prey.

48. The interdependent evolution of two interacting species is known as: A. natural selection. B. ecology. C. coevolution. D. mutualism. 49. Which of the following traits is NOT a defense used by plants against herbivores? A. assembling in groups B. toxins C. spines D. thick wax layer E. protective chemicals

50. Which of the following defines a mutualistic relationship? A. a close interrelationship where both species benefit B. a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is not affected C. a close interrelationship where one species benefits and the other is adversely affected D. an intimate relationship between members of two or more species E. a predator-prey relationship 51. The relationship between legumes (such as peas and beans) and nitrogen-fixing bacteria is: A. parasitic. B. mutualistic. C. commensalistic. D. epiphytic. E. predatory.

52. The relationship between a tick and a dog is an example of: A. parasitism. B. mutualism. C. commensalism. D. an epiphytic organism and its host. E. predation. 53. Competition occurs when: A. one organism, the predator, attempts to consume another , the prey. B. two species have similar niches but occur in different habitats. C. two or more individuals attempt to use an essential common resource. D. two or more species have an ecological relationship. E. symbiotic organisms interact. 54. Intraspecific competition: A. is less intense than other forms of competition. B. occurs between individuals of two different species. C. occurs between individuals of the same species. D. occurs within a community but not within an ecosystem. F. describes the effect of a parasite on its host.

55. The figure below provides support for which of the following processes? A. secondary succession B. competitive exclusion C. coevolution D. mutualism E. resource partitioning

56. An organism's role, or lifestyle, in the ecosystem is its: A. habitat. B. trophic level. C. symbiotic relationship. D. ecological niche. E. limiting factor. 57. The availability of which of the following is an example of a limiting factor? A. water B. nitrogen content in the soil C. nesting space D. sunlight E. All of the above 58. The most diverse ecosystem in the world is the: A. temperate forest. B. tropical rain forest. C. temperate grassland. D. desert. E. tundra. 59. Which of the following is an area where primary succession would occur? A. a sand dune along a lake shore B. an area that has been clearcut C. an area that was recently burned D. an abandoned field E. an area cleared by a tornado 60. Which of the following organisms would be first to colonize in primary succession on bare rock? A. grass B. lichens C. herbs D. shrubs

E. trees 61. Secondary succession would occur on: A. a recently formed volcanic island. B. rock scraped free by glaciers. C. an abandoned field. D. concrete. E. a sand dune 62. In the carbon cycle, carbon can be found in: A. limestone, animals, and plants. B. oil, bicarbonate, and sugar. C. carbon dioxide and coal. D. the atmosphere. E. All of the above 63. What is the first step in the nitrogen cycle, in which gaseous nitrogen is converted into ammonia? A. nitrification B. ammonification C. assimilation D. denitrification E. nitrogen fixation

64. What part of the nitrogen cycle deals with the conversion of nitrogen in waste products or dead organisms into ammonia? A. nitrification B. ammonification C. assimilation D. denitrification E. nitrogen fixation 65. The process where some bacteria remove nitrate from the soil by converting it to nitrogen gas

is: A. nitrification. B. ammonification. C. assimilation. D. denitrification. E. nitrogen fixation. 66. The step in the nitrogen cycle where bacteria convert ammonia (NH3) to nitrate (NO3-) is: A. nitrification. B. ammonification. C. assimilation. D. denitrification. E. nitrogen fixation. 67. The step in the nitrogen cycle where plants take up nitrate and use it to make biological molecules is: A. nitrification. B. ammonification. C. assimilation. D. denitrification. E. nitrogen fixation.

68. The phosphorus cycle differs from the carbon cycle in that: A. there is little or no human impact on the phosphorus cycle. B. phosphorus is not a critical component of living organisms. C. the hydrosphere contributes to part of the phosphorus cycle. D. the atmosphere does not contribute to part of the phosphorus cycle. E. plants play a role in the carbon cycle, but have no role in the phosphorus cycle. 69. One human impact on the phosphorus cycle occurs through: A. burning of fossil fuels. B. the use of fertilizers. C. the greenhouse effect.

D. global warming. E. depletion of the ozone layer.

70. Which of the following processes is/are NOT involved in the hydrologic cycle? A. transpiration B. precipitation C. evaporation D. nitrification E. A and D 71. Water that seeps downward through the soil and rock: A. spends a few years underground and then returns to the surface. B. is no longer part of the hydrologic cycle. C. becomes groundwater. D. is part of the process known as transpiration. E. must move into the ocean before returning to the surface. 72. Transpiration occurs in: A. oceans. B. groundwater. C. the atmosphere. D. animals. E. terrestrial plants.

73. The primary reason we have seasons is because of the: A. Earth's rotation. B. Earth's orbit. C. Earth's tilt on its axis. D. density of the Earth's atmosphere. E. layers of the Earth's atmosphere.

74 . Which of the following does NOT apply to the tundra biome? A. average precipitation of 75 to 125 cm (30 to 50 in) per year

B. permafrost C. nutrient-poor soils D. little organic matter E. long, harsh winters and short cool summers

75 The biome most suitable for the development of farmland is: A. taiga. B. tropical rain forest C. temperate grassland. D. chaparral. E. tundra.

76. The biomes known for having herds of grazing animals are: A. temperate grassland and temperate deciduous forest. B. temperate grassland and savanna. C. temperate deciduous forest and boreal forest. D. boreal forest and temperate grassland. E. savanna and tropical rain forest. 77. Which of the following biomes has the highest biodiversity? A. temperate deciduous forest B. savanna C. taiga D. tropical rain forest E. tropical desert 78. Tropical rain forests: A. are typically composed of at least five distinct layers, or stories, of vegetation. B. are found in areas with high accumulations of organic material in the soil. C. occur in areas with ancient, mineral-poor soil. D. are known for being only moderately productive.

E. are known for having moderate levels of biodiversity. 79. Which of the following does NOT apply to a freshwater wetland? A. anaerobic conditions B. accumulated organic material C. water-tolerant vegetation D. increased potential for flooding E. helps to purify groundwater

80 .The movement of individuals out of a population is best termed: A. migration. B. emigration. C. immigration. D. zero population growth. E. carrying capacity.

81. The graph below would best be described as: A. an S shaped curve. B. a J shaped curve. C. being characteristic of exponential growth. D. being characteristic of arithmetic growth. E. B and C

82. Populations that are growing at their biotic potential: A. exhibit arithmetic growth. B. exhibit exponential growth. C. double population size every year. D. mutate rapidly. E. have no impact on their environment. 83. Factors that limit population size are called: A. biotic potential. B. environmental resistance. C. survival of the fittest. D. density dependent. E. carrying capacity. 84. When the carrying capacity of a population is exceeded, the population will normally: A. increase at a slower rate. B. decrease slowly to carrying capacity. C. crash. D. stabilize at that level. E. decrease to, or below, the carrying capacity. 85. At which point on the graph is the population increasing most rapidly? A. Point A B. Point B C. Point C D. Point D E. Cannot be determined from this graph

86. Using the graph above, identify the point that indicates the carrying capacity for this population. A. Point A B. Point B C. Point D D. None of the above 87. Which of the following features is typical of K-selected species? A. early maturity B. small body size C. few offspring per reproductive event D. short life span E. no parental care invested in the offspring 88. Which of these is NOT an example of a density-dependent factor? A. competition B. disease C. climate D. accumulation of body wastes E. None of the above, all are examples of density-dependent factors 89. Which of the following is NOT true of highly developed countries? A. a list would include Japan, Australia, and Germany B. have high fertility rates C. have very low infant mortality rates D. have longer life expectancies than in less developed countries E. have low rates of population growth

90. The following picture represents the age structure diagram of: A. a highly developed country. B. a moderately developed country. C. a developing country. D. the transition stage. E. the preindustrial state.

91. Which of the following factors affects the total fertility rate for human populations today? A. availability of family planning services B. cultural and religious traditions C. governmental policies D. marriage age E. All of the above

92. Increasing education results in a decrease in total fertility, primarily by: A. accelerating marriage age. B. delaying the age at which women have their first child. C. decreasing access to contraceptives. D. leading to a greater understanding of traditional and religious beliefs. E. decreasing the economic standing of childless individuals. 93. Which of the following does NOT apply to family planning measures used now or in the past in China? A. compulsory sterilization of fathers after males are born B. penalties and fines for a second child C. many newborn girls abandoned or killed D. abortion is common when the woman is pregnant with a second child E. education and publicity problems 94. Groundwater that is recharged by surface water directly above is known as a(an): A. artesian aquifer. B. confined aquifer.

C. unconfined aquifer. D. recharged aquifer. E. estuary. 95. The effects of flooding are more destructive today than in the past because: A. the use of levees has been determined to be an unsound engineering practice. B. retaining walls are too expensive to build in all of the appropriate locations. C. buildings are constructed on flood plains. D. people of ancient civilizations did not settle in flood plain areas. E. A and C

96. The largest groundwater deposit in the world is the: A. Great Lakes Aquifer. B. Great Basin Aquifer. C. Rocky Mountain Aquifer. D. Ogallala Aquifer. E. Hell Creek Aquifer. 97. One of the best ways to conserve the amount of water used by agriculture is the process of: A. diversion canals. B. timers on sprinklers. C. lining irrigation canals. D. trickle irrigation. E. center-pivot irrigation. 98. Conventional wastewater treatment (primary and secondary treatment) does NOT remove which of the following pollutants from wastewater? A. silt B. disease-causing agents C. phosphorus

D. dissolved organic wastes E. sludge 99. One major problem with sewage is that it adds which of the following to water? A. sodium chloride B. carbon dioxide C. nitrogen and phosphorus D. potassium and nitrogen E. potassium and phosphorus 100. Which of the following is used to test for the presence of sewage-contaminated water? A. BOD B. artificial eutrophication C. bioremediation D. enrichment * E. fecal coliform test 101 Given the data in the graph below, at what approximate distance downstream from the spill will a fish kill be MOST likely? A. B. D. 0 km 5 km 90 km

C. 30 km E. 120 km

102. Given the data in the graph above, at what approximate distance downstream from the spill does the dissolved oxygen level recover to its original, pre-oil level?

A. 15 km B. 30 km C. 60 km D. 90 km E. 120 km 103. Sediment pollution is caused by: A. erosion. B. disease-causing agents. C. fertilizers. D. toxic compounds. E. heated water. 104. Turbidity: A. is caused by toxic chemicals. B. impairs the ability of producers to photosynthesize. C. causes eutrophication. D. lowers the water temperature. E. increases light penetration. 105. Turbidity: A. is caused by suspended particles. B. clogs gills of fish. C. reduces light penetration into the water. D. settles out and fills waterways. E. All of the above 106. Thermal pollution: A. increases the amount of dissolved oxygen. B. decreases the amount of dissolved oxygen. C. has little effect on smaller aquatic organisms. D. greatly increases turbidity. E. is caused by agricultural practices.

107. Use the table below to determine which of the following water temperatures will have the greatest quantity of dissolved oxygen available to aquatic animals. A. 10 C B. 20 C C. 25 C D. 30 C E. 40 C

Temperatur e (C) 0 10 20 25 30 35 40

Dissolved Oxygen (g/L) 0.0141 0.0109 0.0092 0.0083 0.0077 0.0070 0.0065

108. Eutrophication: A. lessens biodiversity. B. lowers the dissolved oxygen content of the water. C. is caused by nutrient enrichment. D. results in increased photosynthetic productivity. E. All of the above 109. Pollution that is discharged into the environment through pipes, sewers, or ditches is called: A. polluted runoff. B. point source pollution. C. nonpoint source pollution. D. specific discharge. E. effluent runoff. 110. Which of the following is NOT an example of a nonpoint source of pollution? A. agricultural runoff B. erosion from logging operations C. acid mine drainage D. sewage treatment plant effluent E. construction sediment 111. Which of the following nonpoint source pollutants is incorrectly matched with an effect? A. soil erosion from fields, sediment pollution B. animal waste, water enrichment C. plant residues, low BOD D. fertilizer runoff, water enrichment E. chemical pesticides, health issues for aquatic organisms 112. Primary water treatment: A. removes suspended particles. B. uses aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic wastes. C. removes phosphorus and nitrogen. D. involves the anaerobic digestion of organic wastes.

E. removes heavy metals and pesticides. 113 . Secondary water treatment: A. removes suspended particles. B. uses aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic wastes. C. removes phosphorus and nitrogen. D. involves the anaerobic digestion of organic wastes. E. None of the above

114. The Safe Drinking Water Act: A. was passed in 1965. B. allowed states to set their own standards for drinking water. C. required the EPA to determine the maximum contaminant levels for drinking water. D. established the Environmental Protection Agency. E. established national emission limitations for water pollutants. 115. Irrigation in desert areas often causes this soil pollution problem: A. remediation. B. eutrophication. C. a high BOD. D. salinization. E. thermal pollution.

116. Population crises become worse the larger the population is. This fact illustrates the effects of: a) open systems b) closed systems c) negative feedbacks d) positive feedbacks e) the need to help Third World countries

117) _____ It involves the most complete pathway that a chemical element follows through the Earths system 118) _____ It involves several processes that are responsible for the destruction of the lithosphere 119) _____ It involves the movement of water from the surface of the Earth through the atmosphere back to the surface of the Earth 120. The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important biogeochemical cycles. However, molecular nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere is not a significant element for life because: a) almost all nitrogen is in the atmosphere and therefore unavailable to life b) organisms use either CO2 or O2 but not nitrogen c) N2 is relatively inert and must be transformed in order to be useful d) where nitrogen is insufficient, organisms can use other, more plentiful nutrients e) nitrogen is an important nutrient, necessary for life

121)

_____ The s-shaped curve according to which a population grows rapidly but eventually reaches a constant population _____ The maximum number of a particular species that an environment can support without degradation to the environment _____ The movement of a nation from a high population growth to a low population growth

122)

123)

124 The current population of Demographica Island is 10 million inhabitants, and the population is doubling every 10 years. Current agriculture on Demographica could feed 20 million people, and technological improvement is expanding that capacity by 1 million every year.

Given only this information, when will there be a food shortage on the island? a) never b) in 10 years c) in 15 years d) in 20 years e) 124) in 25 years

125 In June 1991, 17,800,000 people inhabited Demographica Island. During the time period from 1990 to 1991, 301,000 births were recorded. During the same period of time 120,000 deaths occurred. Calculate the growth rate (in %) for Demographica Island. a) 0.001 % b) 0.01 % c) 1.0 % d) 10.0 % e) 10.1 %

126

Calculate the doubling time of the population in Kellertopia. The annual population growth in this fictive country is 5.0 %.

a) 14 month b) 140 month c) 1.4 years d) 14 years e) 7 years

127_____ A set of interacting species that occur in the same place

128) 130)

_____ The species that is responsible for the balance of the entire ecosystem _____ This event can alter the distribution and abundance of an individual species

131 The simplest ecosystem needs _________ to function properly. a) one species that produces its own food, also decomposes it, plus water and air b) air and water c) one species that produces its own food, and a second that decomposes the waste of the first one, plus water and air d) nutrients and water e) there is no simple ecosystem

132)

The most basic processes in an ecosystem are: a) photosynthesis and respiration b) transport and storage of food c) trophic chains and storage of food

d) flow of energy and cycling of chemical elements e) waste decomposition and cycling of energy

Consider the graph above. Match the description below the graph to the population survivorship curves. A High juvenile survivorship. B Constant percent of the population survives at each time period. C Low juvenile survivorship. D Constant number of the population survives at each time period.

133) 134) 135)

Curve 1: _____ Curve 2: _____ Curve 3: _____ ________________________________________

136)

_____ These organisms derive energy from inorganic sulfur compounds and are found at or near deep ocean-vents

137)

_____ These organisms make sugar from sunlight, carbon dioxide and water

138)

_____ These organisms cannot make their own organic compounds from inorganic ones and must feed on other living things

139)

Production of biomass is analogous to an individuals personal finances. Gross production is like __________, and net production is like the ___________. b) total salary before taxes and any deductions; annual tax refund from the I.R.S. c) total salary; current bank balance d) salary this year; sum of all salary over ones lifetime e) paycheck; total salary before taxes and any deductions

a) total salary before taxes and any deductions; paycheck

140)

A common measure of energy efficiency is called trophic-level efficiency, which is the ratio of a) the material produced by an organism to the material consumed

b) production of one trophic level to the production of the next lower trophic level c) production of one trophic level to the production of the next higher trophic level d) material produced to the material assimilated e) the movement of net energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level

141 The example of a closed system containing only frogs an mosquitoes in it the frogs live by eating mosquitoes, and the mosquitoes live by biting frogs is impossible because: a) the transfer of energy is never 100% efficient b) of the laws of relativity c) energy changes form, not amount d) of the finite amount of biomass in the system e) both frogs and mosquitoes are autotrophs

142 143

_____ Early successional species may prevent the entrance of later successional species _____ One species can prepare the way for the next and/or may even be necessary for the occurrence of the next 144 _____ The gradual, sequential changes in the composition of an ecosystems communities 145. A glacier has been retreating from the ocean landward since the last Ice Age. A correct description of the succession from the ice boundary to the ocean would be: a) tundra, shrubs, beach b) shrubs forest, beach

c) lichens, shrubs, forest d) bare rock, lichens, shrubs, forest e) savannah, lichens, shrubs, forest

Fig. TB19.1:

146)

In the figure above, which of the labeled points (a, b, c, d, or e) identifies the recharge zone?

The following question refers to Fig. TB19.1: 147) In the figure above, which of the labeled points (a, b, c, d, or e) identifies the discharge zone?

The following question refers to Fig. TB19.1: 148) In the figure above, which of the labeled points (a, b, c, d, or e) identifies the water table?

The following question refers to Fig. TB19.1: 149) In the figure above, which of the labeled points (a, b, c, d, or e) identifies the aquifer?