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2011
GENERAL ESSAY
PAPER I
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks: 150

Note: The candidate has to write three essays, one essay from each section compulsorily. Each section has three topics. Each essay carries 50 marks.

SECTION I
1. Reality shows have become a major part of the prime time television. They are influencing mindset of numerous households making them believe and live in a hypothetical world. State the effect of reality shows on our society. With constant rise in global temperatures, greenhouse gases and global sea levels, it is disastrous that climate change talks at Copenhagen between major nations have failed to comet to a consensus. Explain why our leaders have failed to come to a mutual understanding for combating climate change. With advent of new technologies every year the need for human touch keeps descending. New technologies have surely made life easier, but is this taking us away from our basic necessities to maintain personal - physical relations with out fellow human beings?

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

With Portugal, Greece, Italy and Spain staring at a bleak future, the world economic situation can be considered to be in a dire state. With developing economies being highly dependent on their developed counterparts for investments, there will be an effect on stock markets, employment and balance of payments. State your reasons whether or not the developing world will be affected. The relations of India with the ASEAN countries is part of the "Look East Policy'. Does the same hold good with the Indo-EU relations? Do they follow "Look West Policy'? Elucidate. The concept of development is pushed down from the top by the MNCs bypassing nations states. This misplaced conception of development is not totally favoured by the sates and the people in the developing world fro socio-economic and political reasons. Is there a way to integrate or combine the two different conceptions of development of the free market and the individual state?

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SECTION II

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SECTION III
7. There are a variety of public-private partnerships models on which the government relies upon. Explain various models with illustrations. Comment on the PPP model in Rajiv Gandhi International Airport at Hyderabad.

8.

Discuss the initiatives of the Andhra Pradesh Government with regard to Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA),a centrally sponsored literacy programme, outlining its objectives, functions and impact. Democratic decentralization or Panchayati Raj aims at making democracy real by bringing the millions into the functioning of their representative government at the lowest level. However, parallel bodies at various levels diluted its aims and functions. Discuss with illustrations from Andhra Pradesh.

9.

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2011
PAPER II
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks: 150

Note: The candidate has to answer 15 questions @ 5 questions from each section. Each question carries 10 marks.

SECTION I
1. (a) Bring out the salient features of the Indus and Vedic Civilizations in a comparative perspective. OR (b) Examine the factors responsible for the rise and growth of Jainism and Buddhism

3.

4.

5.

(a) Account for the rise and growth of peasant and working class movements and their contribution in anti-feudal andante-colonial struggles. OR (b) Trace the course of events leading to the Partition of India in 1947.

(a) Describe the rise and growth of scio-religious reforms movements in modern India with special reference to Raja Ram Mohan Ray, Jyotiba Phule and Narayana Guru. OR (b) Compare and contrast the views of Mahatma Gandhi and Ambedkar with regard to the abolition of untouchability and Harijan upliftment.

(a) Critically examine the Economic, Political and Administrative reforms introduced by the British in Modern India. OR (b) Trace the evolution of Indian Nationalism with reference to the three phases of the Freedom Struggle between the years 1885 - 1947.

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2.

(a) Discuss the impact of Islam on Indian culture, with special reference to the Bhakti movements. OR (b) Assess the contribution of Mughals to Indian Art and Architecture with examples.

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SECTION II
6. (a) Discuss the socio-economic and religious conditions during the period of Satavahanas in Ancient Andhra Desha. OR Write an essay on the growth of Buddhism in Ancient Andhra Desha and the salient features of Buddhist Art and Architecture with examples. Discuss the socio-economic conditions in Medieval Andhra Desha with special reference to the Kakatiyas. OR Evaluate the contribution of Qutub Shahis to the Telugu language and literature. Trace the origin and growth of Adi-Andhra movement in Modern Andhra Desha and examine the role of Gurram Jashuva and Boyi Bheemanna in the growth of Dalit consciousness. OR Critically examine the role of Socialists and Communists in the Freedom movement in Andhra Desha between the years 1935 - 1947. Bring out the significance of socio-cultural awakening in Telangana with reference to the role of Adi-Hindu and Andhra Mahasabha movements. OR Critically examine the role of Hyderabad Sate Congress in the Freedom movement of the Nizam State. Assess the role of Communists in the Telangana People Armed Struggle. OR Trace the course of events leading to the formation of Andhra Pradesh.

(b)

7.

(a)

(b) 8. (a)

(b)

9.

(a)

(b)

10. (a) (b)

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SECTION III
11. (a) The constitution postulates in its Preamble that India shall be a Secular Republic. What are the constitutional provisions consistent this declaration? OR Trace the genesis and development of Uniform Civil code in India. Cite authoritative judgments on this issue. What are the principle adopted by the Courts in an irreconcilable conflict between a law made by the Parliament and a law made by the State legislature? OR Give instances wherein the Constitution provides control of the Union over the States. Explain the conflict resolution mechanism in case of deadlock between the two houses of a State legislature on a piece of legislation. OR There is no constitutional basis to claim absolute immunity from parliamentary proceedings. - Explain with reference to leading cases. Explain the Constitutional guarantee to the Right to property in the light of the 44th Amendment Act. OR The basic structure of the Constitution in effect limits the amending power of the Parliament. - Discuss. Explain the powers and functions of the Human Rights Commission. OR Examine the classification of Scheduled Castes within the constitutional scheme.

(b)

12. (a)

(b) 13. (a)

(b)

14. (a)

15. (a) (b)

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(b)

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2011
PAPER III
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks: 150

Note: The candidate has to answer 15 questions @ 5 questions from each section. Each question carries 10 marks.

SECTION I
1. (a) Do you consider Human Development Index as an alternative to National Income? Justify your answer. OR (b) Explain the important sectoral changes in post-independence Indian economy with respect to income and work-force. (a) Critically examine the performance of X Five Year Plan. OR (b) What is the scope for public-private partnership in post-economic reform period in India? Elaborate. (a) What are important concepts of employment/unemployment used by National Sample survey Organisation (NSSO)? OR (b) Discuss the important anti-poverty programmes implemented by Government of India. (a) Explain the structure of Indian Banking

2.

3.

4.

5.

(a) Explain the role of Finance Commission in a federal country like India. OR (b) What are the important tax reforms in India since 1991

OR (b) Critically examine the role of RBI in credit control.

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SECTION II
6. (a) Discuss the land tenancy system prevailing in Telangana region on the eve of Independence. OR (b) Do you consider that land reforms in Andhra Pradesh have provided sufficient protection to tenants? (a) Highlight the important trends in incidence of poverty in Andhra Pradesh. OR (b) Do you consider that Andhra Pradesh economy in still dominated by agricultural sector? Justify your answer. (a) Discuss the demographic features of Andhra Pradesh and changes therein. OR (b) What are the measures taken by the Government of Andhra Pradesh to empower women? Elaborate. (a) Critically examine the role of World Bank Loans in the development of Andhra Pradesh economy. OR (b) What are the important sources of revenue of the Government of Andhra Pradesh? (a) Do you consider that public Sector in getting adequate financial support form the government o Andhra Pradesh in XI five year plan? OR (b) Critically examine the allocation pattern of resources in X and XI five year plans of Andhra Pradesh.

7.

9.

10.

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8.

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SECTION III
11. (a) Evaluate the performance of Industrial Sector in Andhra Pradesh. OR (b) Discuss the measures taken by the Government of Andhra Pradesh to promote small scale industries. Have they yielded expected results? (a) Critically examine the procurement price policy of the Government of India and Andhra Pradesh. OR (b) Highlight the important features of Public Distribution System in Andhra Pradesh (a) What are the causes for inter-regional and inter-district disparities in Andhra Pradesh? OR (b) Discuss the measures taken by the Government to improve education and health status in Andhra Pradesh (a) Discuss the composition of institutional and non-institutional credit in rural Andhra Pradesh. OR (b) Explain the significance of micro-finance institutions in meeting rural credit needs in Andhra Pradesh. (a) Bring out the importance of transport and communication in the development of Andhra Pradesh OR (b) Write about the growth of IT industry in Andhra Pradesh.

12.

13.

14.

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15.

2011 PAPER IV Time : 3 HoursMax. Marks: 150

Note: The

candidate

has

to

answer

15

questions

5 questions from each section.

SECTION I 1. a. i. ii. 5 Illustrate the National Policy on Science and Technology. 5 Discuss the role of technology missions in Indian with a suitable example. OR b. Discuss on i. ii. 2. a. i. ii. 5 Comment on "Chnadra Yaan" Programme. 5 Discuss two salient features of IRS-5 Satellite. OR b. Illustrate the role of Indian Space Programmes on i. ii. 3. a. 10 Comment on the impact of the growth of Computer industry on the economic 6 Rural India 4 Natural Resources 5 Intellectual Property Rights. 5 National Policy on Technology Missions.

growth of India. OR b. Write on i. ii. 4. a. i. 6 Of late there is lot of public resistance towards the establishment of coal based power plants. Comment. ii. 4 Discuss the reasons for the sparse use of renewable resources in India OR b. Deliberate on i. ii. iii. 5. a. Write on i. ii. 5 Disaster Management Programmes in India 5 Mitigation methods to address Global warming. OR b. 10Discuss the problems associated with unabated urbanization and suggest the ways and means to arrest this. SECTION II 6. a. Discuss the Agricultural research in Indian mentioning its linkages. Describe the research and educational activates in the filed of agriculture, animal husbandry 4 Wind power in India 3 Biomass management in India 3 Ocean energy 5 Communications and remote sensing 5 Influence of Information Technology on Indian Rural Sector.

and fisheries. OR b. Elucidate a low volume high value product giving the example of insulin. Mention the role of Indian companies for its production. 7. a. Discuss the applications of plants in different areas with examples. OR b. i. ii. 8. a. Give a brief description of GM crops and explain the regulations and concerns associated with the release of a Genetically Modified crop. OR b. Define biofertilizers. Give an account of technology involved for the mass production of different biofertilizers, with their application. 9. a. Discuss in detail about HIV virus; also mention the symptoms associated with the infection, preventive measures and diagnostic test for disease confirmation. OR b. Describe the causative agent for malaria, emphasize its life cycle in different hosts and discuss the preventive measures for the diseases. 10. a. Define immunity. Discuss the concept of vaccination and explain how the vaccine for OPT is produced conventionally. Differentiate between wild and domestic animals. Give an overview of how animals are exploited in medical research.

OR b. What do you understand by a vaccine? Describe the journey of development from conventional to modern day (Recombinant vaccines).

SECTION III 11. a. In your own words explain the steps to bring awareness and in educating towards Environmental Protection in India OR b. Write the salient features of Water Act and Water pollution Cess Act. 12. a. Give an account on mineral resources of India. Explain the impacts of mining activity on the environment. OR b. Explain Integrated Water Resource Management. Give the importance of Water user Associations 13. a. What are the natural and human induces threats to biodiversity? Give an example of each. OR b. What is meant by the term natural Selection? Draw a food chain that has you as the top consumer. 14. a. Explain Urban Governance and role of community in Municipal Solid Waste Management.

OR b. Discuss the sources, impacts and control measures of Marine pollution. 15. a. Explain National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), objectives and recommendations.OR b. Discuss the strategies for wasteland reclamation.

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2011 PAPER V Time : 3 HoursMax. Marks: 150

Note: i. The candidate has to answer 15 questions @ 5 questions from each section. Each question carries 10 marks. ii. iii. Give the steps of calculation in each question. Calculators, not programmable, are allowed in the examination.

SECTION I 1. a. The average (arithmetic mean) of a list of 6 numbers is 20. If we remove one of the number, the average of the remaining numbers is 15. What is the number that was removed? OR b. The average score of a cricketer in certain number of innings is 15. When he scored a duck in one innings his average dropped to 13.5. How many innings have been played totally including the latest one? 2. a. The average marks of 3 students A, B and C are 48. Another student D joins the group and the new average becomes 44 marks. If another student E, whop has 3 marks more than D, joins the group, the average of the 4 students B, C, D and E becomes 43 marks. Find how many marks A got in the exam. OR

b. There are five containers in a trucks hold. The weight of the first container is 150 kg and the weight of the second container is 30% higher than the weight of the 3rd container, whose weight is 20% lighter than the first containers weight. The weight of the fourth container is equal to the average weight of the first and the 3rd container and the weight of the 5th container is equal to the average of the weight of 2nd and 4th container. Find the average of the 4 lighter containers and the 4 heavier containers. 3. a. 3 different numbers are chosen such that when each of the numbers is added to the average of the remaining 2, it given 65, 69 and 76 as a result. What is the average of the 3 original number? OR b. Davinder scored a total of 252 point in 28 basketball games. Raman played 10 fewer games than Davinder and his scoring average was 0.5 points per game higher than Daviderns scoring average. How many points, in total did Raman score. 4. a. A passenger train covers the distance between stations X and Y, 50 minutes faster than a goods train. Find this distance if the average speed of the passenger train is 60 kmph and that of the goods train is 20 kmph. OR b. Jim travels the first 3 hours of his journey at 60 mph speed and the remaining 5 hours at 24 mph speed. What is the average speed of Jims travel in mph? 5. a. 3 Math classes X, Y and Z taken an algebra test. The average score in class X is 83. The average score in class Y is 76. The average score in class Z is 85. The average score of all students in classes X and Y together is 79.The average score of all students in classes Y and Z together is 81. What is the average for all the 3 classes? OR

b. The average wages of a worker during a fortnight comprising 15 consecutive working days was Rs. 90 per day. During the first 7 days, his average wages was Rs. 87/day and the average wages during the last 7 days was Rs. 92/day. What was his wage on the 8th day?

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SECTION II 6. a. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A B means A is the brother of B; A B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, how do you encode "P is the maternal uncle of Q" ? OR b. B5D B9D B4D B3D means means means means B B B B is is is is the the the the father sister brother wife of of of of D. D. D. D.

How do you represent, "F is the mother of K" ?

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7. a. Study the following line graph and answer the questions:

i.

For which of the following pairs of years are the total exports from the 3 companies together equal ?

ii.

Average annual exports during the given period for company Y is approximately what percent of the average annual exports for company Z ?

iii.

In which year was the difference between the exports from companies X and Y the minimum ?

iv.

What was the difference between the average exports of the 3 companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998 ?

v.

In how many of the given years, were the exports from company Z more than the average annual exports over the given years ? OR

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b. The following line graph gives the ratio of the amount of imports by a company to the amount of exports from that company over the period from 1995 to 2001 Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports by a Company Over the Years

i.

If the imports in 1998 was 250 crores and the total exports in the years 1998 and 1999 together was 500 crores, then what was the imports in 1999 ?

ii.

The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in which of the years ?

iii.

What was the % increase in imports from 1997 to 1998 ? Is the data sufficient to answer this question ? If not, why ?

iv.

If the imports of the company in 1996 was 272 crores, what was the exports from the company in 1996 ?

v. 8. a. Study

In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports ?

the

following

table

and

answer

the

questions

based

on

it:

Expenditures of company (in lakh rupees) per annum over the given years

Year 1998 288

Item of Expenditure Salary Fuel and Transport Bonus Interest on loans 98 3 23.4

Taxes 83

1999 2000 2001 2002


b. i.

342 324 336 420

112 101 133 142

2.52 3.84 3.68 3.96

32.5 41.6 36.4 49.4

108 74 88 98

What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?

ii.

The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what % of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

iii.

Total expenditure on all these items in 1988 was approximately what % of the total expenditure in 2002?

iv.

What is the total expenditure of the company on these items during the year 2000?

v.

What is the approximate ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on fuel and transport for all the years? OR

c.

Study

the

following

table

and

answer

the

questions:

Number of candidates who appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over the years

Item of Expenditure State 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001

App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual.

M N P

5200 720 7500 840 6400 780

8500 980

7400 850

6800 775 9200 980

9500 8800

112 5 10 20 1 250

9200 1050 8450 920 8800 1020 7800 890

8750 1010 9750

Q R
d. i.

8100 980 7800 870

9500 1240 8700 980 7600 940

9700 1200 8950 9 95 7990 88 5

9800 1350 7600 945

Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is approximately what % of the total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1998 ?

ii.

What is the average of candidates who appeared from state Q during the given years ?

iii.

In which of the given years the number of candidates who appeared from state P has maximum % of qualified candidates ?

iv.

What is the % of candidates qualified from state N for all the years together, over the candidates appeared from state N during all the years together ?

v.

What is the % of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of appeared candidates among all the 5 states in 1999 ?

9. a. The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand numbers) from 6 branche of a Publishing Company during 2 consecutive years 2000 and 2001 Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3 B4, B5 and B6 of a Publishing Company in 2000 and 2001

i.

What is the ratio of total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of

branch B4 for both years.? ii. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what % of the total sales of branch B3 for both the years ? iii. What % of the average sales of branches B 1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of branches B 1, B3 and 136 in 2000 ? iv. What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000 ? v. What is the total sales of branches Bl, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers) ? OR b. The bar graph given below shows the data of the production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by 3 different companies X, Y and Z over the years

Production of Paper (in lakh tonnes) by Three Companies X, Y and Z over the Years

i.

For which of the following years, the % rise/fall in production from the previous year is the maximum for company Y?

ii.

What is the ratio of the average production of company X in the period 1998 2000 to the average production of company Y in the same period ?

iii.

The average production for 5 years was maximum for which company?

iv.

In which year was the % of production of company Z to the production of company Y the maximum?

v. 10. a.

What is the % increase in the production of company Y from 1996 to 1999 ?

The following pie-chart shows the % distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and then answer the questions based on it Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book

i.

If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be the amount of royalty to be paid for these books ?

ii.

What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on royalty?

iii.

The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?

iv.

If 5500 copies are published and the ,transportation cost on them amounts to Z 82,500, then What should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25% ?

v.

By how much is the royalty on the book less than the printing cost ? OR

b. The following pie charts show the distribution of students of graduate an postgraduate levels in seven different institutes in a town:

Distribution of students at graduate and post-graduate levels ir seven institutes

i.

What is the total number of graduate and post-graduate level students in institute R ?

ii.

What is the ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate and graduate levels respectively from institute S ?

iii. iv.

How many students of institutes M and S are studying at graduate level ? What is the ratio between the number of students studying at post-graduate level from institute S and the number of students studying at graduate level from institute Q ?

v.

What is the total number of students studying at post-graduate level from institutes N and P ?

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SECTION III 11. a. In this series what number should come next ?

2, 1, (1/2), (1/4),_______ b. In this series what number should come next ?

7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ______ c. In this series which pair of numbers comes next ?

42, 40, 38, 35, 33, 31, 28, _______ d. What number should fill the blank in the series ? F2, ____, D8, C16, B32 e. Look at this series : V, VIII, XI, XIV,_______ , XX. What number should fill the blank? OR f. g. In this series 8, 12, 9, 13,10, 14, 11,_________which pair of numbers comes next ? Fill the blank in the series : SCD, TEF, UGH,______, WKL

h. Odometer is to Mileage as Compass is to i. j. 12. a. If KEDGY is coded as EKDYG then how will LIGHT be coded ? Marathon is to Race as Hibernation is to ? Window is to Pane as Book is to

b. If RAVE is coded as SXWB then how will SCAW be coded ? c. If PURSER is coded as UPSRRE then how will PERIODIC be coded ?

d. If STRAY is coded as TUSBZ then how will MOURN be coded ? e. If BINARY is coded as DHPZTK then how will KIDNAP be coded ? OR f. g. If RASCAL is coded as QZRBZK then how will SOLDER be coded ? If MAPLE is coded as VOKZN then how will CAMEL be coded ?

h. What is the odd number out of : 126, 32, 81, 24, 18, 45, 69 ?

i. j. 13. a.

What is the odd number out of : 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1 ? What is the odd number out of : 5, 16, 6, 16, 7, 16, 9 ?

Find the day on 23rd May 1957.

b. Find the day on 22nd December 1987. c. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon ? OR d. What is the reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10-25 ? e. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P ? f. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position is A sitting ? 14. a. "What really matters in the leadership of business and organisations is getting results, reaching benchmarks, and achieving success." Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement above. Support your views with reasons and/or examples from your own experience, education, observation, or reading. OR b. When someone achieves greatness in any field such as the arts, science, politics or business that person's achievements are more important than any of his or her personal faults. Discuss. 15. a. Canopy of Nature

Dad decided last Sunday that we should all go on a camping trip. He read an article in the Sunday paper about camping and how it "brings families together under the canopy of nature". "Overrated," I joked. "What about the canopy of television or the canopy of resaurant food ?" "This will be good for us," Dad said, sliding the magazine

across the coffee table. "Let's go next week-end." I shot a quick look over at my little brother, Paul. He gave me a slow eyebrow raise which meant, "This will probably not go off completely as planned." My smile back said, "But it will surely be fun." I started to think back. Once Dad decided "We should all learn how to canoe." We borrowed two canoes from our friends, hoisted them on the van and drove for 3 hours to a secluded lake in Virginia. Once we got there, we discovered that we had forgotten the paddles. Paul and I got in a canoe with Dad, and our 2 younger sisters got in a canoe with Mom. We floated aimlessly around the lake for hours, then we all jumped in with our life jackets on. We pushed the canoes back to shore. It was a fantastic trip. Another time, Dad decided "We should all learn how to ski." All of us hate the cold so we spent the week-end huddled by the fire, drinking hot cocoa in the ski lodge and playing board games. It was great. We had a blast. When I stopped daydreaming, Mom was saying, "Sweetheart, we don't have a tent." "We don't need one !" Dad said happily. "We'll take all the seats out of the van when we get to the campsite and put in an air mattress." I don't know what the punch line will be on this excursion, but I am sure with Mom, Dad and the four of us kids scrunched up in a van at some national park, we are bound to have a good time. i. ii. Why might the narrator say that the camping trip will have a punch line ? "Then we all jumped in with our life jackets on. We pushed the canoes back to shore." Combine the above sentences and phrase it differently. iii. iv. v. What literary term best describes the narrator's daydreams ? Suggest another title that fits this passage best. What lesson does the narrator's family seem to live by ? OR b. Elizabeth was brooding in her room. She had sought asylum there since spurious gossip began circulating about her at Seagrove Academy last week. Not that Elizabeth had ever been considered a social butterfly. She preferred to live vicariously through the brazen stories of her friends: late night partying, fraternizing with boys, childish pranks. Still, she has taken to being more by herself than usual since the allegations surfaced. Up for consideration for the highly coveted Blauvelt Award, a scholarship recognising "academic integrity and promise," an anonymous

student had given headmaster Billings the "tip" that Elizabeth had cheated on several tests this year. The accusations were laughable. Elizabeth had long been a stellar student at Seagrove. She lacked a natural intelligence this was true. However, she more than made up for this deficit through diligence and perseverance. Still, the accusations had given the recommendation committee pause. Elizabeth had been called to Mr. Billings' grand office on Friday and asked copious questions about her recent exams. The experience was quite traumatic. Seagrove is an elite school. Most of its students come from privileged backgrounds. This was not the case for Elizabeth. Her family had little money. She attended Seagrove on a full scholarship. The Blauvelt Award would help her family pay for college. So, it was with the same diligence with which she applied herself to her studies that Elizabeth planned to unmask her accuser. She opened the school directory on her bed and began combing through the names. Seagrove was such a small and insular community. Twenty-one kids would be in her graduating class. Elizabeth knew it was inevitable that the person spreading rumours about her would come to light. It was just a matter of time. i. "However, she more than made up for his deficit through diligence and perseverance." Paraphrase the above sentence. ii. Why should cheating have likely knocked Elizabeth out of the running for the Blauvelt Award ? iii. iv. v. How is Elizabeth different than many of her peers ? What does the reader learn about the kind of school Seagrove Academy is ? What do you learn about the student who accused Elizabeth of cheating ?

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2011
GENERAL ENGLISH
Time : 3 Hours Note: Attempt all the questions. 1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: 20 Max. Marks : 150

One day while Galileo was aimlessly walling about in the streets of Pisa, he happened to stop in front of the great cathedral. He looked at the beautiful arches as though he were seeing them for the first time. He had passed them by often, but never really taken much notice of them. Almost without thinking he entered the cathedral, perhaps to look more closely at its magnificent interior, perhaps, to pray. We shall never know, but we do know that as he stepped into the calm, serene quiet of the church, he was unknowingly coming to the turning-point in his life.

Galileo sat down on a bench and looked around at the beautiful alter, the colourful mosaics and the marble pillars that had been brought from Greek and Roman ruins to build the cathedral hundreds of years ago. Suddenly, something moving caught his eye. Some workmen, who were making repairs in the building, had set the great lamp swinging. Fascinated, Galileo rose and watched it. Strange ! It started swinging in a wide arc, but as the arc of its swing became smaller, its swinging became slower. He put the fingers of this right hand to the pulse on his left wrist, as he had been taught in medical school. To the regular beating of his pulse, he began timing the swinging of the lamp. Stranger still ! No matter what the size of the arc, the time it took for the lamp to make one complete wing was the same ! Even though, after a while, the swinging of the lamp slowed down considerably, it made no difference in the total time it took to cover the distance of the arc. (i) Which words tell us that Galileo had no special reason fro waling in the streets of Pisa? (ii) (iii) What did Galileo do after entering the church? How do we know that Galileo is not seeing the arches for the first time?

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www.sakshieducation.com (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) Why did Galileo enter the cathedral? What did Galileo observe Suddenly? What did Galileo notice about the lamp? How did he calculate the time of the swinging?

(viii) Where did he learn this method of calculation? (ix) (x) Which three words describe the atmosphere inside the church? What was the discovery that Galileo made after observing the lamp?

2. Read the passage given below and make a prcis of it in one-third its original length. Give an appropriate title for the passage. Use the special sheets for writing the prcis. 15 Environmental pollution is, generally, the poisoning of the Earths air, water and soil. Usually, population is caused by man. The fuels man burns for power give off poisonous water products into the air. His industries dump their water products into streams and his garbage befouls land and water. When large enough quantities of water pollute the environment, all living things can be harmed and even destroyed.

The word pollution comes from the Latin word polluere meaning to befoul or make unclean. It refers to both impurities and upsets in the natural environment. Until the twentieth century, pollution almost always involved air or water. But now other aspects of the environment are polluted as well. When large hoardings with advertisements mar the scenic beauty of a landscape, when pesticides enter the food chains of animals, and when loud noises disturb a neighbourhoods peace and quiet, pollution occurs.

What is considered pollution in one situation may be useful elsewhere, however. Organic wastes that pollute waterway, for instance,. Can be beneficial if used in a filed as fertilizer. But in general pollution interferes with the environments capacity to support different forms of life (190 words)

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www.sakshieducation.com 3. Read the sentences given below. Rearrange them in sequential order to from a meaningful and logical paragraph. (i) 10

One day, after hunting down a buffalo and having a hearty meal, the lion was returning to his cave.

(ii) (iii)

Please accept me as your servant. The jackal was indeed happy, as he never had to go in search of food in the dense forest.

(iv)

He met a jackal on the way, who come to him and said, O king, your are the mightiest of all animals.

(v) (vi)

Soon, the starving jackal became fat and strong. Although he was strong he never troubled other animals without reason.

(vii)

From that day onwards, the jackal served the lion and in return always had a full meal from the leftovers.

(viii) In ancient India, huge lion lived in the forest of the Himalayan mountain ranges. (ix) (x) The lion was kind and said, As you wish, o jackal. The jackal was smarty because he knew he would not have to hunt any more, and would live on the leftovers of lions meals. 4. Correct any ten of the following sentences: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) I would like to leaved a message for Mr.Paul. My father, Mr.AlamKhan had been gone Mumbai yesterday. Could you helps me, please? There are the tallest building than this in Bengaluru. Did you ever went to Srisailam? The weather will be warm here always. Kavitha is having a new mobile phone. 20

(viii) Tow of our friends selected to play in the cricket team. (ix) (x) (xi) He know many famous actors. Dogs can be easily train. One of her daughter is a singer.

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www.sakshieducation.com 5. Give synonyms of any ten of the following: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) arrive heavy tiny speak clean answer delete 10

(viii) costly (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) delay huge happy wuick

6. Given antonyms of any ten of the following (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) old alive inside busy easy early wrong

10

(viii) useless (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) dark fat brave noisy

7. Fill in the blanks in any ten of the following sentences using suitable articles/prepositions/conjunctions: (i) We made a hole in the paper ______ put it into the box. 10

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www.sakshieducation.com (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) Making dolls is one of ______ oldest craft of the world. He looked like ______ average Indian student in his jeans and T-shirt. They lived ______ simple life. Boiling water gives ______ water vapour in the form of steam. Ruhul worked very hard ______ did not get more marks then Vani. Vidya saw ______ taxi coming towards her at great speed.

(viii) I/m so sad that my lamp is broken ______ bits. (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) How many hours will this train take ______ here to Pune? ______ we had a holiday I went to may office to collect some papers. Sridhar ______ Shabir joined the college football team. We could not eat the cake ______ there were ants in it. 10

8. Write the correct spelling of any ten of the following : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) recieved advirtisemint phychology benifit comunication sistemeticaly encyklopadia

(viii) acheivment (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) mystireus dessapearing fourbiden admmition

9. Make sentences with five of the following pairs of words clearly bringing out the difference in meaning between the two words. Choose any five of the pairs. (i) mind (as verb) (ii) wind (as verb) (iii) fast (as noun) (iv) red - read - mind (as noun) - wind (as noun) - fast (as adverb) 10

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www.sakshieducation.com (v) waste (vi) here - waist - here

(vii) present (as noun) present (as verb)

10. Give appropriate one-word substitutes for any five of the following expressions: 5 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) to change from one language to another returning sound that which can be seen of the nation one who cannot read and write that which cannot be eaten state in which no sounds are heard

11. Use any ten of the following idiomatic expressions in sentences of your own making the meaning clear: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) to stab in the back at the eleventh hour all of a sudden to call back as feather in ones cap raining cats and dogs shed crocodiles tears

(viii) hand in glove (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) better late than never butter someone up sour grapes to split hairs 5

12. Insert appropriate punctuation mars in the following sentences:

The teacher said you children over there can you hear me what are you doing are you listening to me

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www.sakshieducation.com 13. In the sentences given below some words are underlined. Identify the parts of speech of the underlined words : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Do you like coffee? No, I dont like it. Seeing a policeman, the cyclist sopped. It was a cloudy and cold day. The traveler showed the inspector his ticket. My new pen broke when it fell out of my bag. 5

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