d. the President, the Vice-President and members 1.

The phrase, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations in Article 38 (1) (c) of the Statutes of International Court of Justice helps the international tribunal to: a. incorporate common principles reflecting the consensus of nations. b. incorporate common principles followed by majority of nations. c. incorporate provisions contained in documents of regional organizations. d. ignore certain practices of some nations as in the process of interpretation. 1. Resolutions dealing with substantive questions of International Law are binding. 2. Resolutions concerned with the internal working of the United Nations are binding. 3. Resolutions may be declaratory of existing customary International Law. 2. Which one of the following is incorrect? 4. Unanimous resolutions of General Assembly constitute a direct source of International Law. 5. Consider the following statements in relation to U.N. General Assembly resolutions:

State succession involves: a. A definite replacement of one State by another. b. A definite replacement of one State by another in respect of sovereignty over a given territory. c. A change of governments. d. One State acting as the delegate or agent of another State for legal purposes.

Which of these statements is/are correct? a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 only d. 2 and 4

3. Which one of the pairs is correctly matched? a. Apartheid b. Article 38 of the Statute of ICJ c. The number of members constituting the ICJ d. The seat of International Court of Justice : Treating all the people as equals

6. The following are recognized as sources of International Law under Article 38 of the Statute of International Courts of Justice: 1. International Conventions : Sources of International Law 2. International Committee : 20 3. Decision by municipal courts : Paris 4. Teachings of highly qualified jurists

4. The International Court of Justice consists of: Which of these statements are correct? a. the President and 15 other members a. 2, 3 and 4 b. the President, the Vice-president and 15 other members b. 1 and 3 c. the President the Vice-President and 14 other members

c. 1 and 2 d. 1, 3 and 4

d. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.

11. Jus ad bellum - the right to wage war, has been officially abolished in which year? 7. How far does the 'exclusive economic zone' of a country extend into the sea? a. 12 nautical miles b. 50 nautical miles c. 100 nautical miles d. 200 nautical miles 12. When is the use of force justified by international law? 8. Which of the following is not an agreement governed by the World Trade Organization (WTO)? a. GATT b. TRIPS c. UNCTAD d. GATS 13. Are declarations of the General Assembly of the United Nations international law? 9. What does the 'most-favored nation' principle of GATT (Art. 1) mean? a. Signatory parties have to extend equal trading privileges to all other signatories b. Signatory parties may extend special privileges to some other signatories c. Signatory parties receive special privileges compared to non-signatories d. Signatory parties may choose one trading partner to be their most-favored nation. 14. Which of the following statements is true? 10. What does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights state in its first Article? a. All human beings have the right to life. b. All human beings share equal rights to life and liberty. c. All human beings have the right to liberty. a. International humanitarian law is not applicable in non-international armed conflicts b. International human rights law is applicable in times of war and peace c. In times of war, members of the armed forces can never come under the protection of international humanitarian law because they are the ones conducting hostilities a. Yes b. Yes, in some cases c. No d. No, in some cases a. In case of self-defense or when authorized by the UN Council b. Only if authorized by the UN Council c. Only in case of self defense d. Only in case of self-defense, but with the authorization of the UN Council a. 1974 b. 1947 c. 1954 d. 1928

d. International human rights law, like humanitarian law, is non-derogable

d. When the government enters into contracts with private citizens for government purposes

15. This doctrine says that every treaty binding upon the parties to it and must be performed by them in good faith. a. rebus sic stantibus

19. Which of the following does not apply in international law? a. Lex specialis b. Doctrine of incorporation

b. opinio juris c. Doctrine of proportionality c. lex specialis d. None of the above d. pacta sunt servanda

20. What is the name of zone extending up to 200 nautical miles from the 16. What does soft law mean in international law? a. Norms that are binding but are not included in treaties or international charters b. Norms that are non-binding in character but still have legal relevance c. Norms that are non-binding and have no legal relevance d. International law itself is soft law baselines of a state over which the coastal state has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting, conserving and managing the natural resources, whether living or nonliving, of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and subsoil, and with regard to other activities for the economic exploitation and exploration of the zone? a. Contiguous zone b. Exclusive economic zone c. Territorial sea d. Internal Waters 17. Can a President abrogate a treaty without the ratification of the Senate? a. No, because the Constitution says the concurrence of the Senate is necessary b. Yes, because the Constitution is silent on the requirements of abrogating a treaty c. Yes, because it is within his power to enter into and abrogate international agreements d. No, because the concurrence of the other state is necessary to nullify the treaty 21. Which of the following is acceptable under international humanitarian law? a. Incidental civilian losses when firing on a legitimate military target b. Using destructive warfare so long as it is necessary to bring down the opponent c. The use of destructive weapons to save the people in a dictatorial military regime d. Torturing an international terrorist who bombed New York and killed 5,000 civilians 18. Which of the following is an exception of state immunity? a. When the government enters into contracts with private citizens b. When the government enters into contracts for government purposes c. When the government enters into contracts for commercial purposes 22. Which of the following is true about the concept of diplomatic immunity? a. It covers high-ranking officials only and excludes rank-and-file employees b. It covers contracts made in relation to professional services rendered by a diplomat

c. It covers contracts entered into in relation to the maintenance of diplomatic residences d. It cannot be invoked by a diplomat when acting in his personal capacity

a. freedom of navigation b. freedom of overflight c. freedom of laying pipelines

23. A person requested to be extradited is entitled to notice and hearing. a. Yes, because he is entitled to his constitutional rights to due process b. No, because an extradition process is not a criminal process c. Yes, because he is about to lose his liberty and security d. It depends on the provisions of the extradition treaty

d. freedom to annexation

27. Ferdi was an 18th century colonial explorer. He was sent to a mission to look for some rare and undiscovered spices by his capricious monarch named Felipe. In the course of navigation, he discovered a seemingly pristine island covered with dense growth of trees. He then claimed the island for his King. But after gathering the spices that he needed he left and never returned until after 40 years. By that time there was already a group of inhabitants who called themselves "Tribu de Ungga Ungga." Does Ferdi have a rightful claim to the island? a. Yes

24. Which of the following is not a source of international law a. conventions b. customs c. general principles of law d. decisions and or teachings of highly publicized commentators e. none of the above

b. No c. Ferdi and Tribu de Ungga Ungga co-own it d. They must submit the issue to court

25. This is an area of water not exceeding 12 nautical miles from territorial sea the and 24 nautical miles from the baseline. a. internal waters

28. Christoph is a naval agent of Ukraine holding the position vice-admiral. He was sent by the Ukraine government to deliver an important cargo to North Korea. While navigating the high seas, they encountered a strong storm which effectively destroyed their navigating instruments and brought them to a barren island without inhabitants. Upon checking on his map, Christoph realized that it is the legendary lost island of Atlantis. Upon his return to Ukraine, he published his discovery in Honolulu Journal and claimed ownership to the island in the name of his country. Right after publishing, China went to the island and installed oil pipelines and other huge tenements and claimed title for itself. Who has the better title to the island? a. Ukraine b. North Korea

b. exclusive economic zone c. China c. contiguous zone d. No one. It belongs to all states of the world. d. high seas e. continental shelf 29. Republic of Takas and Kingdom of Malaya entered into a treaty concerning some trade tax exemptions they grant to each other. They signed the treaty on May 31, 2011. Pending ratification, Dmitri, a citizen of Republic of Takas is claiming the enforcement of the treaty with respect to his goods exported to Kingdom of Malaya. Will his claim prosper?

26. The high seas is subject to these freedoms, except

a. Yes b. No c. Maybe d. The international court has final decision in the interpretation

f. Both b and d g. None of the above

32. A necessary consequence of the establishment and functioning of a mission is the protection of the premises from external interference. Which of the following is not in accordance with the Vienna Convention regarding premises? a. The receiving State is under a special duty to take all appropriate steps to protect the premises of the mission against any intrusion or damage and to prevent any disturbance of the peace of the mission or impairment of its dignity. b. The private residence of a diplomatic agent shall enjoy the same inviolability and protection as the premises of the mission c. The premises of the mission shall be inviolable. The agents of the receiving State may not enter them, except with the consent of the head of the mission. d. The premises of the mission, their furnishings and other property thereon and the means of transport of the mission shall be immune from search, requisition, attachment or execution e. All of the above f. None of the above g. Both b and d

30. Under Article 3 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, the functions of a diplomatic mission, consist inter alia in the following, except: a. Representing the sending State in the receiving State b. Protecting in the receiving State the interests of the sending State and of its nationals, within the limits permitted by international law c. Negotiating with the Government of the receiving State as well as other States in which the receiving State has diplomatic relations to d. Ascertaining by all lawful means conditions and developments in the receiving State, and reporting thereon to the Government of the sending State e. Promoting friendly relations between the sending State and the receiving State, and developing their economic, cultural and scientific relations f. All of the above g. None of the above

33. A diplomatic agent shall enjoy immunity from the criminal jurisdiction of the receiving State. He shall also enjoy immunity from its civil and administrative jurisdiction, except in the case of: 31. Under Article 14 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, heads of missions are divided into several classes. Which is not among the classes identified in the Convention? a. That of ambassadors or nuncios accredited to Heads of State, and other heads of mission of equivalent rank b. That of counselors, diplomatic secretaries, or attaches c. That of envoys, ministers and internuncios accredited to Heads of State d. That of chargs daffaires accredited to Ministers for Foreign Affairs e. All of the above a. An action relating to succession in which the diplomatic agent is involved as executor, administrator, heir or legatee in behalf of the sending State b. A real action relating to private immovable property situated in the territory of the receiving State, which he holds on behalf of the sending State for the purposes of the mission c. An action relating to any professional or commercial activity exercised by the diplomatic agent in the sending State outside his official functions d. All of the above e. Both a and c

f. Both a and b g. None of the above

g. None of the above

36. Which of the following statements is not true? 34. Which of the following statements is true: a. Waiver of immunity from jurisdiction of diplomatic agents may be express or implied. b. The immunity from jurisdiction of diplomatic agents and of persons enjoying immunity under article 31 may be waived by the sending State. c. Waiver of immunity from jurisdiction in respect of civil or administrative proceedings shall not be held to imply waiver of immunity in respect of the execution of the judgment, for which a separate waiver shall be necessary d. The initiation of proceedings by a diplomatic agent or by a person enjoying immunity from jurisdiction under article 37 shall not preclude him from invoking immunity from jurisdiction in respect of any counterclaim directly connected with the principal claim. e. Both b and d f. Both c and d g. None of the above a. When the functions of a person enjoying privileges and immunities have come to an end, his immunity shall continue to subsist with respect to respect to acts performed by such a person in the exercise of his functions as a member of the mission b. Every person entitled to privileges and immunities shall enjoy them from the moment he enters the territory of the receiving State on proceeding to take up his post or, if already in its territory, from the moment when his appointment is notified to the Ministry for Foreign Affairs or such other ministry as may be agreed c. In the event of the death of a member of the mission not a national of or permanently resident in the receiving State or a member of his family forming part of his household, the receiving State shall permit the withdrawal of the movable property of the deceased, with the exception of any property acquired in the country the export of which was prohibited at the time of his death d. When the functions of a person enjoying privileges and immunities have come to an end, such privileges and immunities shall normally cease at the moment when he leaves the country, or on expiry of a reasonable period in which to do so, but shall subsist until that time, even in case of armed conflict e. In case of the death of a member of the mission, the members of his family shall continue to enjoy the privileges and immunities to which they are entitled until the expiry of a reasonable period in which to leave the country f. All of the above 35. A diplomatic agent shall not be exempt from all dues and taxes, personal or real, national, regional or municipal in following instances, except: a. Dues and taxes on private income having its source in the receiving State and capital taxes on investments made in commercial undertakings in the receiving State b. Indirect taxes of a kind which are normally incorporated in the price of goods or services c. Dues and taxes on private immovable property situated in the territory of the receiving State, unless he holds it on behalf of the sending State for the purposes of the mission d. Charges levied for specific services rendered d. Treaties e. All of the above f. Both b and d 38. Which of the following best articulates the attribute of a practice considered customary International Law? g. None of the above

37. The following are considered sources of International Law except: a. International conventions b. Judicial decisions c. International custom

a. The practice permits no derogation b. Adherence is optional c. It has a norm-creating character d. It is recognized in international conventions

a. Rastahman is liable for reparations for commiting genocide. b. The acts of the RPLF armed forces cannot be attributed to Rastahman since the latter did not exercise effective control over the former. c. The acts of the RPLF cannot be subject to sanctions because it is not yet a member of the United Nations. d. Rastahman violated its obligation to prevent genocide.

39. After eliciting widespread criticism and condemnation of its planned sattelite launch, perceived by the international community to be actually a nuclear missile test, the Democratic Peoples Republic of Kookoorithckin (DPRK) held a press conference and sent letters to different heads of state saying that it would no longer push through with the intended launch. Which of the following pronouncement is consistent with the principles and doctrines of International Law? a. b. c. d. The pronouncement is not binding since the unilateral declaration of DPRK created no legal obligation. DPRK must refrain from pushing through with the launch since its unilateral declaration created a legal obligation to refrain from doing so. Other countries mist push DPRK to enter into a multi-lateral treaty to create a legal obligation for it to refrain from launching its purported sattelite. The DPRK should condemn other countries for hindering it from pursuing its space program.

42. The following are sufficient to establish territorial sovereignty over an area except: a. Conquest b. Display of authority c. Effective occupation d. Acquiesence of neighboring states e. None of the above

40. John Van Bowel was a Belgian who was hired by the Philippine government to design a multi-billion peso international airport. He finished the design and presented it to the private Filipino contractor which won in the bidding for constructing the airport. Alleged irregularities in the bidding process, however, became the subject of Senate investigations and, subsequently, the private contractor was booted out from the project. After Van Bowel demanded payment for services rendered, however, the Philippine government refused noting that it never received his designs. Which of the following pronouncements is in accord with the principles and doctrines of International Law? a. Van Bowel can sue the Philippine government to recover payment for services rendered b. Belgium may claim indemnity from the Philippines on behalf of its citizen. c. The Philippine government cannot be sued because it is immune from suit. d. The dispute does not involve states since the fault lies with the private contractor.

43. Bordering states along straits are duty-bound to do the following except: a. Not to impede the right of transit passage b. Provide facilities for efficient transit passage c. To notify concerned parties of any danger to navigation d. Not to suspend transit passage e. None of the above

41. After decades of peace negotiations, the Rastafarian Peoples Liberation Front (RPLF) managed to secure the complete autonomy of certain regions of Rastahmahn which were subsequently organized as a juridical entity. Henceforth, the said juridical entity drafted and ratified its own organic law, organized its own army, and entered into trade relations with neighboring states. Centuries of ethnic tensions, however, led to the massacre of 10,000 members of the Hiphopmahn tribe scattered throughout the RPLF-controlled regions. Which of the following pronouncements is consistent with the principles and doctrines of International Law?

44.Pal Pot, the former president of the Republic of Viyear and accused of masterminding the torture of hundreds of oppositionists during his term, flew to Cuba for treatment of his stage IV lung cancer. Cuban authorities, meanwhile, are seeking to submit him to the local courts to try him for the crime of torture. Which of the following is in accord with the doctrines and principles of International Law?

a. Pal Pot is immune from suit since the incidents of torture were committed when he was the head of state of Viyear. b. Pal Pot is not immune from suit because torture cannot be attributed to a sovereign act. c. Pal Pot is not immune from suit since his term as head of state has expired. d. Pal Pot should not be submitted to the courts based on humanitarian grounds. e. Pal Pot cannot be tried in Cuba and has to be extradited to Viyear. 47. State A, alarmed by the construction of State B of a missile silo in an island close to the capital of A, sent special forces to demolish the said missile silo. The two states have an antagonistic relationship with B repeatedly issuing statements that it would not hesitate to attack A when an opportunity presents itself. State B brought the ensuing dispute to the attention of the ICJ. Which of the following pronouncements is consistent with the doctrines and principles of International Law? a. The destruction of the missile silo is not justified since there was no attack from B. b. The destruction of the missile silo is justified because the missile silo is meant for a prohibited weapon. c. The destruction of the missle is justified since an attack has been perceived to be imminent. 45. While patrolling the waters near a widely contested island group, the coast guard of State A spotted a military vessel of State B conducting surveys on the surrounding waters. To their surprise, the said military vessel started firing their machineguns at them. In response, they shot a rocket launcher at Bs military vessel, sinking it, and killing its crew. Is State A liable for the act? a. No, since the act was done in self-defense. b. No, since As coast guard was not acting under express authority of As officials. c. Yes, since the coast guard is a state organ of A. d. Yes, since the coast guard is mandated by A to attack intruders. e. None of the above 48. State A sent forces to train the armed forces of State B in a planned attack against the oil platforms of State C. A had long been pressuring C to open its nationalized oil industry to As market. The attack ensued, causing large-scale damage to Cs oil platforms. C then brings the matter to the ICJ. A raises collective self-defense, claiming that the leftist government of C posed threats to the security of B and other neighboring states. Which of the following pronouncement is in accord with the principles and doctrines of International Law? a. The armed attack is justified under the doctrine of anticipatory self-defense. 46. ASEAN countries drafted a multi-lateral treaty expressing the member-nations commitment to eradicate torture in all spheres of government conduct. Myanmars assent to the treaty was highly publicized and widely criticized for being hypocritical. The treaty was eventually forged with the signatures of all the member-states except Myanmar. Is the treaty still binding on Myanmar considering that it had assented to it earlier? a. Yes, because its former assent is enough to bind it to the terms of the treaty. b. No, since it the assent was made prior to the drafting of the treaty. c. Yes, since the treaty expresses a customary norm. d. No, since the failure to sign implies dissent to the treaty. e. None of the above. 49. Late for a meeting with the President of the receiving state, consular officer of State A instructed his driver to rush. However, on the way, his car hit a pedestrian causing serious injuries to the latter. The pedestrian then sues the consular officer for damages. Which of the following pronouncements is consistent with the principles and doctrines of International Law? a. The consular officer cannot be subject to the jurisdiction of the courts of the receiving state since he is immune from suit. b. The armed attack is not justified because because B did not ask A to help in defending itself from C. c. The armed attack is justified because oil platforms are legitimate military targets. d. The armed attack is not justified because it failed the tests of necessity and proportionality. e. None of the above. d. The destruction of the missle silo is not justified because it failed to satisy the necessity and proportionality test. e. None of the above.

b. The consular officer can refuse to appear before the courts of the receiving state. c. The consular officer is subject to the jurisdiction of the courts of the receiving state for the suit for damages ensuing from a vehicular accident. d. The consular officer should be recalled by the sending state for his negligence.

52. The following can engage state responsibility except: a. Police officers b. Mercenary groups hired by the government c. Vigilante cultists on a crusade against leftist rebels

e. None of the above. d. ROTC cadets e. None of the above. 50. During the war between State A and State B, a general of State A, in an overwhelmingly successful campaign, captured 5,000 soldiers of State B. The captured soldiers were tortured and subjected to harsh, inhumane conditions that eventually led to the death of all 5,000 soldiers. Which among the following is the legal instrument applicable to the cited situation? a. The Rome Statute b. The Geneva Conventions c. The Genocide Convention d. The Torture Convention e. Ottawa Protocol 53. In response to a terrorist attack, State A applied to the UN Security Council for military countermeasures against State B, which the military intelligence of State A claims to have been hosting and supporting the terrorist group responsible for the attack. The measure was vetoed by two permanent members of the Security Council, prompting State A to unilaterally declare a war against terror and called on willing states to send troops for a military campaign against State B. Dubbed the Coalition of the Willing, State A and other participating states invaded State B. Is the military campaign a violation of the provision against the use of force of the UN Charter? a. Yes, the campaign is a violation of the prohibition because it was launched without the go-signal by the Security Council. b. No, the campaign is not a violation of the prohibition since it is an act of self-defense. c. Yes, the campaign is a violation of the prohibition because non-military measures were not first employed. 51. In the course of negotiating a treaty with State B, the president of State A was overthrown by a popular uprising which subsequently led to the organization of a new state, C. While in exile, however, the president of State A, with members of the legislative also in exile, signed and subsequently ratified the treaty. Which of the following pronouncements is in accord with the principles and doctrine of International Law? a. The treaty is not binding to State C because the emerging state is not a party to the treaty. b. The treaty is binding to State C since the new state has not yet been recognized by the international community. c. The treaty is not binding to State C because it was not negotiated, signed, and ratified with full powers. d. The treaty is binding to State C under the principle of pacta sunt servanda e. None of the above. 54. State B is suspected of developing a nuclear weapons program. However, it has consistently denied the allegation, claiming that it is merely pursuing a civilian nuclear program. State A, a bitter rival of State B, launched a military campaign in State B to destroy facilities believed to be used for uraniumenrichment. State B countered by launching a full-scale attack against State A using traditional weapons, but killing millions and resulting in the destruction of around 70% of the infrastructure of State A. Which of the following is consistent with the principles and doctrines of International Law? a. The response of State B is unjustified for failing the test of necessity and proportionality. b. The response of State B is justified as an act of self-defense. c. The response of State B is an unjustified act under International Humanitarian Law. d. No, the campaign is not a violation of the prohibition on the ground of opposability. e. None of the above.

d. The response of State B is justified because A started the armed aggression. e. None of the above. 58. Which of the following about Economic and Social Council (EcoSoc) is NOT true? a. The Economic and Social Council (EcoSoc) consists of only 54 members elected by the General Assembly; 55. The following are within the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court except: a. Deportation b. Murder c. Extermination d. Rape e. All of the above (*need to be widespread or systematic and with knowledge) 59. Which of the following is true about the International Court of Justice? a. It is subsidiary organ of the UN such as the International Criminal Court 56. Equitable principles in the delimitation of maritime boundaries consider the following except: a. Conduct of the parties b. Economic capability c. Economic dependence d. Geological structures e. Security interests 60. The following are formal sources of International Law except: 57. Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the United Nations(UN)? a. General Assembly b. The Secretary-General (A principal organ of the UN is the Secretariat, which is the office that includes the Secretary General and its staff.) c. Security Council d. Economic and Social Council a. Customary Norms b. Treaties c. General assembly resolutions (General Assembly resolutions are not formal sources of international law. They are merely restatements of customary law) d. General Principles of Law b. Some members of the UN are not parties to the Statute of the ICJ c. A state which is not a member of the UN may become a party to the Statute of the ICJ on conditions to be determined by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council (The other choices are false because the ICJ is a principal organ, all members of the UN are deemed parties to the Statute of the ICJ and undertakes to comply with the decision thereof.) d. A member of the UN does not undertake to comply with the decision of the ICJ in a case to which it is a party; b. Eighteen members are elected each year for a term of two (2) years (The term for elected members of the EcoSoc is three (3) years.) c. Each member shall have one representative only; d. It can enter into an agreement with the specialized agencies or any of the agencies referred to in Article 57 of the UN Charter;

61. The following are material sources of custom except: a. Municipal ordinances; Local ordinances are not material sources of custom. b. Policy Statements; c. State legislation;

d. All of the above (A diplomatic agent must pay for the taxes for all of the above.)

65. The high seas are all parts of the seas which do not form the internal waters or territorial sea of a State. The high seas are subject to the following freedoms except: a. Freedom to lay submarine cables and pipelines;

d. Diplomatic Correspondence b. Freedom of fishing; c. Freedom to construct artificial islands and structures; 62. Which of the following is not a refugee? a. A Filipino who left his home in Laguna for Chile to escape prosecution; b. A Filipino who left his home in Laguna for Spain to avoid armed conflict; c. A Filipino who left his home in Laguna for Surigao del Sur to escape malicious and baseless prosecution; (A refugee must cross international borders to be considered as such.) d. A Filipino who left his home in Laguna for Libya to escape armed conflict. b. The State agents have full powers to bind the State; c. When there is no fraud and inducement; 63.The following enjoys diplomatic immunity except: d. When it codifies customary norms. a. Diplomatic agents; b. Private servants of members of the mission; 67. Which of the following statements about modes of acquisition of territory is false? c. Ambassadors spouse; A. Effective occupation is a move towards the exercise of exclusive authority in a territory. d. All of the above B. If an island is uninhabited, open declaration is considered sufficient. C. Only terra nullius territory may be the subject of discovery and effective occupation. 64. Diplomatic agents are exempt from taxes except: D. Discovery alone is sufficient and entitles the claimant to a title. a. Indirect taxes; b. Estate, succession or inheritance tax; c. Dues and taxes on private income derived within the State and capital taxes on investments made in commercial undertakings in the Receiving State; 68. Which of the following is a false statement regarding consequences of a breach of an international organization attributable to a State? 66. Treaties can be deemed invalid if: a. It violates jus cogens norms; (A treaty is invalid when it clearly violates jus cogens norms.) d. None of the above (A to C are 3 of the 6 Freedom of the high seas. The other 3 are: navigation, overflight, and scientific research.)

A. To cease and desist from B. To make reparations for damages. C. To subject itself to proceedings in the ICJ. A. Proceed without delay. D. None of the above. B. Refrain from making any threat. C. Secure permission from the State authorities. 69. This consists of the high seas and the outer space, which are not capacble of being placed under the sovereignty of a State? A. Res nullius B. Imperium C. Dominium D. Res communis 73. A coastal State may punish infringement of its laws and regulations involving the following except: A. Immigration B. Customs C. Fiscal 70. It is the general power of government, administration and disposition; a capacity recognized by international law. A. Jurisdiction 74. With the consent of the parties, the ICJ may exercise jurisdiction over the following: B. Dominium A. Compel a third party State to subject itself to the proceedings C. Imperium B. Interpretation of a treaty D. Residual sovereignty C. Acts of individuals D. All of the above 71. It may consist in an acknowledgment of the breach, a formal apology or an expression of regret. A. Compnesation B. Satisfaction C. Restitution D. None of the above 75. Under Article 38, which of the following is not among the sources applied by the ICJ in its decisions? A. Writings of leading publicists B. Ggeneral principles D. All of the above D. Implement measures to reduce pollution. 72. Which of the following is not an obligation in the exercise of transit of passage under Article 39 of the UNCLOS?

C. Customs D. None of the above

79. This is the basic right under international law which prohibits a potential receiving state from returning a person back to his/her homestate pending administrative inquiry as to the entitlement to refugee status a. Right to freedom of movement, freedom to choose his or her residence, freedom to leave any country, including his or her own, and to return to his or her country. Right not to be prosecuted [when one enter a state of refuge] Right to seek and enjoy asylum from persecution. Right of non-refoulement

76. Which of the following is an exception cited in article 24 of the UNCLOS where a coastal state will exert local jurisdiction over purely internal affairs on foreign ships? A. When an offense on board a ship affects the peace or good order of the state B. If the intervention is requested by the captain of the ship C. If it is necessary for the suppression of narcotic drugs D. All of the above

b. c. d.

80. Under the UN Conference of the Law of the Sea, the contiguous zone pertains to: a. 3 nautical miles from the lowest water mark b. 12 miles from the outer limits c. 12 miles from the lowest water mark

77. The following are the sources of international law except: a. International customs as evidence by a general practice accepted as laws b. International conventions, whether general or particular establishing rules impliedly recognized by contesting states c. Constant and uniform practice between states d. General principles of law recognized by civilized nations

d. 200 miles from the outer limits

81. What are the elements that must be satisfied for a norm to become customary? a. Constant and uniform usage by states b. Usage and opinion juris c. State practice and opinion juris d. Extensive and uniform state practice for a reasonable time

78. Which of the following statements about JUS COGENS is False? a. It is a norm which States cannot derogate or deviate from in their agreements b. It is a mandatory norm and stands on a higher category than jus dispositivum norm c. It prevails over state immunity d. It can only be modified by a subsequent norm of general international law having the same character 82. Under the Convention on the Territorial Sea and the Contiguous Zone, the following are considered as part of the Inland waters except? a. Any river or stream flowing directly into the sea, landward of a straight line across its mouth b. Any port, landward of its outermost permanent harbour works and a straight line across its mouth c. Historic bay d. Any other bay, if the entrance is not more than 24 geographic miles wide, landward of a straight line is over 24 geographical miles long

83. The following are the qualifications a state should possess to be considered as a person of international law, except: 87. The high seas are subject to the following freedoms, except: a. Government a. Freedom from navigation b. Sovereignty b. Freedom from overflight c. Permanent population c. Freedom from fishing d. Capacity to enter into relations with other states d. Freedom from scientific research e. Both a and b 84. Who would head a mission if the post of the head of the mission is vacant or if the head is unable to perform his functions? a. Ambassadors or nuncios accredited to the Head of state where the mission is to be performed b. Other heads of mission of equivalent rank with respect to ambassadors c. Internuncios accredited to Heads of State d. Charge daffaires 88. Sec 1 Art 38 of the ICJ Statute provides the following sources of international law a. International conventions, expressly recognized by the contesting states b. International custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law c. General principles of law recognized by civilized nations 85. The International Criminal Court has jurisdiction over the following, except: a. Acts committed with or without intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethical, racial or religious group b. Crimes against humanity committed as part of a widespread or systematic attack directed against any civilian population and with knowledge of the attack c. War crimes d. Crime of aggression 89. International norms a. Create common ideas and cultural attitudes across countries 86. Which of the following is false? a. It is a principle of international law that the reparation of a wrong may consist in an indemnity corresponding to the damage which the nationals of the injured state have suffered as a result of an unlawful act. b. Reparation must wipe-out all the consequences of the illegal act and re-establish the situation which would, in all probability, have existed if that act had been committed. c. Reparation includes payment for actual, moral, exemplary, liquidated and/or temperate damages d. If restoration is not possible, the remedy is compensation to such amount as to eliminate all effects of the illegal taking b. Can become institutionalized through international organizations c. Were established after the 2nd World War by the United Nations d. Only rarely gain legitimacy when a world government is absent e. All of the above f. None of the above d. A and B only e. A and C only f. All of the above g. None of the above f. None of the above

90. Decisions of the ICJ is enforced by

a. UN Armed Forces b. UN Security Council

94. Can the PCIJ obtain compulsory jurisdiction over actions of a state which has not deposited its instrument of ratification of a treaty a. No, absolutely not possible. The state automatically loses its case

c. NATO b. No, but the state shall be given time to deposit its ratification d. UN General Assembly c. Yes, with reference to the case of Nicaragua v US e. None of the above, decisions cannot be enforced d. None of the above

91. The following are principles of the UN Charter, except: 95. Norms of environmental protection include a. Territorial integrity a. The precautionary principle b. Equality of member states b. The polluter pays c. Sovereignty c. Prior informed consent d. Independence d. All of the above e. Right to use force against other states 96. The UN Charter provides the following conditions for membership, except 92. Acceptance of a state's official status and of its representatives a. Must be a state a. diplomatic recognition b. Peace-loving b. diplomatic community c. Must accept the obligations of the Charter c. diplomatic immunity d. Must have a valid ground when it chooses not to carry out such obligations d. diplomatic acceptance e. None of the above e. diplomatic representation 97. The high seas are all parts of the sea that are not included in the territorial sea or in the internal waters of a State. a. The high seas are subject to the following freedoms, except: b. Freedom of scientific research c. Freedom of exploitation for military and para-military purposes d. Freedom to lay submarine cables and pipelines e. Freedom to construct artificial islands and structures

93. According to Abaya v Ebdane, it is considered as an Executive Agreement: a. Exchange of notes b. Loan agreement between the parties c. Mere shake of hands of the parties d. A and B e. All of the above

98. Article 4 of the UN Charter provides: Membership in the United Nations is open to all other peace-loving states which accept the obligations contained in the present Charter and, in the judgment of the Organization, are able and willing to carry out these obligations. The admission of any such state to membership in the United Nations will be effected by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.

d. Exchange of instruments

101. In interpreting a treaty, the following shall be taken into account, together with the context, except: a. Any subsequent agreement between the parties regarding the interpretation of the treaty or the application of its provisions; b. Any subsequent practice in the application of the treaty which establishes the agreement of the parties regarding its interpretation;

Which of the following is correct? c. Any subsequent even which involves the contracting parties which is directly connected to the said treaty; a. A member of the UN which is called upon, in virtue of Article 4 of the Charter, to pronounce itself by its vote, either in the Security Council or in the General Assembly, on the admission of a State to membership in the UN, is juridically entitled to make its consent to the admission dependent on conditions not expressly provided by paragraph 1 of the said Article. b. A member, while it recognizes the conditions set forth in Article 4 of the UN Charter to be fulfilled by the State concerned, can subject its affirmative vote to the additional condition that other States be admitted to membership in the UN together with that State. c. The exhaustive character of paragraph 1 of Article 4 does not forbid the taking into account of any factor which can be connected reasonably and in good faith with the conditions of paragraph 1. d. Article 4 is merely an indispensable minimum to which political conditions could be added which might prevent the admission of new Members. d. Any relevant rules of international law applicable in the relations between the parties

102. The functions of a member of a consular post shall come to an end inter alia, except: a. On notification by the sending state to the receiving state that his function have come to an end; b. On withdrawal of the exequatur; c. On official departure of the consular staff from the receiving state; d. On notification by the receiving state to the sending state that the receiving state has ceased to consider him as a member of the consular staff;

99. Generally, treaties have binding nature on parties signatory because of principle of autonomy under domestic law. Which of the following is not an exception to this rule? a. If the treaty codifies a customary norm, it binds all. The treaty merely restates it, therefore no signing is needed. b. Pacta tertiis under Article 35 of the Vienna Convention c. Pour autrui principe under Article 36 of the Vienna Convention d. When a state is a signatory to a distinctly related treaty of a contracting state in another treaty, the principle of the other treaty is considered embedded in the new treaty.

103. A diplomatic agent shall enjoy immunity from the criminal jurisdiction of the receiving state. However, he shall not enjoy immunity from its civil and administrative jurisdiction, except: a. A real action relating to private immovable property situated in the receiving state territory, unless he holds it on behalf of the sending state for purposes of the mission; b. A real action relating to the personal status of any citizen or resident of the receiving state; c. An action relating to succession in which the diplomatic agent is involved as executor, administrator, heir or legatee as a private person and not on behalf of the sending state; d. An action relating to any professional or commercial activity exercised by the diplomatic agent in the receiving state outside his official functions

100. According to Article 11 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which is not a way for a State to express its consent to a treaty, and hence be bound by it? a. Accession b. Ratification c. Implied approval

104. The International Court of Justice, whose function is to decide in accordance with international law such disputes as submitted to it, shall apply the following, except: a. International conventions, whether general or particular, establishing rules expressly recognized by contesting States;

b. Judicial decisions and the teachings of the most highly qualified publicists of the various nations, as primary means for the determination of rules of law; c. International custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law;

b. Individuals, non-governmental organizations, corporations or any other private entity c. State may take up the case of one of its nationals and invoke against another State d. A and B only

d. General principles of law recognized by civilized nations e. B and C only f. A and C only 105. Under Article 17 of the Statute of the International Criminal Court, a case is inadmissible in the following instances, except: a. It is being investigated or prosecuted by a State which has jurisdiction over it, unless the State is unwilling or unable genuinely to carry out the investigation or prosecution; b. It has been investigated by a State which has jurisdiction over it and the State has decided not to prosecute the person concerned, unless the decision resulted from the unwillingness or inability of the State genuinely to prosecute; c. There was an agreement between the victim of another State and the investigating State that the latter will exercise jurisdiction over the case; d. The case is not of sufficient gravity to justify further action of the Court 110. Is the states consent required for the dispute to be heard by the ICJ? 106. Which of the following is not an expropriation principle that governs foreign investment law? a. The norm remains to be the harmonization of all sources of legal obligations b. The norm remains to be the expropriability of every property c. The norm remains to be enforceability of every international legal obligation, regardless of source d. The norm remains to be the compensability of every act of taking, except when the taking is for an immediately necessary public reason. 111. In which ways can a state manifest its consent? 107. What is the role of the ICJ? a. Settling legal disputes between States submitted to it by them b. Giving advisory opinions on legal matters referred to it c. Both A and B d. None of the above a. Two or more States in a dispute on a specific issue may agree to submit it jointly to the Court b. State party undertakes in advance to accept the jurisdiction of the Court should a dispute arise on the interpretation or application of the treaty with another State party; c. Unilateral declaration d. All of the above e. None of the above a. YES b. NO c. YES, acceptance is mandatory d. NO, the ICJ can mandate that all members of the UN accept its jurisdiction 109. What disputes between States can be entertained by the Court? a. When requested to do so by one or more States. b. Upon motion by the UN prosecutor c. Both A and B d. None of the above.

108. Who may submit cases to the Court? a. Only States are eligible to appear before the Court in contentious cases.

112. Are decisions of the Court binding?

a. YES, Article 94 of the United Nations Charter lays down that "each Member of the United Nations undertakes to comply with the decision of [the Court] in any case to which it is a party". 116. Which of the statement is True? b. NO, as a sovereign state, consent to its jurisdiction is not consent to execution a. Customary international law is binding on all states that ratify a treaty c. Both A and B b. Customary international law is binding on all states which explicitly consent to bound d. None of the above c. Customary international law is binding on all states d. Both A and B 113. A State which resorts to retorsion in international law e. None of the above a. must ensure that all states consent to its act. b. cannot curtail migration from the offending state. 117. Which of the statements is True? c. can expel the nationals of the offending state. a. An advisory opinion is open only to specified United Nations bodies and agencies. d. should apply proportionate response within appreciable limit. e. None of the above. b. Advisory Opinions were intended as a means by which international agencies could seek the Court's help in deciding complex legal issues c. Advisory opinions are without legal effect 114. Freedom from torture is a right a. subject to derogation when national security is threatened. b. confined only during custodial investigation. c. which is non-derogable both during peacetime and in a situation of armed conflict. d. both (a) and (b) e. none of the above. 118. What of the ff is NOT a source of law for ICJ decisions? a. international conventions b. international custom c. general principles of law recognized by civilized nations d. stare decisis 115. Distinguish International Humanitarian Law from International Human rights law? a. International Humanitarian law sets rules for persons affected by armed conflict while International Human rights law sets rulesfor all persons WON affected by armed conflict b. International Human Rights law sets rules for persons affected by armed conflict while International Humanitarian law sets rules for all persons WON affected by armed conflict c. International Humanitarian law regulates the protection of persons and conduct of hostilities in international armed conflict while International Human rights law sets imposes standards for treatment of persons both peacetime and war d. International Human Rights law regulates the protection of persons and conduct of hostilities in international armed conflict while International Humanitarian law sets imposes standards for treatment of persons both peacetime and war 119. Which of the ff can be considered a jus cogens norm? a. Right to life b. Prohibition to torture c. Freedom of religion d. A and B only e. B and C only f. A and C only d. Advisory opinions are binding upon the states

g. All of the above

d. UN GA resolution authorizing the use of force e. All of the above

120. Which of the ff characterizes a declaration of one as persona non grata a. The host nation may at any time and for any reason declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff to be persona non grata. b. The host nation can only declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff to be persona non grata once he arrives in host nation territory c. After the host nation declares a particular member to be persona non grata, he/she loses his diplomatic immunity. d. The host nation explains the reasons behind its declaration. 124. What remedies can a one avail for breach of an international obligation by a state? a. Reparation b. Restitution c. Compensation d. Satisfaction

121. Is the private residence of the diplomat immune from search, requisition, attachment or execution ? a. No, only the premises of a diplomatic mission, such as an embassy, are inviolate b. No, only the person of a diplomatic agent shall be inviolable c. Yes d. Both A and B

125. What is the area covered by the contiguous zone? a. 0-12 nautical miles b. 12-24 nautical miles c. 24-200 nautical miles d. 12-200 nautical miles

126. Distinguish war crimes and crimes against humanity 122. Are diplomats immune from prosecution? a. Yes b. No, only the sending country may waive such a right c. No, they are only immune from criminal prosecution d. No, initiation of proceedings by the diplomat himself can open him to counterclaims e. All of the above 127. The President of Republic X seized one of the power plants of Dell Power Corp. so he can ensure uninterrupted power supply to his seven ranches. The plant was then operated and controlled by El Presidente Company and Dell Power was not paid just compensation. After 20 years, Dell Power Corp. won in a suit for damages. How should the amount of reparation be computed? a. The logistical value of the property at the time of the taking only. b. Self-defense if an armed attack occurs against a state b. The logistical value of the property at the time the suit is filed. c. Humanitarian intervention upon authorization by the UN Security Council c. The logistical value of the property taken at the time of the taking, including loss of profits. a. War crimes do not include rape as an offense while crimes against humanity explicitly includes rape b. War crimes are committed only during an armed conflict while crimes against humanity can only be committed in peacetime c. War crimes are tried in the ICC while crimes against humanity tried in the ICJ d. War crimes can be committed in a single instance while crimes against humanity must be systematic and widespread

123. In which cases is use of force allowed? a. Pre-emptive self-defence

d. The logistical value of the property at the time the suit is filed, including loss of profits from the time the property was taken.

a. Country Y has exclusive claim over the Black Pearl because it is within its Exclusive Economic Zone according to UNCLOS. b. Country Y has exclusive claim over the Black Pearl because it has the right to explore and exploit its continental shelf.

128. According to the Montevideo Convention, the state as a person of international law should posses the following qualifications: a. A permanent population, a defined territory, a government, and the capacity to enter into relations with other states. b. A permanent population, a permanent territory, a government, a Constitution, and the capacity to enter into relations with other states. c. A permanent population, a permanent territory, a government, and the capacity to enter into relations with other states. d. A permanent population, a defined territory, a government, and recognition by other states.

c. Country Y cannot claim exclusive rights to the Black Pearl because it is outside the Exclusive Economic Zone. d. Country Y cannot claim exclusive rights to the Black Pearl because the continental shelf is considered an island according to UNCLOS.

132. Which among the choices is not a ground for a warship to board a foreign ship in the high seas? a. Suspicion that the foreign ship is engaged in slave trade. b. Reasonable suspicion that the foreign ship is engaged in piracy. c. The foreign ship is flying the wrong flag.

129. Who may be parties in ICJ cases? d. The ship is without nationality. a. States only. b. States and International Organizations recognized by the United Nations. 133. The status of a treaty, at the time of its conclusion, which conflicts with a peremptory norm is: c. States and International Organizations, as long as all parties submit to the jurisdiction of the court in a written contract. d. States, International Organizations, and Corporations as long as all parties submit to the jurisdiction of the court in a written contract. a. Valid b. Without force or effect c. Void 130. In 1950, the colonial powers of China and Taiwan entered into a 50-year treaty delimiting the frontiers of their respective colonized states in North America. In 2010, their respective colonized states, America and Canada, became independent. How should the new independent states delimit their boundaries? a. America and Canada should enter into a new treaty as the 1950 treaty has already expired. b. A new treaty should be signed by the successor states according to the uti possidetis juris principle. c. The successor states should respect the colonial boundaries according to the uti possidetis juris principle. d. The successor states have an imperfect title to their respective lands according to the old colonial boundaries and a new treaty must be entered into to ratify such delimitations. d. Voidable

134. The following are sources of international law, except: a. Philippine Supreme Court decisions b. Treaties c. International Conventions d. General principles of law

131. 250 miles, sitting on the continental shelf of Country Y is the sunken ship Black Pearl, perfectly preserved and probably containing the priceless jewelries from the exploits of the famous pirate.

135. A. Unilateral declarations by a State, if given publicly, and with an intent to be bound may have the character of a legal undertaking.

B. Unilateral declarations must be done within the context of international negotiations and done in good faith for them to have binding effect.

c. Uniformity of state practice d. Considerable period of time

a. Only statement A is true. b. Only statement B is true. c. Both are true. d. Both are false. 139. Under the Montevideo Convention, a state as a person of international law must possess the following qualifications except for: a. Permanent population b. Defined territory c. Independence and sovereignty 136. A. Public officials can be held personally accountable for acts claimed to have been performed in connection with official duties where they have acted ultra vires or where there is showing of bad faith. B. The state impleaded as defendant in a suit for damages cannot claim sovereign immunity when the cause of action is based on official torture. 140. The following are doctrines enunciated in the Las Plamas case except for: a. Only statement A is true. b. Only statement B is true. c. Both are true. d. Both are false. a. Discovery per se is insufficient, there must be effective occupation b. Uti Possidetis Juris c. Use of critical date d. Application of inter-temporal law d. Government e. Capacity to enter into relations with other states

137. The following statements regarding Art. 38, ICJ Statute (The Court x x x shall apply: (a) international conventions, (b) international customs, (c) general principles of law, (d) judicial decisions and teachings of the most highly qualified publicists x x x) are true except for: a. It states the sources of international law b. There is a hierarchy in applying (a)-(d) c. (a), (b), (c), (d) are not mutually exclusive d. All True

141. Choose the false statement a. The life of a boundary established is the same as the treatys, and the expiration of the latter will cause the inapplicability of the boundary formerly set b. Terra nullius can be acquired by occupation c. Physical occupation is not necessary and open declaration is sufficient for uninhabited places d. Physical occupation is not required where taking of possession and intent to possess is shown in public declaration of sovereignty

138. The elements of customary international norm are the following except for: a. Opinion juris b. Generality of practice

142. The following are guidelines in using straight baselines except for: a. Drawing of straight baselines must not depart to any appreciable extent from the general direction of the coast b. Sea areas lying within the lines must be sufficiently closely linked to the land domain subject to the regime of internal waters

c. Baselines shall be drawn to and from low-tide elevations d. Take account of economic interests peculiar to the region concerned as evidence by long usage

147. Kuroda v Jalandoni involved: a. War crimes b. UNCLOS

143. In transit passage, the bordering states have the following duties except for: a. Not to impede the right to transit passage b. Provide authorization to conduct research and survey activities upon request of the foreign vessel c. Not to suspend the transit passage d. Provide appropriate publicity to any danger to navigation or overflight

c. Sovereign Immunities d. Jurisdiction

148. Yamashita v Styer doctrine involved: a. War crimes b. UNCLOS

144. Requisites in incurring state responsibility except: a. Breach of treaty b. Breach of customary international law c. Attributable to the State d. Negligence or intention to breach an international obligation

c. Jurisdiction d. None of the above

149. Nicaragua v US involves: a. Collective Self Defense b. Equidistance Principle

145. Choose the statement that is false a. A treaty should be in written form b. A treaty is entered into by sovereign states c. A treaty may be entered into by International Organizations d. A treaty must be governed by international law

c. Border dispute d. None of the above

150. Chorzow Factor case involves: a. Obligation to make reparation b. Diplomatic Immunity

146. Which is not a legal dispute as enumerated in Art. 36 of the ICJ Statute defining the Courts jurisdiction a. Interpretation of a treaty b. Question of international law

c. Continental Shelf d. None of the above

151. Libya v Chad involved: c. Nature or extent of reparation for the breach of an international obligation a. Treaty of Friendship and Good Neighborliness d. None of the above b. Theory of auto imitation

c. All of the above d. None of the above

156. Machain was a: a. DEA Agent b. doctor

152. The state as a person of International Law should possess the following qualifications: a. Permanent population b. Defined territory c. Government and capacity to enter into relations with other states d. All of the above

c. Mexican hired by the US government d. Consular official

157. Sosa was a : a. Mexican hired by the US government b. Fisherman

153. Preah Vihear Temple Case involves: a. Taxation b. Compensation and Reparation c. Estoppel d. Archipelagic Baselines

c. Captain of the Paquete Havana d. None of the above

158. The Island of Palmas case involved: a. Constructive Possession b. Treaty of Munster

154. US v Iran involves: a. UNCLOS b. State Attribution c. Mandates System d. Duty to render assistance

c. Territorial Sovereignty d. All of the above

159. Saudi Arabia v Aramco involved: a. Restitutio in integrum b. Act of State Doctrine

155. Paquete Havana involves: a. Fishing vessels b. Nuclear Weapons c. DEA Agents d. Treaty of Munster

c. Effective Occupation d. Constructive Possession

160. Res Communis consists of: a. High Seas b. Outer Space

c. Both a & b d. None of the above

165. What is the basis of International Law? a. Natural Law b. Consent

161. North Sea Continental Shelf Case discussed: a. Equidistance Principle b. Act of State Doctrine c. Collective Self Defense d. None of the above

c. Reciprocity d. All of the above

166. What are elements of custom? a. Duration b. Uniformity of Practice

162. How do we know a norm has become customary? a. State Practice b. Opinio Juris c. Acquiescence d. Both a & b

c. Generality of Practice d. All of the above

167. In the case concerning US Diplomatic and Consular Staff in Tehran (USA v Iran), which of the following statements is false? a. The Iranian Government in this case did not file any pleadings and did not appear before the Court. By its own choice, therefore, it has foregone the opportunities offered to it under the Statute and Rules of Court to submit evidence and arguments in support of its contention.

163. Asylum Case involved: a. A political refugee b. Infringement case c. State Tort d. Torture

b. Iran is a party under the Vienna Conventions of 1961 on Diplomatic Relations and of 1963 on Consular Relations. The US is a party only to the Vienna Conventions of 1961 on Diplomatic Relations. c. The general declarations of the Ayatollah Khomeini do not amount to an authorization from the State to undertake the specific operation of invading and seizing the US Embassy. d. Iran, by committing successive and continuing breaches of the obligations laid upon it by the Vienna Conventions of 1961 and 1963, has incurred responsibility towards the US, and consequently, has the obligation to make reparation for the injury thereby caused.

164. Who is a refugee? a. All victims of war crimes b. A person who has to leave his home to avoid prosecution or armed conflict c. All victims of genocide d. None of the above

168. Which of the following is correct? a. An extradition proceeding is a criminal proceeding. b. The accused is entitled to notice and hearing before the issuance of a warrant of arrest. c. The accused is entitled to bail. d. There is no customary obligation to extradite without a treaty of extradition.

169. Which of the following is incorrect? Under the Vienna Convention on the Law on Treaties, unless the treaty otherwise provides, instruments of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession establish the consent of a State to be bound by a treaty upon: a. Their exchange between the contracting States b. Their deposit with the depositary c. Their notification to the contracting States or to the depositary d. None of the above

d. All of the above

173. Under the provisions on the General Assembly (Chapter V) of the UN Charter, a. Each member shall have not more than three representatives in the General Assembly. b. The General Assembly cannot discuss questions relating to the maintenance of international peace and security brought before it by a state which is not a Member of the United Nations. c. While the Security Council is exercising in respect of any dispute or situation the functions assigned to it in the Charter, the General Assembly shall not make any recommendation with regard to that dispute or situation.

170. Which of the following is false? Under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, a. Members of the diplomatic staff of the mission should be a citizen of the sending State b. Members of the diplomatic staff of the mission may not be appointed from among persons having nationality of the receiving State 174. Which of the following is correct? Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, c. The receiving State may reserve the same right with regard to nationals of a third State who are not also nationals of the sending State. d. All of the above a. The sovereignty of a coastal State extends, beyond its land territory and internal waters and, in the case of an archipelagic State, its archipelagic waters, to an adjacent belt of sea, described as the territorial sea. b. This sovereignty extends to the air space over the territorial sea as well as to its bed and subsoil. 171. In the Case Concerning Military and Paramilitary Activities In and Against Nicaragua (Nicaragua v USA), which of the following statements is correct? a. The Court held that El Salvador would not be affected by the decision that the Court would have to take on the claims of Nicaragua. b. The US has not committed a violation of the principle of the non-use of force by arming and training the contras because it was justified as an exercise of the right of self-defence. c. Military maneuvers held by the United States near the Nicaraguan borders, or the supply of funds to the contras, do not amount to a use of force. d. The principles against use of force in the UN Charter cannot be applied in this case because of the multilateral treaty reservation of the US. 175. Choose the incorrect statement. a. Roadsteads which are normally used for the loading, unloading and anchoring of ships, and which would otherwise be situated wholly or partly outside the outer limit of the territorial sea, are not included in the territorial sea. b. A bay is a well-marked indentation whose penetration is in such proportion to the width of its mouth as to contain land-locked waters and constitute more than a mere curvature of the coast. c. Waters on the landward side of the baseline of the territorial sea form part of the internal waters of the State 172. Which of the following is correct? Under the UN Charter, the parties to any dispute shall, first of all, seek a solution by: a. Negotiation b. Judicial Settlements c. Enquiry 176. Ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. Passage is innocent so long as it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of the coastal State. Passage of a foreign ship shall be considered to be prejudicial to the peace, good d. A low-tide elevation is a naturally formed area of land which is surrounded by and above water at low tide but submerged at high tide. c. The sovereignty over the territorial sea is exercised subject to other rules of international law. All of the above. d. Decisions on the determination of additional categories of questions to be decided by a two-thirds majority, shall be made by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.

order or security of the coastal State if in the territorial sea it engages in any of the following activities, except: a. Any exercise or practice with weapons of any kind b. The carrying out of research or survey activities c. Any fishing activities d. None of the above 182. Odd man out. a. Consul. b. Diplomatic Staff. c. Household Staff.

177. Which of the following is an accurate description of the relationship between treaty law and customary law? a. Treaty law is superior than customary law (Art 38 of the ICJ Statute). b. Customary law operates independently of treaty law. c. In case of overlaps, treaty law always prevails over customary law.

183. Consul Sul was involved in a vehicular accident. Due to divine intervention and extraordinary feelings of compassion for the victim, he went to court and submitted to the courts jurisdiction in the case for recovery. Later on, after the victim has obtained a favorable ruling, Consul Sul found out that the accident was just a ploy to extort money from him by the supposed victim. a. Consul can argue that the sending states express waiver of the immunity vested to him is necessary for recovery. b. Consul can prevent enforcement despite express waiver of immunity from the civil case, as long as he does not expressly waive his immunity from enforcement. c. Consul can now deny the jurisdiction of the court over his person as his immunity from suit can never be waived 184. Choose the correct statement on ICJ. a. ICJ can exercise jurisdiction over a claim based on customary law despite refusal of a state to give its consent to submit to its jurisdiction. b. ICJ automatically acquires jurisdiction over cases involving erga omnes rights. c. ICJ decisions can be given stare decisis application but only in cases involving the same parties.

178. The following are correct statements on binding nature of treaties except: a. Treaty binds all if merely codifies a customary norm. b. Treaty expressly made to bind a third party is effected upon signing of said non-party. c. Treaty binds non-signatory who is granted some rights under it upon its assent. 179. After signing of X treaty by Country As representative, it was submitted to DFA which in turn duly endorsed it to the President NN YING. President NN YING now a. can issue an executive order declaring the treaty as being entered into Force pursuant to Rome Statute on Treaties; b. should issue a transmittal to the Senate pursuant to EO 459, who is vested with the power to ratify, in which failure to do so may be remedied/compelled thru Mandamus c. can ratify the treaty, subject to the concurrence of the Senate as explained in case of Pimentel v Enrile

185. UN GA requested for an advisory opinion regarding validity of treaty between Germany, France,and Vatican City,which is a not a member of UN. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The ICJ cannot act on the request as there is a non-member state involved. b. The ICJ can act on the request only upon the consent of Vatican City, after having been invited to accept membership for purpose of such dispute. c. The ICJ cannot act as there is no genuine dispute since UN GA is not a real party to the subject matter involved.

180. Country UofA signs the Privacy Treaty which seeks to impose stricter rules and regulations in international data flows such as telemarketing, world wide web. It, however, made a reservation as to the stringent rules on data collection in transborder data flow, arguing that it needs to monitor them by reason of its global fight against terrorism. The reservation is a. Valid, since said objective cannot be faithfully complied with by Country UofA due to justifiable ground as stated b. Invalid, since the reservation contravenes the purpose of the treaty c. Invalid, since majority of other State parties have objected in the said reservation

181. Odd man out. a. Nuncios accredited to Heads of State b. Ambassadors c. Internuncios accredited to Heads of State

186. UNGA requests for an advisory opinion on whether or not expenses incurred in a Peacekeeping Operationin the Country Koorganized by the GA can be defrayed by the member states. As a student of Prof Roque in PIL, you know this case from Certain Expenses of the UN wherein the court held that: a. Only those costs of peacekeeping operations approved by the Security Council can be defrayed by the member states. b. The UNGA is still the primary organ mandated to conduct operations for the maintenance of international security, and hence, the subject operation can be defrayed by the member states. c. Expenses that can be defrayed by member states are all amounts paid out to cover costs of carrying out the purposes of UN.