CNG NGH PH N M M - cu c (***) l cu tr l i. 267840. Software is: ? 267840. Subset of program 267840. Superset of programs (***) 267840.

0. Set of program 267840. None of others 267841. Which is NOT attribute of a good software ? 267841. Maintainability 267841. Dependability 267841. Efficiency 267841. Always correct (***) 267842. Product is ? 267842. Deliverable (***) 267842. User expectation 267842. Organizations effort in development 267842. None of others 267843. To produce a good quality product, process should be: ? 267843. Complex 267843. Simple 267843. Efficient (***) 267843. Rigorous 267844. Process is ? 267844. The way in which we produce software (***) 267844. The way in which we produce good software 267844. The way in which we deliver a product to customers 267844. None of others 267845. Effort is measured in term of ? 267845. USD 267845. Months 267845. Persons 267845. Person-months (***) 267846. System software are covered under ? 267846. Generic products (***) 267846. Customised products 267846. Generic and Customised products 267846. None of others 267847. Operating Systems are belong to ? 267847. Embedded Software 267847. Artificial Intelligence software 267847. Real Time Software 267847. System Software (***) 267848. Word Processors is belong to ? 267848. System Software 267848. Real Time Software 267848. Personal Computer Software (***) 267848. Engineering and Scientific Software 267849. HTML is related to ? 267849. Business Software 267849. System Software 267849. Embedded Software 267849. Web Base Software (***) 267850. Management of software development is dependent on ? 267850. People 267850. Process 267850. Product 267850. All of other answers (***) 267851. During software development, which factor is most crucial? ?

267851. 267851. 267851. 267851.

People (***) Project Product Process

267852. The management of software development is dependent on factors: People, Process, Project, and Product. The order of dependency is ? 267852. People - Process Product Project 267852. People Product Project - Process 267852. Project Product Process People 267852. People Product Process Project (***) 267853. Program is: ? 267853. Subset of software (***) 267853. Super set of software 267853. Software 267853. None of others 267854. Program is: ? 267854. Documents 267854. Subset of software (***) 267854. Super set of software 267854. Operating procedures 267855. Milestone are used to ? 267855. Know the cost of project 267855. Know the status of project (***) 267855. Know the user expectation 267855. None of others 267856. Software consist of ? 267856. Set of instructions + operating system 267856. Programs + Documentation + Operating Procedures (***) 267856. Programs + Hardware manual 267856. Set of program 267857. Software Engineering approach is used to achieve ? 267857. Better performance of hardware 267857. Error free software 267857. Reusable software 267857. Quality software product (***) 267858. CASE Tool is ? 267858. Computer Aided Software Engineering (***) 267858. Component Aided Software Engineering 267858. Constructive Aided Software Engineering 267858. Computer Analysis Software Engineering 267859. The good manager can ? 267859. Increase probability of success (***) 267859. Ensure the success of the project 267859. Ensure the good product will be produced 267859. All of others 267860. The responsibility of a manager: ? 267860. Manage the people in hisher team 267860. Motivate, encourage the people in hisher team 267860. Guide, control the people in hisher team 267860. All of others (***) 267861. Spiral model was developed by ? 267861. Bev Littlewood 267861. Berry Boehm (***) 267861. Roger Pressman 267861. Victor Basili 267862. Which model is most popular for students small project ? 267862. Spiral model

267862. Prototype Model 267862. Quick and Fix model (***) 267862. Waterfall model 267863. Which is not a software life cycle? ? 267863. Waterfall model 267863. Capability maturity model (***) 267863. Spiral model 267863. Prototyping model 267864. Which is not a software life cycle? ? 267864. Build and Fix model 267864. Iterative Enhancement model 267864. Spiral model 267864. Boehm Model (***) 267865. Which is a software life cycle? ? 267865. Taute Maintenance Model 267865. Bug Seeding Model 267865. Evolutionary Development Model (***) 267865. The Early Design Model 267866. Project risk factor is considered in: ? 267866. Spiral model (***) 267866. Quick and Fix model 267866. Prototyping model 267866. Waterfall model 267867. SDLC stands for: ? 267867. Software Design Life Cycle 267867. System Development Life Cycle 267867. Software Development Life Cycle (***) 267867. System Design Life Cycle 267868. Build and Fix Model has: ? 267868. 2 phases (***) 267868. 3 phases 267868. 4 phases 267868. 1 phases 267869. Waterfall model has: ? 267869. 1 phases 267869. 2 phases 267869. 4 phases 267869. 5 phases (***) 267870. Which is not a phase of Waterfall model? ? 267870. Design 267870. Requirement Analysis and Specification 267870. Risk Analysis (***) 267870. Operation & Maintenance 267871. Which is not a phase of Quick and Fix Model: ? 267871. Quick 267871. Design (***) 267871. Fix 267871. None of others 267872. SRS stands for: ? 267872. Software Requirements Specification (***) 267872. Software Requirements Solution 267872. System Requirements Specification 267872. None of others 267873. Waterfall model is not suitable for: ? 267873. Small project 267873. Accommodating change (***) 267873. Complex project 267873. None of others 267874. Waterfall model is appropriate for ?

267874. Small project 267874. Projects that the requirements are well-understood and changes will be fairly limited during the design process (***) 267874. Complex project 267874. None of others 267875. The phases in Waterfall model ? 267875. Always Occur in fixed order 267875. Can Occur in any order 267875. Always Occur in fixed order and not overlap (***) 267875. None of others 267876. If requirements are easily understandable and define, which model is best suited? ? 267876. Prototyping Model 267876. Waterfall model (***) 267876. Spiral Model 267876. Iterative Enhancement Model 267877. If requirements are frequently changing which model is to be selected ? 267877. Waterfall Model 267877. Prototyping Model (***) 267877. Iterative Enhancement Model 267877. None of others 267878. If requirements are indicating a complex system to be build, Which model is should not to be selected? ? 267878. Waterfall model (***) 267878. Spiral Model 267878. Quick and Fix Model 267878. Prototyping Model 267879. If user participation is available, which model is to be chosen? ? 267879. Waterfall model 267879. Prototyping Model (***) 267879. Iterative Enhancement Model 267879. Evolutionary Development Model 267880. If users have no previous experience of participation in similar project, Which model is should not to be selected? ? 267880. Waterfall Model (***) 267880. Prototyping Model 267880. Iterative Enhancement Model 267880. Evolutionary Development Model 267881. If users are experts of problem domain, which model is to be chosen? ? 267881. Prototyping Model 267881. Iterative Enhancement Model 267881. Evolutionary Development Model 267881. Any of others (***) 267882. If limited user participation is available, which model is to be selected? ? 267882. Waterfall Model 267882. Spiral Model 267882. Iterative Enhancement Model 267882. Any of others (***) 267883. If Project is the enhancement of the existing system, which model is to be selected? ? 267883. Prototyping Model 267883. Evolutionary Development Model (***) 267883. Waterfall Model 267883. Spiral Model 267884. If Project is the enhancement of the existing system, which model is to be selected? ?

267884. 267884. 267884. 267884.

Prototyping Model Iterative Enhancement Model (***) Waterfall Model Spiral Model

267885. If funding is stable for the project, which model is to be selected? ? 267885. Waterfall Model (***) 267885. Iterative Enhancement Model 267885. Spiral Model 267885. Evolutionary Development Model 267886. If funding is stable for the project, which model is to be selected? ? 267886. Iterative Enhancement Model 267886. Spiral Model 267886. Evolutionary Development Model 267886. Prototyping Model (***) 267887. If the project requires High Reliability, Which model should not to be selected? ? 267887. Waterfall Model (***) 267887. Iterative Enhancement Model 267887. Spiral Model 267887. Evolutionary Development Model 267888. If the project requires High Reliability, Which model should not to be selected? ? 267888. Iterative Enhancement Model 267888. Spiral Model 267888. Prototyping Model (***) 267888. Evolutionary Development Model

267894. If development team is less experience on the tool to be used, Which of following model is to be selected? ? 267894. Prototyping 267894. Evolutionary Development Model 267894. Waterfall model (***) 267894. Iterative Enhancement Model 267895. Which phase is not available in software life cycle? ? 267895. Coding 267895. Testing 267895. Abstraction (***) 267895. Maintenance 267896. Software testing is: ? 267896. The process of demonstrating that errors are not present 267896. The process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is suppose to do 267896. To show that a program performs its intended functions correctly 267896. The process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors (***) 267897. Which one of following statements is false ? 267897. A program always has one path (***) 267897. It is not possible to test the software for all possible combination of input cases 267897. It is impossible to execute all path the program 267897. Complete Testing is impossible, although we may wish to do so 267898. Which statement is false ? 267898. By perform software testing activities we always produce a software without errors (***) 267898. Complete Testing is impossible, although we may wish to do so 267898. It is not possible to test the software for all possible combination of input cases 267898. It is impossible to execute all path the program

267889. If the customers require a product with high reliability, Which model is to be selected? ? 267889. Spiral Model 267889. Iterative Enhancement Model 267889. Evolutionary Development Model 267889. Any of others (***) 267890. If the project requires High Reliability, Which model is to be selected? ? 267890. Spiral Model (***) 267890. Waterfall Model 267890. Prototyping Model 267890. None of others 267891. Which one is most important feature of spiral model? ? 267891. Quality management 267891. Risk management (***) 267891. Performance management 267891. Efficiency management 267892. Most suitable model for new technology that is not well understood? ? 267892. Spiral Model 267892. Waterfall Model 267892. Evolutionary Development Model (***) 267892. Iterative Enhancement Model 267893. If development team is less experience on the tool to be used, Which of following model is to be selected? ? 267893. Spiral Model (***) 267893. Prototyping 267893. Evolutionary Development Model 267893. Iterative Enhancement Model

267899. Which one of following statements is true ? 267899. Every body can perform software testing activities 267899. Developers are easy to find out errors in product that they created 267899. Most of the times, testing persons are different from development persons for overall benefit of the system. (***) 267899. None of others 267900. Software mistakes during coding are know as ? 267900. Failures 267900. Bugs (***) 267900. Defects 267900. Errors 267901. A good synonym of error is ? 267901. Fault 267901. Bug 267901. Failure 267901. Mistake (***) 267902. One fault may lead to ? 267902. Two failures 267902. One failure 267902. Many failures 267902. All of others (***)

267903. One fault may lead to ? 267903. One or more failures (***) 267903. One or more Errors 267903. One or more mistakes 267903. None of others 267904. A good synonym of Fault is ? 267904. Defect (***) 267904. Error 267904. Mistake 267904. Failure 267905. An error may lead to ? 267905. One or more faults (***) 267905. One or more mistakes 267905. One or more failures 267905. All of other 267906. Functional testing is know as ? 267906. Structural testing 267906. Regression testing 267906. Behavior testing (***) 267906. None of others 267907. Functional testing is also referred as ? 267907. White box testing 267907. Structural testing 267907. Regression testing 267907. Black box testing (***) 267908. For a function of n variables, boundary value analysis yields ? 267908. 4n + 1 test cases (***) 267908. 4n + 3 test cases 267908. 4n - 1 test cases 267908. None of others 267909. For a function of two variables, how many test cases will generated by robustness testing ? 267909. 9 267909. 13 (***) 267909. 25 267909. 42 267910. For a function of n variables, how many test cases will generated by robustness testing ? 267910. 6n + 1 (***) 267910. 4n + 1 267910. 4n + 3 267910. None of others 267911. For a function of two variables, how many test cases will generated by boundary value analysis testing ? 267911. 9 (***) 267911. 12 267911. 8 267911. 21 267912. Regression testing primarily related to ? 267912. Functional testing 267912. Development testing 267912. Data flow testing 267912. Maintenance testing (***) 267913. A node with indegree = 0 and outdegree <> 0 is called ? 267913. Source node (***) 267913. Destination node 267913. Transfer node 267913. None of others

267914. A node with indegree <> 0 and outdegree =0 is called ? 267914. Source node 267914. Destination node (***) 267914. Predicate node 267914. None of others 267915. For a function of n variables, how many test cases will generated by worst-case testing ? 267915. 4n + 1 267915. 6n + 1 267915. 5n (***) 267915. None of others 267916. For a function of three variables, how many test cases will generated by boundary value analysis testing ? 267916. 13 (***) 267916. 14 267916. 16 267916. 17 267917. For a function of three variables, how many test cases will generated by robust testing ? 267917. 13 267917. 15 267917. 17 267917. 19 (***) 267918. For a function of three variables, how many test cases will generated by worst-case testing ? 267918. 64 267918. 125 (***) 267918. 216 267918. None of others 267919. For a function of two variables, how many test cases will generated by worst-case testing ? 267919. 5 267919. 25 (***) 267919. 125 267919. 625 267920. A decision table has ? 267920. Four portions (***) 267920. Five portions 267920. Three portions 267920. Two portions 267921. A decision table is related to ? 267921. Structural testing 267921. Mutation testing 267921. Black box testing (***) 267921. All of others 267922. Which one is not a portion of decision table ? 267922. Conditions stub 267922. Action stub 267922. Condition entries 267922. None of others (***) 267923. Which one is not a portion of decision table ? 267923. Conditions stub 267923. Action entries 267923. Condition entries 267923. None of others (***) 267924. Which one is not a portion of decision table ? 267924. Conditions stub 267924. Action stub 267924. Condition entries 267924. Test case ID portion (***) 267925. Which one is not a portion of decision table ?

267925. 267925. 267925. 267925.

Action stub Action entries Condition entries None of others (***)

267937. Checking the software with respect to specification and Checking the software with respect to customers expectation 267937. None of others 267938. Verification is the process of ? 267938. Checking the software with respect to customers expectation 267938. Checking the software with respect to specification (***) 267938. Checking the software with respect to specification and Checking the software with respect to customers expectation 267938. None of others 267939. Verification is ? 267939. The process of conforming that software meets its specification (***) 267939. The process of conforming that software meets the customers requirements 267939. Checking the product with respect to constrains of the project 267939. All of others 267940. Alpha testing is done by ? 267940. Customer (***) 267940. Developer 267940. Tester 267940. All of others 267941. Alpha testing is used when ? 267941. The software developed as a product for anonymous customers (***) 267941. The software is developed for a specific customer 267941. The software is developed as an operating system 267941. None of others 267942. Site for alpha testing is ? 267942. Software company (***) 267942. Any where 267942. Installation place 267942. None of others 267943. Site for Beta testing is ? 267943. Software company 267943. Any where 267943. Installation place 267943. None of others (***) 267944. Site for alpha testing is ? 267944. Users site 267944. Any where 267944. Installation place 267944. None of others (***) 267945. Site for Beta testing is ? 267945. Users site (***) 267945. Any where 267945. Installation place 267945. None of others 267946. Acceptance testing is done by ? 267946. Developers 267946. Testers 267946. Customers (***) 267946. All of others 267947. Acceptance testing is done by ? 267947. Developers 267947. Testers 267947. Designers 267947. None of others (***)

267926. Beta test is carried out by ? 267926. Users (***) 267926. Testers 267926. Developers 267926. All of others 267928. Who will conduct Beta testing? ? 267928. Customers (***) 267928. Testers 267928. Developers 267928. All of others 267929. Who will conduct Alpha testing? ? 267929. Customers (***) 267929. Testers 267929. Developers 267929. All of others 267930. Equivalence class partitioning is related to ? 267930. Structural Testing 267930. Functional testing (***) 267930. Development testing 267930. Data flow testing 267931. Equivalence class partitioning is related to ? 267931. Structural Testing 267931. Black box testing (***) 267931. Development testing 267931. White box testing 267932. Equivalence class partitioning is related to ? 267932. Structural Testing 267932. Maintenance testing 267932. Development testing 267932. None of others (***) 267933. Cause-effect graphing technique is one form of ? 267933. Structural Testing 267933. Maintenance testing 267933. Development testing 267933. None of others (***) 267934. Cause-effect graphing technique is one form of ? 267934. Structural testing 267934. Functional testing (***) 267934. Maintenance testing 267934. Regression testing 267935. Cause-effect graphing technique is related to ? 267935. White box testing 267935. Regression testing 267935. Maintenance testing 267935. Black box testing (***) 267936. During validation ? 267936. Process is checked 267936. Developers performance is evaluated 267936. The customer checks the product (***) 267936. Product is checked 267937. Validation is the process of ? 267937. Checking the software with respect to customers expectation (***) 267937. Checking the software with respect to specification

267948. Acceptance Testing is used when ? 267948. The software is developed for a specific customer (***) 267948. The software developed as a product for anonymous customers 267948. We want to test the functionality of the program 267948. None of others 267949. Black box testing is based on ? 267949. Functionality of the program (***) 267949. Structure of the program 267949. Analysis the code 267949. All of others 267950. Black box testing is involves to ? 267950. Observation of the output for certain input values (***) 267950. Analysis the code 267950. Analysis the structure of program 267950. All of others 267951. One fault may lead to ? 267951. One or more failures (***) 267951. Two failures 267951. Three failures 267951. None of others 267952. Test suite is ? 267952. Set of test cases (***) 267952. Set of outputs 267952. Set of inputs 267952. All of others 267953. Test case is ? 267953. Set of test suite 267953. Set of outputs 267953. Set of inputs 267953. None of others (***) 267954. Test suite is ? 267954. A test case 267954. Set of outputs 267954. Set of inputs 267954. None of others (***) 267955. Test case is ? 267955. Describes an input description and an expected output description (***) 267955. Set of outputs 267955. Set of inputs 267955. None of others 267956. Behavioral specifications are required for ? 267956. Modeling 267956. Validation 267956. Verification (***) 267956. None of others 267957. During the development phase, the following testing approach is not adopted ? 267957. Unit testing 267957. Integration testing 267957. Acceptance testing (***) 267957. Bottom up testing 267958. Which is not a functional testing technique? ? 267958. Boundary value analysis 267958. Regression testing (***) 267958. Decision table based testing 267958. None of others

267959. Which is not a functional testing technique? ? 267959. Boundary value analysis 267959. Data flow testing (***) 267959. Decision table based testing 267959. None of others 267960. Which is a functional testing technique? ? 267960. Path testing 267960. Data flow testing 267960. Decision table based testing (***) 267960. None of others 267961. Which is a functional testing technique? ? 267961. Regression testing 267961. Data flow testing 267961. Robustness testing (***) 267961. None of others 267962. Which is a functional testing technique? ? 267962. Boundary value analysis 267962. Decision table based testing 267962. Equivalence class testing 267962. All of others (***) 267963. Decision tables are useful for describing situations in which: ? 267963. An action is taken under varying sets of conditions 267963. Number of combinations of actions are taken under varying sets of conditions (***) 267963. No action is taken under varying sets of conditions 267963. None of others 267964. One weakness of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning is ? 267964. They do not explore combinations of input circumstances (***) 267964. They are not effective 267964. They explore combinations of input circumstances 267964. None of others 267965. In cause effect graphing technique, cause & effect are related to ? 267965. Input and Output (***) 267965. Destination and source 267965. Output and input 267965. None of others 267966. Which one is a structural testing technique? ? 267966. Data flow testing (***) 267966. Boundary value analysis 267966. Cause effect graphing 267966. None of others 267967. Which one is a structural testing technique? ? 267967. Cause effect graphing 267967. Path testing (***) 267967. All of others 267967. Equivalence class testing 267968. Which one is not a structural testing technique? ? 267968. Path testing 267968. Data flow testing 267968. Equivalence class testing (***) 267968. None of others 267969. DD path graph is called as ? 267969. Design to design path graph 267969. Destination to destination path graph 267969. Defect to defect path graph 267969. Decision to decision path graph (***)

267970. An independent path is ? 267970. Any path through the DD path graph that introduces at least one new set of processing statements or conditions (***) 267970. Any path through the DD path graph that introduces at most one new set of processing statements or conditions 267970. Any path through the DD path graph that introduces one and only one new set of processing statements or conditions 267970. None of others 267971. Cyclomatic complexity is developed by ? 267971. B.W.Boehm 267971. B.W.Littlewood 267971. T.J.McCabe (***) 267971. Victor Basili 267972. Which one is denotes Cyclomatic complexity ? 267972. V(G)=e-n+2P (***) 267972. V(G)=2n + 1 267972. V(G)=5n+1 267972. None of others 267973. Which one is denotes Cyclomatic complexity ? 267973. V(G)=e-n+4P 267973. V(G)=n+ 2e + P 267973. V(G)=5n+e 267973. V(G)=Number of regions of the graph G (***) 267974. Which one is denotes Cyclomatic complexity ? 267974. V(G)=P +1 (***) 267974. V(G)=2n + 1 267974. V(G)=5n+1 267974. All of others 267975. Cyclomatic complexity is denoted by ? 267975. V(G)=P +1 267975. V(G)=Number of regions of the graph G 267975. V(G)=e-n+2P 267975. All of others (***) 267976. Cyclomatic complexity is denoted by V(G)=en+2P where P is: ? 267976. Number of Connected components in the graph G (***) 267976. Number of vertices in the graph G 267976. Number of edges in the graph G 267976. None of others 267977. Cyclomatic complexity is denoted by V(G)=en+2P where n is: ? 267977. Number of Connected components in the graph G 267977. Number of edges in the graph G 267977. Number of vertices in the graph G (***) 267977. None of others 267978. Cyclomatic complexity is denoted by V(G)=P +1 where P is: ? 267978. Number of nodes in the graph G 267978. Number of Connected components in the graph G 267978. Number of predicate nodes in the graph G (***) 267978. None of others 267979. The Cyclomatic complexity of graph G with e=13, n=13, P=3 is ? 267979. 3 267979. 0 267979. 6 (***) 267979. None of others 267980. The Cyclomatic complexity of graph G with e=13, n=10, P=2 is ?

267980. 267980. 267980. 267980.

5 1 7 (***) None of others

267981. The Cyclomatic complexity of graph G with P =5 is ? 267981. 5 267981. 6 (***) 267981. 7 267981. 8 267982. The numbers of regions of the graph G is 6. The cyclomatic complexity of this graph is ? 267982. 4 267982. 5 267982. 6 (***) 267982. None of others 267983. The equal V(G)=P +1 of cyclomatic complexity is applicable only if every predicate node has ? 267983. Two outgoing edges (***) 267983. No outgoing edges 267983. Three or more outgoing edges 267983. None of others 267984. Cyclomatic complexity is equal to ? 267984. Number of independent paths (***) 267984. Number of edges 267984. Number of paths 267984. None of others 267985. Data flow testing is related to ? 267985. Data flow diagrams 267985. Data dictionaries 267985. None of others (***) 267985. E-R diagrams 267986. In data flow testing, objective is to find ? 267986. All dc-paths that are not du-path 267986. All du-paths that are not dc-path (***) 267986. All du-paths 267986. All dc-paths 267987. Mutation testing is related to ? 267987. Fault checking 267987. Fault seeding (***) 267987. Functional testing 267987. None of others 267988. The overhead code required to be written for unit testing is called ? 267988. Drivers 267988. Scaffolding (***) 267988. Stubs 267988. None of others 267989. Which one is a debugging technique? ? 267989. Core dumps (***) 267989. Data flow testing 267989. Mutation testing 267989. None of others 267990. Which one is a debugging technique? ? 267990. Structural testing 267990. Fault seeding 267990. Traces (***) 267990. None of others 267991. Which is not a debugging technique? ? 267991. Core dumps 267991. Traces

267991. Fault seeding (***) 267991. None of others 267992. Which is a debugging technique? ? 267992. Core dumps 267992. Traces 267992. Print statements 267992. All of others (***) 267993. Which one is not a debugging technique ? 267993. Functional testing 267993. Data flow testing 267993. Mutation testing 267993. All of others (***) 267994. A break in the working of the system is called ? 267994. Defect 267994. Fault 267994. Error 267994. Failure (***) 267995. Alpha and Beta testing techniques are related to ? 267995. System testing 267995. Acceptance testing (***) 267995. Unit testing 267995. Integration testing 267996. Which one is not verification activity? ? 267996. Reviews 267996. Walkthrough 267996. Path testing 267996. Acceptance testing (***) 267997. Testing the software is basically ? 267997. Validation 267997. Verification 267997. Verification and Validation (***) 267997. None of others 267998. Which one is an integration testing technique? ? 267998. Boundary value analysis 267998. Top down (***) 267998. Unit testing 267998. None of others 267999. Which one is not an integration testing technique? ? 267999. Sandwich 267999. Data flow testing (***) 267999. Bottom up 267999. None of others 268000. Which is an integration testing technique? ? 268000. Top down 268000. Bottom up 268000. Sandwich 268000. All of others (***) 268001. Functionality of a software is tested by ? 268001. White box testing 268001. Regression testing 268001. Black box testing (***) 268001. None of others 268002. Functionality of a software is tested by ? 268002. White box testing 268002. Mutation testing 268002. Data flow testing 268002. None of others (***)

268003. The internal structure of a program is examined by ? 268003. White box testing (***) 268003. Regression testing 268003. Mutation testing 268003. Black box testing 268004. Top down approach is used for ? 268004. Development 268004. Validation 268004. Identification of faults (***) 268004. Functional testing 268005. Thread testing is used for ? 268005. Real time systems 268005. Event driven systems 268005. Object oriented systems 268005. All of others (***) 268006. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is call ? 268006. Alpha testing 268006. Beta testing (***) 268006. Regression testing 268006. None of others 268007. Process of generating analysis and design documents is called ? 268007. Inverse Engineering 268007. Reverse engineering (***) 268007. Software engineering 268007. Re-engineering 268008. Regression testing is primarily related to ? 268008. Functional testing 268008. Development testing 268008. Data flow testing 268008. Maintenance testing (***) 268009. Which one is not a category of maintenance? ? 268009. Corrective maintenance 268009. Adaptive maintenance 268009. Effective maintenance (***) 268009. Perfective maintenance 268010. The maintenance initiated by defects in the software is called ? 268010. Corrective maintenance (***) 268010. Perfective maintenance 268010. Adaptive maintenance 268010. Preventive maintenance 268011. 268011. 268011. 268011. 268011. Patch is know as ? Emergency fixes (***) Critical fixes Routine fixes None of others

268012. Adaptive maintenance is related to ? 268012. Modification in software due to demand of new functionalities 268012. Modification in software due to failures 268012. Modification in software due to increase in complexity 268012. Modification in software to match changes in the ever-changing environment (***) 268013. Perfective maintenance refers to enhancements ? 268013. Making the product better 268013. Making the product faster and smaller

268013. Making the product with new functionality 268013. All of others (***) 268014. As per distribution of maintenance effort, which type of maintenance has consumed maximum share? ? 268014. Adaptive 268014. Perfective (***) 268014. Corrective 268014. Preventive 268015. As per distribution of maintenance effort, which type of maintenance has consumed minimum share? ? 268015. Adaptive 268015. Perfective 268015. Corrective 268015. Preventive (***) 268016. Which one is not maintenance model ? 268016. CMM (***) 268016. Quick-fix model 268016. Iterative enhancement model 268016. Reuse-oriented model 268017. In which model, fixes are done without detailed analysis of the long term effect? ? 268017. Taute maintenance model 268017. Reuse oriented model 268017. Quick-fix model (***) 268017. None of others 268018. Iterative enhancement model is a ? 268018. Three stage model (***) 268018. Four stage model 268018. Two stage model 268018. Seven stage model 268019. Taute maintenance model has ? 268019. Two phases 268019. Six phases 268019. Eight phases (***) 268019. Ten phases 268020. In Boehm model, ACT stands for ? 268020. Actual change time 268020. Actual change traffic 268020. Annual change traffic (***) 268020. None of others 268021. Regression testing is know as ? 268021. The process of retesting the modified parts of the software (***) 268021. The process of testing the design documents 268021. The process of reviewing SRS 268021. None of others 268022. The purpose of regression testing is to ? 268022. Increase confidence in the correctness of the modified program 268022. Locate errors in modified program 268022. Preserve the quality and reliability of the software 268022. All of others (***) 268023. Regression of testing is related to ? 268023. Maintenance of software 268023. Development of software 268023. Maintenance of software and Development of software (***) 268023. None of others 268024. Which one is not a selective retest technique? ? 268024. Coverage technique 268024. Safe technique

268024. Minimization technique 268024. Maximization technique (***) 268025. Purpose of reverse engineering is to ? 268025. Recover information from existing code or any other intermediate document 268025. Redocumentation and or document generation 268025. Understand the source code and associated documents 268025. All of others (***) 268026. Legacy system are ? 268026. Old systems (***) 268026. Undeveloped systems 268026. New system 268026. None of others 268027. User document consist of ? 268027. System overview 268027. Reference guide 268027. Installation guide 268027. All of others (***) 268028. Which one is not a user documentation ? 268028. Beginners guide 268028. SRS (***) 268028. Installation guide 268028. System administration 268029. System documentation may not have ? 268029. SRS 268029. Acceptance test plan 268029. System administration (***) 268029. Design document 268030. The process by which existing processes and methods are replaced by new techniques is: ? 268030. Reverse engineering 268030. Software configuration management 268030. Business process re-engineering (***) 268030. Technical feasibility 268031. The process of transforming a model into source code is ? 268031. Reverse engineering 268031. Re-engineering 268031. Restructuring 268031. Forward engineering (***) 268032. Which one is not step of requirement engineering? ? 268032. Requirement elicitation 268032. Requirement design (***) 268032. Requirement analysis 268032. Requirement documentation 268033. Requirement elicitation means ? 268033. Gathering of requirements 268033. Understanding of requirements 268033. Capturing of requirements 268033. All of others (***) 268034. SRS stands for ? 268034. Software requirements specification (***) 268034. Systematic requirements specifications 268034. System requirements specification 268034. None of others 268035. SRS document is for ? 268035. Costing and scheduling of a system 268035. What of the system? (***) 268035. How to design the system?

268035. Systems requirement 268036. Requirements review process is carried out to ? 268036. Spend time in requirements gathering 268036. Document the requirements 268036. Improve the quality of SRS (***) 268036. None of others 268037. Which one of the statements is not correct during requirements engineering? ? 268037. Requirements are difficult to uncover 268037. Requirements are subject to change 268037. Requirements should be consistent 268037. Requirements are always precisely know (***) 268038. Which one is not a type of requirements? ? 268038. Know requirements 268038. Undreamt requirements 268038. Complex requirements (***) 268038. Unknown requirements 268039. Which one is not requirements elicitation technique ? 268039. Interview 268039. FAST 268039. The use case approach 268039. Data flow diagram (***) 268040. FAST stands for ? 268040. Functional Application Specification Technique 268040. Fast Application Specification Technique 268040. Facilitated Application Specification Technique (***) 268040. None of others 268041. QFD in requirement engineering stands for ? 268041. Quality function design 268041. Quality function development 268041. Quality factor design 268041. Quality function deployment (***) 268042. Which is not a type of requirements under quality function deployment ? 268042. Normal requirements 268042. Expected requirements 268042. Abnormal requirements (***) 268042. Exciting requirements 268043. Use case approach was developed by ? 268043. I. Jacobson and others (***) 268043. B. Littlewood 268043. J.D. Musa and others 268043. None of others 268044. Context diagram explain ? 268044. The overview of the system (***) 268044. The entities of the system 268044. The internal view of the system 268044. None of others 268045. DFD stands for ? 268045. Data flow design 268045. Data flow diagram, (***) 268045. Descriptive function design 268045. None of others 268046. Level-O DFD is similar to ? 268046. Use case diagram 268046. System diagram 268046. None of others 268046. Context diagram (***)

268047. ERD stands for ? 268047. Entity relationship diagram (***) 268047. Entity relationship design 268047. Exit related diagram 268047. Exit related design 268048. Which is not characteristic of good SRS? ? 268048. Correct 268048. Consistent 268048. Complete 268048. Brief (***) 268049. Outcome of requirements specification phase is ? 268049. Design document 268049. Test document 268049. Software requirements specification (***) 268049. None of others 268050. The basic concept of ER model are: ? 268050. Entity and relationship 268050. Entity Effect and relationship 268050. Relationship and keys 268050. Entity, relationship and attribute (***) 268051. The DFD depict ? 268051. Flow of data (***) 268051. Flow of control 268051. Flow of data and Flow of control 268051. None of others 268052. After finalization of SRS, we may like to estimate ? 268052. Size 268052. Development time 268052. Cost 268052. All of others (***) 268053. Which one is not a size for measure for software ? 268053. LOC 268053. Cyclomatic Complexity (***) 268053. Function count 268053. Halsteads program length 268054. Function count method was developed by ? 268054. Beizer 268054. M.Halstead 268054. B.Boehm 268054. Alan Albrecht (***) 268055. Function point analysis (EPA) method decomposes the system into function units. Total number of function unit are ? 268055. 2 268055. 4 268055. 5 (***) 268055. 1 268056. IFPUG stand for ? 268056. Initial function point uniform group 268056. International function point uniform group 268056. International function point user group (***) 268056. Initial function point use group 268057. Function point can be calculate by ? 268057. UFP * CAF (***) 268057. UFP * Cost 268057. UFP * FAC 268057. UFP * Productivity

10

268058. Putnam resource allocation model is based all ? 268058. Function points 268058. Norden Rayleigh curve (***) 268058. Putnam theory of software management 268058. Boehms observation on manpower utilization rate 268059. COCOMO was developed initially by ? 268059. B.W. Bohem (***) 268059. B.Beizer 268059. Gregg Rothermal 268059. Rajiv Gupta 268060. A COCOMO model is ? 268060. Common cost estimation model 268060. Constructive cost Estimation model (***) 268060. Complete cost Estimation model 268060. Comprehensive cost Estimation model 268061. Estimation of software development effort for organic softwares in COCOMO is ? 268061. E= 2.4(KLOC))1.05PM (***) 268061. E= 2.0(KLOC))1.05PM 268061. E= 3.4(KLOC))1.06PM 268061. E= 2.4(KLOC))1.07PM 268062. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on ? 268062. Cost 268062. Time 268062. Schedule 268062. None of others (***) 268063. In function point analysis number of complexity adjustment factors are ? 268063. 10 268063. 14 (***) 268063. 20 268063. 12 268064. COCOMO II estimation model is based on ? 268064. Complex approach 268064. Bottom up approach 268064. Algorithmic approach (***) 268064. Top down approach 268065. Cost estimation for a project may include ? 268065. Software cost 268065. Personal cost 268065. Hardware cost 268065. All of others (***) 268066. In COCOMO model, if project size is typically 250 KLOC, then which model is to be selected? ? 268066. Organic (***) 268066. Embedded 268066. Semidetached 268066. None of others 268067. COCOMO II was develop at ? 268067. University of Maryland 268067. IBM 268067. University of Southern California (***) 268067. AT&T Bell labs 268068. Which one is not a Category of COCOMO II? ? 268068. End user programming 268068. Requirement sector (***) 268068. Infrastructure sector 268068. System integration 268069. Which one is not infrastructure software? ? 268069. Operating System

268069. Compilers 268069. Database management system 268069. Result management system (***) 268070. How many stages are in COCOMO II? ? 268070. 2 268070. 4 268070. 3 (***) 268070. 5 268071. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO II? ? 268071. Application Composition estimation model 268071. Early design estimation model 268071. Post architecture estimation model 268071. Comprehensive cost estimation model (***) 268072. Risk management activities are divided in ? 268072. 3 Categories 268072. 5 Categories (***) 268072. 2 Categories 268072. 10 Categories 268073. Which one is not a risk management activity? ? 268073. Risk assessment 268073. Risk generation (***) 268073. Risk control 268073. None of others 268074. The most desirable form of coupling is ? 268074. Control coupling 268074. Common coupling 268074. Data coupling (***) 268074. Content coupling 268075. The worst type of coupling is ? 268075. External coupling 268075. Content coupling (***) 268075. Common coupling 268075. Data coupling 268076. The most desirable form of cohesion is ? 268076. Logical cohesion 268076. Functional cohesion (***) 268076. Procedural cohesion 268076. Temporal cohesion 268077. The worst type of cohesion is ? 268077. Logical cohesion 268077. Temporal cohesion 268077. Coincidental cohesion 268077. Sequential cohesion (***) 268078. Which one is not a strategy for design? ? 268078. Bottom up design 268078. Embedded design (***) 268078. Top down design 268078. Hybrid design 268079. Temporal cohesion means ? 268079. Cohesion between temporary variables 268079. Cohesion with respect to time (***) 268079. Cohesion between local variable 268079. Coincidental cohesion 268080. Functional cohesion means ? 268080. Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same procedures (***) 268080. Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in multiple procedures 268080. Operations are part of multiple tasks 268080. None of others

11

268081. When two modules refer to the same global data area, they are related as ? 268081. External coupled 268081. Content coupled 268081. Data coupled 268081. Common coupled (***) 268082. The module in which instruction of data elements in a module is called ? 268082. Coupling 268082. Modularity 268082. Cohesion (***) 268082. None of others 268083. The system that does not interact with external environment is called ? 268083. Closed system (***) 268083. Open system 268083. Logical system 268083. Hierarchical system 268084. The extent to which different modules are dependent upon each other called ? 268084. Coupling (***) 268084. Modularity 268084. Cohesion 268084. Stability 268085. Which one is not a category of software metric? ? 268085. Product metrics 268085. Process metrics (***) 268085. Project metrics 268085. People metric 268086. Software science measure are developed by ? 268086. M.Halstead (***) 268086. T.J.McCabe 268086. B.Littlewood 268086. G.Rothermal 268087. In Halstead theory of software science, volume is measured in bits. The bits are ? 268087. Number of bits required to store the program 268087. Actual size of the program if a uniform binary encoding scheme for vocabulary is used (***) 268087. Number of bits required to execute the program 268087. None of others 268088. In Halstead theory, effort is measured in ? 268088. Person-Month 268088. Elementary mental discriminations (***) 268088. Hours 268088. None of others 268089. FAN IN of a component A is defined as ? 268089. Number of component related to component A 268089. Count the number of component that can call or pass control, to component A (***) 268089. Number of components dependent component A 268089. None of others 268090. FAN OUT of a component A is defined as ? 268090. Number of component related to component A 268090. Number of components dependent component A 268090. Number of component that are called by component A (***) 268090. None of others 268091. Which is not a size metric? ?

268091. 268091. 268091. 268091.

LOC Program length Function count Cyclomatic complexity (***)

268092. Which one is not a measure of software science theory? ? 268092. Vocabulary 268092. Level 268092. Logic (***) 268092. None of other 268093. A human mind is capable of making how many number of elementary mental discriminations per second (i.e, Stroud number) ? ? 268093. 5 to 20 (***) 268093. 1 to 10 268093. 20 to 40 268093. 40 to 80 268094. Minimal implementation of any algorithm was given the following name by Halstead: ? 268094. Volume 268094. Effective volume 268094. Potential Volume (***) 268094. None of others 268095. Program volume of a software product is: ? 268095. V=N log2n (***) 268095. V=2N log2n 268095. V=(N 2) log2n 268095. V=N log2n +1 268096. Which one is the international standard for size measure? ? 268096. LOC 268096. Program length 268096. Function count 268096. None of others (***) 268097. Which one is not a phase of bath tub curve of hardware reliability ? 268097. Burn-in 268097. Wear-out 268097. Useful life 268097. Test-out (***) 268098. Software reliability is ? 268098. The probability of failure free operation of a program for a specified time in a specified environment (***) 268098. The probability of failure of a program for a specified time in a specified environment 268098. The probability of failure of a program for a specified time in any environment 268098. None of others 268099. Fault is ? 268099. Defect in program 268099. Error in program 268099. Mistake in program 268099. All of others (***) 268101. Which time unit is not used in reliability studies ? 268101. Execution time 268101. Clock time 268101. Machine time (***) 268101. Calendar time 268102. Failure occurrences can be represent as ? 268102. Time to failure 268102. Failures experienced in a time interval

12

268102. Time interval between failures 268102. All of others (***) 268103. Maximum possible value of reliability is ? 268103. 100 268103. 1 (***) 268103. 10 268103. 0 268104. As the reliability increases, failure intensity ? 268104. Decreases (***) 268104. no effect 268104. Increases 268104. None of others 268105. If failure intensity is 0.05 failures hour during 10 hours of operation of software, its reliability can be expressed as ? 268105. 0.90 268105. 0.95 (***) 268105. 0.92 268105. 0.98 268106. Software quality is ? 268106. Conformance to requirements 268106. Level of satisfaction 268106. Fitness for the purpose 268106. All of others (***) 268107. Defect rate is ? 268107. Number of defects per million lines of source code 268107. Number of defects per function point 268107. Number of defects per unit of size of software 268107. All of others (***) 268108. How many product quality factors have been proposed in McCall quality model? ? 268108. 2 268108. 11 268108. 3 (***) 268108. 6 268109. Which one is not a product quality factor of McCall quality model? ? 268109. Product transition 268109. Product revision 268109. Product specification (***) 268109. Product operation 268110. The second level of quality attributes in McCall quality model are termed as ? 268110. Quality criteria (***) 268110. Quality guidelines 268110. Quality factors | 268110. Quality specification 268111. Which one is not a level in Boehm software quality model? ? 268111. Primary uses 268111. Primitive constructs 268111. Intermediate construct 268111. Final construct (***) 268112. Which one is not a software quality model? ? 268112. McCall model 268112. ISO9000 (***) 268112. Boehm model 268112. ISO9126 268113. Basic execution time model was developed by ? 268113. Bev.Littlewood 268113. R.Pressman

268113. J.D.Musa (***) 268113. Victor Baisili 268114. NHPP stands for ? 268114. Non Homogeneous Poisson Process (***) 268114. Non Homogeneous Poisson Product 268114. Non Heterogeneous Poisson Process 268114. Non Heterogeneous Poisson Product 268115. CMM level 1 has ? 268115. 6 KPAs 268115. 0 KPAs (***) 268115. 2 KPAs 268115. None of others 268116. MTBF stands for ? 268116. Mean time between failures (***) 268116. Minimum time between failures 268116. Maximum time between failures 268116. Many time between failures 268117. CMM model is a technique to ? 268117. Improve the software process (***) 268117. Test the software 268117. Automatically develop the software 268117. All of others 268118. Total number of maturing levels in CMM are ? 268118. 1 268118. 5 (***) 268118. 3 268118. 7 268119. Reliability of a software is dependent on number of errors ? 268119. Removed 268119. Remaining (***) 268119. Removed and Remaining 268119. None of others 268120. Reliability of software is usually estimated at ? 268120. Analysis phase 268120. Coding phase 268120. Design phase 268120. Testing phase (***) 268121. CMM stands for ? 268121. Capacity maturity model 268121. Cost management model 268121. Capability maturity model (***) 268121. Comprehensive maintenance model 268122. Which level of CMM is for basic project management? ? 268122. Initial 268122. Defined 268122. Repeatable (***) 268122. Managed 268123. Which level of CMM for process control? ? 268123. Initial 268123. Defined 268123. Repeatable 268123. Optimizing (***) 268124. Which level of CMM for process management? ? 268124. Initial 268124. Managed (***) 268124. Repeatable 268124. Optimizing 268125. CMM was developed at ?

13

268125. 268125. 268125. 268125.

Harvard University Carnegie Mellon University (***) Cambridge University Maryland University

268136. False 268136. Cannot say 268136. Not fixed 268137. Software reliability is defined with respect to ? 268137. Time (***) 268137. Quality 268137. Speed 268137. None of others 268138. MTTF stands for ? 268138. Mean time to failure (***) 268138. Minimum time to failure 268138. Maximum time to failure 268138. None of others 268139. ISO 9001 is a series of standards for quality management system and has ? 268139. 2 related standards 268139. 10 related standards 268139. 5 related standards (***) 268139. 25 related standards 268140. Which statement is wrong: ? 268140. A good manager can ensure the success of project (***) 268140. A good manager can Increase probability of success 268140. A good manager can Ensure the good product will be produced 268140. All of other 268141. Which is not a responsibility of a manager: ? 268141. Manage the people in his her team 268141. Motivate, encourage the people in his her team 268141. Generate test cases for testing (***) 268141. All of others 268142. Which is not a phase of Waterfall model? ? 268142. Design 268142. Quick design (***) 268142. Requirement Analysis and Specification 268142. Operation & Maintenance 268143. Build and Fix Model has: ? 268143. 1 phases 268143. 3 phases 268143. 4 phases 268143. None of other (***) 268144. Waterfall model has: ? 268144. 6 phases 268144. 1 phases 268144. 4 phases 268144. None of other (***) 268145. Which is not a phase of Prototyping model ? 268145. Quick Design 268145. Requirement 268145. Risk Analysis (***) 268145. Operation & Maintenance 268146. Which is not a phase of Spiral model ? 268146. Design validation and verification 268146. Requirement validation 268146. Risk Analysis 268146. None of other (***) 268147. Which is not a phase of Iterative Enhancement model ? 268147. Design 268147. Requirement

268126. McCall has developed a ? 268126. Quality model (***) 268126. Requirement model 268126. Process improvement model 268126. Design model 268127. The model is to measure the software process improvement is called ? 268127. ISO9000 268127. CMM (***) 268127. ISO9126 268127. Spiral model 268128. The number of clauses used in ISO9001 are ? 268128. 15 268128. 20 (***) 268128. 25 268128. 10 268129. ISO9126 contain definition of ? 268129. Quality characteristic 268129. Quality attributes 268129. Quality factors 268129. All of others (***) 268130. In ISO9126, each characteristic is related to ? 268130. One attribute (***) 268130. Tree attributes 268130. Two attributes 268130. Four attributes 268131. In McCall quality model, product revision quality factor consist of ? 268131. Maintainability 268131. Testability 268131. Flexibility 268131. None of others (***) 268132. Which is not a software reliability model? ? 268132. The Jenlinsky-Moranda model 268132. Spiral model (***) 268132. Basic execution time model 268132. None of others 268133. Each maturity in CMM model has ? 268133. One KPA 268133. Several KPAs (***) 268133. Equal KPAs 268133. No KPA 268134. KPA in CMM stands for ? 268134. Key Process Area (***) 268134. Key Principal Area 268134. Key Product Area 268134. Key Performance Area 268135. In reliability model, our emphasis is on ? 268135. Errors 268135. Failures (***) 268135. Faults 268135. Bugs 268136. Software does not break or wear out like hardware, What is your opinion? ? 268136. True (***)

14

268147. Operation 268147. None of other (***) 268148. Which is not a phase of Build and Fix model ? 268148. Design 268148. Requirement 268148. Operation 268148. None of other (***) 268149. Software testing is: ? 268149. The process of demonstrating that errors are not present 268149. The process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is suppose to do 268149. To show that a program performs its intended functions correctly 268149. None of other (***) 268150. For a function of n variables, boundary value analysis yields ? 268150. 2n + 1 test cases 268150. 2n + 3 test cases 268150. 2n - 1 test cases 268150. None of others (***) 268151. For a function of n variables, how many test cases will generated by robustness testing ? 268151. 4n^2 + 1 268151. 4n + 1 268151. 4n + 3 268151. None of others (***) 268152. Regression testing primarily related to ? 268152. Functional testing 268152. Development testing 268152. Data flow testing 268152. None of other (***) 268153. A decision table has ? 268153. Five portions 268153. Three portions 268153. Two portions 268153. None of other (***) 268154. A decision table is related to ? 268154. Structural testing 268154. Mutation testing 268154. Functional testing (***) 268154. All of others 268155. Beta test is carried out by ? 268155. Managers 268155. Testers 268155. Developers 268155. None of others (***) 268156. Who will conduct Alpha testing? ? 268156. Managers 268156. Testers 268156. Developers 268156. None of others (***) 268157. Black box testing is involves to ? 268157. Analysis the usage of variable 268157. Analysis the code 268157. Analysis the structure of program 268157. None of others (***) 268158. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation&nbsp; from the specific or expected behavior, this is called: ?

268158. 268158. 268158. 268158.

an error a fault a failure (***) a defect

268159. Regression testing should be performed: v) every week w) after the software has changed x) as often as possible y) when the environment has changed z) when the project manager says ? 268159. v &amp; w are true, x z are false 268159. w, x &amp; y are true, v &amp; z are false 268159. w &amp; y are true, v, x &amp; z are false (***) 268159. all of the above are true 268160. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except: ? 268160. test items 268160. test tasks 268160. test environment 268160. test specification (***) 268161. Testing should be stopped when: ? 268161. all the planned tests have been run 268161. time has run out 268161. all faults have been fixed correctly 268161. it depends on the risks for the system being tested (***) 268162. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries: ? 268162. 1000, 5000, 99999 268162. 9999, 50000, 100000 268162. 10000, 50000, 9999 (***) 268162. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000 268163. Non-functional system testing includes: ? 268163. testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability (***) 268163. testing to see where the system does not function properly 268163. testing a system feature using only the software required for that action 268163. testing a system feature using only the software required for that function 268164. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management: ? 268164. auditing conformance to ISO9001 (***) 268164. status accounting of configuration items 268164. record of changes to documentation over time 268164. controlled library access 268165. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small? ? 268165. to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once (***) 268165. to specify how the software should be divided into modules 268165. to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team 268165. to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately

15

268166. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan: ? 268166. to plan when to stop testing (***) 268166. to know when test planning is complete 268166. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs 268166. to ensure that the test case specification is complete

268172. (***) 268172. 268172. 268172.

Whether the value stored in a variable is correct The re-definition of a variable before it has been used The use of a variable before it has been defined Unreachable (dead)&nbsp; code

268167. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage: Read P Read Q IF P+Q > 100 THEN Print Large ENDIF If P > 50 THEN Print P Large ENDIF ? 268167. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage (***) 268167. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 268167. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage 268167. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 268168. Given the following: Switch PC on Start outlook IF outlook appears THEN Send an email Close outlook ? 268168. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage (***) 268168. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage 268168. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 268168. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 268169. Given the following code, which is true: IF A > B THEN C =AB ELSE C =A+ B ENDIF Read D IF C = D Then Print Error ENDIF ? 268169. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage (***) 268169. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 268169. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 268169. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 268170. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is: ? 268170. Analyse your needs and requirements (***) 268170. Search the internet 268170. Attend a tool exhibition 268170. Find out what your budget would be for the tool 268171. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: ? 268171. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool (***) 268171. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts 268171. The managers to see what projects it should be used in 268171. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool 268172. What can static analysis NOT find? ?

268173. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique: ? 268173. LCSAJ (***) 268173. Equivalence partitioning 268173. Syntax testing 268173. State transition testing 268174. Beta testing is: ? 268174. Performed by customers at their own site (***) 268174. Performed by customers at their software developers site 268174. Useful to test bespoke software 268174. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

268175. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team: i. static analysis ii. performance testing iii. test management iv. dynamic analysis v. test running vi. test data preparation ? 268175. developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi (***) 268175. developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi 268175. developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi 268175. developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v 268176. The main focus of acceptance testing is: ? 268176. testing for a business perspective (***) 268176. testing by an independent test team 268176. ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users 268176. testing the system with other systems 268177. Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false: ? 268177. black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique (***) 268177. cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique 268177. white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique 268177. black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique 268178. Which of the following statements is NOT true: ? 268178. inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents (***) 268178. inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents 268178. managers can perform inspections on management documents 268178. inspections should be led by a trained leader 268179. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT: ?

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268179. generating expected outputs (***) 268179. comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes 268179. reading test values from a data file 268179. replaying inputs according to a programmed script 268180. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is ? 268180. re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects (***) 268180. re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier 268180. re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers 268180. re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment 268181. Expected results are: ? 268181. most useful when specified in advance (***) 268181. only important in system testing 268181. only used in component testing 268181. derived from the code 268182. Test managers should not: ? 268182. re-allocate resource to meet original plans (***) 268182. report on deviations from the project plan 268182. raise incidents on faults that they have found 268182. provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement 268183. Unreachable code would best be found using: ? 268183. code reviews (***) 268183. code inspections 268183. a test management tool 268183. a static analysis tool 268184. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called: ? 268184. a configuration management tool (***) 268184. a debugging tool 268184. a dynamic analysis tool 268184. a test management tool 268185. What information need not be included in a test incident report: ? 268185. the actual and expected outcomes (***) 268185. how to fix the fault 268185. test environment details 268185. how to reproduce the fault 268186. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing: ? 268186. top-down integration testing (***) 268186. business process-based testing 268186. performance, load and stress testing 268186. requirements-based testing 268187. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE: ? 268187. expected outcomes are defined by the softwares behaviour (***) 268187. expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code 268187. expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases 268187. expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times 268188. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is: ? 268188. BS7925-1 (***)

268188. ANSI/IEEE 829 268188. ISO/IEC 12207 268188. BS7925-2 268189. The cost of fixing a fault: ? 268189. Increases as we move the product towards live use (***) 268189. Decreases as we move the product towards live use 268189. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design 268189. Is not important 268190. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard: ? 268190. Quality plans (***) 268190. Test items (i.e. software versions) 268190. Schedules and deadlines 268190. What is not to be tested 268191. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing: ? 268191. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality (***) 268191. No, because they do not apply to the test documentation 268191. Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities 268191. No, because they are normally applied before testing 268192. Which of the following is not part of performance testing: ? 268192. Recovery testing (***) 268192. Generating many transactions 268192. Measuring response time 268192. Simulating many users 268193. Which question no longer concerns the modern software engineer?</FONT></FONT> ? 268193. Why does computer hardware cost so much? (***) 268193. Why does software take a long time to finish? 268193. Why does it cost so much to develop a piece of software? 268193. Why can't software errors be removed from products prior to delivery? 268194. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because ? 268194. Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions (***) 268194. Software spare parts become harder to order 268194. Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments 268194. Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often 268195. Most software continues to be custom built because? 268195. Off-the-shelf software components are unavailable in many application domains. (***) 268195. Component reuse is common in the software world. 268195. Reusable components are too expensive to use. 268195. Software is easier to build without using someone else's components. 268196. The nature of software applications can be characterized by their information? 268196. both b and c(***) 268196. complexity 268196. content 268196. determinacy

17

268197. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?? 268197. Manufacturing(***) 268197. Process 268197. Methods 268197. Tools 268198. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?? 268198. communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment(***) 268198. communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing 268198. analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance 268198. analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing 268199. Process models are described as agile because they ? 268199. eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation 268199. emphasize maneuverability and adaptability (***) 268199. do not waste development time on planning activities 268199. make extensive use of prototype creation 268200. Which of these terms are level names in the Capability Maturity Model? ? 268200. Performed 268200. Optimized 268200. both a and b (***) 268200. Reused 268201. Which of these are standards for assessing software processes? ? 268201. ISO 19002 268201. ISO 9001 268201. SPICE 268201. both b and c (***) 268202. Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process? ? 268202. Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager (***) 268202. Emphasizes personal measurement of work product 268202. Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling 268202. Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products 268203. Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process? ? 268203. Accelerate software process improvement 268203. Allow better time management by highly trained professionals 268203. Build self-directed software teams 268203. both b and c (***) 268204. The linear sequential model of software development is ? 268204. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. (***) 268204. A good approach when a working program is required quickly. 268204. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. 268204. An old fashioned model that cannot be used in a modern context. 268205. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the ? 268205. Classical life cycle model 268205. Waterfall model

268205. Spiral model 268205. both a and b (***) 268206. The incremental model of software development is ? 268206. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly (***) 268206. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined 268206. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams 268206. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products 268207. The rapid application development model is ? 268207. A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model. (***) 268207. Another name for component-based development. 268207. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. 268207. All of the above. 268208. Evolutionary software process models ? 268208. All of the above (***) 268208. Are iterative in nature 268208. Can easily accommodate product requirements changes 268208. Do not generally produce throwaway systems 268209. The prototyping model of software development is ? 268209. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly (***) 268209. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined 268209. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. 268209. A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product 268210. The spiral model of software development ? 268210. Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration (***) 268210. Ends with the delivery of the software product 268210. Is more chaotic than the incremental model 268210. All of the above 268211. The concurrent development model is ? 268211. Often used for the development of client/server applications. (***) 268211. Another name for the rapid application development model 268211. Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems 268211. Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated 268212. The component-based development model is ? 268212. Works best when object technologies are available for support. (***) 268212. Not able to support the development of reusable components. 268212. Only appropriate for computer hardware design. 268212. Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics. 268213. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to ? 268213. All of the above (***) 268213. Define the specification for computer-based systems 268213. Develop defect free computer-based systems

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268213. Verify the correctness of computer-based systems 268214. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software development? ? 268214. Validation phase (***) 268214. Inception phase 268214. Elaboration phase 268214. Construction phase 268215. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process? ? 268215. Eliminate the use of project planning and testing (***) 268215. Only essential work products are produced 268215. Process allows team to streamline tasks 268215. Uses incremental product delivery strategy 268216. How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability? ? 268216. Software increments must be delivered in short time periods 268216. Risk analysis must be conducted before planning takes place 268216. Software processes must adapt to changes incrementally 268216. both a and c (***) 268217. Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team? ? 268217. All of the above (***) 268217. Competence 268217. Decision-making ability 268217. Mutual trust and respect 268218. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) process model? ? 268218. planning, design, coding, testing (***) 268218. analysis, design, coding, testing 268218. planning, analysis, design, coding 268218. planning, analysis, coding, testing 268219. What are the three framework activities for the Adaptive Software Development (ASD) process model? ? 268219. speculation, collaboration, learning (***) 268219. analysis, design, coding 268219. feasibility study, functional model iteration, implementation 268219. requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development

268222. Pareto principle (20% of any product requires 80% of the effort) (***) 268222. All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler 268222. A software system exists only to provide value to its users 268222. Remember that you produce others will consume 268223. Everyone on the software team should be involved in the planning activity so that we can ? 268223. reduce the granularity of the plan 268223. analyze requirements in depth 268223. get all team members to "sign up" to the plan (***) 268223. begin design 268224. What role(s) do user stories play in agile planning? ? 268224. Define useful software features and functions delivered to end-users 268224. Determine a schedule used to deliver each software increment 268224. Provide a substitute to performing detailed scheduling of activities 268224. Used to estimate the effort required build the current increment (***) 268225. Which of the following activities is not one of the four things that need to be accomplished by the generic planning task set? ? 268225. Develop overall project strategy 268225. Identify the functionality to deliver in each software increment 268225. Create a detailed schedule for the complete software project (***) 268225. Devise a means of tracking progress on a regular basis 268226. Analysis models depict software in which three representations? ? 268226. architecture, interface, component 268226. cost, risk, schedule 268226. information, function, behavior (***) 268226. None of the above 268227. Which of the following is not one of the principles of good coding? ? 268227. Create unit tests before you begin coding 268227. Create a visual layout that aids understanding 268227. Keep variable names short so that code is compact (***) 268227. Write self-documenting code, not program documentation 268228. Which of the following are tasks in the generic task set for construction? ? 268228. Build a software component 268228. Unit test the component 268228. Create a user interface 268228. both a and b (***)

268220. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum meeting? ? 268220. What is the cause of the problems you are encountering? (***) 268220. What obstacles are you encountering? 268220. What do you plan to accomplish at the next team meeting? 268220. What did you do since the last meeting? 268221. Agile Modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software tasks? ? 268221. Analysis 268221. Coding 268221. Design 268221. both a and c (***) 268222. Which of the following is not one of Hooker's core principles of software engineering practice? ?

268229. Which of the following are valid reasons for collecting customer feedback concerning delivered software? ? 268229. Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment 268229. Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes 268229. Developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment 268229. All of the above (***)

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268230. Which of the following can be elements of computer-based systems? ? 268230. documentation 268230. software 268230. people, hardware 268230. all of the above (***) 268231. The system engineering process usually begins with the ? 268231. detailed view 268231. domain view 268231. element view 268231. world view (***) 268232. To construct a system model the engineer should consider which of the following restraining factors? ? 268232. assumptions 268232. constraints 268232. budget | 268232. both a and b (***) 268233. During business process engineering, three different architectures are examined. ? 268233. applications, data, technology infrastructure (***) 268233. communications, organization, financial infrastructure 268233. network, database, reporting structure 268233. systems, requirements, data structure 268234. Which elements of business processing engineering are the responsibilities of the software engineer? ? 268234. business system design, construction and integration (***) 268234. business area analysis 268234. information strategy planning 268234. business area design 268235. The architecture components for product engineering are ? 268235. data, hardware, software, people (***) 268235. data, documentation, hardware, software 268235. data, hardware, software, procedures 268235. documentation, hardware, people, procedures 268236. The top level of the hierarchical model of a system is known as the ? 268236. AFD 268236. DFD 268236. SCD (***) 268236. SFD 268237. The system model template contains which of the following elements ? 268237. input 268237. output 268237. user interface 268237. all of the above (***) 268238. UML notations that can be used to model the hardware and software elements of a system are ? 268238. Activity diagrams 268238. Class diagrams 268238. Deployment diagrams 268238. All of above (***) 268239. During project inception the intent of the of the tasks are to determine ? 268239. basic problem understanding 268239. nature of the solution needed 268239. people who want a solution

268239. All of above (***) 268240. The things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of ? 268240. All of above (***) 268240. scope 268240. understanding 268240. volatility 268241. The result of the requirements engineering elaboration task is an analysis model that defines which of the following problem domain(s)? ? 268241. information 268241. functional 268241. behavioral 268241. all of the above (***)

268242. The system specification describes the ? 268242. Function, performance and constraints of a computerbased system (***) 268242. implementation of each allocated system 268242. element software architecture 268242. time required for system simulation 268243. The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to ? 268243. examine the system model for errors 268243. have the customer look over the requirements 268243. send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns 268243. use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement (***) 268244. The use of traceability tables helps to ? 268244. debug programs following the detection of run-time errors 268244. determine the performance of algorithm implementations 268244. identify, control, and track requirements changes (***) 268244. none of the above 268245. Which of the following is not one of the contextfree questions that would be used during project inception? ? 268245. What will be the economic benefit from a good solution? 268245. Who is against this project? (***) 268245. Who will pay for the work? 268245. Who will use the solution? 268246. In collaborative requirements gathering, the facilitator ? 268246. cannot be a member of the software team 268246. cannot be a customer 268246. controls and facilitates the process (***) 268246. must be an outsider 268247. Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)? ? 268247. exciting 268247. expected 268247. mandatory (***) 268247. normal 268248. The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the ? 268248. size of the budget 268248. size of the product being built (***)

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268248. software process being used 268248. stakeholders needs 268249. Which of following is not a UML diagram used creating a system analysis model? ? 268249. activity diagram 268249. class diagram 268249. dataflow diagram (***) 268249. state diagram 268250. Which of the following is not an objective for building an analysis model? ? 268250. define set of software requirements that can be validated 268250. describe customer requirements 268250. develop an abbreviated solution for the problem (***) 268250. establish basis for software design 268251. The data dictionary contains descriptions of each software ? 268251. control item 268251. diagram 268251. data object 268251. both a and c (***) 268252. Which of these is not an element of an objectoriented analysis model? ? 268252. Behavioral elements 268252. Class-based elements 268252. Data elements (***) 268252. Scenario-based elements 268253. The relationships shown in a data model must be classified to show their ? 268253. cardinality 268253. modality 268253. directionality 268253. both a and b (***) 268254. The entity relationship diagram ? 268254. depicts relationships between data objects (***) 268254. depicts functions that transform the data flow 268254. indicates how data are transformed by the system 268254. indicates system reactions to external events 268255. A generalized description of a collection of similar objects is a ? 268255. class (***) 268255. instance 268255. subclass 268255. super class 268256. UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements? ? 268256. Behavioral elements 268256. Class-based elements 268256. Flow-based elements 268256. Scenario-based elements (***) 268257. The data flow diagram ? 268257. depicts functions that transform the data flow 268257. indicates how data are transformed by the system 268257. indicates system reactions to external events 268257. both a and b (***) 268258. Control flow diagrams are? 268258. needed to model event driven systems 268258. useful for modeling real-time systems 268258. required for all systems 268258. both a and b (***)

268259. Which of the following should be considered as candidate objects in a problem space? ? 268259. events 268259. people 268259. structures 268259. all of the above (***) 268260. Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify operations? ? 268260. computation 268260. data manipulation 268260. event monitors 268260. transformers (***) 268261. Which of the following items does not appear on a CRC card? ? 268261. class collaborators 268261. class name 268261. class reliability (***) 268261. class responsibilities 268262. Class responsibilities are defined by ? 268262. its attributes only 268262. its collaborators 268262. its operations only 268262. both its attributes and operations (***) 268263. Events occur whenever a(n) ? 268263. actor and the OO system exchange information (***) 268263. class operation is invoked 268263. messages are passed between objects 268263. all of the above 268264. The state diagram ? 268264. depicts relationships between data objects 268264. depicts functions that transform the data flow 268264. indicates how data are transformed by the system 268264. indicates system reactions to external events (***) 268265. For purposes of behavior modeling a state is any ? 268265. consumer or producer of data. 268265. data object hierarchy. 268265. observable mode of behavior. (***) 268265. well defined process. 268266. Which of the following are areas of concern in the design model? ? 268266. architecture 268266. data 268266. interfaces 268266. All of above (***) 268267. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word ? 268267. accuracy 268267. complexity 268267. efficiency 268267. quality (***) 268268. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?? 268268. implements all requirements in the analysis model 268268. provides a complete picture of the software 268268. exhibits strong coupling between its modules 268268. both a and b (***) 268269. Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods? ? 268269. configuration management (***) 268269. functional component

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268269. notation quality assessment 268269. guidelines refinement heuristics 268270. What types of abstraction are used in software design? ? 268270. control 268270. data 268270. procedural 268270. All of above (***) 268271. Which of the following models can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece of software. ? 268271. Dynamic models 268271. Functional models 268271. Structural models 268271. All of the above (***) 268272. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module ? 268272. can be written more compactly. 268272. focuses on just one thing. (***) 268272. is able to complete its function in a timely manner. 268272. is connected to other modules and the outside world. 268273. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module ? 268273. can be written more compactly. 268273. focuses on just one thing. 268273. is able to complete its function in a timely manner. 268273. is connected to other modules and the outside world. (***) 268274. Polymorphism reduces the effort required to extend an object system by ? 268274. coupling objects together more tightly. 268274. enabling a number of different operations to share the same name. (***) 268274. making objects more dependent on one another. 268274. removing the barriers imposed by encapsulation. 268275. Which of the following is not one of the five design class types ? 268275. Business domain classes 268275. Entity classes (***) 268275. Process classes 268275. User interface classes 268276. Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the user's view? ? 268276. Architectural design elements 268276. Component-level design elements 268276. Data design elements (***) 268276. Interface design elements 268277. Which design is analogous to the floor plan of a house? ? 268277. Architectural design (***) 268277. Component-level design 268277. Data design 268277. Interface design 268278. Which design model is analogous to the detailed drawings of the access points and external utilities for a house? ? 268278. Architectural design 268278. Component-level design 268278. Data design 268278. Interface design (***)

268279. Which design model is analogous to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a house? ? 268279. Architectural design 268279. Component-level design (***) 268279. Data design 268279. Interface design 268280. The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that ? 268280. software developers do not need to do any testing 268280. a test team will test the software more thoroughly (***) 268280. testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins 268280. arguments between developers and testers are reduced 268282. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing process?? 268282. conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing 268282. specify requirements in a quantifiable manner 268282. wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan | 268282. both a and b(***) 268283. Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?? 268283. error handling 268283. execution paths 268283. algorithmic performance 268283. both a and b (***) 268284. Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that? 268284. major decision points are tested early 268284. no stubs need to be written 268284. no drivers need to be written 268284. both a and c (***) 268285. Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that ? 268285. major decision points are tested early 268285. no drivers need to be written 268285. no stubs need to be written (***) 268285. regression testing is not required 268286. Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added to the system new? 268286. control logic is invoked 268286. data flow paths are established 268286. drivers require testing 268286. both a and b(***) 268287. Smoke testing might best be described as ? 268287. bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software 268287. rolling integration testing (***) 268287. testing that hides implementation errors 268287. unit testing for small programs 268288. The OO testing integration strategy involves testing ? 268288. groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way (***) 268288. single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation 268288. operator programs derived from use-case scenarios 268288. none of the above 268289. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the ? 268289. developer 268289. end users (***)

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268289. test team 268289. systems engineers 268290. Which of the following are characteristics of testable software? ? 268290. observability 268290. simplicity 268290. stability 268290. all of the above (***) 268291. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is operational is called ? 268291. black-box testing (***) 268291. glass-box testing 268291. grey-box testing 268291. white-box testing 268292. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software module is called ? 268292. behavioral testing 268292. black-box testing 268292. grey-box testing 268292. white-box testing (***) 268293. What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing?? 268293. logic errors 268293. performance errors 268293. typographical errors 268293. both a and c (***) 268294. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of ? 268294. cycles in the program 268294. errors in the program 268294. independent logic paths in the program (***) 268294. statements in the program 268295. Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they ? 268295. rely on basis path testing 268295. exercise the logical conditions in a program module (***) 268295. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables 268295. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs 268296. Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they ? 268296. rely on basis path testing 268296. exercise the logical conditions in a program module 268296. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables (***) 268296. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs 268297. Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is that they ? 268297. rely basis path testing 268297. exercise the logical conditions in a program module 268297. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables 268297. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs (***) 268298. Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories ? 268298. incorrect or missing functions 268298. interface errors

268298. performance errors 268298. all of the above (***) 268299. Fault-based testing is best reserved for ? 268299. conventional software testing 268299. operations and classes that are critical or suspect (***) 268299. use-case validation 268299. white-box testing of operator algorithms 268300. Testing OO class operations is made more difficult by ? 268300. encapsulation 268300. inheritance 268300. polymorphism 268300. both b and c (***) 268301. Scenario-based testing ? 268301. concentrates on actor and software interaction (***) 268301. misses errors in specifications 268301. misses errors in subsystem interactions 268301. both a and b 268302. Deep structure testing is not designed to ? 268302. examine object behaviors 268302. exercise communication mechanisms 268302. exercise object dependencies 268302. exercise structure observable by the user (***) 268303. Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level ? 268303. attribute-based partitioning 268303. category-based partitioning 268303. equivalence class partitioning (***) 268303. state-based partitioning 268304. Tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on the ? 268304. data flow diagram 268304. object-relation diagram 268304. state diagram (***) 268304. use-case diagram 268306. Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are ? 268306. people, performance, payoff, product 268306. people, product, performance, process 268306. people, product, process, project (***) 268306. people, process, payoff, product 268307. The first step in project planning is to ? 268307. determine the budget. 268307. select a team organizational model. 268307. determine the project constraints. 268307. establish the objectives and scope. (***) 268308. Process framework activities are populated with ? 268308. milestones 268308. work products 268308. QA points 268308. All of the above (***) 268309. Which of the following is not generally considered a player in the software process? ? 268309. customers 268309. end-users 268309. project managers 268309. sales people (***) 268310. The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the ?

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268310. 268310. 268310. 268310.

closed paradigm open paradigm (***) random paradigm synchronous paradigm

268319. 268319. 268319. 268319.

Improve our methods of communication (***) Make the process quite rigid Use only agile process models All of the above.

268311. Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software team? (Select all that apply) ? 268311. degree of communication desired 268311. predicted size of the resulting program 268311. rigidity of the delivery date 268311. All of above (***) 268312. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to ? 268312. give team members more control over process and technical decisions. (***) 268312. give team members less control over process and technical decisions. 268312. hide bad news from the project team members until things improve. 268312. reward programmers based on their productivity. 268313. Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination difficulties? ? 268313. interoperability 268313. performance (***) 268313. scale 268313. uncertainty 268314. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project? ? 268314. context, lines of code, function 268314. context, function, communication requirements 268314. information objectives, function, performance (***) 268314. communications requirements, performance, information objectives 268315. The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the? 268315. software process model 268315. functionality to be delivered 268315. process used to deliver functionality 268315. both b and c(***) 268316. When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition? ? 268316. when the project is extremely small in size 268316. any time the software is mission critical 268316. rapid prototyping does not require their use 268316. neverthe activities should always occur (***) 268317. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure? ? 268317. double the project team size 268317. start on the right foot 268317. track progress 268317. both b and c (***) 268318. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management? ? 268318. defect tracking against quality targets 268318. empirical cost estimation 268318. formal risk management 268318. All of above (***) 268319. As software-based systems become more complex, the number of people involved in their development increases. In order to accommodate large number of software engineers working on a software project, we must ?

268320. It's likely that the process model of preference for most software teams as we move into the 21st century will be ? 268320. Linear sequential models 268320. Spiral models 268320. Agile, incremental models (***) 268320. Formal models 268321. When we refer to knowledge in the context of information technology, we mean ? 268321. Raw data that has special meaning 268321. Information that has business meaning 268321. Unrelated pieces of information 268321. Data or information from different contexts that can be associated with one another (***) 268322. "Technology push" means ? 268322. developing one technology leads to the development of even more advanced technologies 268322. a market must be pushed to recognize the need for a given technology 268322. developed must be pushed to adopt processes that allows them to use the technology (***) 268322. none of the above 268323. Which of the following subject areas is not mentioned as part of the Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Practices? ? 268323. product 268323. management 268323. client 268323. modeling (***) 268324. Which of the following rules should a software engineer apply as he/she performs software work? ? 268324. Never steal data for personal gain. 268324. Never distribute or sell proprietary information obtained as part of your work on a software project. 268324. Never maliciously destroy or modify another person's programs, files, or data, Never violate the privacy of an individual, a group, or an organization. 268324. All of the above (***) 329872. Which of these characteristics are true of a data warehouse, but not a typical data base? ? 329872. business level orientation 329872. currency of information 329872. integration (***) 329872. simple 329873. An architectural style encompasses which NOT&nbsp;of the following elements? ? 329873. constraints 329873. set of components 329873. semantic models 329873. syntactic models (***) 329874. To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed system, requirements engineering is used to uncover ? 329874. algorithmic complexity 329874. characteristics and constraints (***) 329874. control and data 329874. design patterns 329875. The criteria used to assess the quality of an architectural design should be based on system ?

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329875. 329875. 329875. 329875.

accessibility control (***) design implementation

329876. During the process of modeling the system in context, systems that NOT&nbsp;interact with the target system are represented as ? 329876. Peer-level systems 329876. Subordinate systems 329876. Superordinate systems 329876. Working systems (***) 329877. Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be integrated into the software architecture? ? 329877. Communications components 329877. Database components 329877. Interface components (***) 329877. Memory management components 329878. In the architecture trade-off analysis method the architectural style should NOT&nbsp;be described using the ? 329878. data flow view 329878. module view 329878. process view 329878. user view (***) 329879. A useful technique for evaluating the overall complexity of a proposed architecture is to look at the component ? 329879. cohesion flow 329879. dependencies (***) 329879. cost 329879. size 329880. When the overall flow in a segment of a data flow diagram is largely sequential and follows straightline paths, _________ is present. ? 329880. low coupling 329880. good modularity 329880. transaction flow 329880. transform flow (***) 329881. When a single item that triggers other data flow along one of many paths of a data flow diagram, ________ characterizes the information flow. ? 329881. high coupling 329881. poor modularity 329881. transaction flow (***) 329881. transform flow 329882. In transaction mapping the first level factoring results in the ? 329882. creation of a CFD 329882. derivation of the control hierarchy (***) 329882. distribution of worker modules 329882. refinement of the module view 329883. A successful application of transform or transaction mapping to create an architectural design is supplemented by ? 329883. entity relationship diagrams 329883. module interface descriptions (***) 329883. DFD 329883. test cases for each module 329884. Which of the following interface design principles does not allow the user to remain in control of the interaction with a computer? ?

329884. allow interaction to interruptible 329884. allow interaction to be undoable 329884. hide technical internals from casual users 329884. only provide one defined method for accomplishing a task (***) 329885. Which NOT&nbsp;of the following interface design principles reduces the user's memory load? ? 329885. define intuitive shortcuts 329885. disclose information in a progressive fashion 329885. establish meaningful defaults 329885. provide an on-line tutorial (***) 329886. Interface consistency implies that ? 329886. each application should have its own distinctive look and feel 329886. None of&nbsp;above answers! 329886. navigational methods are context sensitive 329886. visual information is organized according to a design standard, input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application (***) 329887. Which model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system? ? 329887. design model 329887. implementation model 329887. user model (***) 329887. user's model 329888. Which model depicts the image of a system that an end user creates in his or her head? ? 329888. design model 329888. user model 329888. system model 329888. system perception (***) 329889. Which model depicts the look and feel of the user interface along with all supporting information? ? 329889. Implementation model (***) 329889. user model 329889. user's model 329889. system perception 329890. Which of these framework activities is not normally associated with the user interface design processes? ? 329890. cost estimation (***) 329890. interface construction 329890. interface validation 329890. user and task analysis 329891. Which approach(es) to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design? ? 329891. have users indicate their preferences on questionnaires 329891. rely on the judgement of experienced programmers 329891. None of above answers 329891. observe users performing tasks manually &amp; study existing computer-based solutions (***) 329892. Several common design issues surface for almost every user interface including ? 329892. adaptive user profiles 329892. None of above answers 329892. displays system 329892. response time &amp; error handling resolution of graphics (***) 329893. User interface development systems typically provide several mechanisms for building interface prototypes including ? 329893. code generation

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329893. drawing tools 329893. None is right answer. 329893. windows handlers, input validation (***) 329894. Usability questionnaires are most meaningful to the interface designers when completed by ? 329894. customers 329894. experienced programmers 329894. product users (***) 329894. project managers 329895. Several usability measures can be collected while observing users interacting with a computer system including ? 329895. down time for the application 329895. None of All 329895. software reliability 329895. time spent looking at help materials, number of user errors (***) 329896. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by McCall's software quality factors? ? 329896. ability to undergo change 329896. adaptability to new environments 329896. operational characteristics 329896. production costs and scheduling (***) 329897. Which of these are reasons for using technical product measures during software development? ? 329897. large body of scientific evidence supports their use 329897. provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for assessing software quality (***) 329897. they allow all software quality information to be expressed unambiguously as a single number 329897. all of the above 329898. Which measurement activity is missing from the list below? Formulation Collection Analysis Interpretation ? 329898. design 329898. feedback (***) 329898. measurement 329898. quantification 329899. One of the most important attributes for a software product metric is that it should be ? 329899. easy to compute (***) 329899. qualitative in nature 329899. reliable over time 329899. widely applicable 329900. The specification metrics proposed by Davis address which two characteristics of the software requirements? ? 329900. functionality and performance 329900. performance and completeness 329900. specificity and completeness (***) 329900. specificity and functionality 329901. Architectural design metrics focus on ? 329901. None of all 329901. data structural relationships 329901. internal module complexity 329901. module effectiveness &amp; architectural structure (***) 329902. Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an object-oriented design? ?

329902. 329902. 329902. 329902.

completeness efficiency (***) size volatility

329903. The depth of inheritance tree (DIT) metric can give an OO software designer a reading on the ? 329903. attributes required for each class 329903. completion time required for system implementation (***) 329903. complexity of the class hierarchy | 329903. level of object reusability achieved 329904. If you encounter a class with a large responsibility (large class size or CS value) you should consider ? 329904. making it a base class 329904. making it a subclass 329904. partitioning the class (***) 329904. starting a new class hierarchy 329905. Component-level metrics NOT include measures of ? 329905. complexity 329905. coupling 329905. module cohesion 329905. performance (***) 329906. Halstead's source code metrics are based on the number of ? 329906. modules in the program 329906. none of all 329906. operators in the program &amp; operands in the program (***) 329906. volume elements in the program 329907. Software testing metrics fall into two broad categories ? 329907. metrics that focus on defect removal effectiveness 329907. none of all 329907. metrics that estimate the duration of the testing process 329907. metrics that predict the number of test cases required &amp; metrics that focus on test coverage (***) 329908. The IEEE software maturity index is used to provide a measure of the ? 329908. maintainability of a software product based on its availability 329908. relative age of a software product being considered for retirement 329908. reliability of a software product following regression testing 329908. stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance (***) 329909. Software testing activities should start ? 329909. as soon as the code is written 329909. during the design stage 329909. when the requirements have been formally documented 329909. as soon as possible in the development life cycle (***) 329910. Faults found by users are due to: ? 329910. Poor quality software 329910. Poor software and poor testing (***) 329910. bad luck 329910. insufficient time for testing 329911. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it? ?

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329911. to show that system will work after release 329911. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release 329911. to find as many bugs as possible before release 329911. to give information for a risk based decision about release (***) 329912. which of the following statements is not true ? 329912. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system 329912. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test 329912. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc) (***) 329912. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible 329913. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be: ? 329913. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible 329913. firm about insisting that a bug is not a feature if it should be fixed 329913. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism 329913. All of the above (***) 329914. In which order should tests be run? ? 329914. the most important tests first (***) 329914. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing) 329914. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence) 329914. the order they are thought of All 329915. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why? ? 329915. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing. 329915. wages are rising 329915. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc (***) 329915. none of the above 329916. Which is not true-The black box tester ? 329916. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document 329916. should be able to understand the source code. (***) 329916. is highly motivated to find faults 329916. is creative to find the systems weaknesses 329917. A test design technique is ? 329917. a process for selecting test cases (***) 329917. a process for determining expected outputs 329917. a way to measure the quality of software 329917. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done 329918. Testware(test cases, test dataset) ? 329918. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code (***) 329918. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software 329918. is needed only until the software is released into production or use 329918. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released<BR>software system 329919. An incident logging system ? 329919. only records defects 329919. is of limited value 329919. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents (***) 329919. should be used only by the test team.

329920. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by: ? 329920. reducing test time (***) 329920. no change 329920. increasing test time 329920. cant say 329921. Coverage measurement ? 329921. is nothing to do with testing 329921. is a partial measure of test thoroughness (***) 329921. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software 329921. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing 329922. When should you stop testing? ? 329922. when time for testing has run out. 329922. when all planned tests have been run 329922. when the test completion criteria have been met (***) 329922. when no faults have been found by the tests run 329923. Which of the following is true? ? 329923. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box. 329923. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software (***) 329923. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was 329923. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find. 329924. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use? ? 329924. how well you know a particular technique 329924. the objective of the test (***) 329924. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application 329924. whether there is a tool to support the technique 329925. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage? 1. If x=3 then 2. Display_messageX; 3. If y=2 then 4. Display_messageY; 5. Else 6. Display_messageZ; 7. Else 8. Display_messageZ; ? 329925. 1 329925. 2 329925. 3 (***) 329925. 4 329926. Which of the following is NOT a type of nonfunctional test? ? 329926. State-Transition (***) 329926. Usability 329926. Performance 329926. Security 329927. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak? ? 329927. State analysis 329927. Coverage analysis 329927. Dynamic analysis (***) 329927. Memory analysis

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329928. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing? ? 329928. IEEE829 329928. IEEE610 (***) 329928. BS7925-1 329928. BS7925-2 329929. which of the following is the component test standard? ? 329929. IEEE 829 329929. IEEE 610 329929. BS7925-1 329929. BS7925-2 (***) 329930. which of the following statements are true? ? 329930. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix. 329930. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix. 329930. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix (***) 329930. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix. 329931. Which of the following is not the integration strategy? ? 329931. Design based (***) 329931. Big-bang 329931. Bottom-up 329931. Top-down 329932. Which of the following is a black box design technique? ? 329932. statement testing 329932. equivalence partitioning (***) 329932. error- guessing 329932. usability testing 329933. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be: ? 329933. Large 329933. Small 329933. Difficult to write 329933. Difficult to test (***) 329934. Which of the following is a static test? ? 329934. code inspection (***) 329934. coverage analysis 329934. usability assessment 329934. installation test 329935. Which of the following is the odd one out? ? 329935. white box 329935. glass box 329935. structural 329935. functional (***)

Bao gm ton b 543 cu hi v cu tr li.

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