School of Engineering and Technology Electronics and Communication Department

LIC MCQ
Unit 1
1. A transconductance amplifier is one which has (a) Input is a current I and output is voltage V (b) Input is voltage V and output is current I (c) Input is voltage VI and output is voltage V0 (d) Input is current Iin and output is current I0 2. A transresistance amplifier is one which has (a) Input is a current I and output is voltage V (b) Input is voltage V and output is current I (c) Input is voltage VI and output is voltage V0 (d) Input is current Iin and output is current I0 3. IC-741 op-amp has typical gain of in dB (a) 110 dB (b) 100 dB (c) 106 dB (d) 90 dB 4. Ideal terminal conditions of IC-op-amp are (a) Vd = , V0 = 0, iP = iN = currents drawn by inverting and noninverting inputs. iP = iN = 0. (b) Vd = 0, V0 = , ip = iN = (c) Vd = 0, V0 = 0, iP = iN=0

(d) none of the above 5. The other name of voltage follower is (a) differential amplifier (b) inverting amplifier (c) non-inverting amplifier (d) unity gain amplifier 6. Find V0 (a) Rf/R1 V1 (b) Rf/R1 Vx Rf/R2 (c) Rf/R2V1 (d) none Figure 1. Circuit Diagram for Q.6

7. An op-amp current to voltage converter is also called (a) transconductance amplifier (b) transimpedance amplifier (c) transresistance amplifier (d) none of the above 8. A VI op-amp converter is also called (a) transconductance amplifier (b) transresistance amplifier (c) transimpedance amplifier

(d) none of the above 9. The differential mode and common mode voltage is defined as (a) VDM = V2 V1, VCM = V1 + V2/2 (b) VDM = V1 + V2/2, VCM = V2 V1 (c) VDM = V1/2 = V2/2, VCM = V2 V1/2 (d) none of the above

10. For a true difference amplifier, the following holds true: (a) Acm 0, CMRRdB 0 (b) Acm , CMRRdB (c) Acm , CMRRdB 0 (d) Acm 0, CMRRdB 11. An ideal op-amp should have (a) Zero input impedance and output impedance (b) Infinite input and output impedance (c) Infinite input impedance and zero output impedance (d) Zero input impedance and infinite output impedance 12. An ideal op-amp should have (a) low gain at low frequencies (b) low gain at low frequency and high gain at high frequencies (c) high gain at low frequency and low gain at high frequencies (d) high gain at all frequencies 13. The actual gain of an op-amp at dc is of the order (a) 10 to 100 (b) 100 to 1000 (c) 100 to 100,000 (d) 1000,000 to 100,000,000

14. The ideal input impedance range of op-amp is (a) 1 k (b) 10 k to 106 m (c) 106 m to 1012 m (d) none 15. Drift of amplifier means (a) variation of gain with load (b) variation of gain with frequency (c) change in sensitivity due to variation in temperature (d) none of the above 16. Which of the following amplifier compensates for drift? (a) Low gain amplifier (b) High gain amplifier (c) DC amplifier (d) Differential amplifier 17. In addition to reduction to drift, the advantage of a (a) mixing of two input voltages (b) an output of either polarity (c) rejection of common mode signal (d) all of the above 18. An ideal amplifier should have (a) infinite gain at all frequencies (b) large bandwidth (c) zero phase shift (d) all of the above 19. An amplifier is an unstable condition when (a) gain is low differential amplifier is

(b) load is variable (c) phase shift is 180 (d) supply is rectified DC 20. Noise in op-amp due to (a) pick up from main supply (b) sparking in the circuit (c) internal generation (d) all of the above 21. Noise in op-amp can be reduced to (a) shielding (b) uselpf (c) proper grounding (d) all of the above 22. For the op-amp shown in Fig 2 the output will be (a) 2x (b) 5x (c) 12 (d) 720 x Fig. 2

23. For which values of Rf and Ri the output/input ratio of the amplifier shown in Fig.3, will be the least? (a) Rf = 100 k, Ri, = 10 k

(b) Rf = 800 k, Ri = 200 k (c) Rf = 1000 k, Ri = 10 k (d) Rf = 10 k, Ri = 1 k Fig.3

24. In the circuit shown below, the feedback factor will be (a) 1/3 (b) 2/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 1/7 Fig.4

25. The circuit shown represents (a) adder (b) integrator (c) differentiator (d) subtractor Fig.5

26. The circuit shown represents (a) differentiator (b) adder (c) multiplier (d) sign reversal Fig. 6

27. The circuit shown represents (a) DC voltage follower (b) inverter (c) logarithmic amplifier (d) none of the above Fig.7

28. An integrator is mostly preferred over differentiator because

(a) more stable (b) less voltage drift (c) less noise (d) all of the above

29. A A 741C op-amp is used in the circuit, the output voltage for the ideal opamp will be (a) 5 V (b) 3 V (c) 2.5 V (d) 2 V Fig. D.9

30. If a square wave is integrated by integrator using operational amplifier, the output is (a) triangular wave (b) ramp (c) sine wave (d) none of the above 31. Monolithic IC wafers are typically of (a) 1/8 inch diameter (b) 1/4 inch diameter (c) 1 inch diameter

(d) 2 inch diameter 32. A good op-amp has (a) very high bandwidth (b) narrow bandwidth (c) high selectivity (d) all of the above 33. When an op-amp is operated in common mode fashion, CMRR should be (a) zero (b) infinitely high (c) very small (d) 5 dB 34. Which amplifier will be preferred for highest gain? (a) darlington's pair (b) operational amplifier (c) cascade amplifier (d) none of the above 35. Decibel is defined in terms of (a) voltage ratio (b) current ratio (c) power ratio (d) none of the above 36. A linear system can be described by (a) state transition equation (b) differential equation (c) dynamic equation (d) none of the above 37. At which of the following frequency, the gain of op-amp will be zero?

(a) cut-off frequency (b) cut-off frequency (c) unity gain cross over frequency (d) gain cross over frequency 38. Silicon is preferred for semiconductor devices (a) abundant availability (b) easy formation of oxide layer (c) hood mechanical strength (d) all of the above 39. A monolithic circuit means (a) circuit from single crystal (b) circuit from more than one crystal (c) uses double price of crystal to form a circuit (d) none of the above 40. The standard package configurations of manufacturing IC. (a) glass metal package (b) ceramic flat package (c) dual in line (d) all of the above

41. The basic elements of op-amp is (a) differential amplifier (b) buffer, level translator (c) output driver (d) all of the above 42. For large CMRR, ACM should be (a) as large as possible

(b) as small as possible (c) zero (d) level to Adm 43. MOSFET op-amp is preferred over BJT, FET because (a) high input resistance 1012 (b) low input current, 1PA (c) high slew rate, 10 V/S (d) all the above 44. DC character of op-amp are (a) input bias and offset current (b) input offset voltage (c) thermal drift (d) all of the above 45. AC characteristics of op-amp includes (a) Frequency response (b) slew rate (c) both a and b (d) none of the above 46. An ideal op-amp should have open loop gain (a) around 90 dB constent over audio and Rf frequency (b) less than 90 dB, varies on audio and Rf frequency (c) 20 dB, constent audio and Rf frequency (d) none of the above 47. The frequency response of op-amp includes (a) magnitude character only (b) phase character only (c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above 48. The slew rate for IC 741 is (a) 0.5 V/s (b) 0.9 V/s (c) 0.8 V/s (d) 1 V/s 49. Number of diodes required in half-wave rectifier circuit using op-amp is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 50. Number of diodes required in full-wave rectifier using op-amp is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4

51. The gain of differentiator using op-amp is (a) RfC1 (b) /RfC1 (c) jRfC1 (d) None 52. For a practical differentiator, the time period T of the input signal is (a) less than time constant RfC1 (b) larger than or equal to RfC1 (c) negative of RfC1 (d) none of the above

53. The magnitude of the gain or integrator transfer function using op-amp is (a) R1Cf (b) 1/R1Cf (c) R1Cf (d) 1/R1Cf 54. The frequency at which the gain of integrator is 0dB is (a) 1/2R1Cf (b) 1/2/R1 (c) 2R1Cf (d) none 55. The gain of an op-amp decreases at high frequency due to (a) capacitance (b) resistors (c) gain (d) none of the above 56. A square wave of peak to peak amplitude 500 mV has to be amplified to a peak to peak amplitude of 3 volts, with rise time 4 s. Find slew rate. (a) 0.5 V/S (b) 0.6 V/S (c) 0.7 V/S (d) 0.8 V/S 57. Military grade op-amp be operated in the temperature range of (a) 55 to 121C (b) 50 to 150C (c) 0 to 100C (c) at 30C 58. The reason for op-amp to drive any number of input devices corrected to its output is

(a) zero output resistance (b) infinite output resistance (c) high output resistance (d) none of the above 59. The application of open-loop operation of op-amp is (a) zero crossing detector (b) square wave generator (c) comparator (d) all of the above

Unit 2
1 The frequency response of a filter circuit is best described as: A graphical representation of output levels for a specific set of frequencies B the speed at which a filter responds C how well a filter suppresses one frequency

D how well a filtering circuit amplifies a given set of frequencies

The term often used to refer to the rate at which a filter attenuates is called the: A B C D transition curve response curve roll-off rate band-stop response

What is the roll-off rate for a two-pole filter? A B C D 20 dB/decade 40 dB/decade 3 dB 6 dB

The point at which a signal is considered to be blocked by a filter is: A B C D 3 dB of the input 70.7% of the input called the critical frequency all of the above

The frequency response curve of a band-stop filter can be easily identified by the: A B C D dip in output within a given band of frequencies peak in output within a given band of frequencies bandwidth roll-off rate

6. A ________ filter rejects all frequencies within a specified band and passes all those outside this band. A.low-pass B. high-pass C. band-pass D.band-stop 7. Identify the frequency response curve for a band-pass filter.

A.a C. c

B. b D.d

8. Filters with the ________ characteristic are useful when a rapid roll-off is required because it provides a roll-off rate greater than 20/dB/decade/pole. A.Butterworth B. Chebyshev C. Bessel D.[NIL] 9. A ________ filter significantly attenuates all frequencies below fc and passes all frequencies above fc. A.low-pass B. high-pass C. band-pass D.band-stop

10.The gain of the multiple-feedback band-pass filter above is equal to which of the following? Assume C = C1 = C2. A.A0 = R2 / R1 B. A0 = R1 / R2 C. A0 = R2 / 2 R1

D.A0 = R1 / 2 R2 What are the bandwidth characteristics of a high-Q tuned amplifier?

A. It will have a wide bandwidth. B. It will have a narrow bandwidth. C. Q does not affect bandwidth.

11

12 .

At what point does f0 approach fave?

A. when Q 2 B. when Q 2 C. The values of f0 and fave are always approximately equal.

13 .

Which of the three basic active filters has the highest initial roll-off rate? A. the Butterworth filter B. the Chebyshev filter C. the Bessel filter How many op-amps are required to build a multistage notch filter? A. one B. two C. three

14 .

15.Total phase shift required by a oscillator A.0 B.180 C.360

16.

Which of the following plays a role in oscillator operation

A. unity gain B. positive feedback C. negative feedback

17 .

What is the necessary phase relationship between the input and output of an oscillator? A. There must be a 360 (or 0) voltage phase shift. B. There must be a 180 voltage phase shift. C. The input/output phase relationship doesn't matter so long as the VAV product is correct. What is the term for using a circuit's output to provide the input for the circuit causing it to oscillate? A. regenerative feedback B. unity attenuation factor C. positive damping factor

18 .

19 .

What does the Barkhausen criterion state?

A. The amplifier must have unity gain to oscillate. B. The product of V AV must equal 1. C. There must be a 360 (or 0) phase shift between input and output.

20.

How many RC circuits are there in a phase-shift oscillator

A. one B. two C. three

21.

What types of RC circuits are in the positive feedback path of a Wien-bridge oscillator?
A. a low-pass and a high-pass filter B. two low-pass filters C. two high-pass filters

22 .

What limits the upper operating frequency of a Wien-bridge oscillator

A. the clipping diodes B. the reactance of the positive feedback path C. the propagation delay of the op-amp

23 .

What is the main circuit recognition feature of the Colpitts oscillator?

A. It has two tapped inductors. B. It has a tapped transformer. C. It has two tapped capacitors.

24 .

An amplifier with a center frequency of 1000 kHz has a bandwidth of 4 kHz. Determine the Q of the amplifier]
A. B. C. D. 250 4000 .004 5

25 .

If you wanted to get rid of the 60 Hz power line noise in a circuit, what type of filter would you use?
A. B. C. D. high-pass filter low-pass filter band-stop filter crossover network

26 .

What is one advantage of a multiple-feedback bandpass filter over a two-stage bandpass filter?
A. B. C. D. fewer components runs cooler higher filtration greater phase shift

27 .

Determine the bandwidth of a signal-pole low-pass filter that has a 20 k resistor connected between the signal input and the noninverting connection of an op-amp used as an active filter, and a 2 F capacitor between the noninverting connection and the ground for the circuit.
A. B. C. D. 4 Hz 40 Hz 48 Hz 25 Hz

28 .

Which filter type has the best frequency response?

A. B. C. D. Chebyshev filter Butterworth filter Bessel filter Schmitt trigger

29

The frequency response of a filter circuit is best described as: A B C D graphical representation of output levels for a specific set of frequencies the speed at which a filter responds how well a filter suppresses one frequency how well a filtering circuit amplifies a given set of frequencies

30

The term often used to refer to the rate at which a filter attenuates is called the: A transition curve B response curve C roll-off rate D band-stop response

31

What is the roll-off rate for a two-pole filter? A 20 dB/decade B 40 dB/decade C 3 dB D 6 dB

32

The point at which a signal is considered to be blocked by a filter is:

A B C D

3 dB of the input 70.7% of the input called the critical frequency all of the above

33

The frequency response curve of a band-stop filter can be easily identified by the: A B C D dip in output within a given band of frequencies peak in output within a given band of frequencies bandwidth roll-off rate

34 Refer to the given figure. This circuit is known as a ________ filter, and the fc is ________.

A.high-pass, 1.59 kHz B. band-pass, 15.9 kHz C. low-pass, 15.9 kHz D.high-pass, 15.9 kHz 35 The bandwidth in a ________ filter equals the critical frequency. A.low-pass B. high-pass C. band-pass D.band-stop 36. Filters with the ________ characteristic are used for filtering pulse waveforms. A.Butterworth B. Chebyshev C. Bessel D.[NIL] 38. Refer to the given figure. The roll-off of this filter is about

A.20 dB/decade. B. 40 dB/decade. C. 60 dB/decade. D.80 dB/decade. 39. Refer to the given figure. The roll-off of the circuit shown is about

A.20 dB/decade. B. 40 dB/decade. C. 60 dB/decade. D.80 dB/decade.

40. Refer to this figure. This is a ________ filter.

A.low-pass C. band-pass

B. high-pass D.band-stop

41. Which filter exhibits a linear phase characteristic? A.Bessel B. Butterworth C. Chebyshev D.all of the above 42. Refer to the given figure. The cutoff frequency of this filter is ________, and the circuit is known as a ________.

A.721 Hz, low-pass filter

B. 721 Hz, high-pass filter C. 72 Hz, low-pass filter D.721 Hz, band-pass filter 43. The critical frequency is defined as the point at which the response drops ________ from the passband. A.20 dB B. 3 dB C. 6 dB D.40 dB 44. Filters with the ________ characteristic provide a very flat amplitude in the passband and a roll-off rate of 20 dB/decade/pole. A.Butterworth B. Chebyshev C. Bessel D.[NIL]
45. Calculate the value of C1 = C2 for the Wien bridge oscillator to operate at a frequency of 20 kHz. Assume R1 = R2 = 50 k and R3 = 3R4 = 600 ?

A.1.59 pF B. 15.9 pF C. 159 pF D.1.59 nF

46. Only the condition A.0 B. 1 C. 1 D.None of the above A = ________ must be satisfied for self-sustained oscillations to result.

47. At what phase shift is the magnitude of A.90 C. 270 A at its maximum in the Nyquist plot? B. 180 D.0

48. Which of the following improvements is (are) a result of the negative feedback in a circuit? A.Lower output impedance B. Reduced noise C. More linear operation D.All of the above

49.

This circuit is a ________ oscillator.

A.phase-shift B. Wien bridge C. Colpitts

D.Hartley 50. Refer to the given figure. The resonant frequency is controlled by

A.C3 and L1. B. C2, C4, C5, and L1. C. C3, C4, C5, and L1. D.C3, C4, C5, and L2.

51. Refer to this figure. Determine the resonant frequency.

A.123.4 kHz B. 61.7 kHz C. 45.94 kHz D.23.1 kHz

352 The feedback signal in a(n) ________ oscillator is derived from an inductive voltage divider in the LC circuit. A.Hartley B. Armstrong C. Colpitts D.[NIL]

53. Given gm = 5000 S, rd = 40 k , R = 10 k , and A = 35. Determine the value of RD

for oscillator operation at 1 kHz.

54

The frequency response of a filter circuit is best described as: A B C D graphical representation of output levels for a specific set of frequencies the speed at which a filter responds how well a filter suppresses one frequency how well a filtering circuit amplifies a given set of frequencies

55

The term often used to refer to the rate at which a filter attenuates is called the: A transition curve B response curve

C roll-off rate D band-stop response

56

What is the roll-off rate for a two-pole filter? A 20 dB/decade B 40 dB/decade C 3 dB D 6 dB

57

The point at which a signal is considered to be blocked by a filter is: A B C D 3 dB of the input 70.7% of the input called the critical frequency all of the above

58

The frequency response curve of a band-stop filter can be easily identified by the: A B C D dip in output within a given band of frequencies peak in output within a given band of frequencies bandwidth roll-off rate

59. The lead-lag circuit in the Wien-bridge oscillator has a resonant frequency at which the attenuation is A.1/2. B. 1/4. C. 1/3. D.1/5. 60. The start-up gain of an oscillator must be ________ one. A.equal to B. less than C. greater than 61. Refer to this figure. What is the duty cycle, if any?

A.16.3% C. 86.9%

B. 54.5% D.none

62In the IC phase-shift oscillator, what should the ratio of feedback resistor Rf to R1 be? A.Zero B. Greater than 29 C. Less than 29 D.Any value .

Unit 3
1. The circuit shown represents

(a) I to V convertor (b) differentiator (c) log amplifier (d) analog inverter Fig.1

2. A logarithmic amplifier can be used as (a) divider (b) multiplier (c) subtractor (d) none of the above

3. A multivibrator produces (a) pure sine waves (b) square waves (c) distortion sine waves (d) saw tooth voltages 4. The comparator using op-amp with input sine waveform gives (a) cos waveform (b) square waveform (c) sine waveform (d) triangular waveform 5. The output of Schmitt trigger is

(a) square waveform (b) triangular waveform (c) sine waveform (d) cos waveform 6. The other name of Schmitt triggerm is (a) regenerative comparator (b) square wave generator (c) backlash circuit (d) all of the above 7. In Schmitt trigger, R2 = 100 , R1 = 10 k, Vref. = 0 V, Vi = 1 VPP, Vref = 14 V. Find VUT and VLT. (a) 28 mV, 28 mV (b) 14 mV, 14 mV (c) 28 mV, 14 mV (d) 28 mV, 14 mV 8. The time period T of square wave of astablemultivibrator using op-amp is (a) RCln (1 + ) (b)

(c) (d) RC 9. If R1 = R2, then = 0.5, the total time T of square wave in astablemultivibrator using op-amp is (a) T = RC (b) T = 2 RC ln 3 (c) T = 2 RCln 2 (d) T = 2RC ln(1 + 0.5)

10. The single output pulse of adjustable time direction in response to triggering signal is from _______ circuit. (a) astablemultivibrator (b) monostablemultivibrator (c) bistablemultivibrator (d) none of the above 11. The total time period of the pulse from monostablemultivibrator is (a) T = 2 RC (b) T = 0.3 RC (c) T = 0.69 RC (d) T = RC ln (1 + VD/Vsat)/1 12. If R1 = R2, = 0.5, Vsat >> VD, then time period of pulse width of monostablemultivibrator is (a) T = 2RC (b) T = 0.69 RC (c) T = 0.3 RC (d) T = RC 13. The other name of astablemultivibrator is (a) Schmitt trigger (b) free running oscillator (c) regenerative comparator (d) none of the above 14. The frequency of oscillation of triangular waveform from generator using opamp is (a) R3/4R1C1R2

(b)

(c) (d) C1/R1R2R4 15. A comparator is _______ and gives _______ output. (a) Open loop op-amp, Analog output (b) Open loop op-amp, No output (c) Open loop op-amp, Digital output (d) Closed loop op-amp, Digital output 16. Schmitt trigger is comparator ________ feedback. (a) no feedback (b) positive feedback (c) negative feedback (d) none of the above 17. A triangular wave can be generated by integrating (a) cosine waveform (b) sine waveform (c) ramp waveform (d) square waveform

18. The total time period of square wave of astable circuit using IC555 is (a) T = RC 0.69 (b) T = 0.69 (RA + RBC (c) T = 0.69 (RA + 2RB)C (d) None of the above 19. The duty cycle of astable circuit is defined as (a) tON/tON + tOFF

(b)

(c)

(d) 20. Monolithic op-amp voltage comparators are advantageous than other comparators due to (a) high response time (b) compatible with logic families (c) lesser in size (d) none of the above 21. The response time of comparator increased by ___________ op-amp. (a) compensated (b) uncompensated (c) monolithic (d) none of the above

Unit 4
D/A and A/D converters

1. Which of the following is a type of error associated with digital-to-analog converters (DACs)? a) b) c) d) nonmonotonic error incorrect output codes offset error nonmonotonic and offset error

2. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. What is the analog output for the input code 0101. a) b) c) d) 0.3125 V 3.125 V 0.78125 V 3.125 V

3. A binary-weighted digital-to-analog converter has an input resistor of 100 k . If the

resistor is connected to a 5 V source, the current through the resistor is: a) 50 A b) 5 mA

c) 500 A d) 50 mA 4. What is the resolution of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC)? a) It is the comparison between the actual output of the converter and its expected output. b) It is the deviation between the ideal straight-line output and the actual output of the converter. c) It is the smallest analog output change that can occur as a result of an increment in the digital input. d) It is its ability to resolve between forward and reverse steps when sequenced over its entire range.

5. The practical use of binary-weighted digital-to-analog converters is limited to: a) b) c) d) R/2R ladder D/A converters 4-bit D/A converters 8-bit D/A converters op-amp comparators

6. The difference between analog voltage represented by two adjacent digital codes, or the analog step size, is the: a) quantization b) accuracy

c) resolution d) monotonicity 7. The primary disadvantage of the flash analog-to digital converter (ADC) is that: a) it requires the input voltage to be applied to the inputs simultaneously b) a long conversion time is required c) a large number of output lines is required to simultaneously decode the input voltage d) a large number of comparators is required to represent a reasonable sized binary number 8. What is the major advantage of the R/2R ladder digital-to-analog (DAC), as compared to a binary-weighted digital-to-analog DAC converter? a) b) c) d) It only uses two different resistor values. It has fewer parts for the same number of inputs. Its operation is much easier to analyze. The virtual ground is eliminated and the circuit is therefore easier to understand and troubleshoot.

9. The resolution of a 05 V 6-bit digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is: a) b) c) d) 63% 64% 1.56% 15.6%

10. Which is not an analog-to-digital (ADC) conversion error? a) b) c) d) differential nonlinearity missing code incorrect code offset

PLL A phase locked loop is a frequency selective circuit designed to synchronise incoming signal and maintain synchronization in spite of noise or variations in the incoming signal frequency.

1. PLL consists of (a) Phase detector (b) VCO (c) Phase defector (d) all of the above 2. VCO is designed so that at zero voltage it is oscillating at some initial frequency W0 called (a) Cut-off frequency (b) free-cycle frequency (c) free-running frequency (d) None of the above 3. The time takes for a PLL to capture the incoming signal is called (a) pull out time (b) capture time (c) lock out time (d) none of the above 4. The filter bandwidth of PLL is reduced one of the following effects. (a) slow down the capture process (b) increases the pull time (c) increases the capture range (d) decreases the interjection-injection capabilities

5. The output frequency of the VCO in PLL is given by (a) fo = 1/4RTCT (b) fo = RTCT/4

(c) fo =4RTCT (d) fo = 4RTCT 6. The basic components of 565 IC is (a) phase vector (b) amplifier (c) VCO (d) all of the above 7. The maximum operated range of PLL 565 is (a) 0 to 500 kHz (b) 0.001 Hz to 500 kHz (c) 100 to 400 kHz (d) 10 Hz to 400 kHz 8. Lock in range of PLL 565 is (a) fL = 7.8f0/V (b) fL = 7.8f0/V (c) fL = 7.8 f0/V (d) fL = 7.8V/f0 9. The capture range of IC 565 is (a) fC(f1fL) (b) fC2(f1fL) (c) fC2(f1fL) (d) fC(f1fL/2) 10. A frequency multiplier using PLL has VCO output frequency f0 is given by (a) Nfs (b) fs/N

(c) fs (d) 1/Nfs 11. The frequency shift in frequency translator at the output of the VCO in PLL (a) f0 = fs fL (b) f0 + fs = fL (c) f0 = fs + f1 (d) f0 = fs f1 12. The main advantage of PLL as a detector with other Am detector is (a) high degree of selectivity and noise immunity (b) low noise immunity with high degree of selectivity (c) high degree of selectivity only (d) noise immunity only 13. The important characteristics of PLL are (a) lock in range (b) capture range (c) pull in time (d) all of the above 14. _______ filter controls the capture range and lock range of PLL. (a) LPF (b) HPF (c) BPF (d) None of the above 15. The other name for phase detector is (a) comparator (b) multiplier

(c) adder (d) none of the above 16. The application of PLL are (a) frequency multiplier (b) AM, FM demodulator (c) frequency demodulator (d) all of the above 17. The operating voltage of range of IC 565 is (a) 6 V to 12 V (b) 10 to 12 V (c) 8 to 12 V (d) 12 V 18. An external capacitor connected across 565 will act as (a) passive device (b) low pass filter (c) charging device (d) discharging device 19. Let to free running frequency, VC voltage shift from VCO, the new frequency shift from VCO in a PLL is (a) f0 + KVVC (b) f0 KVVC (c) KVC (d) f0 20. The transfer function of LPF in PLL is (a) =1/[1+j(f1/f)] (b) =1/[1+j(f1 f)]

(c) =1/[1+j(f/f1)] (d) 1/1 + jf1 21. The voltage VC required to derive VCO is (a) Ve T(f) A (b) Ve/T(f) A (c) AVe/T(f) (d) T(f)/VeA 22. The maximum frequency shift of VCO in PLL is (a) KVK(/2) A(f1/f) (b) KVk/A(f1/f) (c) A(f1/f) (/2)/KVk (d) A(f1/f) KV /K 23. The capture range is _______ located with respect to vco free runing frequency f0 in pll (a) asymmetrical (b) symmetrical (c) opposite (d) none of the above 24. The output waveform of pll 566 is (a) square and triangular (b) square and sine wave (c) triangular and sine wave (d) none of the above 25. The number of pins in IC-566 (a) 10 (b) 16

(c) 12 (d) 8 26. The output frequency of VCO can be changed by (a) RT (b) CT (c) VC (d) all of the above

555 Timer

1. The function of Pin 3 is: a) b) c) d) e) f) Control Voltage Discharge Output Reset Threshold Trigger

2. The function of Pin 6 is: a) b) c) d) e) f) Control Voltage Discharge Output Reset Threshold Trigger

3. The function of Pin 5 is: a) b) c) d) e) Control Voltage Discharge Output Reset Threshold

f) Trigger 4. The function of Pin 4 is: a) b) c) d) e) f) Control Voltage Discharge Output Reset Threshold Trigger

5. What is the function of the Threshold pin?

a) b) c) d)

To charge the capacitor "C" To discharge the capacitor "C" To detect when the capacitor is "HIGH" To detect when the capacitor is "LOW"

6. What is the function of the Discharge pin? a) To charge the capacitor "C" b) To discharge capacitor "C" c) To detect when the capacitor is "HIGH" d) To detect when the capacitor is "LOW" 7. What is the function of the Trigger pin? a) To charge the capacitor "C" b) To discharge the capacitor "C" c) To detect when the capacitor is "HIGH" d) To detect when the capacitor is "LOW" 8. What is the function of the Reset pin? a) To discharge the capacitor "C" b) To reset the chip c) To make the output of the chip "HIGH" 9. The Discharge and Output are: a) In phase with each other b) Out of phase with each other

10. What does pin 6 do? a) Charges the capacitor "C" b) Discharges the capacitor "C" c) Detects the HIGH on capacitor "C" d) Detects the LOW on capacitor "C" 11. When pin 2 detects the voltage-level on the capacitor, does the capacitor begin to charge or discharge? a) Charge b) Discharge 12. What does pin 2 do? a) Charges the capacitor "C" b) Discharges the capacitor "C" c) Detects the HIGH on capacitor "C" d) Detects the LOW on capacitor "C" 13. In the following diagram, is the output predominantly HIGH or LOW? Remember: Pin 7 and 3 act "in harmony"

a) HIGH b) LOW 14. To increase the output frequency of a 555: a) Increase the value of capacitor "C" b) Decrease the value of capacitor "C" 15. If the resistors in Q13 are swapped, does the output frequency change? a) It increases (b) It decreases (c) Little or no effect 16. What does pin 7 do? a) Charges the capacitor "C" b) Discharges the capacitor "C" c) Detects the HIGH on capacitor "C" d) Detects the LOW on capacitor "C" 17. If the value of R1 is increased:

a) The output frequency increases b) The output frequency decreases c) The overall frequency does not alter 18. Name the resistor(s) that effect the timing of the "LOW OUTPUT": a) R1 and R2 (b) R1 only (c) R2 only 19. For a 5v circuit, if pin 4 is taken to 1v, does the chip reset? a) Yes (b) No (c) Cannot be determined 20. When pin 2 detects the voltage-level on the capacitor, what happens to the output? a) It goes HIGH b) It goes LOW 21. For the following diagram, which resistor(s) controls the "SPACE:" a) R1 (b) R2 (c) R1 + R2 22. The maximum frequency of operation for a 555 is: a) 100kHz b) 500kHz c) 5MHz d) 500Hz