Fixed 1. paste system that is used for tissue retraction is: a. visine b. expasyl c. regisil d. viscostat 2.

yellow is produced when the following colour is absorbed: a. red b. yellow c. blue d. green 3. a reverse 3/4 crown is indicated on mandibular molar area because: a. the facial surface offers more retention than the lingual surface b. the lingual axial inclination of these teeth requires extensive tooth reduction c. it is more esthetic d. it is easier to make a reverse preparation on mandibular molars 4. the following cements are arranged in a descending order of decrease solubility: a. resin>glass ionomer>zinc phosphate b. zinc phosphate>glass ionomer>resin c. glass ionomer>zinc phosphate>resin d. resin>zinc phosphate>glass ionomer 5. which of the following impression materials may exhibit setting inhibition caused by some brands of latex gloves: a. polysulfide b. condensation silicone c. polyether d. addition silicone 6. the human eye can only perceive of light ranging from: a. 50-100 nm b. 100-300 nm c. 400-700 nm d. 900-1200 nm 7. term used to identify the metal substructure of three unit bridges designed for bonding to dental porcelain is called: a. bonding b. coping c. framework d. oxidation 8. vibration is a technique that implies: a. passing a serrated instrument over the neck of the hemostat b. passing a flat ended brush over the dental porcelain build up c. passing a pointed brush over the dental porcelain build up d. blotting liquid with a tissue 9. which of the following are not from the principles features distinguish a metal ceramic alloy from crown and bridge alloys? a. trace amounts of base metals are added for oxidation to take place b. melting range considerably higher than the porcelain fusing range c. coefficient of thermal expansion is slightly lower than that of porcelain veneer d. must not undergo distortion at firing temperature of the porcelain

10. finishing the metal substructure prior to porcelain application is done using: a. bar body compound b. green rubber c. stone bur d. red rubber 11. which of the following cements possesses the least retention quality? a. adhesive resin b. glass ionomer c. carboxylate d. phosphate 12. the additive primary colors are: a. red, green and blue b. yellow, magenta and cyan c. red, green and white d. red, green and magenta 13. a post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because: a. it is stronger b. better esthetics can be achieved c. it can be treated as an independent abutment d. less chair time is required in its fabrication 14. in cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is: a. silver b. nickel c. cobalt d. chromium 15. which of the following is not correct regarding irreversible hydrocolloid impressions? a. carry significantly higher numbers of bacteria than do elastromeric materials b. significant loss of accuracy or surface details is caused by spray disinfection process c. should be removed quickly 2 to 3 minutes after gelation d. wiggling the set impression from the mouth causes excessive distortion 16. while setting, the poured alginate impressions must be stored tray side down, because inverted freshly poured impression results in a cast with: a. rough and grainy surface b. smooth and grainy surface c. air bubbles d. low strength 17. the following cements are arranged in ascending order of compressive strength: a. zinc phosphate<resin ionomer<adhesive resin b. adhesive resin<resin ionomer<zinc phosphate c. resin ionomer<zinc phosphate<adhesive resin d. zinc phosphate<adhesive resin<resin ionomer 18. among the short term problem after cementation of fixed bridge is: a. degenerative pulp change b. recurrence of caries c. trauma from occlusion d. looseness of the abutment

19. regarding the patient's attitude toward FPDs, the patient must: a. evaluate and discover by himself the limitations of FPDs b. understand the limitations of the fixed prosthodontics before the treatment begin c. understand the limitations of the fixed prosthodontics is reached during dealing the appliance d. not understand the limitations of the fixed prosthodontics as he pays for a good service 20. according to American Dental Association classification of dental alloys, high noble alloys: a. contain a minimum of 50% wt tin b. have a noble metal content of at least 60%, of which 40% wt is gold c. have a noble metal content of at least 60%, of which 40% wt is platinum d. consist of 10% wt gold, 10%wt silver, 21. which of the following statement about degassing metal ceramic alloys is false? a. cleanses the metal of organic debris b. removed entrapped surface gases c. should be performed under vacuum to maximize the amount of oxidation d. removes volatile contaminants 22. the biologic width is the distance between the: a. base of the gingival sulcus and the crest of the alveolar bone b. free gingival margin and the base of the gingival sulcus c. free gingival margin and the crest of the alveolar bone d. free gingival margin and mucogingival junction 23. in the metal-ceramic technique, the most accepted theory that explain the bond between porcelain and noble metal alloy dependent on the: a. formation of base metal oxides b. formation of noble metal oxides c. metallic bond d. surface roughness of the alloy 24. color matching should be perform on teeth that are: a. clean b. clean and dry c. hydrated d. clean and hydrated 25. which of the following conditions in a FPD could cause porcelain bonded to metal to loosen? a. removal of 0.7 mm of bulk from the facial surface of the abutment tooth b. contamination of the metal coping c. baking the facing too rapidly d. insufficient mechanical locks 26. which of the following cements contains zinc oxide powder? a. glass ionomer b. polycarboxylate c. resin modified glass ionomer d. resin cement 27. the margin configuration of choice for all ceramic restorations is: a. chamfer b. shoulder c. shoulder with bevel

d. knife edge 28. porcelain is strongest when in a state of: a. tension b. torsion c. neutrality d. compression 29. term applied to metals that are corrosion and oxidation resistant because of an inherent chemical inertness is called: a. noble b. precious c. non precious d. base metal 30. for anterior porcelain fused to metal restoration, the occlusal contacts should be on .if possible, and proximal contacts should be on. : a. porcelain, porcelain b. metal, metal c. porcelain, metal d. metal, porcelain 31. the proper way to restore an anterior tooth which has been endodontically treated with a minimal access opening and intact marginal ridges is: a. routine composite restoration b. cast post and core with a complete veneer crown c. fiber reinforced post, composite core and all ceramic crown d. prefabricated post and complete restoration of the access opening 32. which of the following colors is preferred for dental clinics surrounding? a. red b. yellow c. cyan d. gray 33. when performing shade matching, which of the following illuminants provide the closest lighting condition to natural sunlight? a. D50 b. D80 c. A50 d. A80 34. elastic recoil is a disadvantage for which of the following techniques? a. monophase b. simultaneous dual viscosity c. closed bite double arch d. corrective impression 35. the optimal ferrule effect is: a. 0.5 mm b. 1 mm c. 2 mm d. 4 mm 36. the role of palladium in metal-ceramic alloys is to: a. increase tarnish b. increase melting temperature c. produces darkening d. reduces hardness

37. an advantage of condensation silicone impression materials include: a. high tear strength b. long working time c. short setting time d. low cost 38. overglaze is: a. firing a layer of low fusing dental porcelain b. firing porcelain for an extended period of time c. glazing porcelain by recrystallization d. polishing by insta glaze 39. which of the following impression materials is rigid and can cause cast fracture? a. irreversible hydrocolloid b. polysulfide polymer c. addition silicone d. polyether 40. which of the following is correct regarding restoration of endodontically treated teeth? a. parallel sided posts tend to conserve tooth structure more than tapered posts b. posts reinforce endodontically treated teeth c. when a ferrule is absent occlusal forces must be resisted exclusively by the post, andmay eventually fracture d. the width of the post doesn't influence success 41. a patient has recently had an endodontically treated tooth restored with a cast post and core and crown. The patient complains of pain in biting. Tooth mobility is normal and radiographs appear normal. The most probable cause of pain is: a. loose crown b. psychosomatic c. vertical root fracture d. premature eccentric contact 42. which of thre following is not correct regarding surgical crown lengthening when restoring endodontically treated teeth? a. move solid root structure into accessible area b. unaesthetic c. shorten the root d. increase crown root ratio 43. the best way for removal of FPD unlike the abutments is endodontically treated is by using: a. automatic mallet b. crown and bridge removal system c. air driven device (coronaflex crown removal ) d. sectioning the bridge 44. the 3/4 crown preparation has proximal grooves located ideally on the proximal surface at the: a. facial third b. middle third c. junction of the middle and lingual thirds d. lingual as possible to increase the retention 45. impression technique that depends on the impression mass for its rigidity is? a. simultaneous dual viscosity b. triple tray

c. single mix putty wash d. monophase impression 46. natural glaze is a technique that implies for: a. adding an earthy clear fine particles b. firing porcelain at high pressure c. firing porcelain at atmospheric pressure d. glazing porcelain by recrystallization 47. patients with a preexisting gingival inflammatory condition and requiring a fixed restoration, the line of treatment is to: a. start the fixed prosthodontic procedure and then treat the gingival inflammation b. treat the gingival inflammation first c. start the fixed prosthodontic procedure or to treat the gingival inflammation d. prevent fixed prosthodontic option as it is not indicated at all 48. regarding the restoration of endodontically treated teeth, which of the following statements is incorrect? a. crowns should be used on endodontically treated posterior teeth b. crowns are not necessary on sound endodontically treated anterior teeth c. posts reinforce endodontically treated teeth d. serrations increase post retention 49. a bad taste or smell may be a sign of: a. loose abutment retainer b. fractured connecter c. chipped porcelain d. periodontal disease 50. a disadvantage of polysulfide impression material is: a. imbibition b. low tear resistance c. stability only fair d. poor wetting 51. in the CIELAB system L represents: a. hue b. chroma c. value d. saturation 52. the following dental cement is composed of polyacrylic acid liquid together with alumino-silicate glass powder: a. zinc phosphate b. glass ionomer c. zinc polycarboxylate d. zinc oxide euginol 53. mechanical failure in metal-ceramic restorations is not common; it is usually related to faults in: a. abutment selection b. impression making c. bite registration d. coping design 54. the most critical item in the survivability of a posterior endodontically treated tooth is: a. extrcoronal cast coverage b. type of dowel material used

c. type of core material used d. length of the dowel in the intracoronal restoration 55. post cementation appointment is generally scheduled after: a. 24 hours b. four days c. one week d. one month 56. the most common surface for root perforation during post preparation in a distal root of a mandibular first molar is: a. mesial surface b. distal surface c. buccal surface d. lingual surface 57. impression technique that uses a spacer: a. corrective impression technique b. simultaneous dual viscosity technique c. triple tray technique d. supplementary impression technique 58. today's system for classifying dental alloys is based on their: a. color b. composition c. cost d. physical properties 59. cementation of fixed partial denture is highly recommended to use: a. radiolucent cement b. glass ionomer cement c. radiopaque cement d. adhesive resin cement 60. a single retraction cord in monophase impression technique should be: a. left on the prepared tooth when the impression is made b. removed from the impression after impression is made c. removed from prepared tooth before impression is made d. left in the impression after making the impression 61. achromatism is a phenomenon describing: a. complete lack of hue sensitivity b. complete lack of value sensitivity c. sensitivity to only two hues d. sensitivity to only extreme values 62. in porcelain fused to metal crown the thickness of the coping should be at least: a. 0.1 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 0.75 mm d. 1mm 63. noble metals include which of the following? a. gold, platinum and tin b. platinum, ruthenium and osmium c. platinum, palladium and manganese d. copper, osmium and iridium 64. what allows porcelain to mechanically bond to metal? a. roughness from sandblasting the cast metal restoration

b. defects after out-gassing of the residual surface oxide c. residual surface roughness from the investment material d. acid etching of the cast metal surface 65. the subtractive colors are: a. red, green and blue b. yellow, magenta and cyan c. red, green and white d. red, green and magenta 66. the following cement is used for temporary cementation of resin bonded crowns: a. zinc oxide non-euginol b. zinc oxide euginol c. zinc phosphate d. glass ionomer 67. triple tray is used for: a. full mouth rehabilitation b. single castings c. multiple separated casting d. quadrant restorations 68. during wax pattern fabrication for anterior metal ceramic restoration, the next step after completing the full contour wax up is: a. mark the wax pattern just lingual to the interproximal contact area b. determine the location of the patient's centric and excursive occlusal contacts c. reduce the incisal edge by about 1.5 mm d. measure the thickness of the wax pattern 69. the major components of high noble metal alloys in metal ceramic restoration: a. Au and Pt or Zn b. Au and Cu or Ag c. Au and Sn or In d. Au and Pt or Pd 70. discovering occlusal wearing facets usually begins on canines is a sign of: a. occlusal dysfunction b. periodontal disease c. root caries d. poor oral hygiene 71. sulcular hemorrhage is a sign of: a. trauma from occlusion b. occlusal dysfunction c. periodontal disease d. pulpitis 72. bonding mechanisms that have been reported for a ceramic veneer to a metal substructure include all the following except: a. mechanical b. compressive c. van der waal's forces d. covalent bonding 73. the following chemicals are in acidic buffer except: a. hemodent b. hemogin L c. vicostat d. visine

74. the path of insertion for anterior 3/4 crown should be: a. parallel to the long axis of the tooth b. parallel to the incisal two thirds of the labial surface c. parallel to the cervical one third of the labial surface d. perpendicular to the incisal one half of the labial surface 75. base metal alloy systems for porcelain fused to metal restoration: a. are rarely used b. results in fewer technical problems in fabrication c. has higher yield strength than precious alloys d. are more economical to use 76. one advantage of partial coverage restorations is that pulp health can be monitored with an electric pulp tester. Vitality for teeth with full crown can be assessed by thermal means: a. 1st statement is right while the 2nd statement is wrong b. 2nd statement is right while the 1st statement is wrong c. both statements are wrong d. both statement are right 77. whipping is a technique used for: a. condensing opaque porcelain b. condensing body porcelain c. mixing opaque porcelain d. mixing body porcelain 78. black on the value scale is assigned: a. 0 (zero) b. 1 (one ) c. 10 (ten ) d. 100 (hundred ) 79. which of the following is not a primary function of the metal ceramic substructure? a. metal oxide wall can support the component of a removable partial denture b. metal forms oxides that bond chemically to porcelain c. metal work as a rigid foundation for porcelain build up d. metal improves the fit of metal ceramic restoration 80. threaded post: a. distribute stresses as evenly as possible b. induce high stresses during their insertion c. improve resistance to lateral forces d. can be used to avoid root fracture ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------i 27. all ceramic finish line is: -shoulder 26. which of the following cements has zinc oxide powder? a. glass ionomer b. poly carboxylate c. resin modified ionomer Q. when choosing a tooth shade, the tooth should be:

a. hydrated b. dry c. hydrated and clean d. dry and clean Q. minimum thickness of metal coping: a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 0.9 Q. a patient came to the clinic after cementation of a crown complaining of bad taste and smell, the reason is: a. loose retainer b. broken connector Q. the illumination that provide the closest lighting condition to natural sun light: a. D65 b. D50 Q. the color of the walls of a dental clinic should be: a. cyan b. yellow c. blue d. gray Q. in anterior 3/4 crowns, retention grooves are placed parallel to: a. gingival 1/3 b. incisal 1/3 c. incisal 2/3 d. long axis of the tooth Q. elastic recoil is a disadvantage of: a. corrective technique b. monophase c. dual technique Q. visible light range: -400 nm to 700 nm Q. black at Munsell's color wheel value: -zero Q. L in CIELAB represents: -value Q. finishing of metal substructure is done by: -stones Q. natural glazing is: a. firing under high pressure b. firing under atmospheric pressure c. recrystallization Q. according to ADA classification, high noble alloys contain: -more than 60% noble metals and more than 40% gold Q. metals that are corrosion resistant: a. noble b. precious c. semi precious d. base metals Q. most common cause of debonding between metal and porcelain: -metal contamination

71. sulcular bleeding is a sign of: a. occlusal dysfunction b. premature contact c. periodontal disease Q. in crown lengthening: a. crown/root ratio increase b. the root increase in length c. bodily movement d. esthetic