Name: ______________________

Class: _________________

Date: _________

ID: A

DG Test MC
Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Two similar chromosomes that you inherit from your parents (one from your mother, one from your father) are called a. homologous chromosomes. b. sister chromatids. c. sex chromosomes. d. homozygous alleles. 2. Meiosis produces cells with how many chromosomes? a. 44 b. 22 c. 46 d. 23 3. Which of the following cell types is diploid? a. ovum b. sex cell c. somatic cell d. gamete 4. A distinguishing characteristic that can be inherited is a(n) a. cross. b. allele. c. gene. d. trait. 5. Which of the following phrases describes the Punnett square in Figure 6.1? 6. Which of the following statements is true of homozygous alleles? a. They are always inherited together. b. They are different forms of the same trait. c. They are identical forms of the same gene. d. They are identical forms of two different genes. 7. Which law states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate one copy to each of their offspring? a. law of genetic linkage b. law of segregation c. law of independent assortment d. law of inheritance 8. Which pair of genes in Figure 6.2 would be most likely to be inherited together?

a. b. c. d.

A and B A and C A and D A and E

9. Which event takes place during anaphase II of meiosis II? a. Nuclear membrane breaks down. b. Spindle fibers disassemble. c. Sister chromatids separate. d. Cytoplasm divides. 10. Recessive alleles may not be expressed because they are a. masked by a dominant allele. b. the least common allele in a population. c. the most common allele in a population. d. less likely to have crossing over.

a. b. c. d.

1/4 probability of heterozygous offspring monohybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross 3/4 probability of homozygous offspring dihybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross

Name: ______________________ 11. Which of the following events is an important factor in increasing variety among sexually reproducing organisms? a. testcross b. gene linkage c. crossing over d. mitosis 12. Mendel's observation that traits are inherited separately was based on which set of experiments? a. monohybrid crosses b. purebred crosses c. testcrosses d. dihybrid crosses 13. Imagine two heterozygous parents. Each has a dominant allele X for brown eyes and a recessive allele x for blue eyes. The phenotypic ratio for brown:blue eyes in their children is a. 1:2:1. b. 3:1. c. 9:3:3:1. d. 1:3:1. 14. A person who has a disorder caused by a recessive allele is a. considered a carrier of the disorder. b. homozygous for the recessive allele. c. unable to pass the allele to offspring. d. certain to have offspring with the disorder. 15. Gene expression is influenced by many factors. Which of the following is a factor in gene expression? a. karyotype b. pedigree c. environment d. phenotype

ID: A 16. The Punnett square in Figure 7.1 shows a cross between two parents who have the genotype Ss for a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele. Which of the following will have the genetic disorder?

a. b. c. d.

Ss parent Ss offspring SS offspring ss offspring

17. Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% 18. Human height occurs in a continuous range because it is affected by the interaction of several genes, making it a a. autosomal trait. b. sex-linked trait. c. polygenic trait. d. codominant trait. 19. Suppose a mouse is homozygous for alleles that produce black fur and homozygous for alleles of an epistatic gene that prevents fur coloration. What color fur will the mouse have? a. all white b. mostly black c. entirely gray d. black and white

Name: ______________________ 20. The gene linkage map shown in Figure 7.2 shows the order of genes A, B, and C. Which of the following statements about the genes is true?

ID: A 25. What did Hershey and Chase know about bacteriophages that led them to use these viruses in their DNA experiments? a. Bacteriophages are made up of a protein coat surrounding DNA. b. Sulfur in all bacteriophages is radioactive. c. Protein from bacteriophages enters bacteria. d. Bacteriophages have no DNA of their own. 26. Which scientist conducted tests on extracts made of bacteria to show that the genetic material in bacteria is DNA? a. Martha Chase b. Oswald Avery c. Frederick Griffith d. Alfred Hershey 27. The main difference between the four nucleotides that make up DNA is that they have different a. sugars. b. uracil. c. bonds. d. bases. 28. Which scientists figured out the three-dimensional structure of DNA by using a model of metal and wood? a. Hershey and Chase b. Watson and Crick c. Pauling and Franklin d. Chargaff and Griffith 29. In humans, where does DNA replication take place? a. cytoplasm b. ribosome c. nucleus d. vacuole 30. During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to a. bind nucleotides together. b. send messages. c. receive messages. d. locate replication sites.

a. b. c. d.

The distance between A and B is 14.5 map units. A and B cross over 2.5% of the time. A and C are linked 8.5% of the time. B and C are most likely to be inherited together.

21. Two genes cross over 6% of the time. This percentage means that the genes are a. inactivated in 6 out of 100 offspring. b. incompletely dominant in 6 out of 100 offspring. c. not inherited together in 6 out of 100 offspring. d. on sex chromosomes in 6 out of 100 offspring. 22. A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could her parents have? a. RR and RR b. Rr and RR c. Rr and rr d. RR and rr 23. Suppose a person is a carrier for a genetic disorder. Which of the following phrases about this person is true? a. does not have the disorder but can pass it on b. will develop the disorder only late in life c. cannot pass the disorder to sons, just daughters d. the allele is not passed on due to Y chromosome inactivation 24. Which of the following tools is used to match up chromosome pairs using chemical stains? a. pedigree chart b. karyotype c. meiosis map d. linkage map

Name: ______________________ 31. Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.

ID: A 37. In bacteria, what binds with the repressor to activate the lac operon? a. enzymes b. lactose c. repressors d. promoters 38. Genetic engineering is possible because all organisms are based on the same a. proteins. b. DNA copies. c. plasmid loops. d. genetic code. 39. Which of the following technologies uses electricity to sort DNA fragments based on their sizes? a. genetic screening b. gel electrophoresis c. DNA microarrays d. genetic engineering 40. In the restriction map shown in Figure 9.1, which line, or band, represents the smallest DNA fragments?

a. b. c. d.

AUT CTA AUC ACG

32. During transcription, what does messenger RNA do? a. It delivers DNA's instructions for making proteins. b. It constructs proteins out of random amino acids. c. It strings together two complementary DNA strands. d. It strings together two complementary RNA strands. 33. In order to produce all the protein that a cell needs, transcription takes place a. on a gene segment over and over again. b. on a gene segment only once. c. using double-stranded RNA. d. using single-stranded RNA. 34. The central dogma states that information flows from a. RNA to DNA to polysaccharides. b. DNA to RNA to proteins. c. RNA to DNA to proteins. d. DNA to polysaccharides to RNA. 35. Where is messenger RNA "edited" into its final form? a. in the cytoplasm b. in the ribosomes c. in the nucleus d. in the anticodon 36. What is the term for the sections of messenger RNA that are spliced together during processing? a. operators b. promotors c. exons d. introns 4

a. b. c. d.

A B C D

Name: ______________________ 41. Which of the following processes could a scientist use to make an amount of DNA that is large enough to study? a. polymerase chain reaction b. genetic engineering c. bioinformatics d. gel electrophoresis 42. Which of the following is the study of entire genomes? a. gene sequencing b. proteomics c. genomics d. transgenics 43. In polymerase chain reaction, which of the following acts as the starting point for new DNA strands? a. cDNA b. plasmids c. enzymes d. primers 44. The restriction enzymes used by scientists to cut DNA molecules at specific nucleotide sequences come from a. mice. b. yeasts. c. bacteria. d. viruses. 45. Which of the following experimental techniques involves treating a genetic disorder by replacing a defective gene with a functional gene? a. genetic screening b. bioinformatics c. genomics d. gene therapy

ID: A 46. Suppose the restriction site for a particular restriction enzyme is: GATC | | | | CTAG. The enzyme cuts the DNA between the A and the T on the top strand, and between the T and the A on the bottom strand. How many restriction sites for this enzyme are there in the DNA sequence shown in Figure 9.2?

a. b. c. d.

2 3 4 5

47. What goal of the Human Genome Project has been achieved? a. learning how DNA sequences vary among all people b. sequencing all the base pairs of the human chromosomes c. understanding the function of each human gene d. discovering the proteins that play a part in cancer 48. Genetic screening can help determine a person's risk of passing on a genetic disorder through a combination of family history and a. recombinant DNA. b. gene knockouts. c. DNA microarrays. d. DNA testing. 49. The purpose of genetic engineering is to a. develop safer pesticides. b. study obesity and cancer. c. reduce Earth's biodiversity. d. give organisms new traits. 50. Proteomics is the study and comparison of a. proteins within and among species. b. genomes of various organisms. c. DNA sequence variations among people. d. transgenic organisms in different environments.

Name: ______________________ Short Answer Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.

ID: A

Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.

54. What type of chart is shown in Figure 7.4? 51. Figure 6.4 shows the results of a cross between a plant with a known genotype and a plant of unknown genotype. What is the term for this type of cross? 52. In this plant species, the allele for purple flowers is dominant and the allele for white flowers is recessive. Write the genotype for the offspring that have white flowers. Short Answer 56. Suppose translation has just begun. Write the number in the diagram that corresponds to the start codon. 57. Write the number in a diagram that corresponds to the ribosome. How does the ribosome interact with mRNA and tRNA during translation? 55. What do the shaded shapes represent? Short Answer

53. Which type of interaction is shown by the alleles for flower color?

Name: ______________________ Short Answer

ID: A

58. What is this type of DNA analysis used for? Use the exhibit to answer the questions that follow.

59. What is the term for the structure in part 3 of the diagram? 60. Describe one way transgenic plants are used.

ID: A

DG Test MC Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: TOP: 2. ANS: TOP: 3. ANS: TOP: 4. ANS: TOP: 5. ANS: TOP: 6. ANS: TOP: 7. ANS: TOP: 8. ANS: TOP: 9. ANS: TOP: 10. ANS: TOP: 11. ANS: TOP: 12. ANS: TOP: 13. ANS: TOP: 14. ANS: TOP: 15. ANS: TOP: 16. ANS: TOP: 17. ANS: TOP: 18. ANS: TOP: 19. ANS: TOP: 20. ANS: TOP: 21. ANS: TOP: A Ch D Ch C Ch D Ch B Ch C Ch B Ch A Ch C Ch A Ch C Ch D Ch B Ch B Ch C Ch D Ch C Ch C Ch A Ch A Ch C Ch PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 6 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 1 act0976aaf18007e102_14 act0976aaf18007e102_22 act0976aaf18007e102_30 act0976aaf18007e102_38 act0976aaf18007e102_46 act0976aaf18007e102_54 act0976aaf18007e102_62 act0976aaf18007e102_70 act0976aaf18007e102_87 act0976aaf18007e102_95 act0976aaf18007e102_111 act0976aaf18007e102_119 act0976aaf18007e102_127 act0976aaf18007e110_194 act0976aaf18007e110_202 act0976aaf18007e110_210 act0976aaf18007e110_223 act0976aaf18007e110_240 act0976aaf18007e110_248 act0976aaf18007e110_256 act0976aaf18007e110_272

ID: A 22. ANS: TOP: 23. ANS: TOP: 24. ANS: TOP: 25. ANS: TOP: 26. ANS: TOP: 27. ANS: TOP: 28. ANS: TOP: 29. ANS: TOP: 30. ANS: TOP: 31. ANS: TOP: 32. ANS: TOP: 33. ANS: TOP: 34. ANS: TOP: 35. ANS: TOP: 36. ANS: TOP: 37. ANS: TOP: 38. ANS: TOP: 39. ANS: TOP: 40. ANS: TOP: 41. ANS: TOP: 42. ANS: TOP: 43. ANS: TOP: 44. ANS: TOP: C Ch A Ch B Ch A Ch B Ch D Ch B Ch C Ch A Ch C Ch A Ch A Ch B Ch C Ch C Ch B Ch D Ch B Ch D Ch A Ch C Ch D Ch C Ch PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 7 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 8 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 act0976aaf18007e110_280 act0976aaf18007e110_296 act0976aaf18007e110_320 act0976aaf18007e124_14 act0976aaf18007e124_22 act0976aaf18007e124_46 act0976aaf18007e124_38 act0976aaf18007e124_54 act0976aaf18007e124_62 act0976aaf18007e124_70 act0976aaf18007e124_79 act0976aaf18007e124_87 act0976aaf18007e124_95 act0976aaf18007e124_111 act0976aaf18007e124_119 act0976aaf18007e124_127 act0976aaf18007e136_14 act0976aaf18007e136_46 act0976aaf18007e136_22 act0976aaf18007e136_54 act0976aaf18007e136_62 act0976aaf18007e136_70 act0976aaf18007e136_78

ID: A 45. ANS: TOP: 46. ANS: TOP: 47. ANS: TOP: 48. ANS: TOP: 49. ANS: TOP: 50. ANS: TOP: D Ch B Ch B Ch D Ch D Ch A Ch PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A PTS: 1 9 Test - A DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: DIF: NOT: Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 Level A REF: 978-0-618-78317-5 act0976aaf18007e136_86 act0976aaf18007e136_94 act0976aaf18007e136_102 act0976aaf18007e136_110 act0976aaf18007e136_118 act0976aaf18007e136_126

SHORT ANSWER 51. ANS: testcross PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 6 Test - A 52. ANS: ff REF: act0976aaf18007e102_172 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5

PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e102_176 TOP: Ch 6 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5 53. ANS: 1 = C1 C1 , 2 = C1 C2 , 3 = C1 C2 , 4 = C2 C2 ; incomplete dominance PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 7 Test - A 54. ANS: a pedigree chart PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 7 Test - A 55. ANS: individuals with a given phenotype PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 7 Test - A 56. ANS: 4 PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 8 Test - A REF: act0976aaf18007e110_354 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5

REF: act0976aaf18007e110_374 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5

REF: act0976aaf18007e110_378 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5

REF: act0976aaf18007e124_152 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5

ID: A 57. ANS: 5; the small ribosomal unit binds to mRNA in the cytoplasm. The binding attracts a tRNA with methionine to the start codon. PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e124_156 TOP: Ch 8 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5 58. ANS: This technology is used to identify people at the molecular level. PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 9 Test - A 59. ANS: recombinant DNA REF: act0976aaf18007e136_147 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5

PTS: 1 DIF: Level A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_179 TOP: Ch 9 Test - A NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5 60. ANS: Transgenic plants are used to increase crop yield. Transgenic crops can be made to be more resistant to frost, disease, and insects. PTS: 1 DIF: Level A TOP: Ch 9 Test - A REF: act0976aaf18007e136_189 NOT: 978-0-618-78317-5