QUESTI ON FOR SHORT ANSWER

ATOMI C PHYSI CS
Q.1 In the photoelectric effect, why does the existence of a cutoff frequency speak in favour of the photon
theory and against the wave theory?
Q.2 Explain the statement that ones eyes could not detect faint starlight if light were not particle-like.
Q.3 How can a photon energy be given by E =hf when the very presence of the frequency f in the formula
implies that light is a wave?
Q.4 The momentum p of a photon is given by p =h/. Why is it that c, the speed of light, does not appear in
this expression?
Q.5 Given that E =hf for a photon, the Doppler shift in frequency of radiation from a receding light source
would seem to indicate a reduced energy for the emitted photons. Is this in fact true? If so, what happened
to the conservation of energy principle?
Q.6 Any series of atomic hydrogen yet to be observed will probably be found in what region of the spectrum?
Q.7 Can a hydrogen atom absorb a photon whose energy exceeds its binding energy(13.6 eV)?
Q.8 Only a relatively small number of Balmer lines can be observed from laboratory discharge tubes, whereas
a large number are observed in stellar spectra. Explain this in terms of the small density, high temperature,
and large volume of gases in stellar atmospheres.
Q.9 What is the origin of the cutoff wavelength
min
of figure shown? Why is it an important clue to the photon
nature of x rays?
Q.10 Can atomic hydrogen be caused to emit x rays? If so, describe how. If not, why not?
Q.11 Why is it that Bohr theory, which does not work very well even for helium (Z =2), gives such a good
account of the characteristic x-ray spectra of the elements, or at least of that portion that originates deep
within the atom?
Q.12 The ionization potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. Yet to obtain discharge in a cathode ray tube filled with
hydrogen, a very high voltage ( ~10
4
V) has to be applied across the tube. Explain this clearly. Also
explain why the gas must be at low pressure to obtain discharge.
Q.13 X-rays are produced when a fast electron hits a proper target. What happens to the electron?
Q.14 Why does the tail of a comet always point away from the sun?
Q.15 A neutron pion at rest decays into two gamma photons.
t
0
+
Why cannot a single photon be born? What conservation law is in contradiction with it?
Q.16 What is so special about e/m rather than e end m separately?
Q.17 Why is it advisable to view a TV screen from a distance of about ten feet?
Q.18 The electrical conductivity of a gas increases when X-rays or -rays pass through it. Explain this
phenomenon.
Q.19 In photoelectric emission exchange of energy takes place among... (photon and electron/ photon, electron
and lattice).
Q.20 The threshold frequencies for photoemission for three metals numbered 1,2,3 are respectively v
1
, v
2
, v
3
and v
1
>v
2
>v
3
. An incident radiation of frequency v
0
>v
2
... cause photoemission from 3 but... cause
photoemission from1 (fill in the gaps with may, may not / will certainly).
NUCLEAR PHYSI CS
Q.1 Why does the relative importance of the Coulomb force compared to the strong nuclear force increase
at large mass numbers?
Q.2 In your body, are there more neutrons than protons? More protons than electrons? Discuss
Q.3 Why is the binding energy per nucleon (see figure) low at low mass numbers? At high mass numbers?
Q.4 A radioactive nucleus can emit a positron, e
+
. This corresponds to a proton in the nucleus being converted to a
neutron. The mass of a neutron, however, is greater than that of a proton. How then can positron emission occur?
Q.5 In beta decay the emitted electrons form a continuous spectrum, but in alpha decay the alpha particles
form a discrete spectrum. What difficulties did this cause in the explanation of beta decay, and how were
these difficulties finally overcome?
Q.6 How do neutrinos differ from photons? Each has zero charge and (presumably) zero rest mass and
travels at the speed of light.
Q.7 In radioactive dating with
238
U, how do you get around the fact that you do not know how much
238
U
was present in the rocks to begin with? (Hint: What is the ultimate decay product of
238
U?)
Q.8 If it is so much harder to get a nucleon out of a nucleus than to get an electron out of an atom, why try?
Q.9 In the generalized equation for the fission of
235
U by thermal neutrons,
235
U +n X +Y +bn, do you
expect the Q of the reaction to depend on the identity of X and Y?
Q.10 The half-life of
235
U is 7.0 10
8
y. Discuss the assertion that if it had turned out to be shorter by a factor
of 10 or so, there would not be any atomic bombs today.
Q.11 The binding energy curve of figuretells us that any nucleus more massive than A
~
56 can release energy
by the fission process. Only very massive nuclides seem to do so, however. Why cannot lead, for
example, release energy by the fission process?
Q.12 Elements up to mass number
~
56 are created by thermonuclear fusion in the cores of stars. Why are
heavier elements not also created by this process?
Q.13 Which would generate more radioactive waste products :- a fission reactor or a fusion reactor?
Q.14 How can Becquerel rays, i.e., the combination of o-, |- and -rays, be separated?
Q.15 When a nucleus undergoes o-decay, is the product atom electrically neutral? In |-decay?
Q.16 Experimental results in radioactivity show small variations fromthe results predicted by theory. Explain
this.
Q.17 If a nucleus emits only a -rays photon, does its mass number change? Does its mass change?
ONLY ONE OPTI ON I S CORRECT.
Take approx. 2 minutes for answering each question.
Q.1 Let n
r
and n
b
be respectively the number of photons emitted by a red bulb and a blue bulb of equal
power in a given time.
(A) n
r
=n
b
(B) n
r
<n
b
(C) n
r
>n
b
(D) data insufficient
Q.2 10
3
W of 5000 light is directed on a photoelectric cell. If the current in the cell is 0.16 A, the
percentage of incident photons which produce photoelectrons, is
(A) 0.4% (B) .04% (C) 20% (D) 10%
Q.3 A proton and an electron are accelerated by same potential difference have de-Broglie wavelength
p
and
e
.
(A)
e
=
p
(B)
e
<
p
(C)
e
>
p
(D) none of these.
Q.4 Two electrons are moving with the same speed v. One electron enters a region of uniform electric field
while the other enters a region of uniform magnetic field, then after sometime if the deBroglie wavelengths
of the two are
1
and
2
, then:
(A)
1
=
2
(B)
1
>
2
(C)
1
<
2
(D)
1
>
2
or
1
<
2
Q.5 In a photo-emissive cell, with exciting wavelength , the maximum kinetic energy of electron is K. If the
exciting wavelength is changed to
4
3
the kinetic energy of the fastest emitted electron will be:
(A) 3K/4 (B) 4K/3 (C) less than 4K/3 (D) greater than 4K/3
Q.6 If the frequency of light in a photoelectric experiment is doubled, the stopping potential will
(A) be doubled (B) halved
(C) become more than doubled (D) become less than double
Q.7 An electron with initial kinetic energy of 100 eV is acceleration through a potential difference of 50 V.
Now the de-Broglie wavelength of electron becomes
(A) 1 (B) 5 . 1 (C) 3 (D) 12.27
Q.8 If h is Plancks constant is SI system, the momentum of a photon of wavelength 0.01 is:
(A) 10
2
h (B) h (C) 10
2
h (D) 10
12
h
Q.9 The stopping potential for the photo electrons emitted from a metal surface of work function 1.7 eV is
10.4 V. Identify the energy levels corresponding to the transitions in hydrogen atom which will result in
emission of wavelength equal to that of incident radiation for the above photoelectric effect
(A) n =3 to 1 (B) n =3 to 2 (C) n =2 to 1 (D) n =4 to 1
Q.10 When a photon of light collides with a metal surface, number of electrons, (if any) coming out is
(A) only one (B) only two (C) infinite (D) depends upon factors
Q.11 Two radioactive material A
1
and A
2
have decay constants of 10
0
and
0
. If initially they have same
number of nuclei, the ratio of number of their undecayed nuclei will be (1/e) after a time
(A)
0
1

(B)
0
9
1

(C)
0
10
1

(D) 1
Q.12 The frequency and the intensity of a beam of light falling on the surface of photoelectric material are
increased by a factor of two. This will :
(A) increase the maximum energy of the photoelectrons, as well as photoelectric current by a factor of
two.
(B) increase the maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons and would increase the photoelectric
current by a factor of two.
(C) increase the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons by a factor of greater than two and will
have no effect on the magnitude of photoelectric current produced.
(D) not produce any effect on the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons but will increase the photoelectric
current by a factor of two.
Q.13 Light coming from a discharge tube filled with hydrogen falls on the cathode of the photoelectric cell. The
work function of the surface of cathode is 4eV. Which one of the following values of the anode voltage
(in Volts) with respect to the cathode will likely to make the photo current zero.
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
Q.14 A point source of ligth is used in a photoelectric effect. If the source is removed farther from the emitting
metal, the stopping potential :
(A) will increase (B) will decrease
(C) will remain constant (D) will either increase or decrease.
Q.15 A point source causes photoelectric effect from a small metal plate. Which of the following curves may
represent the saturation photocurrent as a function of the distance between the source and the metal ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.16 Let K
1
be the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by a light of wavelength
1
and K
2
corresponding to
2
. If
1
=2
2
, then :
(A) 2K
1
=K
2
(B) K
1
=2K
2
(C) K
1
<
2
K
2
(D) K
1
>2K
2
Q.17 In a photoelectric experiment, the potential difference V that must be maintained
between the illuminated surface and the collector so as just to prevent any electron
from reaching the collector is determined for different frequencies f of the incident
illumination. The graph obtained is shown.
The maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted at frequency f
1
is
(A) hf
1
(B)
) f f (
V
0 1
1

(C) h (f
1
f
0
) (D) eV
1
(f
1
f
0
)
Q.18 Radiation of two photon energies twice and five times the work function of metal are incident sucessively on
the metal surface. The ratio of the maximumvelocity of photoelectrons emitted is the two cases will be
(A) 1 :2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
Q.19 Cut off potentials for a metal in photoelectric effect for light of wavelength
1
,
2
and
3
is found to be
V
1
, V
2
and V
3
volts if V
1
, V
2
and V
3
are in Arithmetic Progression and
1
,
2
and
3
will be:
(A) Arithmetic Progression (B) Geometric Progression
(C) Harmonic Progression (D) None
Q.20 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C , on a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
the emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons
will reach the anode A if the stopping potential of A relative to C is
(A) 3 V (B) 3V (C) 1V (D) 4 V
Q.21 In a photoelectric experiment, the collector plate is at 2.0V with respect to the emitter plate made of
copper =4.5eV). The emitter is illuminated by a source of monochromatic light of wavelength 200nm.
(A) the minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons reaching the collector is 0.
(B) the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons reaching the collector is 3.7eV.
(C) if the polarity of the battery is reversed then answer to part A will be 0.
(D) if the polarity of the battery is reversed then answer to part B will be 1.7eV.
Q.22 By increasing the intensity of incident light keeping frequency (v >v
0
) fixed on the surface of metal
(A) kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases
(B) number of emitted electrons increases
(C) kinetic energy and number of electrons increases
(D) no effect
Q.23 In a photoelectric experiment, electrons are ejected from metals X and Y by light of intensity I and
frequency f. The potential difference V required to stop the electrons is measured for various frequencies.
If Y has a greater work function than X ; which one of the following graphs best illustrates the expected
results?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.24 Monochromatic light with a frequency well above the cutoff frequency is incident on the emitter in a
photoelectric effect apparatus. The frequency of the light is then doubled while the intensity is kept
constant. How does this affect the photoelectric current?
(A) The photoelectric current will increase.
(B) The photoelectric current will decrease.
(C) The photoelectric current will remain the same.
(D) None of these
Q.25 In a hypothetical system a particle of mass m and charge 3q is moving around a very heavy particle
having cahrge q. Assuming Bohrs model to be true to this system, the orbital velocity of mass m when it
is nearest to heavy particle is
(A)
h 2
q 3
0
2
c
(B)
h 4
q 3
0
2
c
(C)
h 2
q 3
0
c
(D)
h 4
q 3
0
c
Q.26 de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is
n
and the angular momentum is J
n
, then:
(A) J
n

n
(B)
n

n
J
1
(C)
n

2
n
J
(D) none of these
Q.27 The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is
t 2
h 3
. Here h is Plancks constant. The
kinetic energy of this electron is:
(A) 4.53 eV (B) 1.51 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 6.8 eV
Q.28 Consider the following electronic energy level diagram of H-atom:
Photons associated with shortest and longest wavelengths would be
emitted from the atom by the transitions labelled:
(A) D and C respectively
(B) C and A respectively
(C) C and D respectively
(D) A and C respectively
Q.29 In a hydrogen atom, the binding energy of the electron in the n
th
state is E
n
, then the frquency of revolutionof
the electron in the nth orbits is:
(A) 2E
n
/nh (B) 2E
n
n/h (C) E
n
/nh (D) E
n
n/h
Q.30 If the electron in a hydrogen atom were in the energy level with n =3, how much energy in joule would
be required to ionise the atom? (Ionisation energy of H-atom is 2.18 10
18
J ):
(A) 6.54 10
19
(B) 1.43 10
19
(C) 2.42 10
19
(D) 3.14 10
20
Q.31 In hydrogen and hydrogen like atoms, the ratio of difference of energies E
4n
E
2n
and E
2n
E
n
varies with
its atomic number z and n as:
(A) z
2
/n
2
(B) z
4
/n
4
(C) z / n (D) z
0
n
0
Q.32 In a hydrogen atom, the electron is in nth excited state. It may come down to second excited state by
emitting ten different wavelengths. What is the value of n:
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 5
Q.33 Difference between nth and (n +1)th Bohrs radius of H atom is equal to its (n1)th Bohrs radius. the
value of n is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.34 An electron in hydrogen atom after absorbing energy photons can jump between energy states n
1
and
n
2
(n
2
>n
1
). Then it may return to ground state after emitting six different wavelengths in emission spectrum.
the energy of emitted photons is either equal to, less than or greater than the absorbed photons. Then n
1
and n
2
are:
(A) n
2
=4, n
1
=3 (B) n
2
=5, n
1
=3 (C) n
2
=4, n
1
=2 (D) n
2
=4, n
1
=1
Q.35 The electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition from M shell to L. The ratio of magnitudes of initial to
final centripetal acceleration of the electron is
(A) 9 : 4 (B) 81 : 16 (C) 4 : 9 (D) 16 : 81
Q.36 The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n
1
n
2
whose n
1
and n
2
are the principal quantum
numbers of the two states. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The frequency of orbital motion of the
electron in the initial state is 1/27 of that in the final state. The possible values of n
1
and n
2
are
(A) n
1
=4, n
2
=2 (B) n
1
=3, n
2
=1 (C) n
1
=8, n
2
=1 (D) n
1
=6, n
2
=3
Q.37 The radius of Bohrs first orbit is a
0
. The electron in n
th
orbit has a radius:
(A) na
0
(B) a
0
/n (C) n
2
a
0
(D) a
0
/n
2
Q.38 The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 volt. The energy required to remove an electron from
the second orbit of hydrogen is:
(A) 3.4 eV (B) 6.8 eV (C) 13.6 eV (D) 27.2 eV
Q.39 Electron in a hydrogen atom is replaced by an identically charged particle muon with mass 207 times that
of electron. Now the radius of K shell will be
(A) 2.56 10
3
(B) 109.7 (C) 1.21 10
3
(D) 22174.4
Q.40 Monochromatic radiation of wavelength is incident on a hydrogen sample containing in ground state.
Hydrogen atoms absorb the light and subsequently emit radiations of ten different wavelengths. The
value of is
(A) 95 nm (B) 103 nm (C) 73 nm (D) 88 nm
Q.41 When a hydrogen atom, initially at rest emits, a photon resulting in transition n =5 n =1, its recoil
speed is about
(A) 10
4
m/s (B) 2 10
2
m/s (C) 4.2 m/s (D) 3.8 10
2
m/s
Q.42 An electron collides with a fixed hydrogen atom in its ground state. Hydrogen atom gets excited and the
colliding electron loses all its kinetic energy. Consequently the hydrogen atom may emit a photon
corresponding to the largest wavelength of the Balmer series. The min. K.E.of colliding electron will be
(A) 10.2 eV (B) 1.9 eV (C) 12.1 eV (D) 13.6 eV
Q.43 The frequency of revolution of electron in n
th
Bohr orbit is v
n
. The graph between log n and log (v
n
/ v
1
)
may be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.44 Consider the spectral line resulting from the transition n =2 n =1 in the atoms and ions given below.
The shortest wavelength is produced by :
(A) hydrogen atom (B) deuterium atom
(C) singly ionized helium (D) doubly ionized lithium
Q.45 In an atom, two electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the
time taken by them to complete one revolution is : (neglect electric interaction)
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 8 : 1
Q.46 The electron in hydrogen atom in a sample is in n
th
excited state, then the number of different spectrum
lines obtained in its emission spectrum will be :
(A) 1 +2 +3 +..........+(n 1) (B) 1 +2 +3 +....................+( n )
(C) 1 +2 +3 +..........+(n +1) (D) 1 2 3 ...................(n 1)
Q.47 The total energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6eV. If the potential energy in the first
excited state is taken as zero then the total energy in the ground state will be :
(A) -3.4eV (B) 3.4 eV (C) 6.8eV (D) 6.8eV
Q.48 A neutron collides head on with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state
(A) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 13.6eV, collision must be elastic
(B) if kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 13.6eV, collision may be inelastic.
(C) inelastic collision takes place when initial kinetic energy of neutron is greater than 13.6eV.
(D) perfectly inelastic collision cannot take place.
Q.49 The electron in a hydrogen atom make a transition from an excited state to the ground state. Which of the
following statement is true ?
(A) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energies decrease
(B) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy remains the same.
(C) Its kinetic and toal energies decrease and its potential energy increases.
(D) its kinetic potential and total energies decreases.
Q.50 The magnitude of angular momentum, orbit radius and frequency of revolution of electron in hydrogen
atom corresponding to quantum number n are L, r and f respectively. Then according to Bohr's theory of
hydrogen atom,
(A) fr
2
L is constant for all orbits (B) frL is constant for all orbits
(C) f
2
rL is constant for all orbits (D) frL
2
is constant for all orbits
Q.51 In a characteristic X ray spectra of some atom superimposed on
continuous X ray spectra:
(A) P represents K
o
line
(B) Q represents K
|
line
(C) Q and P represents K
o
and K
|
lines respectively
(D) Relative positions of K
o
and K
|
depend on the particular atom
Q.52 The K
o
X-rays emission line of tungsten occurs at =0.021 nm. The energy difference between K
and L levels in this atom is about
(A) 0.51 MeV (B) 1.2 MeV (C) 59 keV (D) 13.6 eV
Q.53 Consider the nuclear reaction
X
200
A
110
+ B
90
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B is 7.4 MeV, 8.2. MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, what
is the energy released ?
(A) 200 MeV (B) 160 MeV (C) 110 MeV (D) 90 MeV
Q.54 The binding energy per nucleon for C
12
is 7.68 MeV and that for C
13
is 7.5 MeV. The energy required
to remove a neutron from C
13
is
(A) 5.34 MeV (B) 5.5 MeV (C) 9.5 MeV (D) 9.34 MeV
Q.55 The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E
1
and E
2
respectively. Two atoms of X fuse to give one atom
of Y and an energy Q is released. Then:
(A) Q =2E
1
E
2
(B) Q =E
2
2E
1
(C) Q =2E
1
+E
2
(D) Q =2E
2
+E
1
Q.56 Radius of the second Bohr obit of singly ionised helium atom is
(A) 0.53 (B) 1.06 (C) 0.265 (D) 0.132
Q.57 An electron in Bohrs hydrogen atom has an energy of 3.4 eV. The angular momentum of the electron is
(A) h / t (B) h / 2t
(C) nh / 2t ( n is an integer) (D) 2h / t
Q.58 If each fission in a U
235
nucleus releases 200 MeV, how many fissions must occurs per second to
produce a power of 1 KW
(A) 1.325 10
13
(B) 3.125 10
13
(C) 1.235 10
13
(D) 2.135 10
13
Q.59 The rest mass of the deuteron ,
1
2
H, is equivalent to an energy of 1876 MeV, the rest mass of a proton
is equivalent to 939 MeV and that of a neutron to 940 MeV. A deuteron may disintegrate to a proton
and a neutron if it :
(A) emits a

-ray photon of energy 2 MeV
(B) captures a

-ray photon of energy 2 MeV
(C) emits a

-ray photon of energy 3 MeV
(D) captures a

-ray photon of energy 3 MeV
Q.60 In an o-decay the Kinetic energy of o particle is 48 MeV and Q-value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The
mass number of the mother nucleus is: (Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state)
(A) 96 (B) 100 (C) 104 (D) none of these
Q.61 In the uranium radioactive series the initial nucleus is
92
U
238
, and the final nucleus is
82
Pb
206
. When the
uranium nucleus decays to lead, the number of o particles emitted is.. and the number of |-particles
emitted...
(A) 6, 8 (B) 8, 6 (C) 16, 6 (D) 32, 12
Q.62 The radioactive sources A and B of half lives of 2 hr and 4 hr respectively, initially contain the same
number of radioactive atoms. At the end of 2 hours, their rates of disintegration are in the ratio :
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C)
2
: 1 (D) 1 : 1
Q.63 In a RA element the fraction of initiated amount remaining after its mean life time is
(A) 1
e
1
(B)
2
e
1
(C)
e
1
(D) 1
2
e
1
Q.64 90% of a radioactive sample is left undecayed after time t has elapsed. What percentage of the initialsample
will decay in a total time 2t:
(A) 20% (B) 19% (C) 40% (D) 38%
Q.65 A radioactive material of half-life T was produced in a nuclear reactor at different instants, the quantity
produced second time was twice of that produced first time. If now their present activities are A
1
and A
2
respectively then their age difference equals:
(A)
2
1
A
A
ln
2 ln
T
(B) T
2
1
A
A
ln
(C)
1
2
A 2
A
ln
2 ln
T
(D) T
1
2
A 2
A
ln
Q.66 Activity of a radioactive substance is R
1
at time t
1
and R
2
at time t
2
(t
2
>t
1
). Then the ratio
1
2
R
R
is:
(A)
1
2
t
t
(B)
) t t (
2 1
e
+
(C) e
|
.
|

\
|

2 1
t t
(D)
) t t (
2 1
e

Q.67 There are two radionuclei A and B. A is an alpha emitter and B is a beta emitter. Their distintegration
constants are in the ratio of 1 : 2. What should be the ratio of number of atoms of two at time
t =0 so that probabilities of getting o and | particles are same at time t =0.
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) e (D) e
1
Q.68 The activity of a sample reduces from A
0
to A
0
/
3
in one hour. The activity after 3 hours more will be
(A)
3 3
A
0
(B)
9
A
0
(C)
3 9
A
0
(D)
27
A
0
Q.69 Half life of radium is 1620 years. How many radium nuclei decay in 5 hours in 5 gm radium? ( Atomic
weight of radium =223)
(A) 9.1 10
12
(B) 3.23 10
15
(C) 1.72 10
20
(D) 3.3 10
17
Q.70 Half life for certain radioactive element is 5 min. Four nuclei of that element are observed at a certain
instant of time. After five minutes
Assertion (A): It can be definitely said that two nuclei will be left undecayed.
Reasoning (R): After half life i.e. 5 minutes, half of total nuclei will disintegrate. So only two nuclei will
be left undecayed. Then
(A) A is correct & R is correct explanation of A.
(B) Both are correct. But R is not correct explanation of A.
(C) A is incorrect & R is correct.
(D) Both are incorrect.
Q.71 A certain radioactive nuclide of mass number m
x
disintegrates, with the emission of an electron and
radiation only, to give second nuclied of mass number m
y
. Which one of the following equation correctly
relates m
x
and m
y
?
(A) m
y
=m
x
+1 (B) m
y
=m
x
2 (C) m
y
=m
x
1 (D) m
y
=m
x
Q.72 The number of o and |

emitted during the radioactive decay chain starting from
Ra
226
88
and ending at
Pb
206
82
is
(A) 3o & 6|

(B) 4o & 5|

(C) 5o & 4|

(D) 6o & 6|

Q.73 The activity of a sample of radioactive material is A
1
at time t
1
and A
2
at time t
2
(t
2
>t
1
). Its mean life is T.
(A) A
1
t
1
=A
2
t
2
(B)
A A
t t
1 2
2 1

=constant(C) AA
2
=A
1e
t t T ( )/
1 2

(D) A
2
=A
1e
t Tt ( / )
1 2
Q.74 A fraction f
1
of a radioactive sample decays in one mean life, and a fraction f
2
decays in one halflife.
(A) f
1
>f
2
(B) f
1
<f
2
(C) f
1
=f
2
(D) May be (A), (B) or (C) depending on the values of the mean life and half life
Q.75 A radioactive substance is being produced at a constant rate of 10 nuclei/s. The decay constant of the
substance is 1/2 sec
1
. After what time the number of radioactive nuclei will become 10? Initially there
are no nuclei present. Assume decay law holds for the sample.
(A) 2.45 sec (B) log (2) sec (C) 1.386 sec (D)
) 2 ( n
1
l
sec
Q.76 The radioactivity of a sample is R
1
at time T
1
and R
2
at time T
2
. If the half life of the specimen is T.
Number of atoms that have disintegrated in time (T
2
T
1
) is proportional to
(A) (R
1
T
1
R
2
T
2
) (B) (R
1
R
2
) T (C) (R
1
R
2
)/T (D) (R
1
R
2
) (T
1
T
2
)
Q.77 The decay constant of the end product of a radioactive series is
(A) zero (B) infinite (C) finite (non zero) (D) depends on the end product.
Q.78 At time t =0, N
1
nuclei of decay constant
1
& N
2
nuclei of decay constant
2
are mixed . The decay
rate of the mixture is :
(A)
( ) t
2 1
e N N
2 1
+
(B) +
( )t
2 1
e
N
N
2
1

|
|
.
|

\
|
(C) +
( )
t t
2 1
e N e N
2 2 1 1

+
(D) + N
1

1
N
2

2
( )t
2 1
e
+
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE OPTI ON MAY BE CORRECT
Take approx. 3 minutes for answering each question.
Q.1 In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on
(A) frequency of the incident light (B) intensity of the incident light by varies source distance
(C) emitters properties (D) frequency and intensity of the incident light
Q.2 An electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from second excited state to first excited state and then, from
first excited state to ground state. Let the ratio of wavelength, momentum and energy of photons in the
two cases be x, y and z, then select the wrong answer/(s) :
(A) z =1/x (B) x=9/4 (C) y=5/27 (D) z=5/27
Q.3 An electron is in an excited state in hydrogen-like atom. It has a total energy of 3.4 eV. If the kinetic
energy of the electron is E and its de-Broglie wavelength is , then
(A) E =6.8 eV, =6.6 10
10
m (B) E =3.4 eV, =6.6 10
10
m
(C) E =3.4 eV, =6.6 10
11
m (D) E =6.8 eV, =6.6 10
11
m
Q.4 A particular hydrogen like atom has its ground state binding energy 122.4eV. Its is in ground state.
Then:
(A) Its atomic number is 3
(B) An electron of 90eV can excite it.
(C) An electron of kinetic energy nearly 91.8eV can be brought to almost rest by this atom.
(D) An electron of kinetic energy 2.6eV may emerge from the atom when electron of kinetic energy
125eV collides with this atom.
Q.5 A beam ofultraviolet light of all wavelengths passes through hydrogen gas at room temperature, in the
x-direction. Assume that all photons emitted due to electron transition inside the gas emerge in the
y-direction. Let A and B denote the lights emerging from the gas in the x and y directions respectively.
(A) Some of the incident wavelengths will be absent in A.
(B) Only those wavelengths will be present in B which are absent in A.
(C) B will contain some visible light.
(D) B will contain some infrared light.
Q.6 If radiation of allow wavelengths from ultraviolet to infrared is passed through hydrogen agas at room
temperature, absorption lines will be observed in the :
(A) Lyman series (B) Balmer series (C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)
Q.7 In the hydrogen atom, if the reference level of potential energy is assumed to be zero at the ground state
level. Choose the incorrect statement.
(A) The total energy of the shell increases with increase in the value of n
(B) The total energy of the shell decrease with increase in the value of n.
(C) The difference in total energy of any two shells remains the same.
(D) The total energy at the ground state becomes 13.6 eV.
Q.8 Choose the correct statement(s) for hydrogen and deuterium atoms (considering motion of nucleus)
(A) The radius of first Bohr orbit of deuterium is less than that of hydrogen
(B) The speed of electron in the first Bohr orbit of deuterium is more than that of hydrogen.
(C) The wavelength of first Balmer line of deuterium is more than that of hydrogen
(D) The angular momentum of electron in the first Bohr orbit of deuterium is more than that of hydrogen.
Q.9 Let A
n
be the area enclosed by the n
th
orbit in a hydrogen atom. The graph of ln (A
n
/A
1
) agains ln (n).
(A) will pass through origin
(B) will be a stright line will slope 4
(C) will be a monotonically increasing nonlinear curve
(D) will be a circle.
Q.10 A neutron collides head-on with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state. Which of the following
statements are correct (Assume that the hydrogen atom and neutron has same mass) :
(A) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 20.4 eV collision must be elastic.
(B) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 20.4 eV collision may be inelastic.
(C) Inelastic collision may be take place only when initial kinetic energy of neutron is greater than20.4eV.
(D) Perfectly inelastic collision can not take place.
Q.11 When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A undergoes a radioactive decay process:
(A) both Z and A will decrease, if the process is o decay
(B) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is |
+
decay
(C) Z will decrease but A will not change, if the process is |

decay
(D) Z and A will remain unchanged, if the process is decay.
Q.12 In a Coolidge tube experiment, the minimum wavelength of the continuous X-ray spectrum is equal to
66.3 pm, then
(A) electrons accelerate through a potential difference of 12.75 kV in the Coolidge tube
(B) electrons accelerate through a potential difference of 18.75 kV in the Coolidge tube
(C) de-Broglie wavelength of the electrons reaching the anticathode is of the order of 10m.
(D) de-Broglie wavelength of the electrons reaching the anticathode is 0.01.
Q.13 The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation:
(A) the intensity increases (B) the minimum wave length increases
(C) the intensity decreases (D) the minimum wave length decreases
Q.14 When the atomic number A of the nucleus increases
(A) initially the neutronproton ratio is constant =1
(B) initially neutronproton ratio increases and later decreases
(C) initially binding energy per nucleon increases and later decreases
(D) the binding energy per nucleon increases when the neutronproton ratio increases.
Q.15 Let m
p
be the mass of a proton, m
n
the mass of a neutron, M
1
the mas of a Ne
20
10
nucleus and M
2
the
mass of a Ca
40
20
nucleus. Then
(A) M
2
=2M
1
(B) M
2
>2M
1
(C) M
2
<2M
1
(D) M
1
<10(m
n
+m
p
)
Q.16 The decay constant of a radio active substance is 0.173 (years)
1
. Therefore :
(A) Nearly 63% of the radioactive substance will decay in (1/0.173) year.
(B) half life of the radio active substance is (1/0.173) year.
(C) one -forth of the radioactive substance will be left after nearly 8 years.
(D) all the above statements are true.
ANSWER KEY
ONLY ONE OPTI ON I S CORRECT.
Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 D Q.6 C Q.7 A
Q.8 D Q.9 A Q.10 A Q.11 B Q.12 C Q.13 D Q.14 C
Q.15 D Q.16 C Q.17 C Q.18 A Q.19 C Q.20 B Q.21 B
Q.22 B Q.23 A Q.24 B Q.25 A Q.26 A Q.27 B Q.28 C
Q.29 A Q.30 C Q.31 D Q.32 A Q.33 D Q.34 C Q.35 D
Q.36 B Q.37 C Q.38 A Q.39 A Q.40 A Q.41 C Q.42 C
Q.43 C Q.44 D Q.45 C Q.46 B Q.47 C Q.48 A Q.49 A
Q.50 B Q.51 C Q.52 C Q.53 B Q.54 A Q.55 B Q.56 B
Q.57 A Q.58 B Q.59 D Q.60 B Q.61 B Q.62 C Q.63 C
Q.64 B Q.65 C Q.66 D Q.67 A Q.68 B Q.69 B Q.70 D
Q.71 D Q.72 C Q.73 C Q.74 A Q.75 C Q.76 B Q.77 A
Q.78 C
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE OPTI ON MAY BE CORRECT
Q.1 A,C Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 A,C,D
Q.5 A,C,D Q.6 A Q.7 B Q.8 A
Q.9 A,B Q.10 A,C Q.11 A,B,D Q.12 B
Q.13 A,D Q.14 A,C Q.15 C,D Q.16 A,C