Monday test - 5 1. Which of the following is not a required assumption in the use of Beers Law for absorption spectrometry?

a. The radiation must be monochromatic. c. The incident radiation must be in the ultraviolet or b. Only one absorber can be present. visible region. d. All of the above are not required 2. Which would be best to separate a protein that binds strongly to its substrate? a. Affinity chromatography c. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange d. Cation or anion exchange 3. When creating a knock-out mouse, the gene to be knocked out is first a. transfected into embryonic stem cells b. microinjected into the nucleus of a fertilized egg c. knocked out of one chromosome in embryonic stem cells d. knocked out of both chromosomes of some of the cells in a mouse but not all of the cells (mosaic) 4. The egg that contains a least amount of yolk will be a. bird. b. fish.

c. frog. d. eutherian animals

5. Consider a restriction endonuclease which recognizes an uninterrupted palindrome sequence that is 6 base-pairs long. When this restriction endonuclease is used on DNA it produces DNA with 3 overhangs with the sequence AATT. Which one of the following DNA sequences is a possible candidate for the recognition sequence of this enzyme (i.e., the sequence this enzyme recognizes as its substrate)? a. TTGCAA c. TAATTA b. TTTAAA d. AAAATT 6. When cut with restriction endonuclease SacI, a circular plasmid DNA generated 1800, 700, 500, and 300 bp long fragments (one of each size). When doubly digested with SacI and XbaI (another restriction endonuclease), the same circular plasmid was converted to fragments with lengths of 100, 200, 250, 300, 450, 500, 700 and 800 bp (one fragment of each length.) Assuming that neither digest generated fragments too small to be observed, then the number of cut sites in this plasmid for XbaI is a. 2 c. 5 b. 4 d. 6 7. During the first trimester of pregnancy, usage of sedative drugs like thalidomide was not recommended. If any women are treated with any such drugs, then she may give birth to babies with deformed legs. This observation suggests that the drug most likely influence the a. early cleavage divisions. c. differentiation of bone tissue. b. determination of the polarity of the d. morphogenesis zygote. 8. The first step in two-dimensional gel electrophoresis generates a series of protein bands by isoelectric focusing. In a second step, a strip of this gel is turned 90 degrees, placed on another gel containing SDS, and electric current is again applied. In this second step: a. proteins with similar isoelec strip points become further separated according to their molecular weights. b. the individual bands become stained so that the isoelectric focus pattern can be visualized c. the individual bands become visualized by interacting with protein-specific antibodies in the second gel d. the individual bands undergo a second, more intense isoelectric focusing 9. The enzyme fumarase catalyzes the reversible hydration of fumaric acid to l-malate, but it will not catalyze the hydration of maleic acid, the cis isomer of fumaric acid. This is an example of: a. Biological activity c. Sterioisomerization b. Chiral activity d. Steriospecificity 10. The role of hormone-sensitive triacylglycerol lipase is to: a. hydrolyze lipids stored in the liver. c. hydrolyze triacylglycerols stored in adipose tissue b. hydrolyze membrane phospholipids in d. synthesize lipids in adipose tissue. hormone-producing cells. 11. Which of the following statements correctly describes ketone bodies?

a. They accumulate in children with fatty acid oxidation disorders b. They accumulate in diabetes mellitus after insulin therapy

c. They are produced by muscle but not by liver d. They include b-hydroxybutyrate and acetone

12. Anna Hazaare, goes on a hunger strike and confines himself to liquid diet with minimal calories. Which of the following would occur after 4 to 5 h? a. Decreased cyclic AMP and increased c. Decreased epinephrine levels and increased liver liver glycogen synthesis glycogenolysis b. Increased cyclic AMP and increased d. Increased Ca+ in muscle and decreased liver glycogenolysis glycogenolysis 13. The reaction of the citric acid cycle that is most similar to the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex-catalyzed conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is the conversion of: a. citrate to isocitrate c. alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA b. malate to oxaloacetate d. Succinyl CoA to succinate 14. Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is correct? a. Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of protons on one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane b. It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur even in the absence of an intact inner mitochondrial membrance c. The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry electrons through membranes d. The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory 15. Glucose metabolism via the pentose phosphate pathway fates the C-1 carbon to become a. Carbon dioxide c. Ribulose 5-phosphate b. Seduheptulose d. Pyruvate 16. A person with Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) who has neglected to take insulin injections will have: a. Increased fatty acid synthesis from c. Increased store of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue glucose in liver d. Increased conversion of acetoacetate to acetone b. Decreased conversion of fatty acids to ketone bodies 17. Two purified DNA samples A and B contain equal number of basepairs. Each of these DNA samples has one site each for EcoRI and BamHI restriction enzyme. Complete digestion with both the enzymes yielded 3 DNA bands and 2 DNA bands respectively for A and B upon electrophoresis of the digestion products. Which one of the following explains the observation? a. A is circular and B is linear c. A is circular DNA and B could be linear or circular b. B is circular and A is linear d. B is circular DNA and A could be linear or circular 18. The anti-inflammatory property of aspirin affects a. Vasodilatation b. Chemotaxis

c. Phagocytosis d. Leucocyte emigration

19. The endogenous pathway of antigen presentation mainly involves a. Peptides derived from extracellular c. Presentation of antigen to CD8+ T cells pathogens d. Presentation of antigen to B cells b. Presentation of antigen to CD4+ T cells 20. Which of the following statements about physical and chemical defenses is false? a. Lysozyme has potent antibacterial c. The protective effects of mucus are activities limited to respiratory tract b. The skin is an effective barrier to d. The sebaceous glands of the skin microbial entry into deeper tissues produce antimicrobial fatty acids 21. The nutritional medium was supplied to growing bacteria. If whole nutrient get depleted in 20 cycles, then stage at which the amount of nutrient was half used th th a. At end of 10 cycle c. At end of 19 cycle th th b. At beginning of 19 cycle d. At end of 11 cycle

22. An actively growing culture (20 ml) of E. coli (1 x 10 per ml) was mixed with a total of 100 T4 phage particles, grown further for 40 min and mixed with a few drops of chloroform. Under the conditions used, the generation time of E. coli is 30 min, the infection cycle of phage T4 is 20 min, and the burst size is 100. Assuming that each infection was a successful one, how many plaque forming units would you expect at the end of the experiment? 4 5 a. 10 c. 10 3 6 b. 10 d. 10 23. The following events occur when a mammalian immune system encounters a pathogen. Which shows the correct sequence in which they occur? A. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies B. Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes C. Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous D. Gene rearrangement takes place in lymphocytes a) a b)

bdc bcda

c) b d)

dca dbca

24. Vijay bought a TV with 15% discount on the labeled price. He sold the TV for Rs.2880 with 20% profit on the labeled price. At what price did he buy the TV? a. Rs 3000 c. Rs 2040 b. Rs 2080 d. Rs 2050 25. The length of a room is 5.5 m and width is 3.75 m. What is the cost of paying the floor by slabs at the rate of Rs. 500 per sq. metre. a. Rs. 12000 c. Rs 11030 b. Rs 10500 d. Rs 10312 26. If 5 = 78125. What is x ? a. 9 b. 13 27. What is a percent of z divided by z percent of x? a. a b. b
x 2

c. 36 d. 49

c. 1 d. 10

28. 5 girls were climbing a pillar. Z was between C & B. D was just ahead of C. A was following B. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second? a. A c. C b. B d. D 29. What is the sum of all terms in the series: 5, 15, 25, 35 20 term? a. 2000 c. 1000 b. 2500 d. 1950 30. Four sports cars crossed the 10 km long bridge in 3, 7, 13, 17 minutes. Only two cars can cross the bridge at a time. Find the minimum time taken by the four to cross the bridge. a. 10 c. 20 b. 15 d. 25 31. Two pen costs Rs 8, then 5 pen cost how much a. Rs 5 b. Rs 10
th

c. Rs 20 d. Rs 40

32. Two buses are travelling in the mountain. The angle of elevation of the top of the mountain is observed from the bus are 30 and 45 respectively. If the mountain is 100 m high, the distances between the two buses are: a. 173 m c. 273 m b. 200 m d. 400 m

33. Complete the following sequence x, ?, p, l, h a. r b. s 34. Which instrument is used to measure pressure of gases? a. Barometer b. Manometer

c. q d. t

c. Ammeter d. Saccharimeter

35. N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + heat ; If temperature is increased, then a. Equilibrium of the above reaction is shifted to the c. Equilibrium of the above reaction is unaltered. left. d. Reaction rate is unaffected b. Equilibrium of the above reaction is shifted to the right. 36. Sickle cell anemia is caused due to abnormal haemoglobin molecule. The mutation responsible for this abnormal hemoglobin molecule is a. Asparagine to Valine c. Glutamate to Valine b. Glutamine to Valine d. Valine to Glutamate 37. Polymerization of nucleotides always moves on template having, a. 5 b.

3 orientation 3 5 orientation

c. d.

5 orientation 2 3 orientation
5

38. In a family, father is homozygous dominant (AA) for a gene A and his wife is homozygous for its recessive allele (aa) showing albino phenotype. It was surprising that their child showed the albino phenotype. Which of the following phenomenon can explain the phenotype? a. Nondisjunction c. Gene conversion b. Uniparental Disomy d. All of the above 39. Which of the following sequences is recognized and cleaved by the restriction enzyme EcoR I? a. 5'-CACACA-3' c. 5'-CGTGAA-3' b. 5'-CGCGAA-3' d. 5'-GAATTC-3 40. Four PCR reactions were carried out with identical content in the tubes named P, Q, R and S. Besides 32 32 32 32 the usual mix of DNTps each was added with p dATP, - p dATP, p dATP and p rNTP. Which one of the tubes will be radio labeled PCR product. a. Tube P c. Tube R b. Tube Q d. Tube S 41. Mr. Dumdum was experimenting on nucleic acids. He isolated a nucleotide X in the test tube and wants to find out its identity. On addition of NH2OH , he could find formation of white ppt of Hydroxylamine cytosine ; on addition of HNO2 , he found it to produce uracil, which did showed Trans-esterification reaction. What he might have concluded about the compound X? a. Adenine c. Guanine b. Uracil d. Cytosine 42. By examining a number of somatic-cell hybrid lines for enzyme activities and their human chromosome constitution, scientists can determine a. on which human chromosome the gene for a particular enzyme is located b. The number of genes for enzymes in the human genome c. The number of chromosomes in the human genome d. The number of human chromosomes in each cell 43. What is the possible mode of inheritance, in the following pedigree chart? a. Autosomal Dominant with reduced penetrance b. Autosomal Recessive c. X linked dominant with reduced penetrance d. All the above