Concept Recap Test Mains 2

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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST
(Set II)

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432
Pl ease r ead t he i nst r uct i ons car ef ul l y. You ar e al l ot t ed 5 mi nut es
speci f i cal l y f or t hi s pur pose.
You ar e not al l owed t o l eave t he Exami nat i on Hal l bef or e t he end of
t he t est .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and 2 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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AITS-CRT(Set-II)-PCM-JEE (Main)/13

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2

Planck constant h = 6.6 10
34
J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg
Permittivity of free space
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
/N-m
2
Density of water
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3

Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K
1
mol
1

= 1.987 2 Cal K
1
mol
1

Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023 10
23

Plancks constant h = 6.625 10
34
Js
= 6.625 10
27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg
1 eV = 1.6 10
19
J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

AITS-CRT(Set-II)-PCM-JEE(Main)/13

3
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s PART I

SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. An electric bulb is designed to work at 100 volt D.C. If it is connected to an A.C. source to give
the same brightness; then the average A.C. voltage is :
(A) 100 Volt (B)
100 2
Volt
(C)
200 2
Volt (D)
200
Volt

2. In the figure a wedge of mass M is placed at rest on a smooth
horizontal surface. A small sphere of mass m hits the inclined face of
the wedge with horizontal speed v
0
. The impact is perfectly inelastic.
There is no friction anywhere and bodies are rigid.
M
m
v
0
Following four statements are given regarding this problem.

(i) After impact both bodies will be moving with same velocity along horizontal.
(ii) After impact the sphere will be moving only parallel to the inclined plane with speed v
0
cos
as observed from the ground.
(iii) Just after collision component of the velocity of the sphere along the plane is v
0
cos.
(iv) After collision sphere will come to stop and wedge will move with the speed of
0
mv
M
.
(A) only (i) is true (B) (i) and (ii) both are correct
(C) only (iii) is correct (D) all four are wrong

3. The capacitor shown in the figure is in steady state. The
energy stored in the capacitor is
(A) CI
2
R
2

(B) 2CI
2
R
2
(C) 4CI
2
R
2

(D) None of the above
I
R
C
R
R
Rough work


4
4. Potential within a hypothetical charged sphere varies with the distance of a point from centre as
. V a r =
G G
where a
G
is a vector of constant magnitude parallel to r
G
and r
G
is position vector of
point under consideration taking centre of sphere as origin. Then the total charge stored within a
sphere of radius R is.
(A) R
2

0
a (B) 2R
2

0
a
(C) 3R
2

0
a (D) 4R
2

0
a

5. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side
L(L >>l). The loops are co-planar and their centers coincide. The mutual inductance of the system
is proportional to
(A) l/L (B) l
2
/L
(C) L/l (D) L
2
/l

6. A metallic rod hinged at one end is rotated in a horizontal plane. If the angular velocity of rotation
is doubled
(A) there will be no elongation in rod in any case
(B) elongation in rod will be same
(C) elongation in rod becomes two times of initial value
(D) elongation in rod becomes four times of initial value

7. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass to the earth
(A) Angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth remains constant.

(B) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.

(C)

The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
(D) both (A) & (C).

8. A gas is found to obey the law P
2
V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T
0
and V
0
.
If the gas expands to a volume 3V
0
, then the final temperature becomes
(A)
0
3 T (B)
0
2 T
(C)
0
T
3
(D)
0
T
2

Rough work

5

9. Find the value of u so that the ball reaches at point B.
(Take g = 10 m/s
2
)
(A) 20 m/s (B) 40 m/s
(C) 15 2 m/ s (D) 50 m/s

10m
45
B
A
u
20m
15m

10. A person wants to drive on the vertical surface of a large cylindrical wooden well commonly
known as deathwell in a circus. The radius of the well is 2 meter, and the coefficient of friction
between the tyres of the motorcycle and the wall of the well is 0.2 The minimum speed the
motorcyclist must have in order to prevent slipping should be (take g = 10 m/s
2
)
(A) 10 m/s (B) 15 m/s
(C) 20 m/s (D) 25 m/s

11. A metal rod PQ (carrying current from P to Q) is placed perpendicular to the
infinite long wire carrying current i
0
. If this arrangement lies in a horizontal
plane; then the rod PQ will rotate:
(A) clockwise (B) anticlockwise
(C) along PQ (D) does not rotate
i
0
P Q

12. A large number of infinite long thin wires each carrying current i
0
are
kept along z-axis. Then the value of magnetic field B, at any point P
at a distance x from O varies as
(A) B x (B)
1
B
x

(C) B is independent of x (D)
2
1
B
x

y-axis
x-axis
O
P
x
Rough work


6
13. 50% of the X-ray coming from a Coolidge tube is able to pass through a 0.1 mm thick aluminium
foil. If the potential difference between the target and the filament is increased, the fraction of the
X-ray passing through the same foil will be
(A) 0% (B) < 50%
(C) 50% (D) > 50%

14. For a right angled prism PQR immersed in water, the incident and
emergent rays are parallel as shown in figure. The minimum value
of refractive index of the prism is
(A)
3
2
2
(B)
4
2
3

(C)
3
4
(D) 2
E
m
e
r
g
e
n
t

r
a
y
I
n
c
i
d
e
n
t

r
a
y P
Q R

15. A steel wire of cross-sectional area 1 10
-4
m
2
is clamped firmly at each end when its
temperature is 25C so that it cannot contract on cooling. The tension in the wire when it is
cooled to 0C is ( = 10
-5
/C, Y = 2 10
11
N/m
2
)
(A) 5000 N (B) 7000 N
(C) 7400 N (D) 4700 N

16. At time t = 0, a horizontal disc starts rotating with angular acceleration 1 rad/sec
2
about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing though its center. A small block is lying on this disc at a
distance 0.5 m from center, coefficient of friction between surface of block and disc is 0.255. The
block will start slipping on the disc at time t, is approximately equal to
(A) 2 3 s (B) 2 2 s
(C) 6 s (D) 5 s

17. Identify a spring mass system which has a different time period
compared to the system shown in figure

(A)

K
m
V=const.

(B)
K
m
K
m

(C)

K
m
(D) none of these

Rough work


7
18. It is found that an increase in pressure of 100 kPa causes a certain volume of water to decrease
by 5 10
3
percent of its original volume. Then the speed of sound in the water is about (density
of water = 1 10
3
kg/m
3
)
(A) 330 m/s (B) 140 m/s
(C) 1400 m/s (D) 1800 m/s

19. A rod A of weight W is hanging from ceiling. Extension in the rod due to its own weight is
1
l .
Another identical rod B but negligible mass is also hanging from ceiling. A force of magnitude
equal to W is acted on the free end of the rod. The extension in the rod B is
2
l . Then
1 2
/ l l is
equal to
(A)
1
2
(B) 2
(C) 3 (D)
1
3

20. Assume that the escape velocity for a body projected vertically upward from the earths surface is
11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 45
o
with the vertical the escape velocity will be
(assume that the earth is not rotating and there is no air resistance)
(A)
11
km/s
2
(B) 11 2 km/s
(C)
11
km/s
2
(D) 11 km/s

21. In an imaginary atmosphere, the air exerts a small force F on any particle in the direction of the
particles motion. A particle of mass m projected upward takes a time t
1
in reaching the
maximum height and t
2
in the return journey to the original point then
(A) t
1
< t
2

(B) t
1
> t
2

(C) t
1
= t
2

(D) The relation between t
1
and t
2
depends on the mass of the particle
Rough work


8
22. Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle with a string attached to it. The water does not fall
down even when the bucket is inverted at the top of its path. We conclude that in this position
(A)
r
mv
mg
2
= (B) mg is greater than
r
mv
2

(C) mg is not greater than
r
mv
2
(D) mg is not less than
r
mv
2

23. A shot of mass m penetrates a thickness t of a fixed plate of mass M. If M were free to move and
the resistance supposed to be uniform, find the thickness penetrated
(A)
Mt
M m +
(B)
mt
M m +

(C)
t
M m +
(D)
t
M 2m +

24. The magnetic field (B) on the axis of a circular current carrying wire varies with distance (z) from
the centre of the wire as (radius of wire = r; z >> r)
(A)
1
B
z
(B)
2
1
B
z

(C)
3
1
B
z
(D) B z .

25. Two identical circular coils each of radius r and having number of turns n are lying in
perpendicular planes, such that they have common centre. The magnetic field at the centre of the
coils, if they carry currents equal to i and 3i respectively is
(A)
0
2 ni
r
(B)
0
ni
r

(C)
0
ni
2r
(D)
0
3 ni
r

Rough work


9
26. As compared to
12
C atoms,
14
C atom has
(A) two extra protons and two extra electrons (B) two extra protons but no extra electron
(C) two extra neutrons but no extra electron (D) two extra neutrons and two extra electrons

27. Which of the following is a wrong description of biding energy of a nucleus ?
(A) it is the energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons.
(B) it is the energy made available when free nucleons combined to from a nucleus.
(C) it is the sum of the rest mass energies of its nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
nucleus.
(D) it is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the nucleons in the nucleus.

28. An -particle is bombarded on
14
N. As a result, a
17
O nucleus is formed and a particle is emitted.
This particle is a
(A) neutron (B) proton
(C) electron (D) positron.

29. The wavelength of sound emerging from a moving source is observed to decrease from its static
value in a certain direction from the source. Then, the source
(A) must be moving in that direction
(B) must be moving in the opposite direction
(C) must be moving at an acute angle with this direction
(D) must be moving at an obtuse angle with this direction.

30. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towards a cliff at 20 m/s. The driver of the car hears
(velocity of sound = 320 m/s)
(A) No beats
(B) beats at a frequency of 64 Hz
(C) beats at a frequency of 30 Hz
(D) beats at a frequency of 32 Hz.
Rough work


10
C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y PART II

SECTION A



1. An element X (At. mass 25) exists as X
4
in benzene. When 51 g of saturated solution of X in
benzene was added 50 g of benzene, the resulting solution showed a depression of freezing
point of benzene by 0.55 K. the solubility of X per kilogram of benzene will be (K
f
benzene = 5.5
K Kg mol
1
, degree of association of X in benzene = 1)
(A) 10 g (B) 20 g
(C) 25 g (D) none

2. Consider the following galvanic cell at 25C
Pt, H
2
(1atm)|0.1 M HA || 0.1M BOH| H
2
(1 atm), Pt
If K
a
of HA = 1.0 10
5
and K
b
of BOH = 4 10
7
the emf of cell is
(A) 0.432 V (B) 0.041 V
(C) 0.432 V (D) 0.041 V

3. 20 ml of 0.2 M HCN is titrated with 0.2 M NaOH. The pH at 20% neutralization and at the
equivalence point will be respectively (k
a
for HCN = 4 10
10
)
(A) 11.2 and 8.80 (B) 8.80 and 11.2
(C) 9.4 and 11.2 (D) 8.80 and 12.05
Rough work


11
4. In the following reaction (A) and (B) are isomer

O
2
HO
H O
B
ZZZZX
YZZZZ

Identify B
(A)
O

(B)
O
(C) O

(D)
O

5. Pick out the incorrect statement of the following
(A) [Fe(CN)
6
]
4
is inner orbital complex with zero magnetic moment
(B) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3
is low spin complex, magnetic moment being 1.73 BM
(C) Ni(CO)
4
has tetrahedral geometry and magnetic moment to be 2.83 BM
(D) [Ni(CN)
4
]
2
has square planar geometry and magnetic moment to be 1.73 BM

6. The d-orbitals, which are stabilised in an octahedral magnetic field are:
(A)
2
xy
z
d and d (B)
2 2 2
x y z
d and d

(C)
xy xz yz
d ,d and d (D)
2
z
d only

7. When a mole mercuric ions in V d
m
3
solution is shaken with excess of Hg(l), an equilibrium is
established. The equilibrium constant can be represented by, if x mole of mercuric ions are
converted into mercurous ions
(A)
( )
2
4x V
a x
(B)
( )
x
a x

(C)
( )
2
x
a x / v
(D) None of these
Rough work


12
8. Consider the following statements
(I) Thermal stabilities of carbonates of alkaline earth metals increase down the group
(II) Except LiOH, hydroxides of alkali metals are thermally stable
(III) Li
2
CO
3
is thermally stable whereas other carbonates of the other group are thermally
unstable.
(IV) Solubilities of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals increase down the group.
Pick out the correct set of the following:
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV
(C) I, II, IV (D) All of the above

9. Which of the following molecules has unequal bond length
(A) BF
3
(B) PF
3

(C) PF
5
(D) SF
6

10. x/m represents the amount of a gas adsorbed per unit mass of solid adsorbent at the equilibrium
pressure p, which of the following validates the applicability of the Langmuirs adsorption
isotherm?
(A) x/m v/s p linear graph (B) x/m v/s p
1/n
linear graph (n > 1)
(C) log x/m v/s log p linear graph (D)
p
x / m
v/s p linear graph

11. In the following reaction

C H
3
C CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
CH
3
Br
( ) ( )
( )
3 2 2
6 12 6 13
2
BH / THF H O , OH EtO / ETOH
6 14
C H Major product C H BH
A B C C H O

The structure of C is
(A)
C H
3
C CH CH
3
OH CH
3
CH
3

(B)
C H
3
C CH
2
CH
2
OH
CH
3
CH
3

(C)
C H
3
C CH
2
CH
CH
3
CH
3
OH
(D)
C H
3
CH CH CH
2
CH
3
CH
3
OH

Rough work


13
12. Identify the product (A) formed in the following reaction

C H
3
H
Br
( )
3
CH OH A HBr + +

(A)
C H
3
H
OH

(B)
C H
3
H
OCH
3

(C)
C H
3
H
CH
3

(D)
C H
3
OCH
3

13. Select the most stable structure of the following
(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

14. ( ) ( ) ( )
2
Ni / H NaCN acetic
3 2
anhydride
CH CH Cl X Y Z
product (Z) is
(A) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
NH
2
(B) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CONHCH
3

(C) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
NHCOCH
3
(D) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CONHCOCH
3

Rough work


14

Cl
( ) ( )
2
2 3
(i) CH O Mg
Et O (ii) H O
I II
+

(A)

(B) OH

(C)
OH

(D)

16. The radius ratio of Cs
+
and Cl
ions is 0.90. It the radius of Cl
ion is 1.80 A, the false statement

regarding the CsCl structure is
(A) The distance between the centres of Cl
ions is greater than 3.60 A

(B) The distance between the centres of two Cl
ions is 3.60 A
(C) The distance between Cs
+
and Cl
ions is 3.42 A
(D) The distance between two Cs
+
ions is greaer than 3.24 A


0
dil NaOH
5 C
A B +
O
C H
3
CH
OH
CH
3

Identify A and B
(A) O
C H
3
CHO
and C H
3
CHO
(B) O
and CH
2
CHO C H
3
(C) O
C H
3
and C H
3
CHO
(D) O
and
CH
2
CHO C H
3

Rough work


15
18. Which of the compounds exist mainly in the enol form?
(A)
NH
NH
N H

(B) O
(C) O
O O

(D) All of these

19. 10 ml of a given sample of H
2
O
2
was diluted to 100 ml. 20 ml of the diluted solution required 40
ml of 0.02 M KMnO
4
in acidic medium for decolourisation. The Volume strength of the given
sample is
(A) 5.6 Vol (B) 11.2 Vol
(C) 16.8 Vol (D) 22.4 Vol

20. When excess of KI is added to aqueous CuSO
4
solution. The solution acquires dark brown
colouration. This is due to the formation on
(A) CuI
2
(s) (B) Cu
2
I
2
(s)
(C) ( )
3
I aq
(D) I
2
(s)

21. X + H
2
SO
4
Y (a colourless gas which turns lime water milky)
Y + K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ H
2
SO
4
Green solution
X and Y are
(A)
2
3 2
CO , CO
(B) Cl , HCl

(C)
2
2
S , H S
(D)
2
3 2
SO , SO

Rough work


16
22. A sulphide ore is generally roasted to oxide before reduction because
(A) Enthalpy of formation of CO
2
is more negative than that of CS
2

(B) A metal sulphide is generally more stable than metal oxide
(C) No reducing agent is found suitable for reducing metal sulphide
(D) A sulphide ore cannot be reduced at all

23. In qualitative analysis of a salt or salt mixture, Pb
2+
is detected in both I and II groups. It is
because
(A) PbCl
2
has too low k
sp
and its is sparingly soluble in water
(B) PbCl
2
has too high k
sp
and is soluble in water only
(C) PbCl
2
does not have too low k
sp
and gets only partially precipitated in presence of dilute HCl
(D) PbS has very high k
sp
and gets precipitated on passing H
2
S in acidic medium

24. In the given reaction

CH
3
CH
CH
3
NH
2
2
NaNO
HCl

The product is/are
(A)
OH
CH
3
CH
3

(B)
CH
3
CH
3

(C) CH
3
CH CH
2

(D)
CH
3
CH
3

25. The EAN of a metal carbonyl, M(CO)
x
is 36. The atomic number of metal is 24. The value of x is:
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
Rough work


17
26. Mole fraction of methanol in water is 0.5. The concentration of the solution in terms of percent by
mass of methanol is
(A) 36 (B) 50
(C) 64 (D) 72

27. Consider the reversible reactions
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
4 2 2 1
(I) CH g H O g CO g 3H g K + +
ZZZX
YZZZ

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 2
(II) CO g H O g CO g H g K + +
ZZZX
YZZZ

( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 4 2 3
III CO 4H g CH g 2H O K + +
ZZZX
YZZZ

Which of the following is true?
(A) log K
3
= log K
1
+ log K
2
(B) log K
1
+ log K
2
+ log K
3
= 0
(C) log K
3
= log K
1
log K
2
(D) log K
3
= ( )
1 2
1
logK logK
2
+

28. For
1 2
K K
A B C , if C
0
is the initial concentration of A and C
1
, C
2
and C
3
are concentration
of A, B and C respectively at any time t, then the value of K
1
and K
2
can be determined using
equation
(A)
2
k t k,t 1 0
2
2 1
K C
C e e
K K

(
=

(B)
2
k t k,t 1 1
2
2 1
K C
C e e
K K

(
=

(C)
2
k t k,t 1 0
2
1 2
K ,C
C e e
K K

(
=

(D) None of these

29. Which is the least stable form of glucose
(A) -D-Glucose (B) -D-glucose
(C) open chain structure (D) All are equally stable

30. Corrundum is
(A) -Al
2
O
3
(B) -Al
2
O
3

(C) Both the above (D) None of these
Rough work


18
M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s PART III

SECTION A


1. If
2 2 2 2
S 1 3 5 ..... 99 = + + + + then the value of the sum
( )
2
2 2 2
2 4 6 ..... 100 + + + + is
(A) S + 2550 (B) S + 5050
(C) 2S (D) 4S

2. A point (x, y) in the first quardant lies on a line with intercepts (a, 0) and (0, b), where a, b > 0.
Rectangle
1
has vertices (0, 0), (x, 0), (x, y) and (0, y) while rectangle
2
has vertices (x, y),
(x, b), (a, b) and (a, y). The ratio of the area of
1
to that of
2
is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C)
1
2
(D) dependent on the value of a, b, x and y

3. The value of cot 70 + 4 cos 70 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 3 1 +
(C) 3 (D) 3 1

4. The units digit of
( ) ( )
2013
3
2k
k 0
3 2k
=
+
is
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 2 (D) 1

5. If the graph of y = ax
3
+ bx
2
+ cx + d is symmetric about the line x = k then
(A) k = c (B) k =
c
b

(C)
c
a k 0
2b
+ + = (D) none of these
Rough work


19
6. The roots of the equation x
2
+ 2(a + b + c)x + 3k(ab + bc + ca) = 0 are real for all a, b, c R
+
,
then K belongs to
(A)
1 5
,
3 3
| |
|
\ .
(B)
4 5
,
3 3
| |
|
\ .

(C)
4
,
3
| |
|
\ .
(D)
5
,
3
| |
|
\ .

7. If f(n, x) =
n
2
r
r 1
x
1 tan
2
=
| |
`
|
\ . )
, then
(A) ( )
n
tanx
lim f n, x
x
2
=
| |
|
\ .
(B) ( )
n
x
lim f n, x
tanx
=
(C)
/ 4
2
0
tanx
dx
16 x 4

< <
(D) none of these

8. If sin x + cos x + tan x + cot x + sec x + cosec x = 7, then sin 2x is
(A) 22 8 7 (B) 8 7 22
(C) 11 4 7 (D) 4 7 11

9. If the equations of two straight lines, which pass through the intersection of the line x 2y 5 = 0
and 7x + y 50 = 0 and divide the circumference of the circle x
2
+ y
2
= 100 into two arcs, whose
lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1, are given by a
1
x 6y + c
1
= 0 and a
2
x + 4y + c
2
= 0 then the value of
a
1
a
2
+ c
1
c
2
is
(A) 1274 (B) 1275
(C) 1276 (D) 1277

10. If
( )
1/ 3
cosx
f(x)
1 sinx
=
, then
(A)
x / 2
lim f(x)
= (B)
( ) x / 2
lim f(x)
+

=
(C)
x / 2
lim f(x)
= (D) none of these

Rough work


20
11. The number of even numbers from 1000 to 9999 both inclusive that do not have all four different
digits
(A) 2296 (B) 4500
(C) 2204 (D) none of these

12. Number of zeros of the cubic f(x) = 2x
3
+ 6x + k, k R, is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

13. Number of ways in which 7 green bottles and 8 blue bottles can be arranged in a row if exactly,
one pair of green bottle is side by side, is (Assume all bottles to alike except for the colours)
(A) 84 (B) 360

14. The solution set of inequality

( )( ) ( )
1 1 1 1
tan x cot x tan x 1 2cot x 2 1
2 2

| | | |
+ + +
| |
\ . \ .
>
1
x
lim sec x
2
(

is
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) (tan 1, tan 2) (B) (cot1, cot2)
(C) (tan1, tan2) (D) (tan1, )

15. All the seven digit numbers containing each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, exactly once, and not
divisible by 5 are arranged in the increasing order. The 2004
th
number is (in this list)
(A) 4315627 (B) 4316527
(C) 4316572 (D) 4316257

16. In a plane there are two families of lines y = x + r, y = x + r where r {0, 1, 2, 3, 4,} then the
number of squares of diagonal length 2 formed by the lines is
(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 27 (D) 18

17. If (5, 12) and (24, 7) are the foci of a conic passing through the origin then eccentricity of conic is
(A)
386
12
(B)
386
14

(C)
386
13
(D)
386
15

Rough work


21
18. You are given an unlimited supply of each of the digits 1, 2, 3, or 4. Using only these four digits,
you construct n digit numbers. Such n digit numbers will be called BEAUTIFUL if it contains the
digit composite number either an even number times or not at all. Number of n digit BEAUTIFUL
numbers are
(A) 2
n
+ 1 (B) 2
n + 1
+ 2
(C) 2
n 1
(2
n
+ 1) (D) 2
n + 2
+ 4

19. Four three noncoplanar vectors a, b, c
G
G G
. If a b b c c a
(

G G
G G G G
is equal to
| |
a b b c c a + + +
G G
G G G G
,
then
( )
a b c
G
G G
is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2

20. A fair dice is thrown 3 times. The probability that the product of the three out comes is a prime
number, is
(A)
1
24
(B)
1
36

(C)
1
32
(D)
1
8

21. If the equation p sin 2x + cos x = p has a solution, then the range of p is
(A) (, ) (B) [1, 1]
(C) ], 0] (D) [0, [

22. For a unique value of p and q, the system of equations given by x + y + z = 6, x + 2y + 3z = 14,
2x + 5y + pz = q has infinitely many solutions, then the value of (p + q) is equal to
(A) 14 (B) 24
(C) 34 (D) 44

23. Given a regular tetrahedron OABC (where O is origin) with side length 1. Let D, E be the midpoint
of the sides AB, OC respectively. The scalar product of two vectors DE
JJJG
and AC
JJJG
is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C)
1
2
(D) 2
Rough work


22
24. Let W denote the words in the English dictionary. Define the relation R be
R = {(x, y) (W W) | the words x and y have atleast one letter in common}. Then R is
(A) not reflexive, symmetric and transitive (B) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
(C) reflexive, symmetric and not transitive (D) reflexive, not symmetric and transitive

25. From a fixed point on the circle x
2
+ y
2
+ 6x = 0 chords are drawn to the circle. The difference of
area of the locus of trisect point of the chords is
(A) (B) 2

26. If
( )
k k
lnsinx lnsinx
2
n n 1
n
f(x) lim n e e
+
= where 0 < x < , n N and

/ 2
0
f(x)dx ln4
k
then
ax
k
+ b + cx
k
= 0 is
(A) a quadratic equation (B) cubic equation
(C) biquadratic equation (D) none of these

27. If f(x) = sin {[x + 5] + {x {x {x}}}} is a function for x 0,
2
( (
( (

, where {.} and [.] denotes
fractional part and greatest integer functions respectively, then range of f(x) is
(A) [0, sin 1[ (B) ]0, sin 1[ ]0, cos 1[
(C) [0, sin 1[ ]0, cos 1[ (D) [0, cos 1[

28. Equation 3x
2
8xy 3y
2
= 0 and x 2y = 3 represents the sides of a triangle which is
(A) right angled but not isosceles (B) isosceles
(C) equilateral (D) right angled and isosceles

29. If ax
2
+ by
2
+ cz
2
+ 2ayz + 2bzx + 2cxy can be solved into two linear factors then a
3
+ b
3
+ c
3
is
(A) abc (B) 2abc
(C) 2abc (D) none of these

30. The greatest value of
( )
( )
2 2
y 2 x x x = + + is, , R
(A)
4 2 2 2
x + + (B)
2 2
2 3 +
(C)
2 2
+ (D) +
Rough work

Concept Recap Test Mains 2

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FIITJEE Ltd.

Following four statements are given regarding this problem.

(D) none of these

ions is 0.90. It the radius of Cl

ion is 1.80 A, the false statement

ions is greater than 3.60 A

(D) None of these

(D) none of these

= (D) none of these

= where 0 < x < , n N and

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