IIT-JEE 2012 PT6 P2 Qns

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.
IIT/PT 6/CPM/P(II) - 1
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B.MAT PART TEST 6
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012

QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has 23 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 23) of this booklet.
3. This question paper contains 3 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 23) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately, in which
appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 23) of this booklet.
C. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 23) of this booklet.

Name: . Enrollment No.:

CHEMISTRY PHYSICS MATHEMATICS
6

I have read all the instructions and
shall abide by them.

Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations
filled in by the Candidate.

Signature of the Invigilator
S
E
A
L

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E
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PAPER II
IIT-JEE 2012
PT6/CPM/P(II)/Qns
13.11.2011
2
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/PT 6/CPM/P(II) - 2

SECTION I
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The formula of the complex tetraisothiocyanatozincate (II) ion is
(A) [Zn(NCS)
4
]
2
(B) [Zn(NCS)
4
]

(C) [Zn(CNS)
4
]
2
(D)
2
4
[Zn(NCS)]

2. Calcium crystallizes in a FCC unit cell with a = 0.556 nm. Calculate the density if
it contains 0.1% Schottky defects?
(A) 2.0 g/cm
3
(B) 1.54 g/cm
3

(C) 1.54 g/dm
3
(D) 2.0 g/dm
3

3. Which of the following compounds does not give Lassaignes test for nitrogen?
(A) Hydrazine hydrochloride (B) Hydroxylamine
(C) Hydrazoic acid (D) All of them
4. Which of the following is not characteristic of chemisorption?
(A) Adsorption is irreversible
(B) H is in the order of 900 kJ
(C) Adsorption is specific
(D) Adsorption increases with increase of surface area.
5. A colorless inorganic compound imparts a green colour to the flame. Its aqueous
solution does not give a precipitate with H
2
S but gives a white precipitate with
H
2
SO
4
. When the solid is heated with solid K
2
Cr
2
O
7
and Conc. H
2
SO
4
, a red gas
is evolved. This gas when passed through aqueous NaOH solution turns it yellow.
The original compound is
(A) Ba(NO
3
)
2
(B) Pb(NO
3
)
2
(C) BaCl
2
(D) NaCl
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
PART A: CHEMISTRY
3
6. The electrolytic reduction of MnSO
4
in H
2
SO
4(aq)
will give MnO
2
. If a current of
51.0 ampere is used with a current efficiency of 85%, the time taken to produce
1 kg of MnO
2
will be (Molar mass of MnO
2
= 87)
(A) 14.22 hr (B) 28.44 hr (C) 10.0 hr (D) 50.0 hr
7. If 2.58 g of phenol is dissolved in 100 g of the solvent (phenol undergoing partial
dimerization) the freezing point of solvent (K
f
= 14.1 K mol
1
kg) is depressed by
2.37 K. The amount of phenol dimerized is about
(A) 1.0 g (B) 1.5 g (C) 2.0 g (D) 0.5 g
8. For a first order reaction +
2 5(g) 2(g) 2(g)
2N O 4NO O . The total pressure is
284.5 mm after 30 min and 584.5 mm after almost complete reaction. The rate
constant of the reaction is (in min
1
)
(A) 1.2 10
3
(B) 2.4 10
3
(C) 5.2 10
3
(D) 8.2 10
3

SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
9. Which of the following do not form an azeotrope?
(A) Cyclohexane + Cycloheptane (B) Chloroform + acetone
(C) Ethanol + water (D) Benzene + Toluene
10. Which of the following are concentration cells?
(A)
1 2
2 2
C C
Zn Zn Zn Zn
+ +
(B)
1 1
2 2
C C
Zn Zn Cu Cu
+ +

(C)
1 1 1 2
2 2
p p
C C
Pt H , H H , H Pt
+ +
(D)
2 1 1 1
2 2
p p
C C
Pt H , H H , H Pt
+ +

4
11. Which of the following statements are true regarding interhalogen compounds?
(A) Interhalogen compounds are of AB, AB
3
, AB
5
and AB
7
types
(B) The halogen atom having less electronegativity shows positive oxidation
state.
(C) ClF is called fluorine monochloride
(D) The central atom can never be fluorine.
12. Which of the following pairs of ions can be separated by H
2
S in dilute HCl?
(A) Bi
3+
, Sn
4+
(B) Al
3+
, Hg
2+

(C) Zn
2+
, Cu
2+
(D) Ni
2+
, Cu
2+

SECTION III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question
numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to
question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

13. The number of pseudohalogens of the following is _______________.
SCN

, SeCN

, CH
3
COO

, OCN

,
3
N , HN
3
, OCl

, HSCN
5
14. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm
3
of a
substance becomes half in 40 sec and 20 sec through first order and zero order
kinetics respectively. Then the ratio
1
0
k
k
is about x 10
1
, where x is ___________.
15. If NaCl is doped with 10
3
mol % BaCl
2
, the concentration of cation vacancies is
x 10
18
where x is about ________________.
16. For the coagulation of 105 mL of a sulphide sol 20 mL of 0.5 M NaCl is required.
The flocculation value of NaCl in m mol L
1
is x 10
1
where x is ______________.
17. The oxidation state of chromium in ( )

3
2 4
3
Cr C O is _____________.
18. The current strength required in amperes to liberate 10 g of bromine from KBr
solution in half an hour is about ________________. (F = 98450 coulombs)
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C
and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given
statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s)
in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these
questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s and t; then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.

A
p

q

r
s
p q
r
s
p

q
r s
p q r s
B
C
D
p q
r s
t
t
t

t
t

6
19. Column I Column II
(A) NaCl type structure (p) FCC lattice of cations
(B) ZnS type structure (q) FCC lattice of anions
(C) CsCl type structure (r) Coordination number is 4
(D) Na
2
O type structure (s) density
3
1 M
a N

(t) density
3
4 M
a N

(A) +
2 2(g) 2(g) 2(g)
SO Cl SO Cl (p)
a
E /RT
k Ae
=
(B)
1
1
3 2 5
C
C
CH COOC H OH
+ (q) =
t
1 [A]
k n
t [A]

+
3 2 5
CH COO C H OH
(C)
+
+
H
12 22 11 2
C H O H O (r) Polarimeter

6 12 6 6 12 6
G F
C H O C H O +
(D)
2 2
2 2 4 8
S O 2I 2SO I

+ + (s)
t
1
vs
[A]
t plot is a straight line
(t) t
99.9%
= 10 t
50%

7

SECTION I
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror along a vector
( )
i j k + +

. The normal
to the mirror at the point of incidence is along the vector
( )
i j +

. The unit vector
along the reflected ray is
(A)
( )
1
i j k
3
+ +

(B)
( )
1
i j k
3
+

(C)
( )
1
i j k
3
+

(D)
( )
1
i j k
3

22. A linear shaped object AB of length 10 2 cm is
placed before a concave mirror as shown in Figure.
What is the size of the image if the radius of
curvature of the mirror is 40 cm?
(A) 15 2 cm (B) 20 2 cm
(C) 20 cm (D) 18 cm
23. Figure aside shows a system consisting of a massless
pulley, a spring of force constant 5 N/m and a block of
mass m = 100 gm. The mean position of the body is
20 cm. If the focal length of the convex mirror is 10 cm,
find the amplitude of vibration of the image. [g = 10 m/s
2
]
(A) 0.27 cm (B) 0.47 cm
(C) 0.67 cm (D) 0.87 cm

A
30 cm
45
B

m
20 cm

PART B: PHYSICS
8
24. For a given prism, the angle of minimum deviation is 38 when the angle of
emergence is 49. For the same prism when the angle of maximum deviation is
58, what is the angle of emergence?
(A) 20 (B) 42 (C) 36 (D) 28
25. 0.1 % of the photons emitted by a light source contributes towards ejection of
photoelectrons in a photocell. If the current in the photocell is 0.96 A and the
wavelength of the photon is 400 nm, what is the power of the light source?
[e = 1.6 10
19
C ; h = 6.64 10
34
Js]
(A) 3 mW (B) 5 mW (C) 8 mW (D) 10 mW
26. A radioactive sample emits n -particles in 2 seconds, then it emits (0.75 n) -particles
in the next two seconds. What is the mean life of the sample?
2
log 0.0624
3
(
=
(

(A) 14 sec (B) 7 sec (C) 3.5 s (D) 1.75 s
27. A tank is filled with two immiscible liquids of refractive
indices
4
3
and
3
2
respectively as shown in Figure. An object
is suspended from the surface to a depth h < d, from the free
surface of the liquid. The bottom of the tank is fitted with a
plane mirror. When a man swims with his face towards the
mirror, at what distance is the image from him when he
views normally (d = 12 cm, h = 4 cm)?
(A) 15 cm (B) 24 cm (C) 18 cm (D) 28 cm
28. In the case of a thin lens of focal length f, a linear object of length is placed with
its near end at a distance a
1
from the first focus. What is the magnification of the
image in units of f
2
? [a
2
is the distance from the second focus]
(A) a
1
a
2
(B) (a
1
b
1
)
1

(C) (a
1
+ a
2
)
2
(D) (a
2
+ a
1
)
2


d
d
h
4/3
3/2

9
SECTION II
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
29. A thin hollow equiconvex lens, silvered at the back converges a parallel beam of
light at a distance of 0.2 m in front of it. Then the lens is filled with water having
4
3
= . Now pick out the correct statements from the following:
(A) Radius of curvature of the silvered surface is 0.4 m
(B) Power of the lens when it is hollow is zero
(C) Power of the lens when it is filled with water is 8.33
(D) Image will be formed at a distance of 12 cm in front of the lens
30. Two coherent sources A and B emitting light of wavelength are placed at
positions (0, D) and (3, D) respectively (D >> ). Then,
y
x
(x, 0)
A B
O
P

(A) the number of minima on +x-axis is 3
(B) coordinates of the 3
rd
minimum on +x-axis is
5D
, 0
11
| |
+
|
\

(C) the number of maxima on y-axis is 3
(D) the number of maxima on y-axis is 5
10
31. The Figure below shows the apparatus used by a student to measure the
acceleration of free fall g. Pressing switch S
1
simultaneously starts the timer and
releases the ball. The counter is stopped when the ball closes the switch S
2
. The
acceleration of free fall is calculated from the expression d = 0.5 gt
2
where d is the
distance the ball falls and t the time it takes. A student conducted the
experiment and measured the distance d with a metre rule. Now pick out the
correct choices from the following:
Timer
1
S
2
S
ball
d

(A) The experiment introduces into the measurement random error mainly due to
parallax
(B) When the student recorded the distance as d = (90.4 0.1 cm) and the time t
as t = (0.43 0.01 s), the absolute uncertainty in the value of g turns out to be
0.5 (correct to one significant figure)
(C) The calculation of g with the aid of a graph reduces random error in the
measurement of d and t
(D) The calculation of g with the aid of a graph reduces systematic error in the
measurement of d and t
32. An X-ray tube works at a potential difference of 10
5
V. Only 0.1% of the energy of
cathode rays is converted into X-ray radiation and heat is generated in the target
at the rate of 120 calories per second, then [neglecting relativity correction and
with e = 1.6 10
19
C, m = 9.1 10
31
kg and 32 5.66 = ]
(A) velocity of the electron reaching the target is 1.88 10
8
ms
1

(B) the number of electrons reaching the target per second is 3.15 10
16

(C) current in the tube is approximately 5 mA
(D) all the above
11
SECTION III
Integer Answer Type
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

33. The mass equivalent of the energy emitted when a H. atom makes a transition
from n = 3 to n = 1 state is given approximately by n 10
35
kg. What is n?
34. An electron is released far away from a proton towards which it moves. If r is the
distance of the electron from the proton, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron
is found to be proportional to
1
n
r . What is n?
35. For the nuclear reaction
4 226 222
88 86 2
Ra Rn He + , the radium nucleus is initially
at rest and the -particle carries the energy 5.3 MeV. The energy released in the
reaction is found to be 0.54 10
n
in electron volt. What is n?
36. The smallest value of index of refraction of the material of a prism that allows
the passage of light through it, when the refracting angle of the prism is A is
given by
1
n
n
A
1 cot
n
(
= +
(

. What is n?
12
37. A beam of neutrons of kinetic energy 0.0327 eV, while covering a distance of 10 m
suffer a fractional decay of 3.96 10
6
. If the mass of neutron is 1.675 10
27
kg,
the mean life of neutrons is found to be approximately 1 10
n
sec. What is n?
38. A parallel beam of microwaves of wavelength
= 0.2 mm falls on a Youngs double slit apparatus.
The separation between the slits is 1.0 mm. The
intensity of microwaves is measured on a screen
placed parallel to the plane of the slits at a distance
of 1.0 m from it as shown in Figure. If the incident
beam makes an angle of 30 with the x-axis, the
coordinates of the first maximum above the central
maximum is given by
nD
y
7n 2
=
+
. What is n?
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type

A
p

q

r
s
p q
r
s
p

q
r s
p q r s
B
C
D
p q
r s
t
t
t

t
t

1
S
d
y
D
x
2
S
s
c
r
e
e
n

13
39. With regard to convex mirror match the entries in Column I with those in Column II.
Given: u is object distance, v-image distance, f-focal length, R-radius of curvature
and m-magnification.
Column I Column II
(A) Real object (p) virtual image
(B) Virtual object with u < f (q) real image
(C) Virtual object with u > f (r) m = 1
(D) R (s) m > 1
(t) m < 1
40. With respect to photoelectric effect, match the entries in column I with those in
column II [Given frequency, I intensity and work function]
Column I Column II
(A) If is increased keeping I and
constant
(p) Stopping potential increases
(B) If I is increased keeping and
constant
(q) Saturation photoelectric current
increases
(C) If is decreased keeping and
I constant
(r) Maximum K.E. of photoelectrons
increases
(D) If the distance between anode
and cathode is changed, other
things remaining the same (, I
and constant)
(s) Stopping potential remains the
same
(t) Maximum K.E. of photoelectrons
does not change

14

SECTION I
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. If the vectors a i j k, b 4i 3j 4k = + + = + + and c i j k = + + are linearly dependent,
then
(A) = 1, = 1 (B) = 1, = 1
(C) = 1, = 1 (D) = 1, = 1
42. For any vector a , the value of
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
a i a j a k + + =
(A)
2
a (B)
2
3 a (C)
2
4 a (D)
2
2 a
43. A unit vector perpendicular to i j k + + and coplanar with
( )
i j 2k + + and
( )
i 2j k + +
is
(A)
j k
2
+
(B)
i k
2
(C)
i j
2
(D) k j
44. If the angle between the line
+
= =
x 1 y 1 z 2
1 2 2
and the plane + + = 2x y z 4 0
is
| |
|
\
1
1
sin
3
, then =
(A)
3
5
(B)
5
3
(C)
4
3
(D)
3
4

45. If the distance between the points P and Q is d and the projections of PQ on the
coordinate planes are d
1
, d
2
, d
3
, then + + =
2 2 2
2 1 3
d d d
(A) d
2
(B) 2d
2
(C) 3d
2
(D) 4d
2

PART C: MATHEMATICS
15
46. The shortest distance between the lines = +
1
L : r (1, 1, 1) (0, 1, 1) and
= +
2
L : r (1, 1, 0) ( 1, 1, 0) is
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
3
(C)
1
2
(D)
1
5

47. Four digit numbers are formed by using the digits 0, 2, 3, 4, 5 without repeating
any digit. The probability that a number chosen at random is an odd number is
(A)
1
2
(B)
3
8
(C)
3
4
(D)
1
5

48. Fifteen persons among whom are A and B, sit down at random at a round table.
The probability that there are exactly 4 persons between A and B is
(A)
1
168
(B)
1
14
(C)
1
7
(D)
1
84

SECTION II
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
49. In a college, 25% of the boys and 10% of the girls offer Mathematics. The girls
constitute 60% of the total number of students. A student is selected at random
and found to be studying Mathematics. Then
(A) the probability that the student is a girl
5
6
=
(B) the probability that the student is a girl
3
8
=
(C) the probability that the student is a boy =
5
8

(D) the probability that the student is a boy
1
6
=
16
50. E
1
and E
2
are independent events such that 0 < P(E
1
) < 1 and 0 < P(E
2
) < 1. Then
(A) ( ) ( )
1 2 2
1
P E / E P E / E 1 + = (B) ( ) ( ) ( )
1 2
1 2
P E E 1 P E P E =
(C) ( ) ( ) ( )
1 2
1
P E P E P E + = (D) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 1
2
P E P E P E + =
51. Let a 5i 12j = + and b be two vectors perpendicular to each other in the xy-plane.
The vector c in the same plane having projections of magnitude 4 and 7 along a
and b is
(A) 8i j + (B) 8i j (C) 8i j (D) 8i j +
52. Let

, ,
be unit vectors such that
and
are mutually perpendicular and
is
equally inclined to
and
at an angle . If

( )
x y z = + +
, then
(A) z
2
= 1 2x
2
(B) z
2
= 1 2y
2

(C) z
2
= 1 x
2
y
2
(D) z
2
= x
2
+ y
2

SECTION III
Integer Answer Type
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

17
53. The position vectors of the vertices A, B, C of a ABC are i j 2k, i 2j k + + and
2i j 3k + respectively. If the length of the altitude AD is , then [] where [x]
is the greatest integer x is
54. If
( ) ( ) ( )
2
a b c b c 2a c a 3b p a b c
( (
+ =

then p =
55. If the lines x = b ay, z = d cy and x = ay + b, z = cy + d are perpendicular
then aa + cc =
56. The equation of the plane through the points, (1, 0, 0) and (0, 2, 0) and at a
distance
6
7
units from the origin is 6x + 3y 2z = k. If is the angle that the
normal to the plane from the origin makes with the z-axis then |2 sec | =
57. Consider 5 independent Bernoullis trials each with probability of success p. If the
probability of at least one failure is equal to
31
32
then 8p =
58. An experiment has 12 equally likely outcomes. Let A and B be two non-empty
events of the experiment. If A consists of 4 outcomes then the least number of
outcomes that B must have so that A and B are independent is
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
18

A
p

q

r
s
p q
r
s
p

q
r s
p q r s
B
C
D
p q
r s
t
t
t

t
t

(A) If
a and
b are unit vectors such (p)

4

that

1
a b a b
4
(
=

, then the angle
between
a and
b is
(B) If

a, b, c
are non-coplanar unit (q) 0

vectors such that

( )
b c
a b c
2
+
=
,
then the angle between
a and
b is
(C) If a b c 0, + + = a 3, b 5, c 7, = = = (r)
3

then the angle between a and b is
(D) Let the vectors a, b, c, d be such (s)
6

that
( ) ( )
a b c d 0 = . Let P
1

and P
2
be two planes determined by
a, b and c, d respectively. Then
the angle between the planes P
1

and P
2
is
(t)
3
4

19
(A) The equation of the plane which is (p) x y + z = 1
perpendicular to the vector
3i 4j 7k + + and which passes
through the point with position
vector 2i 3j k + is
(B) The equation of the plane through (q) x 2y + z = 0
A (1, 2, 3) and parallel to the plane
3x + 4y + 7z = 2 is
(C) The equation of the plane through (r) 3x + 4y + 7z = 32
(3, 2, 0) and containing the line

x 3 y 6 z 4
1 5 4

= = is
(D) The equation of the plane containing (s) 3x + 4y + 7z = 11
the lines
x 1 y 2 z 3
2 3 4

= = and

x 2 y 3 z 4
3 4 5

= = is
(t) x y + z + 1 = 0
20
21
22
23
Name: . QUESTION PAPER CODE:

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

B. Question paper format
9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Physics and Part C: Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.
10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
11. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
12. Section III contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the
beginning of the section.
13. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching
with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B
matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken
the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
C. Marking scheme
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be
awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
16. For each question in Section III you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There are no negative marks in this
section.
17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of
8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

6

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be unit vectors such that

are mutually perpendicular and

b are unit vectors such (p)

are non-coplanar unit (q) 0

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