Subject : Jet Engine QUESTION BANK

1 The turbine of the jet engine : (Ref : Treager, Page no. 198) (1). Circulates air to cool the engine (2). Rotates the compressor (3). Increases air velocity for propulsion (4). As in 1 & 2 drives the accessories 2 Brayton cycle consists of : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 26) (1) two isothermal and two adiabatic processes (2) two adiabatic and two isobaric processes (3) two isothermal and two isobaric processes (4) two adiabatic and two isochoric processes 3 The ramjet must be assisted to obtain a velocity in excess of about : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 9) (1) 250 kmph (2) 407 kmph (3) 250 mph (4) both 2 and 3 are correct 4 The amount of force or thrust produced depends on : (Ref : Treager, Page no. 146) (1). The amount of mass of air moved through the engine. (2) The extent to which this air can be accelerate(4) (3). Both 1 & 2. (4). None of the above 5. The effect of turbofan design is to : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 17) (1) increase power/ weight ratio (2) increase weight / power ratio (3) improve thrust specific fuel consumption (4) both 1 and 3 6. The propulsive efficiency of a bypass engine is more than that of a turbojet because of : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 18) (1). Higher velocity of jet efflux (2). More kinetic energy wasted to atmosphere (3). Lower velocity of jet efflux (4). None of the above

7. Mark the false statement : (Ref : Treager, Page no. 155) (1) approximately 50% pressure rises in impeller and 50% pressure rises in the diffuser. (1) A turbine engine is a constant pressure engine. (1) In a front fan engine reverse thrust is obtained by reversing the cold stream and spoiling hotstream (4) Turbine engine power/weight ratio is less than that of reciprocating engine.

8. In normal cruising range the propulsive efficiency of a turbojet : (Ref : Treager, Page 36) (1). Decreases as speed increases (2). Increases as speed decreases (3). Increases as speed increases (4). Is not affected by speed 9. Equivalent Shaft Horse Power of a turboprop engine , when the a/c is flying is given by the formula : (Ref : Treager, Page no. 157) (1) ESHP = SHP + thrust(lbs)375/mph (2) ESHP = SHP+ thrust/2.5 (3) ESHP = SHP+ thrust(lbs) mph/375 (4) ESHP = SHP+ mph375/thrust 10. Anti-icing of turbojet engine air inlets is accomplished by : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 48) (1) electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes (1) hot air ducted over the outside of the inlet guide vanes (1) engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas (1) electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet cowling 11 A turboprop power plant propeller : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 15) (1) is governed at the same speed as the turbine (1) controls the speed of the engine in the beta range. (1) accounts for 75 to 85 percent of the total thrust output (1) accounts for 15 to 25 percent of the total thrust output 12 The abbreviation "P" with subscript t7 used in turbine engine terminology means : (Ref : OTIS, Page no. 149) (1) the total inlet pressure. (2) pressure and temperature at station No. 7 (3) seven times the temperature divided by total pressure. (4) the total pressure at station No. 7. 13 Which statement is true regarding jet engines? (Ref : OTIS, Page -20) (1) At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM. (2) At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM. (3) Gas turbine engines operate less efficiently a high altitudes due to the lower temperature encountered (4)The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is less at high altitude than at low altitude. 14 Short takeoff run is required in : (1) cold days (2) hot days (3) as in 2 and with turbo props (4) as in 1 and with turbo props (Ref : Treager, Page : 15)

15. In a pulse jet the flapper valves (shutters) are closed by : (Ref : OTIS, Page 10) (1) incoming air flow

(2) springs (3) pressure of exhaust gases (4) both (2) and (3) 16. The ramjet must be assisted to obtain a velocity in the excess of about : (Ref : OTIS, Page 9) (1). 403 kmph (2). 200 kmph (3). 200 mph (4) 250 kmph 17. (1) (2) (3) (4) A gas turbine produces work in proportion to : (Ref : OTIS, Page 81) the heat released internally the temperature difference both (1) and (2) none of the above

18. The propulsive efficiency of a Jet Engine is expressed as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 37) (1). 2 V j (2) V (3) 2V1/V1+V2 (4). 2(V+Vj) V+Vj2(V+Vj)V+Vj V 19. Mark the correct statement : (Ref : OTIS, Page 26) (1) volume through compressor decreases (2) volume through turbine decreases. (3) volume through exhaust nozzle decreases (4) both 1 and 3 are correct 20. When a convergent nozzle is chocked , then the velocity of the gas flowing through it : (Ref : OTIS, Page 30) (1). Can be increased further without increasing the temperature. (2). Cannot be increased further unless its temperature is increased (3). Does not depend on its temperature. (4). Cannot be increased on the cost of static pressure 21 In a front fan engine reverse thrust is obtained by : (Ref : OTIS, Page 17) (1) reversing the hot stream and spoiling the fan airflow (2)reversing the fan airflow and spoiling exhaust gas flow (3)spoiling hot airflow and spoiling cold airflow (4)reversing hot airflow and reversing cold airflow 22 The formula for thrust Horse Power is : (Ref : OTIS, Page ;- 33) (1). Thp =thrust x 375 (2). Thp = thrust x mph (3). Thp = Thrust x mph (a/c speed) 375 mp/hr (4). Thp = 375 mph 375thrust thrust x mph 23 If an a/c is travelling at a speed of 300 mph and its jet velocity is 600 mph, then its propulsive

efficiency is : (Ref : OTIS, Page 37) (1). 66.66% (2). 50% (3). 200% (4). 2% 24 .At airspeed of 1500mph, 50 pound of thrust equals : (Ref : OTIS, Page 34) (1) 15 THP (2) 3 THP (3) 200 THP (4) 75 THP 25. The speed of the a/c must be accounted for and used in computation while calculating : (Ref : OTIS, Page 34) (1) static thrust (2) net thrust (3) gross thrust (4) both 1 and 2 26. In terms of specific weight per kg thrust, which one of the following is lighter : (Ref : Treager, Page 14) (1). Turboprop (2). Turboshaft (3). Piston engine (4). Turbojet 27. Pressure thrust is produced due to chocked nozzle and is given by : (Ref : Treager, Page 14) (1 ) Pj (Aj-Aa) (2) Aj(Pa-Pj) (3) Pj(Aa-Aj) (4) Aj(Pj-Pam) 28. Using atmosphere conditions the standard sea level temperature is : (Ref : OTIS, Page 33) (1) 590F (2) 590C (3) 29 0C (4) 150F 29. The engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicator is a direct indication of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 382) (1) engine thrust being produced (2) pressure within the turbine section (3)pressure ratio between the front and aft end of the compressor (4)ratio of engine rpm to compressor pressure 30. In what units are turbine engine tachometer calibrated : (Ref : OTIS, Page 399) (1) percent of engine rpm (2) actual engine rpm (3) pounds per square inch(psi)

(4) percent of engine pressure ratio 31 By pass ratio is defined as the ratio of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 17) (1). The amount of air that by passes to the total of air flow (2). The amount of air that by passes to that flowing through the core. (3). The amount of air that flows through the core to that by passes (4). The amount of air that passes through the compressor to the total air flow 32 The propulsive force is obtained by the displacement of a working fluid in a direction opposite to that in which the airplane is propelled, then : (Ref : FAA, Page 1) (1) It is not necessary to displace the same fluid used within the engine . (2) It is necessary to displace the same fluid used within the engine . (3).No fluid is displaced . (4).None of the above 33 In the case of a propeller driven by reciprocating engine or turboprop engines, the fluid used for the propulsive force is : (Ref : FAA, Page 1) (1). A different quantity than used within the engine to produce mechanical energy. (2). The same quantity which is used within the engine to produce mechanical energy. (3). either (1) & (2). (4). none of the above. 34 The frequency of the engine in a pulse jet is regulated by : (Ref : OTIS, Page 10) (1).the stiffness of the springs (2). The length of the tail pipe. (3). Both (1) & (2) (4). None of the above. 35. In a turboprop engine maximum power is : (Ref : Treager, Page : 198) (1). Produced by jet nozzle (2). Extracted by turbine (3). 50%by turbine & 50% by jet nozzle. (4). None of the above 36. In a turbofan engine the fan air can account for up to : (Ref : Treager, Page 15) (1). 20 % of the engine's total thrust (2). 80 % of the engine's total thrust (3). 70 % of the engine's total thrust (4). 40 % of the engine's total thrust 37. In a turbofan the airflow enters the forward end of the duct and expelled : (Ref : Treager, Page 16) (1). Radially outward (2). Co-axially (3). In swirling motion (4). Radially inward 38. The compressor stall is more severe at: (Ref : Treager, Page 175) (1). low altitudes and low rpm (2). Low altitude and high rpm

(3). high altitude, high rpm (4). High altitude, low rpm 39. As the air temperature decreases thrust tends to : (Ref : Treager, Page 146) (1). Decrease (2). Increase (3). Has no effect (4). None of the above 40. Gross thrust is the amount of thrust produced by a turbojet when : (Ref : Treager, Page 142) (1). The aircraft is in flight (2) when a/c is not moving through the air. (3). When the engine is running and a/c is stationary (4). Both (1) & (2). 41 Background noise is produced by the reaction of each blade to the passing of air over its surface : (Ref : Treager, Page 142) (1). Even with a smooth air stream with no wakes. (2). With a turbulent air stream with wakes only (3). With a smooth air stream only (4). None of the above. 42 When air is compressed or expanded at 100% efficiency the process is said to be : (Ref : Treager, Page : 155) (1). Isometric (2). Isobar (3). Isothermal (4). Adiabatic 43 The propulsive efficiency of a bypass engine is more than that of a turbojet because of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 18) (1). Higher velocity of jet efflux (2). More kinetic energy wasted to atmosphere (3). Lower velocity of jet efflux (4). None of the above 44 Which one of that following has the highest T.S.F.C : (Ref : Treager, Page 15) (1). Turboshaft (2). Turbojet (3). Turboprop (4). Turbofan 45. Which statement is not true regarding the propfan engine : (Ref : Treager, Page 17) (1). It overcomes the limitations of a conventional propeller (2). The length of blades is less comparing to those of propellers. (3). The fuel consumption of high pass turbofans is up to 20% less relative to propfan engines (4). Lower gyroscope loads on engine mounts 46. In a pulse jet : (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page 3)

(1)flame propagation is continuous, ignition is intermittent (2)flame propagation is intermittent, ignition is continuous (3)flame propagation is intermittent (4)ignition is intermittent 47. In the atmosphere , in free air if the pressure goes up then density : (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page -3) (1) increases (2) decreases (3) doesn't change (4) will not affect 48. The length of the tail pipe in a pulse jet regulates : (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page 3) (1). The stiffness of the springs (2). The area of the jet nozzle. (3). The frequency of the engine (4). none of the above. 49. For a turbojet the best altitude for long range cruising is : (Ref : Treager, Page 148) (1). 30,000 ft. (2). 34,000ft (3) 36,000 ft (4). 54,000ft. 50. Brayton's cycle is a : (Ref : Treager, Page 155) (1). Constant volume cycle (2). Constant temperature cycle (3). Continuous combustion cycle (4). Continuous pressure cycle. 51 As the air temperature decreases thrust tends to : (Ref : Treager, Page 146) (1). Decrease (2). Increase (3). Has no effect (4). None of the above 52 When the jet velocity increases, the thrust produced by a turbojet : (1). Increases (2). Decreases (3). Not affected by jet velocity (4). Increases in inverse proportion 53 At low altitude and below sonic speed : (Ref : Treager, Page 136) (1). Turbojet is more efficient (2). Turboprop is more efficient (3). Both are efficient as both are gas turbine engines. (4). Both are not efficient as both are gas turbine engines. 54 During adiabatic expansion in the turbine : (Ref : Treager, Page 201) (1). There is no change in temperature (2). There is no transfer of heat. (3). Neither heat changes nor the temperature (4). None of the above 55. In normal cruising speed ranges, the propulsive efficiency of a turboprop : (Ref : OTIS, Page 18) (1). Decreases as speed decreases (2). Increases as speed increases (3). Decreases as speed increases (4). Does not depend upon speed 56. Athodyd stands for : (Ref : OTIS, Page 9) (1). Aerodynamic thermodynamic duct (3). Aero thermodynamic duct (2). Aerodynamic thermal duct (4). Aero thermal dynamic duct

57. Which of the following is not the aerodynamic advantage of a gas turbine engine over reciprocating engine (Ref : OTIS, Page 14) (1). Smaller necelle possible (2). Negligible cooling power required

(3). High speed jet is more efficient at high flight speeds. (4). High speed jet is more efficient at low flight speeds. 58. Which of the following statement is true regarding variable area jet nozzle: (Ref : OTIS, Page 95) (1). When after burning is maximum, the nozzle area is maximum (2). When after burning is maximum, the nozzle area is minimum (3). During maximum power rating the nozzle area is minimum. (4). During starting of the engine , the nozzle area is more that at maximum rating. 59. At an airspeed of 750mph, one pound of thrust equals : (Ref : OTIS, Page 34) (1). 1 thp (2). 0.5 thp (3) 2 thp (4). 750 thp 60. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two-spool or split compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitude, the (Ref : OTIS, Page 60) (1).low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air (2). throttle must be retarded to prevent over speeding of the high - pressure rotor due to the lower density air (3). low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air (4). none above are correct 61 The Brayton cycle is known as the constant: (Ref : Treager, Page 155) (1). Pressure cycle (2). temperature cycle (3). mass cycle (4). constant enthalpy cycle 62 What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the operation of a jet engine: (Ref : Treager, Page 148) (1) decreases engine pressure ratio (2) decreases compressor and turbine RPM (1) has little or no effect (1) (1) and (3) are correct 63 In a turboprop a/c, the propeller generates thrust by: (Ref : OTIS, Page 12) (1) imparting large acceleration to small amount of air (1) imparting small acceleration to small amount of air (1) imparting small acceleration to large amount of air (1) imparting large acceleration to large amount of air 64 From which of the following thrust condition is thrust horse power calculated: (Ref : OTIS, Page 33) (1) equivalent (2) Static (3) gross (4) net 65. Flat rated engines are designed to maintain rated thrust to value above which standard day condition: (Ref : OTIS, Page 289) (1) pressure (2) temperature (3) EPR (4) altitude

66. A bellmouth inlet duct would most likely be found on a : (Ref : OTIS, Page 51) (1) business jet (2) helicopter (3) airliner (4) supersonic transport jet 67. When the a/c speed is equal to the jet velocity then propulsive efficiency and thrust is respectively: (Ref : OTIS, Page 37) (1) zero & 100% (2) 100% and zero (3) both 100% (4) both 50% 68. The air inlet duct is generally rated in : (Ref : Treager, Page 162) (1) duct pressure efficiency ratio (2) Ram recovery point (3) duct recovery point (4) Either 1 or 2 69 . Kinetic energy contained by the air in a centrifugal compressor is converted in to pressure energy by- (Ref : Treager, Page 169) (1) impeller (2) manifold (3) diffuser (4) entry duct 70. Maximum K. E. is wasted in : (Ref : OTIS, Page 15) (1) turboprop (2) turbo shaft (3) turbojet (4) turbofan

71 Mark the correct statement: (Ref : OTIS, Page 17) (1) turbofan produces least noise (1) as in (1) and turbojet having least specific weight (1) as in (2) and turboprop having least specific fuel consumption (1) as in (3) and HPC rpm increases as going on higher altitude because of lower density load on the compressor decreases. 72 Buzz is an airflow instability which takes place: (Ref : Treager, Page 165) (1) in compressor at high air flow velocity (1) in compressor at low air flow velocity (1) in air inlet duct at high air flow velocity (1) in air inlet duct at low air flow velocity 73 On a turbine engine, with a fixed power lever position, the application of engine anti-icing will usually result in: (Ref : Treager, Page 146) (1) no change in EPR (2) a false EPR reading (3) an increase in EPR (4) all of the above 74 The design factors which can affect the thrust: (Ref : Treager, Page 146) (1) RPM, Fuel flow, water injection (2) RPM, speed of a/c, Fuel flow, water injection (1) as in (1) & TIT (4) as in (2) & size of the nozzle 75. The ability of a metal to withstand extreme changes in temp. in short periods of time is known as: (Ref : OTIS, Page 187) (1) creep strength (2) thermal shock resistance (3) corrosion resistance (4) oxidation resistance 76. The equation of thrust is derived from- (Ref : Treager, Page 141) (1) Newton's first law of motion (2) Newton's second law of motion (3) Newton's third law of motion (4) both 2 & 3

77. Mark the correct statement- (Ref : Treager, Page 141) (1) the principle of jet reaction is an internal phenomenon (1) the amount of acceleration is inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved (1) jet reaction is possible even in vacuum (1) all of the above 78. Ram jet engine can not be started below: (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page 3) (1) 150 MPH (2) 200 MPH (3) 250 MPH (4) 300 MPH

79. Which of the following depicts the four common types of jet reaction engine- (Ref : OTIS, Page 9) (1) turbo jet, ram jet, pulse jet, combustion jet (1) turbo jet, ram jet, pulse jet, rocket jet (1) turbo jet, ram jet, rocket jet, axial jet (1) turbo jet, ram jet, pulse jet, centrifugal jet 80. Propulsive efficiency is defined as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 36) (1) external engine efficiency (2) internal engine efficiency (3) thrust efficiency (4) 1 & 3 81 Which of the two are expressed in same unit of measurement- (Ref : OTIS, Page 19) (1) thrust & work (2) thrust & power (3) thrust & force (4) thrust & horse power 82 Equivalent shaft horse power is calculated by adding shaft horse power to (Ref : OTIS, Page 35) (1) net thrust (2) gross thrust (3) thrust horse power (4) none 83 A subsonic business jet will have an inlet duct of- (Ref : OTIS, Page 48) (1) convergent design (2) divergent design (3) straight through design (4) convergent - divergent design 84 Which section in a gas turbine engine contributes maximum forward thust- (Ref : Treager, Page 144) (1) compressor (2) combustion chamber (3) turbine (4) exhaust dust 85. Given wt. of air flowing at the inlet of an engine is 100 lbs/sec on ground and exhaust air velocity is 960 ft/sec for a jet engine, then the thrust is- (Ref : Treager, Page 141) (1) 3000 lbs (2) 3,500 lbs (3) 2000 lbs (4) none of the above 86. A turbo prop engine under static running condition produces 1000 SHP and 250 lbs of thrust. The ESFC of the engine is 0.6 lbs/ESHP/hr. The fuel consumption per hour is (Ref : Treager, Page 157) (1) 750 lbs (2) 660 lbs (3) 550 lbs (4) 600 lbs

87. Duct pressure efficiency ratio is defined as - (Ref : OTIS, Page 65) (1) ability of the duct to convert static pressure energy to kinetic energy (1) ability of the duct to convert kinetic energy of the air stream into static pressure energy without loss in total pressure (1) ability of the duct to convert total pressure energy into dynamic pressure energy (1) none of the above 88. A given rpm change has more effect on thrust- (Ref : Treager, Page 146 (1) at lower engine speed (2) at higher engine speed (3) at all engine speed (4) none of the above 89. The turbine horse power is given by formula- (Ref : Treager, Page 198) Cp DT Wa 550 (1) ----------------------778

Cv DP Wa 778 (2) --------------------------550

Cp DT Wa 778 (3) ----------------------550

Cp DT Wf 778 (4) --------------------------550

90. Turbojet engines are very efficient at high speed & high altitude flying because: (Ref : Treager, Page 148) (1) its propulsive efficiency is low (1) its propulsive efficiency is high (1) the exhaust gas volume relative to the surrounding atm is increased; (1) 2 & 3 91 A basic type of jet engine which comprises of a flapping air entry section termed as : (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page 3) (1) pulse jet (2) pure jet (3) turbo jet (4) ram jet 92 Variable area entry guide vanes will provide a : (Ref : OTIS, Page 65) (1) surge free compressor operation (2) positive turbine back pressure (3) satisfactory anti-icing system operation (4) positive ram pressure to the compressor

93 Bell mouth inlets are normally used for : (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page 50) (1) high performance engine (2) high speed engine (3) engine rating purpose (4) turboprop engine 94 Engine pressure ratio is determined by : (Ref : OTIS, Page 93) (1) multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure. (1) Multiplying turbine outlet pressure by engine inlet total pressure (1) Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure. (1) Dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure 95. During starting as the engine rpm increases the air bleed valves are automatically : (Ref : OTIS, Page 75) (1). Opened (2). Closed (3). Not affected by engine rpm (4). None of the above 96. The engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicator is a direct indication of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 93) (1) engine thrust being produced (2) pressure within the turbine section (3) pressure ratio between the front and aft end of the compressor (4) ratio of engine rpm to compressor pressure 97. The angle of variable inlet guide vanes and stator guide vanes is varied by actuator by sensing : (Ref : Treager, Page 176) (1). inlet air pressure and engine speed (2). Inlet air temperature and engine rpm (3). Turbine entry temperature and engine rpm (4). Turbine entry temperature and compressor delivery pressure. 98. In a turboprop engine reverse thrust action is obtained by : (Ref : Treager, Page 15) (1) changing the jet nozzle area and pitch of the propeller blade (1) changing the direction of gas flow (3) changing the pitch of the propeller blade (4) by using bucket doors 99. In the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine local deceleration of air is required : (Ref : Treager, Page 172) (1). To increase the pressure of compressed air (2). (3). (4). To provide a low velocity zone in which the flame can burn Both (1) & (2). None of the above

100. To make sure that the inlet air enters the impeller of centrifugal compressor, the type of guide vanes used is : (Ref : Treager, Page 172) (1). Stationary guide vanes (2). Variable guide vanes (3). Rotating guide vanes (4). Cascade vanes

101 What is the principal advantage of using propeller reduction gears ? (Ref : OTIS, Page 159) (1) to enable the propeller rpm to be increased without an accompanying increase in engine rpm. (2) the diameter and blade area of the propeller can be increase(4) (3) to enable the engine rpm to be increased with an accompanying increase in power and allow the propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient rpm. (4) to enable the engine rpm to be increased with an accompanying decrease in propeller rpm. 102 T.S.F. = (Ref : Treager, Page 157) (1) total wt. of fuel consumed (WF) / pound of thrust (fn) (2) pounds of thrust / total wt. of fuel consumed (3) only (2) is correct (4) none 103 Net thrust is equal to: (Ref : OTIS, Page -30) (1) difference between gross thrust and ram drag (2) addition of gross thrust and ram drag (3) only (1) is correct (4) none 104 The exhaust noise can be reduced by : (Ref : Treager, Pg 210) (1). Decreasing the mixing rate (2). Increasing the mixing rate (3). Increasing the velocity of the gases (4). Keeping the same pattern of the exhaust jet 105. The gas turbine engines works on : (Ref : OTIS, Page 26) (1) otto cycle (2) diesel cycle (3) carnot cycle (4) brayton cycle 106. Brayton cycle is a : (Ref : OTIS, Page 26)

(1) constant volume cycle (2) constant volume and constant pressure cycle (3) constant pressure combustion cycle (4) constant entropy cycle 107. Slight pressure can be adjusted during the process of combustion by : (Ref : Treager, Page 195) (1) varying the jet nozzle diameter (2) reduce the fuel flow (3) increasing the air flow (4) increasing the compression ratio 108. The gas turbine engines fitted in rotor crafts are called : (1) turbojet engines (2) turbofan engines (3) turboshaft engines (Ref : OTIS, Page 10)

(4) turboprop engines 109. Mark the correct statement : (Ref : OTIS, Page 36) (1) the propulsive efficiency will be zero when the a/c is stationary and hundred percent when the a/c speed is same as the jet velocity (1) the propulsive efficiency will be hundred percent when the a/c is stationary and zero when the a/c speed is same as the jet velocity (1) the propulsive efficiency will be zero when the a/c is stationary and hundred percent when the a/c speed is half of the jet velocity (1) none of the above is correct 110. The Aero thermo dynamic duct (athodyd) are the : (Ref : OTIS, Page 9) (1) pure jet and turbojet (2) turboprop and turbojet (3) pure jet and ramjet (4) ramjet and pulse jet 111 (1) (2) (3) (4) The absence of compressor is found in case of a : Ram jet pure jet turbojet both in pure jet and turbojet (Ref : OTIS, Page 9)

112 The ratio of work done in moving the a/c forward to the energy spent in accelerating the gas rearward is defined as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 36) (1) thermal efficiency (2) volumetric efficiency (3) propulsive efficiency (4) operating efficiency 113 The bypass engine is also called as a : (1) (2) (3) (4) turboprop engine turbofan engine turbo shaft engine turbojet engine (Ref : OTIS, Page 17)

114 The ratio established between the amount of air passes outer of the engine and the amount of air passes inside the core of the engine is called as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 18) (1) by pass ratio (2) engine pressure ratio (3) compression ratio (4) none of the above 115. The both elements of combustion, the fuel and oxidizer are carried in a : Page 9) (1) turbojet (2) pulse jet (3) rocket (Ref : OTIS,

(4) pure jet 116. When the jet velocity increases the thrust produced by a turbojet (1) increases (2) decreases (3) not affected by jet velocity (4) increases in inverse proportion 117. Choose the right statement (Ref : OTIS, Page 15 & 16) (1) turbofan produces least noise (2) turbojet has least thrust specific fuel consumption (3) turbojet is less efficient at high altitude (4) all the above are correct. 118. Turbine discharge pressure is identified in service manuals and by engine instruments as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 91) (1) Pt 7 (2) Pt2 (3) Tt2 (4) Tt7 119. In the atmosphere, in free air, if the pressure goes up then density Page 148) (1) increases (2) decreases (3) doesn't changes (4) will not affect 120. Which statement is true regarding jet engine (Ref : Treager, Page 152) (1) thrust increases as temperature of air increases (2) thrust decreases as air pressure increases (3) thrust increases as temperature decreases (4) thrust increases as density decreases 121 Gross thrust is the amount of thrust produced by a turbo-jet (1) when the a/c is in flight (2) when a/c is not moving in the air (3) when the engine is running and the a/c is stationary 122 At low altitude and below sonic speed (1) turbo-jet engine is more efficient (2) turbo-prop engine is more efficient (3) both are efficient (Ref : OTIS, Page 15) (Ref : OTIS, Page 29) (Ref : Treager, (Ref : OTIS, Page 14)

123 In a rocket the jet nozzle used is (Ref : OTIS, Page 9) (1) divergent type (1) convergent type (1) convergent - divergent type (1) circular type

124 Helicopters and Turbo prop's utilize: (1) water and oil mixture (2) water and alcohol mixture (3) distilled water (4) all

(Ref : OTIS, Page 15)

125. "Turbo prop" engine is best suited for: (Ref : OTIS, Page 15) (1) best for lifting loads only (1) best for high speed , long range only (1) best for long range & high speed light (1) best for lifting heavy loads "OFF", short and medium length runways 126.______ engine is best suited for long range, relatively high speed flight: (Ref : OTIS, Page 14) (1) Turbo jet (2) Turbo prop (3) Turbo fan (4) Turbo shaff 127. Helicopters are fitted with _________ engines: (1) Turbo prop (2) Turbo fan (3) Turbo shaft (4) only (2) is correct (Ref : OTIS, Page 14)

128. Inlet water injection is designed for use at ambient temperatures: 294) (1) below 5 degree C or 40 degree F (2) above 40 degree F or 10 degree C (3) above 40 degree F or 5 degree C (4) none

(Ref : OTIS, Page

129. A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to operate something other than propeller is referred to as _______ engine: (Ref : OTIS, Page 14) (1) Turbo fan (2) Turbo jet (3) Turbo shaft (4) Turbo prop 130. Variable inlet guide vanes are installed in front stage of compressor to: Page 322) (1) to decrease mass of the air flow (1) to increase mass of air flow (1) to prevent compressor surge (1) none (Ref : OTIS,

131 Which gas turbine engine has highest propulsive efficiency at super sonic a/c speed: (Ref : OTIS, Page 37) (1) Turbo jet (2) Turbo prop (3) Turbo shaft (4) Turbo fan 132 Compressor efficiency is based on principle of: (Ref : OTIS, Page 55)

(1) (1) (1) (1)

max. temp. rise with low pressure rise max. pressure rise with max. temp. rise max. compression with least temp. rise none

133 Mark the correct statement: (Ref : OTIS, Page 17) (1) stall is localized condition and surge occurs whole compressor (2) surge is localized condition and stall occurs across whole compressor (3) stall is localized condition and surge occurs across a stage (4) either (1) or (2) or (3) 134 "TSFC" and "specific wt." of which turbine falls between Turbo jet and Turbo prop: (Ref : OTIS, Page 17) (1) Turbo shaft (2) Turbo fan (3) only (2) is correct (4) only (1) is correct 135. By elimination of I.G.V., in turbo fan engines: (Ref : OTIS, Page 17) (1) fan noise is reduced (2) fan noise is not changed (3) fan noise is increased (4) none 136. Air fuel patterns are easier to control in: (Ref : OTIS, Page 77) (1) annular combustor (2) can type combustor (3) both (1) and (2) (4) only (1) is correct 137. __________type of thrust reverser , uses cascade vanes and blocker doors: (Ref : OTIS, Page 98) (1) pre exit (2) post exit (3) after exit (4) none 138 On high bypass ratio turbo fan engines 80% of thrust is produced by: (Ref : OTIS, Page 17)

(1)secondary air flow (2) primary air flow (3) both (1) and (2) (4) all 139. What is meant by a shrouded turbine? (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-40) (1) the turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or shrou(4) (2) each turbine wheel is enclosed by a separate housing or shrou(4) (3) the turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the blades in case of failure (4) the turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air to the turbine blades. 140. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet engine? (Ref : Rolls Royce, Page 56) (1) stretch (2) elongation (3) distortion (4) creep 141 What is the purpose of blow-in-doors in the induction system of a turbine engine aircraft ? (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-8) (1) admit air to the engine compartment during ground operation when the engine air requirements are in excess of the amount the normal intake system can supply. (2) fire extinguisher access openings (3) admit air to the engine compartment during flight when the aircraft attitude is not conductive for ram air effect. (4) access openings for inspection of compressor and turbine blades 142 The stators in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine : (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) increase the velocity of the air (2) decrease the velocity of air (3) increase the pressure of the air (4) are located behind the rotor 143 If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains constant the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by : (Ref : Treager, Page 176) (1) changing the velocity of the airflow (2) changing the compressor diameter (3)increasing the pressure ratio (4) decreasing the pressure ratio 144 In a turbine engine with a dual -spool compressor the low speed compressor : (Ref : Treager, Page 170) (1) always turns at the same speed as the high speed compressor. (2) is connected directly to the high speed compressor. (3)seeks its own best operating speed (4)has a higher compressor shaft than the high speed compressor 145. Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation

? (Ref : OTIS, Page 232 ) (1) compressor inlet air temperature (2) compressor RPM (3) burner-can pressure (4) turbine inlet temperature 146. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-42) (1) fir-tree blade attachment (2) impulse type blades (3) shrouded turbine rotor blades (4) bulb root attachment 147. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high altitude performance ? (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-14) (1) single-stage, centrifugal flow (2)dual stage, centrifugal flow (3)spilt -spool, axial flow (4) single axial, axial flow 148. Gas turbine engines use a nozzle diaphragm which is located on the upstream side of the turbine wheel. One of the functions of this unit is to : (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. (2) direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine buckets. (3) increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. (4)increase the pressure of the exhaust mass. 149. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial-flow compressor? (Ref : Treager, Page 203) (1) To reduce drag on the first stage turbine blades. (2) To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence (3) To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers. (4) to increase air swirling motion combustion chambers 150. When the gases pass through the impulse turbine : (Ref : Treager, Page 201) (1) pressure and speed remain same, direction changes (2) pressure changes, velocity remains same (3) pressure and speed change, direction is not changed (4) none of the above 151 Which one of the following statement is false regarding two spool compressor : (Ref : Treager, Page 176) (1) it gives good high altitude performance (2) it provides very high pressure ratio (3) it prevents compressor stall (4) rear turbine drives rear compressor 152 The stagger angle of a rotor blade of compressor is : (Ref : Treager, Page 170)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

more at the root than that at the tip more at the tip than that at the root same at the tip as that at the root none of the above

153 As the compressor speed is reduced from its design value the variable stator vanes are progressively : (Ref : OTIS, Page 8-1) (1) opened (2) closed (3) not affected by compressor speed (4) none of the above 154 Discrete tone is produced by regular passage of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-17) (1). Wakes through stationary blades (2).Rotating blades through wakes from the preceding stationary blades. (3). With a smooth air stream only (4). None of the above 155. Background noise is produced by the reaction of each blade to the passing of air over its surface : (Ref : Treager, Pg 210) (1). Even with a smooth air stream with no wakes. (2). With a turbulent air stream with wakes only (3). With a smooth air stream only (4). None of the above. 156. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-39) (1) reduce vibration (2) shorten run-in-time (3) increase tip speed (4) reduce air entrance 157. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine ? (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-15) (1) more turbine wheels can be used reduced (2) combustion chamber temperatures are less (3) higher compression ratios can be obtained (4) the velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increase(4) 158. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-11) (1) single entry centrifugal compressor (2) double entry centrifugal compressor (3) double entry axial-flow compressor (4) single entry axial-flow compressor 159. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-flow turbine engine : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-19) (1) increases the air velocity and prevent swirling (2) straighten the airflow and accelerate it. (3) decreases the air velocity and prevent swirling (4) all the above

160. In the compressor of a gas turbine engine : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-17) (1). Pressure rises (2). Temperature rises (3). None of the above (4). Both (1) & (2) 161 What is meant by a double entry centrifugal compressor : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-13) (1). A compressor that has two intakes (2). A two stage compressor independently connected to the main shaft. (3). A compressor with vanes on both sides of the impeller (4). Only (2) is wrong 162 What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-15) (1). More frontal area (2). Less expensive (3). More pressure per stage (4).. Greater pressure ratio 163 The outlet of compressor stator has : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-18) (1). Less area than its inlet area (2). More area than its inlet area (3). It forms a convergent passage (4). None of the above is correct. 164 Mark the correct statement : (Ref : OTIS, Page 2-18) (1). Volume through compressor decreases (2). Volume through turbine decreases. (3). Volume through exhaust nozzle decreases. (4). Both (1) & (2) are correct. 165. In the twin engine spool compressor system the first stage turbine drives the : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-35) (1). N1 & N2 compressor (2) N1 compressor (3). N2 compressor (4). Either N1 or N2 compressor. 166. Which statement is true regarding the compressor : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-11) (1). Centrifugal compressor is usually more robust than axial flow compressor (2). Axial flow compressor is usually more robust than centrifugal compressor (3). The axial flow compressor consumes less air than centrifugal flow (4). Centrifugal compressor can be designed for higher compression ratios. 167. Which of the following statement is false regarding two spool compressor : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-13) (1). It gives high altitude performance (2). It prevents compressor stall (3) It provides very high pressure ratio. (4). Rear turbine drives rear compressor

168. Which of the following is more susceptible to warpage : (Ref : Treager, Page 190) (1). Can type combustion chamber (2). Can -annular type combustion chamber (3). Annular combustion chamber (4). Both (1) & (2). 169. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the : (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) burner cans (2) exhaust cone (3) turbine inlet guide vanes (4) turbine blades 170. Which of the following are the most common types of thrust reversers used on turbine engine powered aircraft : (Ref : Treager, Page 207) (1) convergent and divergent (2) rotary air vane and stationary air vane (3) mechanical blockage and aerodynamic blockage (4) cascade vane and blocked door 171 In a high super sonic aircraft : (Ref : Treager, Page 207) (1) convergent nozzle is used (2) divergent nozzle is used (3) convergent-divergent nozzle is used (4) divergent -convergent nozzle is used 172 The exhaust noise can be reduced by : (Ref : Treager, Page 216) (1). Decreasing the mixing rate (2). Increasing the mixing rate (3). Increasing the velocity of the gases (4). Keeping the same pattern of the exhaust jet 173 In an after burner flame when flame is created as a result of fuel / air mixture being sprayed on to a platinum based element, the type of ignition is : (Ref : Treager, Page 232) (1) hot shot ignition (2) platinum flame ignition (3) torch ignitior (4) catalytic ignitor 174 When the exhaust gases flow through the divergent section of a supersonic jet nozzle : (Ref : Treager, Page 206) (1) pressure increases and velocity decreases (2) pressure decreases and velocity decreases (3)velocity increases and pressure decreases (4) velocity decreases and pressure increases 175. Which one of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation : (Ref : OTIS, Page 2-32) (1) compressor inlet air temperature (2) compressor outlet pressure

(3) burner can pressure (4) turbine inlet temperature 176. Number of arrangement of separate turbine and compressor assembly, is known as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 174) (1) stage (2) spool (3) generator (4) none of the above 177. A reaction turbine changes : (Ref : Treager, Page 202) (1) pressure of the gases (2) speed of the gases (3) pressure and speed of the gases (4) pressure, speed and temperature of the gases 178. In the combustion chamber : (Ref : Treager, Page 194) (1). Pressure drop slightly (2). Velocity increases (3). Temperature increases (4). All the above are correct 179. The combustion chamber with more degree of curvature is : (Ref : Treager, Page 190) (1). More susceptible to warpage (2). Less susceptible to warpage (3). Not susceptible to warpage (4). None of the above 180. Three types of turbine blades are : (Ref : Treager, Page 198) (1). Reaction, converging & diverging (2). Impulse - reaction & impulse reaction (3). Impulse, vector & impulse vector (4). Impulse - reaction and radial 181 The angle of attack for a compressor blade is defined as the angle between its cord and : (Ref : Treager, Page 3-17) (1). Inlet air velocity (2). Blade velocity (3). Resultant of inlet air velocity & blade velocity (4). Plane of rotation 182 In a gas turbine engine : (Ref : Treager, Page 191) (1) ignition and fuel are continuously supplied . (2)ignition is given initially and fuel flow is continuous. (3)Fuel flow and ignition are intermittent (4)Fuel flow is intermittent and ignition is continuous 183 In the combustion chamber : (Ref : Treager, Page 191) (1) pressure increases (2) temperature decreases slightly

(3) pressure remains constant (4) pressure decreases slightly 184 In a turbine engine having nine burner cans the number of ignitors used is normally : (Ref : Treager, Page 191) (1) one (2) two (3) nine (4) eighteen 185. At what stage in a turbojet engine are pressures the greatest ? (Ref : Treager, Page 172) (1) compressor inlet (2) turbine outlet (3) compressor outlet (4) tail pipe 186. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the : (Ref : Treager, Page 170) (1) number of compressor stages (2) rotor diameter (3)diffuser area (4) air inlet velocity 187. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward fan engine is the same as the : (Ref : Treager, Page 135) (1) low- pressure compressor (2) forward turbine wheel (3) high - pressure compressor (4) all the above are correct 188. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air: (Ref : Treager, Page 190) (1) combustion section (2) compressor section (3) diffuser section (4) air inlet section 189. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel are used in the gas turbine engine to: (Ref : Treager, Page 200) (1) decrease the velocity of the heated gases lowing past this point (1) direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades. (1) increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point (1) increase the temp of the heated gases flowing past this point 190. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to: (Ref : Treager, Page 205) (1) increase and the velocity to decrease (1) increase and the velocity to increase (1) decrease and the velocity to increase (1) decrease and the velocity to decrease

191 In turboprop engine torque meter assembly works (12A P 63) (1) to transmit thrust to engine (2) to transmit torque from the engine to the gearbox of the reduction section (3) transmit rotation directly to propeller (4)none above is correct 192 About the jet noise (1) higher the frequency of the noise, more the distance it will travel (2) lower the frequency of the noise less the distance it will travel (3) lower the frequency of the noise more the distance it will travel (4) none above is correct 193 Method of connecting turbine disk to shaft done by P 47) (1) one method by welding (2) by bolting disk to shaft (3) both 1 & 2 are correct (4) none of these 194 Damage to compressor blade can cause 5 3) (1) engine performance deterioration (3) engine failure (12A P 105)

(12A

(OTTIS (2) compressor stall (4) all above (OTTIS

195. Compressor field cleaning means 5 4) (1) removing contaminants from compressor blade & compressor (2) cleaning the compressor with dry air (3) cleaning compressor with ATF (4) none of the above

196. Compressor fluid cleaning can be done at (OTTIS 5 5) (1) 14% to 25% at engine speed with cleaning mixture (2) 65% at engine aped with cleaning mixture (3) 100% at engine speed with cleaning mixture (4) motoring wash at 14% to 25% speed and running wash at 60% speed with cleaning mixture 197. Mark the correct statement about compressor wash 5 5) (1) when water wash is carried out known as destination wash (2) motoring wash done at engine speed 14% to 25% and with cleaning mixture (3) the fluid wash method also cleans the turbine area (4) all the above statement are correct 198. Annular combustion chamber preferred over other type because 3 33) (1) its minimal surface area requires less cooling air (2) most efficient design from the stand point of thermal efficiency (3) it has a shorter length than other type (4) all are correct (OTTIS

(OTTIS

199. In multiple rotor turbine power is developed (1) only by the front rotor rotor (3) exclusively by the rear rotor rotor installed 200. A turbine stage consists of (1) stationary vane and rotor (3) two numbers of rotors

(OTTIS 3 39) (2) by the intermediate (4) by all the turbine

(12A P 57) (2) two numbers of rotors (4) none above

201 Diverting the thrust path for the control of a/c speed is a method of : (Ref : Treager, Pg 228) (1) thrust augmenting (2) thrust reversing (3) thrust cancellation (4) all are correct 202 What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in a turbine engine: (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) impeller and diffuser (2) hot and cold (3) turbine and tail cone (4) stator and rotor 203 The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section. the cold section include the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine section the hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust sections regard the above statements (Ref : Treager, Page 144) (1) Only No. 1 is true (2) Only No. 2 is true (3) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true (4) No. 1 and No. 2 are correct 204 An advantage of the axial - flow compressor is its: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-21) (1) low starting power requirements (2) low weight (3) high peak efficiency (4) low peak velocity 205. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-12) (1) to increase pressure and reduce velocity (1) to convert pressure to velocity (1) to reduce pressure and increase velocity (1) to reduce velocity and reduce pressure 206. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during routine maintenance: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-33) (1) can (2) can annualar (3) annular

(4) can can annular 207. The diffuser section of jet engine is located between: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-30) (1) the burner section and the turbine section (1) station No. 7 and station No. 8 (1) the compressor section and the turbine section (1) combustion chamber and compressor 208. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades because of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-41) (1) higher centrifugal loading (2) exposure to high temperature (3) high pressure and high velocity has flow (4) all above are correct 209. An advantage of the centrifugal - flow compressor is its high: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-13) (1) pressure rise per stage (2) ram efficiency (3) peak efficiency (4) over all efficiency 210. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-11) (1) single entry and double entry (2) rotor and stator (3) impeller and diffuser (4) all above are correct 211 Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-15) (1) buckets (2) rotor (3) stators (4) reactors 212 In an axial - flow compressor, one purpose of the stator vanes at the discharge of the compressor is to vanes a the discharge end of the compressor is to: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-17) (1) straighten the airflow and eliminate turbulence (1) increase the velocity and prevent swirling and eddying (1) decrease the velocity, prevent swirling, and decrease pressure (1) to guide the air 213 A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal airflow through a turbine engine may result in: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-32) (1) a rich flameout (2) a lean die-out (3) high EGT (4) low EGT

214 What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly on an axial flow compressor: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-18) (1) directs the air into the first stage rotor blades at the proper angle (2) converts velocity energy into velocity energy (3) converts pressure energy into velocity energy (4) converts kinetic energy into pressure energy 215. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle: (Ref : OTIS, Page 32) (1) increases (2) decreases (3) remains constant (4) all 216. What is the primary advantage of an axial -flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-21) (1) high frontal area (2) less expensive (3) greater pressure ratio (4) high efficiency

217. A gas turbine engine comprises which three air section: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-2) (1) compressor, diffuser and stator (2) turbine, combustion and stator (3) compressor, turbine and tailpipe (4) turbine, compressor and combustion 218. What type of turbine blades is most commonly used in aircraft jet engines: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-40) (1) reaction (2) impulse (3) impulse-reaction (4) all above are correct 219. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-19) (1) number of stages in compressor (2) compressor inlet pressure (3) compressor inlet temperature (4) diffuser inlet pressure 220. Helicopters and Turbo prop's utilize: (Ref : Treager, Pg 228) (1) water and oil mixture (2) water and alcohol mixture (3) distilled water (4) all 221 The stator vanes in an axial flow compressor functions to increase static pressure by forming: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-17) (1) divergent duct between vane passages (1) convergine duct between vane passages

(1) (1)

straight duct between vane passages none of the above

222 Mark the correct statement (Ref : Treager, Page 191) (1) air near the nozzle stays close to the front wall of the liner for only cooling purpose (2) as in (1) and for cleaning also. (3) annular burners have less surface to volume ratio than comparable CAN burners (4) as in (2) and (3 ) and the can annular burners has greater structure stability and lower press. Loss than CAN type 223 The main advantage of using float wall design of com(2) Chamber is (Ref : Treager, Page 191) (1) it allows the plates to thermally expand axially and circumferentially (2) as in (1) and to avoid stress] (3) as in (2) and eliminate low cycle fatigue (4) as in (3) and increases the time between repairs thus reducing maintenance cost and for uniform temperature distribution 224 Combustion of air and fuel mixture in a gas turbine engine combustion occurs roughly at constant: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-31) (1) pressure (2) temperature (3) volume (4) density 225. During normal operation of jet engine combustion of air fuel mixture is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-31) (1) continuously supported by the ignition (1) intermittently supported by the ignition (1) self supported (1) always intermittent 226. Propagation of the flame to all the flame tubes uniformly is achieved by: (Ref : Treager, Page 191) (1) swirl assembly (2) snout (3) flare plates (4) inter connector 227. Combustion chamber liners are provided with number on holes, the size of which: (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) increase from forward to rearward (1) increase from rearward to forward (1) remains constants throughout the length of the burner (1) as in (1) and big holes provide more cooling air for dilution purposes 228. Mark the correct statement for the NGV: (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) pressure increases & velocity decreases (1) pressure decreases & velocity increases

(1) (1)

as in 1 & guides the air in proper direction as in 2 & guides the air in proper direction

229. Highly stressed part of the turbine engine is the: (Ref : Treager, Page 203) (1) turbine blade (2) compressor disk (3) combustion chamber (4) turbine disk 230. Volume through the turbine increases in order to: (Ref : Treager, Page 200) (1) distribute the load evenly (1) as in (1) and extract the energy evenly from all the stages (1) as in (2) and prevent build up of back press (1) as in (2) and for fast acceleration to the engine 231 Thermocouples are normally made of two different materials : (Ref : OTIS, Page 12-4) (1) alumel & constantan (1) alumel & chromel (1) alumel (Al-Mn-Ni) (1) as in (3) & alumel does not attract magnet while chromel attract magnet 232 Hp nozzle guide vanes and turbine blades are made hollow for the purpose of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-43) (1) better cooling (2) thermal loading (3) reducing weight (4) better heating 233 The best method of attaching the turbine blades to the disk is : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-42) (1) fire tree attachment (2) bulb attachment (3) dove tail attachment (4) all the above 234 Exhaust duct : (Ref : Treager, Page 205) (1) is made of two stainless steel cone (2) as in (1) and the outer cone is usually bolted to the turbine casing (3) as in (1) and the inner cine is usually bolted to the turbine casing (3) is made up of one stainless steel cone 235. Decreasing the propelling nozzle area by small amount : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-51) (1) sharply increase EGT but decrease pressure & velocity (1) will sharply decrease EGT but increase pressure & velocity (1) will sharply increase EGT and also pressure & velocity (1) will sharply decrease EGT and also pressure & velocity 236. One of the best method of suppressing the noise is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-57) (1) use corrugated perimeter type exhaust nozzle

(1) (1) (1)

use multitube suppressor type exhaust nozzle introducing of secondary air into the main exhaust duct for fast mixing all are correct

237. Mark the correct statement: (Ref : Treager, Page 209) (1) noise is maximum when turboprop a/c is at 0 degree to you (1) noise is maximum when turboprop a/c is at 450 ahead to you (1) noise is maximum when turbojet a/c is at 00 to you (1) both 2 & 3 are correct 238. Point of highest velocity in a gas turbine engine is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-38) (1) diffuser (2) NGV (3) propeller nozzle (4) exhaust duct 239. The ratio between turbine discharge pressure and compressor inlet pressure is known as: (Ref : OTIS, Page 12-15) (1) EPR (2) thrust pressure ratio (3) exhaust gas pressure ratio (4) turbine compressor ratio 240. Pt.2.5 indicates: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-20) 1) total pressure at LPC outlet 1) total pressure at FAN outlet 1) total pressure in between LPC & intermediate pressure comp. 1) total pressure at FAN inlet 241 The velocity increases as : (Ref : Treager, Pg 206) (1) supersonic air flows through a convergent nozzle. (1) Subsonic air flows through a divergent nozzle. (1) Supersonic air flows through a divergent nozzle (1) Both 2 and 3 are correct 242 A twin spool compressor essentially comprises of: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-15) (1) L.P. and I.P. stages (2) L.P. and H.P. compressor (3) H.P. and L.P. stages (4) a free turbine 243 Air enters a centrifugal flow compressor impeller at the: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-11) (1) perimeter (2) front (3) center (4) rear 244 In a diffuser of centrifugal compressor: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-29) 1) pressure increases & velocity decreases of the air flow

1) 1) 1)

pressure decreases & velocity increases of the air flow there is no change in the pressure & velocity of the airflow both air flow pressure & velocity increases

245. In axial flow compressor the pressure rise is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-19) 1) same in all the stage 1) lesser in initial stages & higher in later stages 1) higher in initial stages & lower in later stages 1) depends on the design of the blade 246. In an axial flow compressor the air is pressurized: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-18) 1) perpendicular to the axis of the engine 1) parallel to the axis of the engine 1) radially to the axis of the engine 1) both 1 & 3 247. Variable inlet guide vane in the front of the compressor are fitted: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-18) 1) to prevent compressor surge 1) at higher engine speed 1) at all engine speed 1) to increase the velocity of the airflow 248. RPM of axial flow compressor in turbine engine is limited primarily by: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-17) (1) tip speed (2) compressor ratio (3) turbine inlet temp. (4) 'G' forces 249. Purpose of compressor manifold in centrifugal engine is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-11) (1) it distribute the air in turbulence free condition to combustion section (1) it distribute the air in turbulence free condition to compressor inlet section (1) both (1) and (2) (1) none 250. Compressor stall is prevented by: (Ref : Treager, Page 176) (1) (2) (3) (4) use of variable area exhaust nozzle by placing variable stator vane in compressor front stages both (1) and (2) none

251 The turbine stator and rotor blades are cooled by: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-43) (1) compressor bleed air (3) ambient bleed air (2) exhaust bleed air (4) cooling is not required

252 Single side impeller is well suited for many a/c installation because it: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-11) (1) get benefit from ram effect

(1) (1) (1)

253

less turbulent air entry without surging both (1) and (2) none In can annular type combustion chamber: (J) (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-32)

(1) (1) (1) (1)

outer liner is of can type and inner liner is annular inner liner is of can type and outer liner is annular only (1) is correct none

254 Combustion chambers with magnesium zirconate coating , to combat carbon particles is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-31) (1) whitish colour (2) blue colour (3) green colour (4) yellow colour 255. Advantage of reverse flow combustion chamber is: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-33) 1) shorter in length (2) weight reduction 3) pre-heating of compressor discharged air (4) all of the above 256. In annular throw flow combustor. The perforated liner is often referred to as: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-32) 1) diaphragm (2) dome (3) basket (4) none 257. The function of turbine is to: (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-35)

(1) (1) (1) (1)

transform portion of K.E and heat energy in exhaust gases in to mechanical work transform portion of P.E. in exhaust gases in to mechanical work only (1) is correct only (2) is correct (Ref :

258. _______________ is point of highest velocity (angular) in turbine engine: OTIS, Page 3-39) 1) turbine stator (2) turbine rotor (3) compressor stator (4) all

259. One of the advantage of can annular combustion chamber is: (Ref : treager, Page 190) (1) greater structural stability (2) as in (1) and lower pressure loss than that of annular type (3) as in (1) and lower pressure loss than that of can type (4) only (2) is correct 260. What are the types of turbine blades between which the area at the inlet is more than that at outlet (Ref : Treager, Page 201) (1) impulse type (2). reaction type (3). impulse-reaction type 261 The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the (Ref : Treager, Page 199) (1) burner can (2) turbine inlet guide vanes

(3) 262 (1) (2). (3). (4).

turbine blades Purpose of shrouding stator vanes is (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-39) provide support for longer stator vanes as in (a) and provides air seal between rotating and stationary part provides strength to compressor case all are correct

263 How is the turbine shaft usually joined to the compressor rotor of a centrifugal compressor turbine engine ? (Ref : Treager, Page 203) (1) bolted coupling (2) splined coupling coupling 264 Which statement is true regarding the compressors : (3) welded coupling (4) keyed

(Ref : Treager, Page 169)

(1) (1) (1) (1)

centrifugal compressor is usually more robust than axial flow compressor axial flow compressor is usually more robust than centrifugal compressor the axial flow compressor consumes less air than centrifugal compressor centrifugal compressor can be designed for higher compression ratios

265. In a turbofan engine, fan air can account for up to (Ref : Treager, Page 16) (1) 80% of the engines total thrust (2) 20% of the engines total thrust (3) 70% of the engines total thrust (4) 40% of the engines total thrust. 266. The main advantage of using a compounded twin spool turbine in an a/c are : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-15) (1) easy starting (2) less load on starter (3) as in (1) and (2) (4) as in (3) and quick acceleration of engine 267. The nose bullet or nose fair is provided in the front of compressor section is to : OTIS, Page 3-9) (1) provide a good look (2) house the front bearing (3) allow a streamlined inlet air (4) all the above are correct (Ref :

268. The reversal tendency of airflow from high pressure area to low pressure area in case of an axial flow engine is referred as : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-26) (1) compressor surge (2) turbulent air flow (3) air blow-by (4) compressor stall 269. The pressure trend of using nine or ten numbers of combustion chambers in gas turbine engines are of : (Ref OTIS, Page 3-32) (1) multiple can type (2) annular type (3) double annular type (4) can-annular type 270. The can-type combustion chambers are more advantageous to be used in : (Ref : OTIS, Page 2-5) (1). Axial-flow engines (2) centrifugal flow engines (3) both axial flow and centrifugal flow engines (4) none of the above is correct 271 The turbines used in aero engines are generally of : (Ref : OTIS, Page 2-5) (1) gas turbines (2) steam turbines

(3) air turbines

(4) none of the above (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-35) (2) velocity energy into pressure energy (4) mechanical energy into heat energy

272 A turbine is a device which converts : (1) pressure energy in to velocity energy (3) heat energy into mechanical energy

273 The working temperature is found maximum in the overall length of an engine in : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-30) (1) turbine section (2) jet pipe (3) combustion chamber (4) exhaust unit 274 The thermocouple connection taken for reading the JPT (jet pipe temperature ) in cockpit from : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-45) (1) exhaust unit (2) jet pipe (3) turbine outlet (4) nozzle guide vane assembly 275. To meet with the standard noise certification the commercial jet engines are provided with : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-57) (1) thrust reverser (2) thrust augmentor (3) noise suppressor (4) cascade vanes 276. When a convergent nozzle is chocked , then the velocity of the gas flowing through it : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-45) (1). Can be increased further without increasing the temperature. (2). Cannot be increased further unless its temperature is increased (3). Does not depend on its temperature. (4). Cannot be increased on the cost of static pressure 277. In a radial flow turbine the airflow is : (Ref : OTIS, Page 3-43) (1) co-axial (2) radially outward (3) radially inward (4) none of the above 278 . What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-17) (1) the shape of the blade root at the disk attachment. (2) the leading edge of the blade. (3) a cut out that reduces blade tip thickness (4) the curvature of the blade root. 279. In finwall type combustion chamber liner's advantage is: (J) (Ref : OTIS, Pg 191) (1) cooling air requirements has been reduced by 50% (2) cooling air requirements has been reduced by 40% (3) as in (1) and wt. reduced by 20% (4) as in (1) and wt. reduced by 50% 280. Function of inlet guide vanes (I.G.V.): (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-18) 1) direct the airflow in to 1st stage rotor blade at proper angle 2) direct the airflow in to last stage rotor blade at proper angle 3) direct the airflow in to all stages rotor blade at proper angle 4) as in (1) and impart swirling motion to air entering in compressor in direction of compressor rotation and reduce drag 281 Which of the following act as nozzles: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-38) (1) compressor stator vanes (2) turbine stator vanes (3) turbine rotor blades (4) compressor rotor blades 282 Compressor bleed air is used for: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 9-1)

(1) inlet anticing (3) cabin pressurization

(2) to cool hot section parts (4) all

283 Usually how many igniter plugs are incorporated in jet engine combustor: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-31) (1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 22 284 Advantage of free power turbine: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 2-7) (1) propeller can be held at very low rpm during taxing with low noise and low blade erosion (2) engine is easier to start in cold weather (3) both (1) and (2) (4) none 285. Greenish glazed type finish on stationary parts in hot section of gas turbine engine is: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-64) (1) magnesium zirconate coating 2) zinc chromate coating 3) ceramic coating 4) all 286. Compressor stall is indicated by: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-26) (1) audible noise (2) fluctuations in rpm (3) increased E.G.T. (4) all 287. The amount of air passing through the engine is dependent upon : (Ref : Treager, Pg 146) (1) the compressor speed (r.p.m) (2) the forward speed of the a/c (3) the density of the ambient air (4) all the above 288. The bleed air is tapped for a/c service from : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-10) (1) any stage of compressor as required (2) diffuser casing (3) exhaust unit (4) air intake 289. The bleed air is used for : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-10) (1) cabin pressurization, heating and cooling (2) running instruments (3) pneumatic starting of engines (4) all the above are correct 290. The air-flow strikes at the center of an impeller in case of a : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-11) (1) axial flow engine (2) centrifugal flow engine (3) in both (1) and (2) (4) none of the above is correct 291 The main disadvantage of a centrifugal flow compressor engine are : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 311) (1) large frontal area for given airflow (2) more than two stages are not practical (3) very high cost (4) both (1) and (2) are correct 292 Turbine engine at rest preparing for "take-off" , mass of airflow through engine is 60 pounds , exhaust velocity is 1300 feet / se(3) Calculate Gross Thrust: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 2-22)

(1) 23224 lbs

(2) 22324 lbs

(3) 24224 lbs

(4) none

293 Which out of the following combustion chambers is known as a basket type : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-32) (1) multiple can type (2) reverse flow type (3) annular type (4) can-annular type 294 The function of a Fuel Control Unit (F.C. U) in the fuel system of gas turbine engine is to : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 7-9) (1) control the amount of air (2) control the air/fuel mixture (3) control the amount of fuel in relation with the amount of air flow (4) control the engine power 295. A Booster Pump provided at the outlet of main fuel tank serves the purpose of : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 9-9) (1) transferring the fuel from one tank to another tank (2) being used as a priming device (3) ensuring the positive feeding of fuel to main engine driven pump and avoiding vapour locks (4) all of the above are correct 296. The engine pressure ratio is a media of computing : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-4) (1) engine r.p.m (2) engine compression pressure ( 3) engine thrust discharge pressure (4) engine

297. The variable jet nozzle varies the jet nozzle diameter automatically which is operated : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-51) (1) electrically (2) mechanically (3) hydraulically (4) electronically 298. The jet pipe is attached to the exhaust unit rear-end in most of the conventional gas turbine engines with the help of : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-47) (1) flange fitting (2) telescopic ring (3) mechanical coupling (4) thread fitting 299. The function of rotor blades in the compressor stages is to : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-16) (1) convert the pressure energy in to velocity energy (2) convert the velocity energy into pressure energy (3) velocity energy into mechanical energy (4) heat energy into mechanical energy 300. The axial flow straighter blades are the : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-16) (1) 1st row rotor blades of the compressor section (1) 1st row stator blades of the axial flow engine (1) inlet guide vanes of compressor section in an axial flow engine (1) last row of stator blades of compressor section in an axial flow 301 The function of primary air after diffuser section is to : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-31) (1) cool the combustion chamber burning of fuel (3) dilute the hot products at later stage (2) enter the combustion chamber for (4) stabilize the flame in combustion chamber

302 The swirl vanes assembly is provided at the inlet of combustion chamber of : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-31) (1) mixing the fuel and air proportionately and uniformly (2) uniform fuel spray (3) fanning the amount of required air (4) creating diffusion 303 The fuel burners are provided to : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-35) (1) inject the fuel in liquid condition (2) inject fuel in atomised condition (3) inject the fuel in vapourised condition (4) both (1) and (2) are correct 304 A gas turbine engine using 10 nos of can type combustion chambers generally uses : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-35) (1) one igniter plug (2) two igniter plugs (3) ten igniter plugs (4) either one or two igniter plugs 305. Turbine blade cooling is done by which of the following: (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-43) (1) impingement cooling (2) film cooling (2) convection (4) all

306. Performance requirements for combustion chamber are: (Ref : Treager, Pg 194) (1) stable operation (3) easy starting (2) low carbon formation (4) all

307. Advantage of Axial flow compressor is: (Ref : Treager, Pg 170) (1) small frontal area (2) straight through flow , allowing high ram efficiency (3) only (2) is correct (4) both (1) and (2) 308. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axialflow compressor? (Ref : Treager, Pg 184) (1) To reduce drag on the first stage turbine blades. (2) To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence (3) To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers. (4) to increase air swirling motion combustion chambers 309. The stagger angle of a rotor blade of compressor is : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-16) (1) more at the root than that at the tip (3) same at the tip as that at the root (2) more at the tip than that at the root (4) none of the above

310. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-flow turbine engine : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 3-16) (1) increases the air velocity and prevent swirling (2) straighten the airflow and accelerate it. (3) decreases the air velocity and prevent swirling (4) all the above 311 In a turboprop engine maximum power is : (Ref : OTIS, Pg 2-7) (1). Produced by jet nozzle (2). Extracted by turbine (3). 50%by turbine & 50% by jet nozzle. (4). None of the above

312 In a front fan engine reverse thrust is obtained by : (Ref : Treager, Pg 222) (1) reversing the hot stream and spoiling the fan airflow (2) reversing the fan airflow and spoiling exhaust gas flow (3) spoiling hot airflow and spoiling cold airflow (4) reversing hit airflow and reversing cold airflow 313 In a turboprop engine reverse thrust action is obtained by : (Ref : Treager, Pg 222) 1) changing the jet nozzle area and pitch of the propeller blade 1) changing the direction of gas flow 1) changing the pitch of the propeller blade 4) by using bucket doors 314 A good thrust reverser should provide -(Ref : Treager, Pg 219) 1) approx 25% of the full forward thrust 1) approx 40% of the full forward thrust 1) approx 50% of the full forward thrust 1) approx 70 % of the full forward thrust 315. The reverse thrust action on a turboprop aircraft is achieve by: (Ref : Treager, Pg 222) (1) blocking the exhaust (2) blocking the cold air stream (3) negative pitch setting of the propeller blade (4) keeping the propeller in feathered condition 316. Drag chute or Para brake is not considered suitable for commercial operation because ; (Ref : Treager, Pg 218) 1) it does not provide efficient braking 1) the chute is easily damaged 1) the chute has to be slowed back at the rear of the fuselage after every landing, which is time taking process 1) both (2) & (3) 317. In high by pass turbofan engine : (Ref : Treager, Pg 222) (1) primary air flow is reversed (2) secondary air flow is reversed (3) as in (2) and since fan air flow provides less thrust (4) as in (2) and since fan air flow provides most of the thrust 318. One of the basic requirements for thrust reverser is that is should: (Ref : Treager, Pg 219) (1) not affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the a/c adversely (2) as in (1) & not cause re ingestion of the gas stream into the compressor (3) as in (2) and not increase drag by increasing engine & nacelle frontal area (4) as in (3) and not affect the basic operation of the engine 319. Thrust reverser are incorporated in most of the jet powered a/c in order to - (Ref : Treager, Pg 218) (1) provide efficient braking (2) reduce the landing run (3) increase useful load of the a/c by avoiding the installation of larger brakes (4) all the above

320. The modern thrust reverser can also be used for - (Ref : Treager, Pg 213) (5) emergency descents (6) increasing the speed of a/c (7) lateral control (8) none of the above 321 Mark the correct Statement : (Ref : Treager, Pg 219) (1) thrust reverser should produce reverse thrust at least 50% of full forwarded thrust (2) high freq. Noise present at the lip of the exhaust nozzle (3) in reverse thrust condition there may be chances of stalling of the engine (4) all are correct 322 Where is water injected into a turbojet engine for cooling purposes? (Ref : Treager, Pg 225) (1) compressor air inlet or diffuser. (2) second-stage compressor or turbine (3) burner can (4) mass cycle 323 With an increase in the degree of after burning the nozzle area is : (Ref : Treager, Pg 228) (1). Progressively decreased (2). Remains unchanged (3). Progressively increased (4). None of the above 324 The increase in thrust due to after burning depends solely upon : (Ref : Treager, Pg 229) (1). Ratio of the jet pipe pressure (2). Ratio of the jet pipe temperature (3). Ratio of the jet pipe absolute temperature (4). Ratio of the jet pipe absolute pressure. 325. In an engine fitted with after burner : (Ref : Treager, Pg 229) (1) pressure ratio is varied (2) temperature ratio is kept constant (3) both temperature ratio and pressure ratio are varied (4) pressure ratio is kept constant 326. Assuming temperature ratio = (1)96, the increase in thrust due to after burning is : (Ref : Treager, Pg 229) (1). 96% (2). 30% (3). 40% (4). 196% 327. Mark the correct statement : (Ref : Treager, Pg 225) (1) alcohols has high combustion efficiency (2) water alone would provide more thrust per pound than water methanol mixture (3) water has low latent heat of vaporization (4) a reduction in atmosphere Pressure will cause an increase in thrust 328. Water methanol injection is used for : (Ref : Treager, Pg 225) (1) increase mass airflow (2) thrust augmentation (3) cooling the engine (4) only (1) & (2) are correct 329. Which of the following is the most advantageous method of thrust augmentation -(Ref : Treager, Pg 225) (1) water injection (2) after burning (3) ducted fan and by-pass (4) both (1) & (2)

330. Demineralised is generally used for water injection - (Ref : Treager, Pg 226) (1) to prevent deposit build up (2) to prevent frequent field cleaning (3) to prevent frequent engine trimming (4) all the above 331 In turbo prop a/c , the propeller generates thrust by - (Ref : OTIS, Pg 2-2) (1) imparting large acceleration to small amount of air (2) imparting small acceleration to small amount of air (3) imparting small acceleration to large amount of air (4) imparting large acceleration to larger amount of air 332 With a decrease in the degree of after burning the nozzle area is : (Ref : Treager, Pg 228) (1). progressively decreased (2). remains unchanged (3). progressively increased (4). none of the above 333 The high bypass ratio engines with out I.G.V produces: (Ref : Treager, Pg 211) (1) more noise (3) dependent on position of a/c altitude (2) less noise (4) all

334 Which of the following has greater cooling ability: (Ref : Treager, Pg 225) (1) water alcohol mixture (3) distilled water (2) pure demineralized water (4) all

335. The function of exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to (Ref : Treager, Pg 205) (1) swirl and collect the exhaust gases in to a single exhaust jet (1) straighten and collect the exhaust gases in to a single exhaust jet (1) collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor 336. In high super sonic a/c (Ref : Treager, Pg 207) (1) convergent nozzle is used (1) divergent nozzle is used (1) convergent-divergent nozzle is used (1) divergent -convergent nozzle is used 337. What happens to velocity as supersonic air flows through a divergent nozzle (Ref : Treager, Pg 206) (1) increases (2) decreases (3) remains constant (4) is inversely proportional to the temperature 338.In the year 1913, first jet propulsion engine was patented by (RR 1) (1) Sir George caley (1) Dr. Charles (1) A French Engineer Mr. RENE LORIN (1) None of the above 339. What is athodyd? (RR 1)

(1) (1) (1) (1)

It is aero thermo dynamic duct It is aviation thermal dynamo duct It is AVRO thermal dynamo duct None of the above

340. In the year 1930 who was granted patent to use gas turbine to produce a propulsive jet (RR 1) (1) Mr. RENE LORIN (2) Frank Whittle (3) Sir Issac Newton (4) All of the above 341 First Turboprop and turbo jet engines which were used an a/c like Dart, Nene or Derwert were produced by (RR 1) (1) Rolls Royce of England (1) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd in India (1) Pratt and Whitney of USA (1) None of the above 342 Ram Jet flies (RR 3) (1) A turbo jet engine is fitted in Ramjet (1) No engine is fitted in Ram jet (1) Forward motion is imparted to it from external source (1) b and c is correct 343 A pulse jet engine (RR 3) (1) use the principle of ram jet (1) uses the principle of intermittent combustion (1) it can be run at static condition (1) b and c is correct 344 A ram jet is often used as a power plant for (1) missiles and target vehicles (1) public transport aircraft (1) bomber aircraft (1) none of the above is correct (RR 3)

345. In a pulse jet the valves are closed by (RR 3) (1) automatically (1) the resulting expansion causes a rise in pressure forcing the valves to close (1) in expanding gases are then ejected rearwards (1) all are correct 346. In a pulse jet the duct inlet has a series a inlet valves which are operated by (RR 3) (1) by hand before starting the pulse jet (1) these inlet valves are spring loaded into the open position (1) need not to open (1) all above are wrong answers

347. Rocket engines (RR 4) (1) use atmospheric air for combustion (1) do not use atmospheric air as the propulsive fluid stream (1) are used for long duration aircraft (1) none of the above 348. The velocity of exhaust gases when coming at of propelling nozzle is (RR 4) (1) 500ft per second (1) 10 miles per hour (1) about 2000 ft per second or about 1400 miles per hour (1) no specified speed 349. Mark the correct statement (RR 7) (1) a pure jet is highly efficient at below 450 miles per hour speed (1) a turboprop aircraft is more efficient at speed below 350 miles per hour (1) a pure jet engines is efficient at low altitudes (1) all above statements are irrelevant 350. Jet engines working cycle is known as (1) constant volume cycle (2) constant pressure cycle (3) constant velocity cycle (4) constant Air cycle (RR 11)

351 Jet Engines work an Newtons Law of motion (RR 11) (1) 3rd law of motion (1) actions are equal and opposite (1) (1) + (2) is correct (1) none of the above 352 When airflow is passing through divergent duct (RR 11) (1) velocity is increasing (1) pressure is decreasing (1) the Temp is decreasing (1) velocity is decreasing, Pressure increasing and temperature is also increasing 353 In piston engine combustion occurs at (RR 11) (1) constant pressure (1) constant temperature (1) constant volume (1) constant velocity 354 The combustion in jet engines is (RR 11) (1) intermittent (1) continuous (1) sometimes only

(1) all above are correct

355. The working cycle of a jet engine works on (1) constant pressure cycle (1) constant temperature (1) constant volume (1) none of the above (RR 11)

356. In axial flow type engine air is compressed by a series of rotating and stationary aerofoils moving the air (RR 11) (1) perpendicular to the longitudinal axis (1) parallel to the longitudinal axis (1) neither parallel nor longitudinal axis (1) it is straight flow 357. Centrifugal compressors are mostly used as (Trigger 9) (1) on small engines (1) on small engines where a high compression ratio is not essential (1) big engines (1) none of the above 358. A spool is defined as (Trigger 12) (1) a group of compressor stages, a shaft and one or more turbine stages, mechanically linked (1) as in a plus rotating at the same speed (1) as in a plus rotating at different speeds (1) as in a but not rotating at all 359. Axial flow compressors have (Trigger 12) (1) ability to handle large volume of air flow (1) as in a plus at pressure ratio in access of 20 :1 (1) as in a but at very less pressure (1) as in a but very high velocity 360. What is adiabatic efficiency for compressor and turbines? (RR 14) (1) when air is compressed or expanded at 100% efficiency (1) as in (1) and where there is no loss of energy due to friction, conduction and turbulence (1) 90% adiabatic efficiency is considered as good efficiency (1) all above are correct 361 Mark the correct statement (RR 14) (1) A turbo jet engines derives its thrust by exhaust only (1) a turboprop engine derives its thrust by accelerating small mass of air (1) A turbo jet engine derives its thrust by accelerating small of air to high velocity (1) a turbojet does not derive thrust from fuel pressure 362 The turbojet engines are efficient at (RR 14) (1) high speed

(1) high altitude (1) long distance flights (1) all

363 The performance of a turbo fan engine is (1) superior to turbo jet (1) interior to turbojet engine (1) superior to turbojet engine in a hot day (1) none of the above (RR 15)

364 In a turbo prop engine (RR 17) (1) maximum thrust is obtained from the exhaust system (1) no thrust is obtained from the exhaust system (1) only a small amount of jet thrust is available from the exhaust system (1) none of the above 365. By pass ratio of a bypass engine is defined as (RR 17) (1) ratio of hot air to cool air (1) ratio of a air which is passing through exhaust system (1) the ratio of cool air by passed through the duct to the flow of air passes through the high pressure system (1) none of the above is correct 366. In a centrifugal type of compressor (RR 19) (1) an impeller is accelerating the air (1) diffuser is to produce required pressure rise (1) 1 and 2 are correct (1) centrifugal compressor does not increase pressure of air at all 367. Airflow characteristics of the turbine and compressor (RR 53) (1) Must be carefully matched (1) 1 + to obtain maximum efficiency and performance of the engine (1) None of above are correct (1) Only A is correct answer 368. Advantages of centrifugal compressor over axial flow are (RR 17) (1) centrifugal compressor is robust in combustion (1) it is easier to develop and manufacture (1) pressure ratio is higher per stage (1) all above are correct 369. In small turbo jet engines (RR 20) (1) centrifugal compressor is never used (1) centrifugal compressor is favored for its simplicity & ruggedness (1) centrifugal compressor is used where compression ratio requirement is very high (1) none of the above is correct

370. In a diffuser divergent passage is provided which (RR 21) (1) converts to increase velocity of air (1) in divergent passage no effect on velocity (1) converts most of the kinetic energy into pressure energy (1) (1) and (2) is correct 371 Impeller in a centrifugal compressor system (RR 21) (1) is rotated at low rpm (1) is designed to operate at tip speed of upto 1600ft /sec (1) air velocity is increased by relating at such a high speed (1) 2 and 3 is correct 372 In axial flow compressor a stage is (1) a row of compressor blades (1) a row of stator vanes (1) a row of rotating blades followed by a row of stator vanes (1) none of the above 373 In axial flow type of compressor (RR 24) (1) from low to high pressure end there is a gradual reduction in annulus area between the rotor shaft and the stator casing (1) diameter is increasing towards the rear end (1) diameter is not all changing (1) diameter of the system is kept the same throughout 374 A single stage compressor consists of (1) one rotor assy and rotors with as many stages as necessary (2) this is to achieve the desired pressure ratio (3) all the air intake flow passes through the compressor (4) all above are correct 375. Multi spool compressor consists of (RR 24) (1) two or more rotor assemblies (1) as in a each driven by their own turbine (1) as in a and b plus at optimum speed (1) as in 1, 2, and 3 + to achieve high pressure ratio and to give greater operating flexibility 376. In very high bypass turbo fan engine (RR 25) (1) the intake air undergoes only one stage of the compression in a fan (1) as in (1) and it is split in core and bypass duct (1) 1 and 2 in a definite ratio (1) all the above are correct 377. In the rotor assy (RR 25) (1) the pressure rise results from energy imparted to the air in the rotor (1) as in 1 which increases the air velocity (1) 1 and 2 are correct (1) 1 and 2 are incorrect

378. In stator assy (RR 25) (1) the air is decelerated (diffused) in the following stage and the kinetic energy translated into pressure (1) air velocity is increased in stators vanes (1) as in a plus It presents the air at correct angle to the next stage of the rotor blades (1) 1 & 3 is correct 379. In rotor blades, the air maintains a reasonably uniform axial velocity due to (RR 27) (1) rotor blades are of aerofoil section and are usually designed to give a pressure gradient along with the length (1) rotor blades are not made in aerofoil shape (1) rotors give no pressure rise to air (1) none of the above are correct 380. In relation to stall and surge, mark the correct statement (1) stall occurs in high speeds (1) surge occurs in low speeds and in front stages only (1) the stall is a front stage problem at low speeds and the surge usually effects the rear stages at high speeds (1) all above are incorrect statement 381 where high pressure ratio are required from a single compressor (RR 45) (1) variable stator vanes are introduced in the front stages (1) fixed stators are required in the front stages (1) stators are not used at all (1) all the above are correct 382 Normally stators vanes are made of (RR 45) (1) steel base alloys (1) nickel base alloys (1) stators are made from steel or nickel based alloys to provide high resistance to fatigue . (1) Stator vanes are made from aluminum 383 In view of the high rotational speed, balancing of the rotating assembly is of an extremely importance because (1) Balancing is not required (1) Balancing of the rotating assembly is done in live maintenance (1) Any imbalance would effect the rotating assembly bearings and engines operations (1) None of the above 384 Centrifugal impellers are made of (RR 33) (1) Aluminum alloys (1) Stainless steel (1) Copper or brass (1) Silver is used in making of impeller

385. In jet engines fuel in the combustion chamber is supplied through (RR 35) (1) Through inlet valve (1) Through igniter plug (1) Through the swirl or (1) Fuel spray nozzles 386. The amount of fuel added to the air will depend upon (RR 35) (1) Air supplied (1) Velocity of air (1) The temperature rise required (1) Exhaust velocity 387. Requirement of an efficient combustion chamber is (RR 35) (1) Efficient combustion system is not needed for turbo prop engine (1) Fuel is wasted in turbo prop engine (1) Must be capable of maintaining a stable and efficient combustions over a wide range of operating conditions (1) None of the above are correct 388. to avoid blowing of flame away from combustion zone (1) A low axial velocity is created in the combustion zone (1) To keep the flame alight through out the range of engine operating condition (1) No such procedure is adopted in jet engine (1) (1) + (2) is correct 389. What happens to air which does not enter through the snout in the flame of tube (RR 36) (1) It is utilized for cooling purpose (1) It is used to lower the temp of gases before entering the turbine (1) Flow into the angular space between the flame tube and air casing (1) All the above are correct 390. The purpose of the air entering through the swirl vanes (RR 36) (1) This air takes the form of a toroidal vortex similar to smoke ring (1) This air is used only for cooling (1) This has the effect of stabilizing and anchoring of flame (1) 1 and 3 are correct 391 The temperature of the gases released by combustion is (RR 37) (1) About 5000F to 6000F (1) About 18000F to 20000F (1) About 18000C to 20000C (1) About 12000C to 14000C 392 spark is initiated in the combustion chamber (1) By a sparking plug (1) By an igniter plug (1) By hand with a torch

(1) None of the above

393 Fuel is supplied to combustion chamber by (1) By injection of a fine atomized spray (1) By hand through a syringes (1) Fine spray through spray nozzles (1) 1 and 3 are correct 394 The types of combustion chambers are (RR 39) (1) Multiple combustion chambers (1) Tubo annular combustion chambers (1) Annular combustion chambers (1) All the above are correct but one type is used in one engine 395. The purpose of the inter connector is (RR 39) (1) Allows each flame tube to operate at the same pressure (1) Also allows combustion propagate around flame tubes during engine starting (1) 1 and 2 is correct (1) All the above are incorrect 396. In Tubo annular type combustion chambers (RR 40) (1) Each flame tube has an outer casing (1) All flame tubes are having one common outer casing only (1) This type allows ease of overhauling and testing (1) 2 and 3 is correct 397. In annular type combustion chamber (RR 40) (1) Annular combustion chamber have several flame tubes (1) All flame tubes passes an outer casing for each flame tube (1) Cans are mounted at an angle (1) Has one inner and one outer casing 398. A good combustion chamber must posses the following qualities. (RR 41) (1) Capable of allowing the fuel to burn efficiently (1) Does not provide much loss of pressure (1) If flame extension occurs then it must be possible to relight (1) All the above are correct 399. Advantages of annular combustion chamber are (RR 40) (1) Reduction is weight and length (1) Reduction in production cost (1) Elimination of combustion propagation problem (1) All the above are correct 400. Most of the gas turbine engines have combustion efficiency (RR 42) (1) At sea level take off condition is almost 100% (1) At altitude cruise condition it is about 98%

(1) Both above are wrong (1) 1 and 2 is correct

401 Combustion stability means (1) Smooth burning (1) Ability of the flame to remain alight over a wide range of operation (1) 1 and 2 is correct (1) All the above are incorrect 402 The pollutants which are resistively controlled are (RR 43) (1) Unburnt fuel (hydro carbons) (1) Smoke (carbon particles & carbon monoxide) (1) Oxides of nitrogen (1) All the above are correct + pollutants are effected by pressure, temp, and time 403 The purpose of a turbine in jet engines is (RR 45) (1) It provides power to drive the compressor (1) It provides power to drive the accessories (1) In some engines it provides to drive the propeller or rotor (1) All the above are correct 404 Mark the correct statement in relation to turbines (RR 45) (1) The turbine blade tip may rotate at speeds over 1500 ft per second (1) As in 1 + turbine entry temp may go between 8500C to 17000C (1) This temp is too low and can go upto 40000C (1) All the above are incorrect 405. A stage of turbines means (RR 45) (1) One row of stationary nozzle guide vanes (1) As in 1 + one row of moving turbine blades (1) First two continuous rows of NGV (1) As in 3 + two rows turbine blades 406. Engines operating at higher inlet temperature are (RR 47) (1) Thermally more efficient (1) As in 1 + have an improved power to weight ratio (1) Having lesser efficiency (1) Not liable to be operated at low temp 407. By pass engines (RR 47) (1) Generally have two shafts and two sets of turbines (1) As in 1 and connected to two sets of compressor rotors (1) Have a better propulsive efficiency and thus can have a small turbine (1) All the above are correct 408. In nozzle guide vanes (RR 49) (1) Gas velocity increase

(1) Gas pressure decrease (1) Provide a convergent passage (1) 1 , 2 and 3 + gas is directed to the turbine blades
409. The combinations of impulse reaction turbines is generally used (RR 49) (1) 20% impulse + 80% of reaction (1) 30% impulse + 70% of reaction (1) 10% impulse + 90% of reaction (1) Generally it is 50% impulse and 50% reaction 410. Mark the correct statement regarding turbines (RR 50) (1) In reaction turbines a convergent outlet is provided (1) Both are having divergent passage (1) In impulse turbine inlet and outlet area is same (1) 1 and 3 are correct 411 The purpose of twisted NGVs and turbine blades is (RR 50) (1) To do equal work at all positions along the length of the blades (2) As in 1 it ensures that the flow enters the exhaust system with a uniform axial velocity (3) These are made in basic aerofoil shape (4) All the above are correct 412 In turbines & NGVs, the degree of reaction varies from root to tip , (RR 50) (1) Highest at the tip (2) Lowest at the root (3) Mean section having the chosen value of about 50% (4) All the above are correct 413 Nozzles guide vanes are (RR 52) (1) Generally hollow (2) May be cooled by passing compressor delivery air (3) Cooling will reduce the thermal stress and gas loads (4) All the above are correct 414 Turbines blades are now fixed on to the turbine disc by (RR 52) (1) Fir tree fixing procedure (2) By hammering method (3) By de level bulk (4) All above methods are not used for fixing turbine blades 415. A gap exists between the turbine blade tips and casing (RR 53) (1) This gap varies in size due to different rates of expression and contraction (1) To reduce the loss of efficiency through this gap (1) 1 and 2 are correct statements (1) All the above are incorrect 416. To increase the power from jet engines, the limiting factors are (RR 53) (1) Materials used in manufacture of NGVs and turbines

(1) The high speed of rotation causes tensile stress to turbine disc and blades (1) 1 and 2 are correct (1) All the above are incorrect
417. Nickel alloys are used in the manufacture of Nozzle guide vanes because of their (RR 54) (1) Static condition and no rotational stress (1) 1 + heat resistance is the property most required (1) Cooling enhances the efficiency (1) All the above are correct 418. The turbine blades must possess (RR 57) (1) Resistance to fatigue and thermal shock (1) Resistance to corrosion and oxidation (1) Must easily be formed and machined by current manufacturing methods (1) All the above are correct + better creep resistance properties 419. Balancing (RR 57) (1) Balancing is effected on a special balancing machine (1) Balancing is an extremely important operation (1) In view of high rotational speeds and the mass of materials balancing is required (1) All the above are correct + any slight imbalances can seriously effect the engine bearings and engine operation 420 Exhaust system (RR 59) (1) In turbo jet engine exhaust system provides the resultant thrust (2) Passes the turbine discharge gases at an angle to atmosphere at velocity and direction (3) The velocity and pressure of the exhaust gases create the thrust (4) 1, 2 & 3 are correct statements 421 In some engines exhaust system may have (RR 59) (1) Thrust reverser system (2) Noise suppression on system (3) Variable area propelling nozzle (4) May have any one or two or all the above mentioned systems 422 The exhaust cone (RR 61) (1) Is covering the turbine blades (2) Increases the area (3) Is serving no useful purpose (4) Prevents the exhaust gases from flowing across the rear face of turbine disc 423 In turbo jet engines (RR 61) (1) Exhaust gases pass to the atmosphere through the propelling nozzle (2) Propelling nozzle is a convergent duct (3) Velocity increases in propelling nozzle (4) 1, 2, 3 + velocity remains subsonic at low thrust only 424 Mark the correct statement (RR 61) (1) A fixed area propelling nozzle is only efficient over a narrow range of engine operating

conditions (2) A fixed area propelling nozzle is not efficient for narrow range of engine operation (3) A fixed area nozzle is used in all the jet engines (4) It is possible to use fixed area propelling every where 425. the bypass engines (RR 61) (1) Have two gas streams to eject to atmosphere (1) 1 + cool by pass air and hot turbine discharge gases (1) 1 + 2 and high bypass ratio engines two streams are exhausted separately (1) All the above are incorrect 426. Exhaust system is (RR 63) (1) Manufactured from nickel or titanium (1) Must be capable of with standing high gas temperatures (1) Must be preventing heat being transferred to the surrounding structure (1) All the above are correct 427. When the temperatures are very high or when after burning is employed (RR 63) (1) The jet pipe is specially made them (1) The jet pipe & struts are made of aluminum alloy (1) The complete jet pipe is usually double wall construction (1) All the above are incorrect 428. The cone and streamline fairing is exhaust system (RR 63) (1) Are subjected to the pressure of the exhaust system (1) To prevent distorting vent holes are provided to attain a pressure balance (1) 1 and 2 are correct (1) All the above are in correct 429. Accessories drive unit provide power for (1) Hydraulic, pneumatic & electric system (1) Starter, fuel and oil pumps (1) Tachometer generator (1) All the above are correct (RR 65)

430. To reduce the airflow disruption, it is desirable to have (RR 69) (1) The smallest drive shaft diameter as possible (1) Diameter of the drive shaft should as big as possible (1) Diameter is no criteria as far as drive is given (1) Any diameter can be used anywhere 431 The gear boxes may be (RR 69) (1) Internal (2) External (3) Auxiliary (4) Any one or two types may be used in an engine 432 When all the necessary units cannot be fitted on one gear box then (RR 71)

(1) They can be fitted on some other engine (2) Need not be fitter at all (3) These can be easily accommodated on an auxiliary gear box (4) 3 + it is a very convenient method 433 The gears are manufactured from (RR 71) (1) Aluminum alloy (2) Magnesium alloy (3) Non corrosion resistant steels for strength and toughness and also case hardened (4) All the above are incorrect 434 Sealing of the accessory drive system is (RR 71) (1) Primary concerned with preventing oil loss (2) There is no oil provided in the gear box (3) Gears in accessory drive box are self lubricating type (4) All gear boxes is not sealed 435. Spiral levels gears are used (RR 70) (1) For connections of shaft whose axis is at an angle to one another but in the same plane (1) These gears are not used to transfer drive (1) Only A and B are correct (1) All the above are correct 436. Materials used by centrifugal flow turbine engines: Treager, P-181 (1) machined steel (2) titanium (3) either (a) or (b) 437. Cast compressors are being used on: Treager, P-181 (1) small engines (2) large engines (3) low power engines

439. Purpose of the shrouding of the stator vanes are: (1) provides support for the longer stator vanes located in forward stages of the compressor (2) provides air seal between rotating and stationary parts (3) both (1) & (2) Treager, P-184 440. Reverse flow burner is a type of: Treager, P-187 (1) can type (2) annualar type 441 Side entry burner is a type of: Treager, P-187 (1) can type (2) annular type (3) can-annular type (3) can-annular type

44(2) Can type burners are mounted: Treager, P-189 (1) circle around the engine axis (2) co-axially around the engine axis (3) circumference around the engine axis 44(3) Annular type burners are mounted: Treager, P-190 (1) circle around the engine axis (2) co-axially around the engine axis (3) circumference around the engine axis

44(4) The main disadvantage of can type burner is: Treager, P-190 (1) does not make use of available space (2) creates a large dimensional engine (3) both (1) & (2) 445. The main advantage of can type burner is: Treager, P-190 (1) can be removed individually for inspection (2) can not be removed individually for inspection (3) can be removed alongwith other linears 446. Main characteristics of annual type burner is: Treager, P-190 (1) has improved exit temperature distribution (2) has less surface to volume ration (3) both (1) & (2) 447. Main characteristics of annular type burner is: Treager, P-190 (1) less cooling air is required due to less surface to volume ratio (2) more cooling air is required due to more surface o volume ratio (3) less cooling air is required due to more surface to volume ratio 448. Main characteristics of annular type burner is: Treager, P-190 (1) structural problem may arise due to large diameter (2) complete use of available space (3) low pressure loss (4) all of the above 449. One of the dis-advantage of annular type burner is: Treager, P-190 (1) structural problem may arise due to small diameter (2) structural problem may arise due to large diameter (3) thick wall cylinder required with this type of burner 450. One of the disadvantage of annular type burner is: (1) thin wall cylinder required with this type of burner (2) thick wall cylinder required with this type of burner (3) normal wall cylinder required with this type of burner Treager, P-190 451 One of the disadvantage of annular type burner is: (1) entire burner must be removed from the engine for inspection and repair (2) thick wall cylinder required with this type of burner (3) structural problem may arise due to small diameter of burner Treager, P-190 452 The main advantage of can-annular burner is: (1) creates structural stability and lower pressure loss than that of can type burner (2) lesser structural stability and lower pressure loss than that of annular type burner (3) either (a) or (b) Treager, P-190 453 The air actually takes part in combustion process is: (1) about 25% (2) about 20% Treager, P-191 (3) about 30%

454Before entering the turbine the gases must be cooled to approximately

(1) half of its value Treager, P-191

(2) one third of its value (3) two third of its value

455. One of the performance requirement of combustion chamber is: (1) high combustion efficiency (2) medium combustion efficiency (3) high pressure loss Treager, P-192 456. One of the performance requirement of combustion chamber are: (1) stable operation (2) low pr. loss (3) both (1) and (2) Treager, P-192 457. One of the performance requirement of combustion chambers are: (1) uniform temperature distribution (2) easy starting (3) both (1) and (2) Treager, P-192 458. High pressure losses in combustion chamber will: (1) reduce thrust and increase SFC (2) increase thrust and increase SFC (3) reduce thrust and decrease SFC Treager, P-192 459. One of the performance requirement of combustion chamber is: (1) low carbon formation (2) low smoke burner (3) small size (4) all the above Treager, P-192 460. Effects of operating variables on burner performances are: (1) pressure (2) inlet air temperature (3) both (1) and (2) Treager, P-194 461 Effect of operating variables on burner performances are: (1) fuel / air ration (2) flow velocity (3) pressure and inlet air temperature (4) all the above Treager, P-194 462 One method of reducing pressure loss in combustion chamber is to: (1) increase the diameter or length of burner (2) decrease the diameter of burner (3) decrease the length of burner Treager, P-195 463 Following has a marked influence on the burner performance: i. size ii. number iii. shape iv. location of the air inlet holes (1) only (1) is true (2) (2) and (3) are true (3) all are true Treager, P-195 464 Equivalent shaft horse power is related with which type of engine:

(1) turbo jet Treager, P-157

(2) turbo shaft

(3) turbo prop

(4) turbo fan

465. The energy that can be released in the combustion chamber is: (1) proportional to the mass of air consumed (2) proportional to the volume of air consumed (3) both are correct Treager, P-168 466. For a high bypass ratio turbofan, each 1% improvement in fan efficiency can result in a: (1) 1% improvement in SFC (2) 0.75% improvement in SFC (3) (1)5% improvement in SFC Treager, P-168 467. For a high bypass ratio turbofan for each 1% improvement in the efficiency of high pressure compressor: (1) a 0.5% change in SFC is obtained (2) a 0.75% change in SFC is obtained (3) a (1)5% change in SFC is obtained 468. Some of the variable that must be considered when designing rotor blade and stator vane of axial of flow compressor: (1) airfoil shape of camber of the blades and vanes (2) height of the blades and vanes (3) chord of the blades and vanes (4) all the above Treager, P-168 469. Some of the variables that must be considered when designing an axial flow compressors rotor blades and stator vane: (1) angle of incidence or stagger angle (2) blade and vane attachment methods (3) both (1) and (2) Treager, P-168 470. The centrifugal compressor consists basically of an: (1) impeller and diffuser (2) rotor and stator Treager, P-169 471 The main purpose of diffuser is to: (1) convert kinetic energy of motion into static pressure energy (2) convert static pressure energy into kinetic energy of motion (3) convert kinetic energy of motion into thrust velocity Treager, P-169 472 The formation of the shock wave can be delayed and smoothed by sweeping the impeller vanes in centrifugal compressor: (1) rearward (2) forward (3) centre of impeller Treager, P-170 473 With increasing pressure ration the SFC will: (1) increase (2) decrease Treager, P-170 (3) will not change (3) rotor and diffuser

474 The highest positive pressure that can act on a wing / blade is the so called (1) stagnation pressure (2) dynamic pressure (3) total pressure Treager, P-171 475. The efficiency of centrifugal compressor: (1) increases with increase in pressure compare with axial flow compressor (2) decreases with increase in pressure compare with axial flow compressor (3) does not have any effect Treager, P-171 476. The compressor ratio is affected by: (1) engine speed (3) both (1) and (2) are correct Treager, P-173 (2) compressor inlet temperature

477. The purpose of rotor blade of axial flow of compressor is to: (1) increase pressure and decrease velocity (2) decrease pressure and increase velocity (3) increase pressure and increase velocity Treager, P-172 478. The purpose of static vane of axial flow compressor is to: (1) increase pressure and decrease velocity (2) decrease pressure and increase velocity (3) increase pressure and decrease velocity Treager, P-172 479. The tip speed of axial flow compressor is kept approximately: (1) 1mach (2) 0.85mach (3) (1)2mach Treager, P-174 480. Mark the correct statement regarding the causes of compressor stall: (1) turbulent or disrupted airflow to the engine inlet (2) excessive fuel flow caused by abrupt engine acceleration (3) both (1) and (2) are correct Otis, P-3-26 481 Mark the correct statement regarding the causes of compressor stall: (1) excessively lean fuel mixture (2) contaminated or damaged compressor (3) both (1) and (2) are correct Otis, P-3-26 482 Mark the correct statement the causes of compressor stall: (1) damaged turbine components, causing loss of power to the compressor and low compression (2) engine operation above or below designed RPM (3) both are correct Otis, P-3-26

483 A stall is defined as a localized condition where as a surge occurs across: (1) the whole compressor (2) first stage of compressor (3) last stage of compressor Otis, P-3-26 484 Transonic compressor blade is designed: (1) to accommodate higher air velocity entry speeds (2) it eliminates the need for inlet guide vanes (3) either (1) or (2) or both Otis, P-3-29 485. A one piece blade and disk unit rather than an assembly of many separate blades fitted to the rim of a separate disk is called: (1) rotor assembly (2) blisk (3) rotor drum Otis, P-3-29 486. With increase in ambient temperature N 2 RPM will: (1) decrease (2) increase effect Otis, P-3-16 487. With increase in altitude the N1 RPM will: (1) decrease (2) increase effect Otis, P-3-16 488.Gross thrust of engine will increase with increase in: (1) N2 rpm (2) N1 rpm Otis, P-3-16 489. Which type of inlet duct is required for supersonic aircraft: (1) convergent duct (2) divergent duct divergent duct Otis, P-3-4 490. To measure the tip velocity of compressor the formula used: (1) D x RPM (2) [(D)/12] x [RPM/60] Treager, P-174 (3) will not have any

(3) will not have any

(3) both are correct

(3) convergent

(3) both are correct

491 To measure the tip velocity of compressor blade the formula used in [( D)/12] x [RPM/60] where [RPM/60] indicates: (1) revolutions per minute (2) revolutions per second (3) revolution per hour Treager, P-174 492 Formula [(D)/12] x [RPM/60] used to measure compressor tip velocity where [( D)/12] indicates: (1) diameter in feet (2) diameter in inch (3) diameter in metre Treager, P-174 493 The angle of attack in axial flow compressor inlet will vary with: (1) engine r.p.m. (2) compressor inlet temperature

(3) both (1) and (2) Treager, P-175 494 the angle of attack in axial flow compressor inlet will vary with: (1) compressor inlet temperature(2) compressor discharge pressure or burner pressure (3) both (1) and (2) are correct Treager, P-175 495. To correct this front and low speed high temperature stall conditions following action are taken: (1) lower the angle of attack on the front stages (2) increase the angle of attack on the front stages (3) use a variable area exhaust nozzle to unload the compressor during acceleration (4) both (1) and (3) are correct Treager, P-176 496. If the engine produces abnormal engine noises such as rumble, chugging, choo-choving or buzzing is a indication of: (1) mild stall (2) severe stall (3) explosive stall Treager, P-176

497. An indication of loud bangs and may be accompanied by flame, vapor or smoke at the engine inlet and or exhaust can be termed as: (1) mild stall (2) severe stall (3) explosive stall Treager, P-176 498. Engine failure or malfunction more commonly full effects of a stall can be termed as: (1) mild stall (2) severe stall (3) explosive stall Treager, P-176 499. Gas turbine engines can be classified according to the: (1) type of compressor used (2) the path the air takes through the engine (3) the way power produced is extract or used (4) all the above Treager, P-9 500. Compressor types fall into how may categories: (1) one (2) two (3) three Treager, P-9 501 A turboprop may be considered a form of: (1) turbo shaft (2) turbojet Treager, P-9 (3) turbofan (4) four

(4) none

502 Compression is achieved in a centrifugal flow engine by accelerating air outward: (1) parallel to the longitudinal axis of the machine (2) perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the machine (3) either parallel or longitudinal axis of the machine Treager, P-9

503 The principle advantages of centrifugal compressor are: (1) low weigth (2) simplicity (3) low cost Treager, P-9

(4) all the above

504 Compression is achieved in the axial flow type of the engine by accelerating air outward: (1) perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the machine (2) parallel to the longitudinal axis of the machine (3) either perpendicular or parallel to the longitudinal axis of the machine Treager, P-9 505. The principal advantages of centrifugal compressor are: (1) raggedness and therefore resistance to foreign object damage (2) high compressor ratio per stage (with a limited number of stages) (3) high tolerance of off design condition (4) all the above Treager, P-9 506. A spool is defined as a group of compressor stages, a shaft and one or more turbine stages: (1) mechanically linked and rotating at the same speed (2) mechanically linked and rotating at the different speed (3) mechanically independent and rotating at the same speed Treager, P-12 507. In turbojet engine, all of the propulsive for produced by the engine is derived from: (1) imbalance of forces within the engine itself (2) imbalance of forces outside the engine itself (3) balance of forces within the engine itself (4) balance of forces outside the engine itself Treager, P-15 508. The main advantages of turbojet engines are: (1) small frontal area (2) lightest specific weight (3) ability to take advantage of high ram pressure ratios (4) all the above Treager, P-15 509. One of the main characteristics of turbojet engine is: (1) relatively low, thrust specific fuel consumption at low altitudes and air speeds (2) relatively high, thrust specific fuel consumption at low altitudes and air speeds (3) relatively high, thrust specific fuel consumption at high altitudes and air speeds (4) none of the above Treager, P-15 510. One of the main disadvantage of the turbojet engine: (1) long take off roll (2) small take off roll (3) medium take off roll (4) none of the above Treager, P-15 511 In case of turbojet engine, mark the correct statement:

(1) only a small amount of jet thrust is available in relatively low pressure, low velocity gas stream (2) only a large amount of jet thrust is available in relatively low pressure, low velocity gas stream (3) only a small amount of jet thrust is available in relatively high pressure, high velocity gas stream (4) only a large amount of jet thrust is available in relatively low pressure, high velocity gas stream Treager, P-15 512 The main characteristics of turbo prop engines is high propulsive efficiency at low airspeeds which results in: (1) shorter take off rolls (2) longer take off rolls (3) medium take off rolls (4) both (a) and (c) are correct Treager, P-15 513 The main characteristics of turbo prop engine is: (1) lowest TSFC (2) possibility of efficient reverse thrust (3) more complicated design and heavier weight than a turbojet (4) all the above Treager, P-15 514 The turbo prop engine is able to develop high thrust at low air speeds because: (1) propeller can accelerate large quantities of air at zero forward velocity of airplane (2) propeller can accelerate small quantities of air at zero forward velocity of airplane (3) either (a) or (b) Treager, P-15 515. Turbo prop engines are superior for lifting heavy loads off at: (1) short and medium length runways (2) medium and longer length runways (3) short and longer length runways (4) either (a) or (b) Treager, P-15 516. One of the basic requirements for thrust reverser is that it should: (1) not affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the a/c adversely (2) as in (a) & not cause re ingestion of the gas stream into the compressor (3) as in (b) and not increase drag by increasing engine & nacelle frontal area (4) as in (c) and not affect the basic operation of the engine Treager, P-219 517. (I.) Same thrust can be otained by either giving a large mass of air a little extra velocity or a small mass of air a large extra velocity. (II.) The ramjet has no major rotating part. Regarding above statements: (1) Only (1) is true (2) Only (2) is true (3) None is true (4) Both are true. RR pg (3) 518 In gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at .. whereas in the piston

engine it occurs at a .. (1) constant pressure & constant temperature (2) constant volume & constant pressure (3) constant volume & constant pressure (3) constant pressure & constant volume. RR pg. 8 519 An engines EPR is the ratio of the turbine discharge pressure to the (1) compressor outlet pressure (2) turbine inlet pressure (3) engine inlet pressure (4) both (a) & (c). APP pg.3-5 520 A turbofan engines thrust ratio is comparison of thrust produced by the fan to the thrust produced by (1) engine bypass (2) engine core inlet (3) engine core bypass (4) engine core exhaust APP pg. 3-6 521 Bypass ratio of turbofan engine is defined as the ratio of incoming air that flow through bypass to the air that passes through the (1) engine inlet (2) engine core (3) engine exhaust (4) engine aft fan. APP pg. 3-6 522 Fan pressure ratio is the ratio of air pressure leaving the fan to air pressure entering the (1) engine bypass (2) fan (3) engine core (4) none of these

APP pg. 3-7

523 Purpose of compressor manifold in centrifugal engine is: (1) it distribute the air in turbulence free condition to combustion section (2) it distribute the air in turbulence free condition to compressor inlet section (3) both (1) and (2) (4) none APP pg. 3-14 524 Some compressor blade have a reduced thickness at tips and referred to as: (1) profile tip (2) squeeler tip (3) flat machine tip (4) (1) or (2) GTE pg. 3-17 525. In dual spool engine , compressor ratio for each compressor is N1=4:1 and N2=5:1 where N1 and N2 are compression ratios of LPC and HPC . Total compression is how much: (1) 9:1 (2) 20:1 (3) 1:1 (4) (4)5:1 GTE pg. 3-20 526. The rated thrust of an engine is determined by (1) how much the forward thrust force exceeds the rearward thrust force (2) how much the rearward thrust force exceeds the forward thrust force (3) multiplying forward and rearward forces (4) none of the above is correct GTE pg. 2-23

527. The efficient conversion of kinetic energy to propulsive work is called (1) propulsive efficiency (2) external efficiency (3) internal efficiency (4) both 1 and 2 are correct RR pg. 223 528. Which of the following feature(s) of centrifugal compressor is correct (1) it attributes to simplicity (2) less susceptible to damage from foreign objects (3) high pressure rise per stage (4) none of the above are wrong APP pg. 3-14 529. As the inlet temperature increases, the compression ratio will tend to decrease due to (1) decrease in air density (2) temperature effects on the angle of attack (3) both a and b are correct (4) compression ratio is not affected by inlet temperature GTE pg. 3-19 530. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the : (1) number of compressor stages (2) rotor diameter (3) diffuser area (4) air inlet velocity APP pg 3-14 531 How is the turbine shaft usually joined to the compressor rotor of a centrifugal compressor turbine engine ? (1) bolted coupling (2) splined coupling (3) welded coupling (4) keyed coupling GTE pg. 3-41 532 By pass ratio is defined as the ratio of (1) the amount of air that by passes to the total amount of airflow (2) the amount of air that flows through the core to that by passes (3) the amount of air that by passes to that flowing through the core (4) the amount of air that passes through the compressor to the total air flow GTE pg. 3-20 533 The air inlets encircling in whole or a part of the fuselage powerplant pod or nacelle are called : (1) nose inlets (2) scope air inlets (3) flush inlets (4) annular inlets. GTE 534 The plenum chamber is a storage place for : (1) oil sludge (2) accumulated fuel vapours APP pg. 3-14 (3 ) pressurised air (4) air

535. The burning of additional amount of fuel inside the jet-pipe for increasing the thrust is a method of : (1).Thrust augmentation (2) thrust reversal (3) noise suppression (4) power increasement RR pg. 169

536. The maximum air pressure is available inside : (1) air intake (2) compressor section (3) diffuser section APP pg. 3-20

(4) combustion chamber

537. The reversal tendency of airflow from high pressure area to low pressure area in case of an axial flow engine is referred as : (1) compressor surge (2) turbulent air flow (3) air blow-by (4) compressor stall GTE pg. 3-24 538. The surging of compressor can be eliminated by employing : (1). Lowering the blade angle (2) incorporation of air-bleed valves (3)incorporation of independent compressor shaft for high pressure & low pressure compressors (4) all the above are correct GTE pg. 3-26, -28, -29 539. The can-type combustion chambers are more advantageous to be used in : (1). Axial-flow engines (2) centrifugal flow engines (3) both axial flow and centrifugal flow engines (4) none of the above is correct APP pg. 3-22 540. Temperature of hot gases are lowered before the entry at the turbine by the air passing through (1) primary zone (2) secondary zone (3)tertiary zone (4) by-pass zone RR pg. 37 541 Mark the correct statement for the NGV (1) pressure increases & velocity decreases increases (3) as in (a) & guides in proper direction direction APP pg. 3-25 (2) pressure decreases & velocity (4) as in (2) & guides the air in proper

542 Highest temperature in turbine blade is involved at (1) root (2) tip (3) middle (4) complete portion of the blade APP pg. 3-28 543 Holes drilled on the side of the turbine blades known as (1) gill holes (2) nose holes (3) side holes APP fig. 3-53 (4) L/E holes

544 The extraction of energy from the hot gases to drive the compressor and accessories is accomplished by (1) NGV (2) IGV (3) Tail cone section (4)Turbine assembly APP pg. 3-25 545. The permanent elongation of turbine blades when subjected to very high temperature is defined as (1) Thermal loading (2) Shock loading (3) Creep (4) Thermal stress APP pg. 3-26

546. The stator in an turbine section acts as a (1) diffuser (2) nozzle (3) partially diffuser APP pg. 3-25

(4)neither diffuser nor nozzle

547. The part of a gas turbine engine that accommodates a plenum chamber is (1) combustion chamber (2) turbine (3) exhaust system (4) centrifugal compressor APP pg. 3-14 548. The diffuser unit of a gas turbine engine has (1) comergent passage (2) divergent passage parallel passage APP pg. 3-14 549. Stalling and surging is associated with (1) axial flow compressors (2) turbines speed aircraft GTE pg 3-14 (3) convergent divergent passage (4)

(3) centrifugal flow compressor

(4) high

550. Inlet guide vanes are located ahead of (1) axial flow compressors (2) centrifugal flow compressors diffuser APP pg. 3-17

(3) turbines

(4)

551 The purpose of perforated inner liner of a flame tube is (1) to permit the hot gases to escape & meet the by pass air (2) to permit the fuel from spraying around the combustion chamber (3) to permit the secondary air to enter & cool the walls of flame tube (4) to spread the flame to the adjacent cans APP pg. 3-22, -23 552 To prevent blade tip losses and excessive vibration while rotation, turbine blades are (1) twisted (2) shrouded (3) balanced (4) fastened firmly with the disc APP pg. 3-28 553 The basic difference between a 'Diffuser' & a 'Nozzle' is (1) diffuser increase pressure of flow while nozzle decrease the pressure of flow (2) diffuser decrease pressure of flow while nozzle increase the pressure of flow (3) There is no difference between a diffuser & nozzle (4) diffuser & nozzle both increase the velocity of airflow APP pg. 3-20,-25 554 The 'aniti surge valve' or ' bleed valve' is fitted on the _________- casing of a gas turbine engine (1) compressor (2) combustion chamber (3) air intake (4) turbine APP pg. 3-20 555. The type of cooling to referred for turbine blades stators are (1) convection & transpiration (2) convection only (3) conduction & radiation liquid cooling (4)

APP pg. 3-28 556. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are (1) single entry and double entry (2) rotor and stator (3) impeller and diffuser above are correct APP pg. 3-13 (4) all

557. Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called (1) buckets (2) rotors (3) stators (4) reactors APP pg. 3-17 558. In a compressor space between surge line and working lines called (1)Safety margin on surge margin (2) Stable zone unstable zone (3)Unstable zone (4) Stagger zone GTE pg. 3-27 559. NGVs of turbine are usually (1)Hollow (2) Solid (3) Air cooled APP pg. 3-28 560. Combustion chamber used in a modern jet engines are (1)Can annular type (2)Annular type (3)Can type and 2 APP pg. 3-23 (4) As per (1) & (2) above

(4) As stated in 1

561 Compressor pressure ratio of an engine compressor depends upon (1)Ambient pressure (2) Ambient temperature and ambient pressure (3)Speed and ambient pressure (4)Speed, mass airflow and ambient temperature GTE pg. 3-19 562 Mark the correct statement (1) Geometric pitch is the distance a propeller should travel in one rotations (2) Effective pitch is the actual distance traveled by the propeller in on rotations (3) Slip is the difference between geometric pitch and effective pitch (4) All of the above AMP pg. 326 563 Angle of attack of a propeller is (1) Angle between chord line and plane of rotations (2) Angle between chord line and relative wind direction (3) Angle between chord line and longitudinal axis the aircraft AMP pg. 327 564 In a jet engine V.S.V and variable I.G.V are a part of (1) High pressure compressor (2) Low pressure compressor (3) Accessory drive (4) None of the above APP pg.3-19

565. Gas velocity is highest at (1)Inlet (2) Compressor APP pg. 3-25 566. Annular chamber is (1) type of compressor chamber chamber (3) a oval/sqare shape multy pieces chamber

(3) Turbine

(4) Diffuser

(OTTIS G 1) (2) A cylindrical one piece combustion (4) none above

567. Ambient air is (OTTIS G- 1) (1) atmospheric ground air (2) atmospheric air at altitude (3) the atmospheric air that surround all sides of the aircraft or engine (4) no 1 & 3 are correct 598. Aborted start is (1) engine does not start (OTTIS G 1)

(2) a delayed engine start (3) engine starting abandoned when (light off) does not occur within prescribed time limit (4) only no. 2 is correct 569. Mark correct statement about aerofoil (OTTIS G 1) (1) a surface designed to fly in the air (2) a surface developed to be floated in the air (3) a surface designed to obtain a useful reaction upon it surface from the air through which it moves (4) none above 570. Combustor is called (OTTIS G 1) (1) the combustion chamber outer cover (2) the combustion chamber outlet (3) the section of the engine where fuel and air mixture is formed and gases is produced (4) none above is correct 571 A typical gas turbine engine consists of (12A P 39) (1) an air inlet (2) compressor section (3) combustion section (4) in addiction of above system necessary for starting & stopping, lubrication, fuel system and many more system for auxiliary purposes 572 The greatest engine factor influencing the construction of any gas turbine engine (12A P 39) (1) is shape of the engine (2) is the length of the engine

(3) is the type compressor designed for the engine

(4) none of the above

573 The amount of air passing through the engine depends upon (12A P 41) (1) the compressor speed (2) the forward speed of the a/c (3) the density of the ambient air (4) all above are correct 574 When accessory case is used as oil reservoir it is known as (1) empty sump engine (2) dry sump engine (3) wet sump engine (4) oil reservoir engine (12A P 41)

575. Primary function of accessory section in Jet engine (12A P 41) (1) accessories are to function correctly (2) accessories must be as light as possible (3) to provide space for mounting of all accessories (4) none of the above 576. Main function of an inlet duct is to P 92) (1) lower the velocity of incoming airflow airflow (3) furnish the proper amount of air to the engine inlet (12A (2) reduce amount of incoming (4) none above

577. Fuselage scoop are placed as per as forward because (12A P 92) (1) making the airflow characteristics turbulent (2) making the airflow slow (3) to remove bend (4) as in 3 small rods is sometime placed to prevent turbulence 578. Mark correct answer about insulated blanket on tail pipe (1) this insulated blanket protect the fuselage from heat radiation (2) they reduces heat losses from the exhaust system (3) reduction of heat losses improves engine performances also correct (12A P 59) (4) as in 1 2 & 3 are (12A

579. Mark correct statement about split spool compressor P 58) (1) in split spool compressor both component is rotated by single turbine (2) in split spool compressor each compressor stage is connected separate turbine (3) a third turbine is needed for free turbine (4) none above is correct

580. Mark the correct statement about engine be (12A P 61) (1) the initial function of the bearing is to support main engine (2) the number of bearing necessary for the particular engine the decided by the length and weight of the engine rotor (3) number of bearing be decided that how many bearing can be installed (4) all above are correct 581 About Jet nozzle design mark correct statement (12A P 61) (1) diverging jet nozzle for subsonic a/c (2) covering nozzle for subsonic a/c

(3) coverging nozzle for sonic a/c

(4) none above

582 For proper fitness of bearing on rotor shaft (12A P 63) (1) a housing is made on the frame (2) a bearing surface is usually provided by a machine journal on the appropriate shaft (3) both 1 and 2 are correct (4) none above is correct 583 Turbo shaft engine is called (12A P 63) (1) a turbojet engine fitted with extra shaft 2 . a gas turbine engine fitted with propeller (3) a gas turbine engine which delivers power through shaft to operate something other than propeller (4) none above 584 Big advantages in turbofan engine P 64) (1) it produces additional thrust by bearing more fuel (2) it produces more thrust without burning more fuel (3) it does not produce more thrust (4) none above is correct 585. Turbofan is also called P 65) (1) twice fan engine (3) fan jet engine (12A

(12A (2) single fan engine (4) none above is correct (12A

586. The most factors affecting the thermal efficiency of Jet engine is P 67) (1) OAT, RPM and ambient temp. (2) compressor inlet temp OAT and EPR (3) TIT, compression ratio as component efficiency of compressor and turbine none above 587. Compressor and turbine efficiency can be improved upon by 2 - 33) (1) improved material (2) design technology (3) minimizing the tolerances 588. When TIT is more, turbine bucket life (1) increases (2) decreases (3) remain same(4) no change in life

(4) (OTTIS

(4) all above

(12A P 68)

589. Air outlet valve with terming valve (12A P 44) (1) it increases airflow (2) it increases the pressure of the air (3) it prevents air pressure losses (4) none above is correct 590. Axial flow compressor (12A P 45) (1) has radial impillow (2) each stage has one rotor and one stator (3) rotor blades are correct (4) none are correct

591 Mark correct statement about jet engine (12A P 39) (1) in jet engine function of install, compression, combustion and exhaust take place in one chamber (2) in jet engine separate section is developed for separate function (3) in jet engine all the separate function performed simultaneously (4) 2 and 3 are correct 592 The greatest factor influencing the construction of jet engine is (1) turbine construction (2) air inlet construction (3) type compressor fitted with the engine (4) none above 593 A typical gas engine works, based on the cycles P - 39-40 ) (1) cycle (2) whittle cycle (3) Brayton cycle none above 594 Primary function of accessory section is P 41) (1) prepare space for mounting accessories (3) control the open of all accessories (12A P 39)

(12A (4) (12A

(2) arrange accessories in sequence (4) none (12A

595. Amount of air passing through engine depend upon P 40) (1) RPM of the engine (2) find speed of the a/c (3) density of ambient air (4) all above are correct 596. To diffuse the incoming air xxx chamber is utilized in P 40) (1) single entry duct (2) double entry duct (3) open duct engine 597. Mark correct statement about inlet screen P 95) (1) inlet screen are placed to prevent fod ingestion (2) in fan engine ingested object will be thrown radially outward (3) inlet screen has both advantages and dis advantages (4) all are correct 598. Mark correct statement about short duct P 91) (1) short duct opt to suffer inlet turbulence (2) short and straight duct result in minimum pressure drop (3) both statement wrong (4) both above statement correct

(12A (4) none above (12A

(12A

599. Scoop at the side of the fuselage kept as far as possible to (12A P 92) (1) permit velocity increase (2) permit velocity decrease (3) permit more airflow to compressor (4) to permit gradual bend to wards the comp inlet 600. Before air enter the compressor (12A P 93)

(1) velocity of air to be increased (2) velocity of the air to the decreased (3) velocity of the air to decrease and static pressure to increase (4) all the above are correct 601 Bell mouth air inlet (1) used on high Mach flt (4) none above (2) used on all type of inlet (12A P 94) (3) used on ground test stand

602 In fan jet engine (12A P 95) (1) forward fan engine protect main part of the engine in addition of pushing air rearward (2) forward fan is replacement of propeller (3) forward fan is made out of fibre glass (4) none of the above 603 Mark correct statement about air inlet screen P 95) (1) screen helps in pressure build up (2) screen causes pressure loss (3) screen are fail safe (4) none of the above 604 In divided entrance duct a series of small rod are fitted to (1) increase the air flow (2) decrease the air flow (3) to straighten the air flow (4) none of the above (12A

(12A P 92)

605. In turbine exhaust duct, some engine are trimmed to correct temperature and performance. In doing so a small adjustable piece used is called 12A P 102) (1) a small trimming tab (2) a small adjustable piece (3) mice (4) none above 606. In turbine engine when gas exhaust suitably blocked & diverted the process known as (12A P 103) (1) exhaust reverser (2) exhaust enhancer (3) thrust reverser (4) all above 607. The advantages of thrust reverser are P 103) (1) provide a ground of speed braking force air speed (3) when deployed in air increases rate of sacking reversed is on (12A (2) it is a means of slowing the (4) as in 1, 2 & 3 when xx (OTTIS

608. Mark correct statement radial inflow turbine 3 43) (1) radial inflow turbine good for big engine (2) radial inflow turbine has single as well as multi stage efficiency (3) low cost and simplicity in design (4) all above are correct 609. Turbine blades are retained in their grooves 3 42) (1) rivets, lock tabs, lock wise and roll pins

(OTTIS (2) split pin, lock wise and taper

pin (3) spring tab, split pin and roll pin 610. In two stage turbine 3 41) (1) N2 is called low pressure turbine (3) N2 turbine is equal to N1 turbine

(4) by any above method (OTTIS (2) N2 is called high pressure turbine (4) none above

611 Mark the correct statement about turbine and compressor (OTTIS 3 41) (1) N2 turbine is closer low compressor (2) N2 turbine is closer to high pressure compressor (3) N2 turbine is the nearest turbine (4) no. 3 is correct 612 FA & EEC are related to system in jet engine 3 43) (1) oil system (2) oil seavenge system (3) fuel system (4) engine P2 system 613 Now generator Aluminium alloy with iron and xxxx can tolerate time upto (Treager 236) (1) 7500 F (2) 6000 F (3) 6500 F (4) none above 614. 48 Aluminium alloy, include lithium is (Treager 236) (1) inferior to other aluminium alloy (2) superior fatigue resistant and will last longer (3) will not last longer to other Aluminium alloy (4) none above 615. Mark correct statement about short peeing (1) shot peeing done with round metallic shot with high speed (2) shot peeing can be done only on ferrous metal (3) as in 1 it can be done on ferrous as well on non ferrous metal 616. (Treager 236) (4) all above correct (OTTIS

Inlet duct size shape and placement on engine depends upon (Treager 162) (1) size of the engine (2) shape of the engine (3) by the location of the engine (4) all above 617. Compressor stall is indicated by (1) stumbling noise, EGT rise, RPM fluctuation (3) EGT and RPM fluctuation and RPM normal noise 618. (Treager 176) (2) low noise, low EGT, high RPM (4) all above correct

Mark correct statement which will cause blade stall (Treager 177) (1) RPM increases without inlet velocity increase redness (3) compatible RPM with inlet velocity 619. On exhaust cone vanes are used for (Treager 203) (1) increase gas flow

(2) inlet velocity decreases with (4) none above

(2) decrease gas flow

(3) straightening gas flow and structure support 620 In turbine construction (1) each succeeding stages receive more gas energy less gas energy (3) there is no change in gas energy 621 In method of thrust augmentation wet- thrust (Treager 225) (1) is called when water injection not used is used (3) fuel is added in wet thrust 622 In water injection liquid is vaporized it causes (1) decreases density and man airflow in compressor is compressor (3) water injection has no effect in engine 623 Cobalt base alloys is used on engine (Treager 236) (1) compressor blade, inlet duct and vanes vanes (3) after burner, turbine, vanes and blades 624. Mark which is not a compressor stalls condition (Treager 177) (1) normal air velocity, high rpm high angle of attack (2) low air velocity , normal rpm, high angle of attack (3) normal air velocity low rpm, high angle of attack (4) normal air velocity , rpm and angle of attack

(4) none above (Treager 205) (2) in each succeeding stages receive (4) all are correct

(2) wet thrust when water injection (4) none is correct (Treager 227) (2) increases density and man airflow (4) none above is correct

(2) turbine blade, after burner & (4) both 2 & 3 correct

625. Mark correct statement about combustion chamber (Treager 191) (1) stamped sheet metal combustion chamber offer increased TBO life, low maintenance cost and confirm temperature distinction (2) rolled ring combustor offer above all characteristics (3) float wall combustor design not good 4 none of the above 626. Mark the correct statement about exhaust nozzle (1) generally convergent divergent nozzle area will be fixed (2) the area of the jet nozzle not critical (3) convergent nozzle will have a fixed area (4) convergent divergent nozzle area will be variable (Treager Page 205)

627. Mark the correct statement about engine station no. (Ottis Ch 3 64) (1) engine manufactures number locations either along of the gas path (2) stations number start at either the flight cowling inlet or the engine inlet (3) engine symbols such as PT and TT often used in conjunction with station number (4) all above are correct 628. The terms right and left hand, clockwise and counter clockwise apply (Ottis

Ch 3 67) (1) viewed from the front of the engine of the engine (3) viewed from the rear of the engine looking forward

(2) viewed from the rear (4) none above

629. In a propeller reduction gearbox type of gear used is (Ottis 4 43) (1) bevel type gear (2) worm gear (3) manet gear (4) none above 630 Line maintenance means (Ottis 5 1) (1) instruction replacement and repairs done when engine removed off the aircraft (2) inspection replacement and repairs done on the engine while it is installed in the a/c (3) it can be at any condition (4) none above 631 Foreign object damage is (Ottis 5 3) (1) damage arises from foreign matter being drain into the engine inlet (2) damage to compressor blades because of sand and stone ingress (3) damage can also be caused by objects dropped into the gas path or internal parts during maintenance (4) it can be all above 632 Fine turbine meaning (Ottis 4 39) (1) it has an independent operating speed from the compressor turbine (2) it is coupled with compressor turbine (3) it can be either one (4) all above 633 Mark the correct answer about engine mounts (1) turbojet engine mount are of heavy construction (2) turbojet engine mount are not heavy construction (3) turboprop engine mount are proportionately heavy correct (Ottis 3 62) (4) none above is

634. Titanium is used in turbine engine because (Ottis 3 62) (1) low density, low weight, high specific strength (2) high density, low weight high specific strength (3) low density, low weight, high specific strength and corrosion resistance (4) all above are correct 635. Combustion case and turbine often made of nickel bar alloys namely reffered 3 62) (1) Hestalloy (2) hene 22 (3) inconel (4) none above 636. Super alloy is used where (1) high thermal stresses prevent (3) high vibratory stresses are present (Ottis 3 63) (2) high tensile stresses act (4) all above (Ottis

637. Manufacturing process adopted in turbine blade construction are (TREAGER MANUF. PROCESS) (1) forging, casting and machining (2) forging, casting, machining

and mating (3) forging, casting, machining and mating or plasma spraying

(4) none above

638. About annular reverse flow combustor correct statement (Ottis 3 33) (1) it has different function than other annular combustor (2) it has more weight than other combustor (3) reverse flow management provides shorter length and with reduction and also preheat the compressor discharge air (4) it deflect gas flow to go degrees only 639. Scaling corrosion is caused by (TREAGER MANUF. PROCESS) (1) occurs by presence of sodium in the air (2) by presence of sulphur in the fuel (3) occurs at high temperature when any one of above present (4) none above 640 Turbine dise are mostly manufactured from (1) nickel base material (2) vanadium and nickel base material (3) cobalt base material (4) none above (Ottis 3 64)

641 Mark the correct statement about turbine engine (Ottis 3 64) (1) turbine type is the limiting factor about power output (2) compressor type is the limiting factor about power output (3) size and length is the limiting factor about power output (4) material strength is the till today is the most limiting factor about power output 642 In compressor construction bleed air can be taped P 42) (1) the parts can be located at any stage (2) the parts always located at the beginning of the compressor (3) air is often bled from the final or highest pressure stage (4) none above is correct 643 Bleed air can be utilized for P 42) (1) cabin pressurization (3) pneumatic starting of the engine instruments also (12A

(12A (2) deicing and anti icing (4) for above all purposes and for running (12A (2) decrease the velocity of the (4) helps in reducing air (12A

644 In centrifugal compressor purpose of turning vanes are P 44) (1) increasing air pressure airflow (3) turning vanes turn the airflow pressure losses 645. Compression ratio is higher per stage in P 48) (1) in axial flow engine

(2) centrifugal flow engine (3) compression ratio can be increased and decreased in both type engine above are correct

(4) all

646. Compressor manifold outlet elbow is called (12A P 44) (1) air outlet ducts (2) outlet elbows (3) combustion chamber inlet ducts (4) by any of these nomenclature 647. Mark the correct statement (12A P 47) (1) disk type rotors are used almost exclusively in all present day engine (2) compressor is not needed in jet engine (3) compressor dia remains equal through its length (4) axial flow compressor has fixed stages of ratio 648. Compressor blade Profiles has P 46) (1) no purpose in its making (2) only a design (3) it protect blade or compressor casing should the blade contact the housing (4) all above are correct 649. In axial flow compressor (12A P 48) (1) single spool compressor has more efficiency (2) solid spool compressor has more efficiency (3) split spool compressor has more efficiency (4) it does not matter in number of stages 650 Types of combustion chamber (1) can type combustion chamber (3) the can annular chamber above type (12A P 49) (2)annular or basket type (4) an engine can be fitted with any (12A (12A

651 Location of the combustion chamber P 48) (1) location has no factor in engine (2) combustion chamber is always at the end of the engine (3) and directly between the compressor and turbine sections (4) combustion chamber is ahead of exhaust section 652 Purpose of drain valve in combustion chamber (1) to drain burnt fuel

(12A P 48)

(2) to drain excess fuel (3) to drain unburnt fuel accumulated during stopping of engine and at failed start (4) 2 and 3 correct 653 Can type combustion chamber are fitted with igniter plug of P 50) (12A

(1) two number of igniter plug (2) three number of igniter plug (3) always located on the topmost burner (4) generally located at bottom of the burner and two number 654. Can type combustion chamber is numbered P 49) (1) standing at the back start from top one and counting clockwise (2) standing at the back from top one and counting anti clockwise (3) numbering always start from the bottom (4) has no sequence 655. Swirl vane in combustion chamber performs P 52) (1) better mixing of air and fuel answering spontaneous burning (2) swirling eliminates flame moving axially to rapidly (3) swirling aids in flame propagation (4) all are correct 656. Three most important factors affecting the thermal efficiency are P 66) (1) turbine outlet temp. compression ratio and compressor and turbine efficiency (2) turbine inlet temp. compression ratio and compressor and turbine efficiency (3) turbine inlet temp. compression ratio and EPR (4) none above 657. When efficiency of compressor and turbine is high, overhaul thrust of the engine P 67) (1) decreases (2) increases (3) remain constant (4) no effect 658. Brayton cycle (1) a varying volume and constant pressure cycle (2) a varying pressure and constant volume cycle (3) a varying pressure and volume cycle correct 659. Free turbine rotates P 55) (1) in combination with LP turbine turbine (3) rotates a long with LP and HP turbine 660 Bearing use in turbojet engines are P 61) (1) always ball bearing (3) combination of ball and roller bearing of the engine 661 Mark the correct answer P 58) (12A

(12A

(12A

(12A

(12A P 39) (4) none above is (12A (2) in combination with HP (4) rotates independently (12A (2) must be roller bearing (4) as in 3 and also as per requirement (12A

(1) methods of connecting the shaft to the turbine vary (2) one method use is by welding (3) other method use by bolting (4) in adopting above method bolting method is more common 662 About the compressor inlet temperature P 68) (1) more the inlet temp turbine bucket life increases (2) more the inlet temp. turbine bucket life reduces (3) compressor inlet temp. has no effect on turbine life (4) all above are correct 663 Turbojet engine at constant airspeed and rpm P 68) (1) altitude has no effect on thrust (2) higher the altitude more thrust produced (3) higher the altitude less thrust output is correct 664 Turbo shaft engine (1) a type of fluid engine (12A

(12A

(4) none above (12A P 63)

(2) a type of reciprocating engine (3) a type of gas turbine engine that delivers power to operate something other than a propeller (4) all above are correct 665 Noise level of an engine (1) vary with the engine thrust engine (3) vary with exhaust velocity 666. Shrouding of turbine blades P 57) (1) improves efficiency (3) permits lighter stage weights (12A P 105) (2) proportional to the amount of work done by the (4) all are correct when engine is operating (12A (2) improves vibration characteristics (4) all are correct (12A P 106) (2) multi tube type (4) both 1 & 2 are correct

667. About the noise suppressor is current use (1) corrugated perimeter type (3) noise suppressor not installed on turbojet engine

668. About fan engine mark correct answer (12A P 64) (1) fan engine requires larger turbine stage to provide additional power to drive the fan (2) fan engine produces less noise (3) fan engine develop more thrust (4) as in 1,2 and 3 less prone to FOD damage 669. Turbofan engine sometimes called P 63) (12A

(1) rear jet (3) fan jet

(2) front jet (4) alone above

670 Turboprop engine (12A P 63) (1) is a combination of gas turbine and a fan (2) is combination of gas turbine and a propeller (3) is a combination of gas turbine and additional turbine

(4) none above

671.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

What is VTOL /STOL :Vertical take off and landing (a) or short take off and landing very high take off and landing shortage of take off and landing (Rolls Royas, Page-187) What are methods possible for providing powered lift :Deflecting ( or vectoring) the exhaust gases and hence the thrust of the engine Using specially designed engines for lift only swiveling the engine anyone or two of the above or using bleed air from engine to increase circulations around wing and hence increase lift (Rolls Royas, Page-189)

672.
(5) (6) (7) (8)

673.
(9)

What is lift / propulsion engine :this engine is capable of providing thrust for both normal wing borne flight and for lift (10) this engine provides no lift or thrust (11) this type of engines are not used at all (12) all above are correct
(Rolls Royas, Page-189)

674.
(13) (14) (15) (16)

Lift / propulsion engine produces normal thrust or lift by :changing the directions of the thrust as in (a) + either by a deflector system or by a device known as switch in deflector system (1) + (2) is correct all above are wrong (Rolls Royas, Page-189) Deflector system consists of :One, two or four swiveling nozzles As in (1) or switch in deflector redirects the gases through one or two down ward facing lift nozzles No deflectors are fitted in lift engine Only (3) is right answer (Rolls Royas, Page-189) Thrust deflection on a single nozzle is accomplished by :Connecting together sections of the jet pipe As in (1) + the joint faces of which are so angled that As in (1) and (2) + when the sections are counter rotated the nozzle moves from horizontal to vertical position All above are wrong (Rolls Royas, Page-191)

675.
(17) (18) (19) (20)

676.
(21) (22) (23) (24)

677.
(25) (26) (27) (28)

Lift engine :produces the forward thrust only produces the rear ward thrust only lift engine is designed to produce vertical thrust for take off and landing phase of V/STOL a/c All above are right answers (Rolls Royas, Page-191) Lift engines are not used in normal flight, if used then :It should be a very heavy constructions It should be a very large engine It must be light and have a small volume As in (3) + to avoid causing large penalty on the a/c (Rolls Royas, Page-192)

678.
(29) (30) (31) (32)

679.
(33) (34) (35) (36)

The lift fan engine is designed to :Increase the ground erosion Increase the jet noise To reduce the ground erosion and to allow operations from unprepared ground surface (1) + (2) is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-192) Remote lift engines system :duct the bypass air as in (a) or engine exhaust air to downward facing nozzles remote from the engine nozzles may be in front fuselage of the a/c or in the wings all above are correct (Rolls Royas, Page-193)

680.
(37) (38) (39) (40)

681.
(41) (42) (43) (44)

682.
(45) (46) (47) (48)

Swiveling engines :consist of having propulsion engines which can be mechanically swiveled through at least 90 to produce thrust vectoring these engines do not produce vertical lift these are very heavy engines all above are wrong answers (Rolls Royas, Page-194) Swiveling engines system on the VTOL :can be used with one such engine can only be used with two or more engines cannot be used normal civil transport a/c all above are wrong (Rolls Royas, Page-194) Lift thrust augmentation can be achieved in a number of different ways :using special engines burning in the lift nozzles gas flow by means of an ejector system anyone of the above method can be used in VTOL (Rolls Royas, Page-194)

683.
(49) (50) (51) (52)

684.
(53) (54) (55) (56)

As a result of high ambient temperature the special rating engine may suffer a thrust loss which can be restored by :Means of the water injections into the combustion chamber Power cannot be restored in these engines EGT can go to any circuit All above are wrong answers (Rolls Royas, Page-195)

685.
(57) (58) (59) (60)

The thrust of a remote lift jet engine can be augmented by :By burning fuel in a combustion chamber just upstream of the lift nozzles By burning water in the jet pipe By providing water out side the jet engine All above are wrong (Rolls Royas, Page-195) V/ STOL aircraft have : Low forward speed during T/O A high forward speed during T/O There is no provision of high lift All above are wrong answers (Rolls Royas, Page-197) V/STOL type aircraft :Has low forward speed during T/O and transition do not permit adequate aerodynamic forces from the flight control surfaces As in (1) + needs additional method of controlling pitch, roll and yaw. There is no requirement of controlling pitch, yaw and roll All above are wrong answers (Rolls Royas, Page-197) Thrust reversal system is used :This is an additional method to bring the a/c to rest within the required distance Direction of exhaust gases is reversed This system is most effective on wet, icy or snow covered runways All above are wrong answers (Rolls Royas, Page-159)

686.
(61) (62) (63) (64)

687.
(65) (66) (67) (68)

688.
(69) (70) (71) (72)

689.
(73) (74) (75) (76)

On high bypass (fan) engines, reverse thrust is a achieved by :Reversing the directions of propelling nozzle Reversing the fan airflow Reversing the directions of turbines None is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-159)

690.
(77) (78) (79) (80)

The following methods are in use for thrust reversal system:Clamshell door type Cold stream reverser Bucket type of thrust reverser Any one of the above method may be used (Rolls Royas, Page-160)

691.
(81) (82) (83) (84)

The bucket type of thrust reversal system is operated :Hydraulically Mechanically by hand Cold stream method None of the above (Rolls Royas, Page-164)

692.
(85) (86) (87) (88)

During normal forward thrust operations :The clamshell and bucket doors are flush with the casing They protrude out and provide extra drag These are not used at all These are not subjected to high temperature (Rolls Royas, Page-166) In cold stream thrust reverser system :It is not subjected to high temp. Casing blocker doors and cowl are made of album alloy or composite material

693.
(89) (90)

(91) (92)

Both (1) + (2) are wrong Both (1)+ (2) are right (Rolls Royas, Page-167)

694.
(93) (94) (95) (96)

Reverse thrust is operated from the cockpit by :By means of a special lever By means of a special lever connected with the throttle lever No lever is in the cockpit It is automatically operated (Rolls Royas, Page-160)

695.
(97) (98) (99) (100)

Reverse thrust is operated normally :When the throttle is at idle position When the throttles at take off position No concern with throttle lever It is operated by the H.P. Cock (Rolls Royas, Page-160)

696.
(101) (102) (103) (104)

The effective power during reverse thrust operation is :Double than in normal forward thrust position Is proportionately less than the power in forward thrust for the same throttle angle It does not matter at all All above are wrong (Rolls Royas, Page-160) After burner is a method of :Thrust augmentation Decreasing the thrust It is not used for short periods It does not require any extra fuel (Rolls Royas, Page-169)

697.
(105) (106) (107) (108)

698.
(109) (110) (111) (112)

In after burning system :Extra fuel is sprayed and burnt between the propelling nozzle and the turbines Fuel is burnt in the combustion chamber No extra fuel is sprayed Propelling nozzle does not have increases pressures (Rolls Royas, Page-169)

699.
(113) (114) (115) (116)

To provide for operation under all conditions, an after burner jet pipe is fitted with :Single area propelling nozzle will work A two position or variable area propelling nozzle Impulse and reaction type None of the above (Rolls Royas, Page-170)

700.
(117) (118) (119) (120)

Vapour gutter or flame stabilizer is located :Down steam of fuel burners Provides a region in which eddies are formed to assist combustion Local gas velocity is further reduced to a figure at which flame stabilization occurs during combustion (1) +(2) + (3) is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-170) The after burning jet pipe is made of :Stainless steel Aluminium alloy

701.
(121) (122)

(123) (124)

Heat resisting nickel alloy Corrosion resistant iron (Rolls Royas, Page-173)

702.
(125) (126) (127) (128)

After burning system is :Mostly used in military a/c Used for immediate take off and climb Required extra consumption of fuel All above are correct (Rolls Royas, Page-173)

703.
(129) (130) (131) (132)

Water injection system :It s a thrust augmentation method Water provides additional thrust Water is added in the compressor (1) + (2) + (3) are correct (Rolls Royas, Page-181)

704.
(133) (134) (135) (136)

Disadvantage of water system are :Water and water injection system are very heavy Erosion of compressor blades can occur (1) +(2) is correct no disadvantage of water system in engine (Rolls Royas, Page-183)

705.
(137) (138) (139) (140)

Methanol is mixed with water : Provides an additional source of fuel Prevents freezing of water Methanol is not used with water (1) + (2) is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-183)

706.
(141) (142) (143) (144)

The afterburner system :Is a thrust augmentations method Fuel is not used to operate this system Air is only used None of the above is correct Repeated All engines that incorporate an afterburner must be equipped with :A variable area exhaust nozzle Need not have variable area propelling nozzle Fixed nozzle is only required None of the above is correct Repeated Fuel supplied through jets in afterburner system :Ignition is provided by a hot streak type of system Separate igniters may be used (1) + (2) are wrong (1) + (2) are right (Rolls Royas, Page-172)

707.
(145) (146) (147) (148)

708.
(149) (150) (151) (152)

709.
(153) (154) (155) (156)

When afterburner system is in use :Oxygen remaining in the exhaust gases is utilized Temp. of the exhaust gases increases Velocity of the exhaust increase and thereby thrust increases All the above are correct (Rolls Royas, Page-172)

710.
(157) (158) (159) (160)

ISA stands for :Internal standard affairs International standard atmosphere International standard altitude International standard altitude (Rolls Royas, Page-216)

711.
(161) (162) (163) (164)

What will be the temperature of 60,000 ft. height if the temp at 36089 ft. is -40C :The temp. will remain the same The temp. will decrease further The temp. will be warmer The temperature remains constant between 36089 ft. and 65,617 ft. (Rolls Royas, Page-216)

712.
(165) (166) (167) (168)

What is the temperature and pressure at mean sea level as per ISA :15C and 14.69 Ib / Square inch -15C and 14.69 Ib / Square inch +27C and 27.69 Ib / Square inch all are wrong answers (Rolls Royas, Page-216)

713.
(169) (170) (171) (172)

What is the locations given for high pressure compressor delivery stations as per notations for typical jet engine:P7 T7 P3 T 3 P5 T5 P2 T2 (Rolls Royas, Page-216) Mach number is :Speed of sound Is the ratio of the speed of a body to the local speed of sound Speed of the a/c All above are wrong (Rolls Royas, Page-219)

714.
(173) (174) (175) (176)

715.
(177) (178) (179) (180)

In a pure jet engine, if afterburning is used for T/O the increase in the T/O thrust will be :About 70% About 30% About 90% About 80% (Rolls Royas, Page-220) Where a conversion from velocity (kinetic) energy to pressure energy is required the passage is :Convergent Divergent May be any type None of the above is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-208)

716.
(181) (182) (183) (184)

717.
(185) (186) (187) (188)

The thrust can be obtained by using :Thrust = (A X P ) + WVJ / g 0 Formulae Thrust = (A X P) + WJ/29 - 0 Thrust = (A X P) + W / G- 0 All above are correct (Rolls Royas, Page-209)

718.
(189) (190) (191) (192)

In a jet engine Max. forward thrust is obtained in :Compressor Diffuse In combustion system Tail cone (Rolls Royas, Page-208)

719.
(193) (194) (195) (196)

In a bypass engine, for a given mass flow of air the thrust produced is less, this is because of :High exit velocity Lower exit velocity No effect of velocity change None of the above is right (Rolls Royas, Page-227) What is the principle source of noise in the a/c :Airframe Engine Flying controls None of the above (Rolls Royas, Page-109)

720.
(197) (198) (199) (200)

721.
(201) (202) (203) (204)

Noise is measured in unit called :Length Decibels (deci bels) Height Kilograms per hrs. (Rolls Royas, Page-109)

722.
(205) (206) (207) (208)

Jet Exhaust noise is caused by :The violent and hence extremely turbulent mixing of exhaust gases with the atmosphere Exhaust gases do not mix with atmosphere at all Noise is never from exhaust gases Only 2nd answer is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-201) The high bypass ratio engine has :One exhaust stream to eject to atmosphere Two exhaust stream to eject to atmosphere Four exhaust stream to eject to atmosphere All above are right answers (Rolls Royas, Page-203)

723.
(209) (210) (211) (212)

724.
(213) (214) (215) (216)

In the corrugated nozzle system of noise suppression :This is not used as a noise suppression method Free stream atmospheric air flows down the outside corrugation As in (2) and into the exhaust jet to promote rapid mixing All above are not used (Rolls Royas, Page-203)

725.
(217) (218) (219) (220)

Largest noise reduction is obtained by :Deep corrugations Deep corrugations , lobes and multi tubes This is not the correct method None of the above is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-203)

726.
(221) (222) (223) (224)

Noise absorbing lining material converts :Heat energy to mechanical energy Mechanical energy into pressure energy Acoustic energy into heat All above are correct (Rolls Royas, Page-205)

727.
(225) (226) (227) (228)

lining materials use in noise absorbing system are :light weight composite materials are used in lower temp. region fibrous metallic materials are used in higher temp. regions (1) + (2) is correct answer (1) + (2) is wrong answer (Rolls Royas, Page-205)

728.
(229) (230) (231) (232)

The corrugated or lobe type noise suppressor :Forms the exhaust propelling nozzle Is usually a separate assembly bolted to jet pipe Both are wrong (1) + (2) is correct (Rolls Royas, Page-201)