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K L University, 29-36-38, Museum Road, Governorpet VIJAYAWADA - 500 002, Phone Number 08662577715, http:// www.kluniversity.in

Model Questions for Entrance Test for PhD Admissions Departments of Computer Science and Engineering & Information Science and Technology
Section-A Software Engineering 1. What are the artifacts of Requirements Analysis A. SRS - Software Requirement Specification B. System Test Plan C. Acceptance Test Plan D. all 2. Project schedules are often based on programmer productivity on past projects as measured in terms of size unit per time unit (such as lines of code per day). Which one must be considered when developing project schedules using this approach? A. Time schedule B. Similarity of projects C. Expertise of programmers D. Programming language 3. Which model is thrown away once all requirements are understood: A. Process Model B. Prototyping Model C. Spiral Model D. Water Fall Model 4. What are three parts of a feasibility analysis? A. Legal feasibility B. Political feasibility C. Technical feasibility & economic feasibility D. None 5. Which Testing will test the implementation of the business needs? A. Function Testing B. Performance Testing C. Acceptance Testing D. Integration Testing

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6. Which model is thrown away once all requirements are understood: A. Process Model B. Prototyping Model C. Spiral Model D. Water Fall Model 7. Which of the following is an example for testing tools? A. Load Runner B. Test Manager C. Both D. None 8. A software engineer who knows the system of which the software is a part is: A. Reviewer B. Architect C. Analyst D. Domain Expert 9. SDLC stands for A. Software Development Life Cycle B. Software Deployment Life Cycle C. System Deployment Life Cycle D. System Development Life Cycle 10. Sandwich Integration is the combination of A. Top down and big bang integration B. Bottom up and big bang integration C. Top down and bottom up integration D. none 11. Resolution of all ambiguous statements in which phase A. Design B. Testing C. Analysis D. Coding 12. Software Engineering uses A. Methods B. Procedures C. Tools

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D. all 13. There are ________ levels which are used to test a phase of the software development life cycle A. 4 B. 3 C. 1 D. 2 14. Example for Structural testing A. Functional testing B. Unit testing C. Structural testing D. System Testing 15. Effort required in transferring a program from one hardware configuration and software system environment to another is A. Correctness B. Portability C. Reusability D. Reliability 16. Example for functional testing A. System Testing B. Unit testing C. Functional testing D. Structural testing 17. The number of occurrences of a data object that relates to a number of occurrences of another data object A. Redundancy B. Cardinality C. none D. both 18. Maintenance projects require which Testing? A. Integration Testing B. Acceptance Testing C. Performance Testing D. Regression Testing

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19. Which Testing will test the non-functional requirements of the system? A. Function Testing B. Performance Testing C. Unit Testing D. Acceptance Testing 20. ISO certifies the _______ of the processes. A. Methodology B. Quality C. None D. Quantity 21. There are ____ factors for Software Quality A. 6 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 22. The focus area of Repeatable level is A. Product & Process Quality B. Project Management C. Engineering Process D. Continuous Improvement 23. Cost of quality comprises of components A. Cost of Prevention B. Cost of Failure C. Cost of Appraisal D. All 24. The communication among the different modules is done by A. Procedural Detail B. Data Design C. Interface Design D. Software Architecture

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25. The methodology for doing Analysis and Design is A. SDLC B. Prototyping C. SSAD D. none 26. How many Testing Terminologies are there A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 27. Integration can be done in how many different ways? A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 28. The architecture components for product engineering are a. data, hardware, software, people b. data, documentation, hardware, software c. data, hardware, software, procedures d. documentation, hardware, people, procedures 29. The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to a. examine the system model for errors b. have the customer look over the requirements c. send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns d. use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement 30. Which of these people would not be likely to part of the FAST team? a. hardware and software engineers b. manufacturing representative c. marketing representatives d. senior financial officers

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31. A task set will grow in size and complexity as the degree of rigor a. shrinks b. changes c. grows d. all of the above

32. The task (activity) network is a useful mechanism for a. computing the overall effort estimate b. detecting inter-task dependencies c. specifying the task set to the customer d. none of the above 33. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized? a. unit, integration, system, validation b. system, integration, unit, validation c. unit, integration, validation, system d. none of the above 34. Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that a. low level modules never need testing b. major decision points are tested early c. no stubs need to be written d. none of the above 35. Smoke testing might best be described as a. bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software b. rolling integration testing c. testing that hides implementation errors d. unit testing for small programs 36. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by McCall's software quality factors? a. ability to undergo change b. adaptability to new environments c. operational characteristics d. production costs and scheduling

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37. A generalized description of a collection of similar objects is a a. class b. instance c. subclass d. super class

38. Assume team A has access to a robust class library and team B does not. If both teams were building the same software product you would expect a. team A to complete the product faster and at a lower cost b. team B to complete the produce faster and at a lower cost c. team A to spend more team testing and debugging their code d. team B to product a better product programming from scratch 39. A guardian object a. controls access to a resource and moderates conflicting requests for it b. is a multimedia database object c. provides security to a networked or web-based system d. none of the above 40. Fault-based testing is best reserved for a. conventional software testing b. operations and classes that are critical or suspect c. use-case validation d. white-box testing of operator algorithms 41. OO metrics represent abstractions in measures of a(n) a. attribute b. class c. object d. operation

42. What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid? a. data invariant b. precondition c. post condition d. state

43. The clean room strategy relies on a. exhaustive testing b. extensive unit testing of all modules c. tests that exercise the software as it is really used d. white box testing strategies

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44. _______involve the refinement of the identified classes a . OOA b. OOI c. OOD d. OOSD

45. Test plan involves a. Test cases b. both c. Testing methodologies c. None

46. What are the artifacts of Requirements Analysis a. SRS - Software Requirement Specification c. Acceptance Test Plan d. System Test Plan b. all

47. Which Testing will test the implementation of the business needs? A. Function Testing B. Performance Testing C. Acceptance Testing D. Integration Testing 48. Reduction in the risk of misinterpretation is done by A. Analysis B. Testing C. Design D. Coding

49. Which is included in the software requirements specification? A. Error handling B. Functional description C Performance description D. Maintainability description 50. The focus area of Managed level is A. Engineering Process B. Project Management C. Product & Process Quality D. Continuous Improvement

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51. Working Models comes in which of the following phase? A. Construct B. Deployment C. Test D. Requirement

52. Which test is conducted in the end-users environment? a. Alpha testing b. Beta testing d. Functional testing c. System Testing

53. Quality assurance is a function responsible for a. Controlling quality b) Managing quality c. Inspections d) Removal of defects

54. Which is not a golden rule a) b) c) d) Be consistent Be optimize Speak the users memory load Provide feedback

55. Identify design issue a. b. c. d. Internationalization Cohesion Common coupling None

56.In user interface development life cycle flour screen prototypes contains in which phase a. Deploy b. Construct c. Design d. Requirement analysis 57. What level of enterprise are they expected to have on first approaching the product is referred to a. Environment profile b. Task profile

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c. User profile d. None of the above 58.Which model represents the designers perception of the system a. Design model b. Conceptual model c. User model d. All the above 59. These prototypes display a wide range of features but without fully implementing all of those features a. Vertical prototype b. Cross prototype c. Horizontal prototype d. New prototype 60. Usability Heuristics minimize the users-----------A. None B. Time C. Energy D. Memory load 60.Good user interface uses: A. Words and concepts from users world B. Words from users world C. System-oriented terms D. Concepts from users world 61.What is not an aspect of UID? A. Localization B. Techniques like locale, resource bundles C. Generalization D. Internationalization 63. What is meant by Icons? A. They are used as metaphors for functions or actions B. Icons should be clickable for initiating an event C. Icons are small pictures that usually represent objects in the physical world D. All 64. What is User Interface (UI)? A. None B. Back end

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C. Controller D. Front end

65. The use of metaphors can have a significant impact upon A. None B. Developers C. End-users D. Stakeholders 66. A corporation uses formal methods for requirements specification because they believe that it guarantees that the customer's needs will be met by the new software application. Which statement about this corporation's belief is true?

A. Formal methods do provide this guarantee because they are safer to use. B. Formal methods do not provide this guarantee because they are not testable. C. Formal methods do provide this guarantee because they are based on mathematical techniques for which proof systems exist. D. Formal methods do not provide this guarantee because they are difficult to communicate accurately to the user. 67. Modifying existing standards to better match the need of a project or environment is a. c. Definition Customization b. d. Standard for a standard Tailoring

68. There is no need to use pinning actions for which of the following in display: A. Top part B. Sides part C. Corners part D. Middle part 69. What is operating environment metaphor? A. Desktop B. Remote Desktop C. Both D. None

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70. What is the Importance of User interface? A. Increases popularity B. No such Importance to be considered C. It is the look and feel of s/w package D. Just for show 71. Metaphor means: A. Adding of two things B. Implied Difference between two things C. None D. Implied Comparison between two things implying one is other. 72. Field values are inserted to the ------------------ of field labels: A. Right B. None C. Left D. Center 73. Design phase includes: A. Identifying main components & main feature of each component B. Only one of the options is true C. Build conceptual model & sequence of events D. Both 74. VDU stands for: A. Visual Discharge Unit B. Video Discharge Unit C. Video Display Unit D. Visual Display Unit 75. Clustering means A. Similar techniques should be used across screens B. Similar technologies should be used across screens C. Similar controls should be used across screens D. Similar terms should be used across screens 76. How many levels of usability testing are there: A. 2 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

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77. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers? A. Process B. Manufacturing C. Methods D. Tools 78. Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model? A. Ad hoc B. Repeatable C. Reusable D. Organized 79. Which of these is not a valid reason for measuring software processes, products, and resources? A. to characterize them B. to evaluate them D. to improve them C. to price them

80. The objective of software project planning is to A. Convince the customer that a project is feasible. B. Make use of historical project data. C. Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule. D. Determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project. 81. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project scheduling? A. compartmentalization B. market assessment D. effort validation C. time allocation

82. The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least amount of development effort be spent on A. estimation and planning B. analysis and design C. coding D. testing

83. What is meant by Localization? A. Process of making available the same application in Different languages B. Localization is the process of adapting your application for the countries in which it will be used C. Localization is the process of making your application for Outside countries in which it will be used D. All

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K L University, 29-36-38, Museum Road, Governorpet VIJAYAWADA - 500 002, Phone Number 08662577715, http:// www.kluniversity.in

84. We have to allow the users to control the interface depending upon the skill level. It is A. False B. True C. None D. Depends on situation 85. ERGONOMICS is a branch of: A. Management B. Science C. None D. Arts 86. When does the design become more interactive? A. It can be either medium or low level language B. Medium level language C. Usage of that language, with which user is comfortable D. Complex language 87. Binding denotes: A. Assigning memory at run time B. Linking with derived class C. Association of a name with a class D. Giving name to a class 88. Which access specifier is used, for the process of hiding the members from outside the class? A. Public B. Protected C. Default D. Private 89 Relationships in UML are? a) Is-A b) has-A c) Uses-A d) all

90) Overriding effects on which class?

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a) Class

b) method

c) base class

d) derived class

91) Overloading effects on which of the following parameters? a) Method b) class c) actual parameters d) formal parameters

92) Generalization means the following? a) Coming from subclass to super class b) going back from subclass to super class c) Both d) none 93) In UML Aggregation represents? a) Is-A b) has-A c) Uses-A d) none

94). which of the fallowing is not instantiated? a) Class b) object c) abstract class ? d) all

95) In Structured Programming the Design approach is a) Bottom-Up b)Top-Down c) both

d) none

96) Expand the term CASE: a) Computer Aided Software Engineering b) Complicated and Analytical Software Engineering c) Control Analyst System Engineer d) None of these 97) Method Overloading and Method Overriding are Examples for? a)Inheritance b) Compile-Time Binding b)Binding can be called as d)Abstraction meta model in the

98)____________________model development (a) Prototype (b) RAD

(c) life cycle

(d) incremental applications in which

99)_____________________measure algorithmic complexity is high. (a) feature points (b) function point

accommodates (c) LOC

(d) none

100)___________________language implies a program by specifying the desired result rather than specifying action required to achieve the result.

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(a) non procedural (b) procedural

(c) high level

(d) machine level

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Section-B Data Warehousing and Mining 1. Which of the following is the most popularly available and rich information repositories? a. Temporal databases b. Relational databases c. Transactional databases d. spatial databases 2. Which of the following databases is used to store time-related data? a. Spatial databases b. Text databases c. Multimedia databases d. Temporal databases 3. From a DWH perspective, data mining can be viewed as an advanced stage of a. b. c. d. 4. A On-Line Transaction Processing On-Line Data Processing On-Line Analytical Processing On-Line Electronic Processing _ _ _ _ _ _ is a group of heterogeneous databases?

a. Time series databases b. Object oriented databases c. Legacy databases d. Spatial databases 5. Many people treat data mining as synonym for another popularly used term a. Knowledge Discovery in databases b. knowledge inventory in databases c. Knowledge acceptance in databases d. knowledge disposal in databases. 6. A _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is a repository of information collected from multiple squares stored under a unified schema, and which usually resides at a single site. a. Data mining b. Database c. Data warehouse d. legacy databases 7. Which of the following databases is used to store image, audio, and video data? a. b. c. d. Heterogeneous databases Temporal databases Legacy databases Multimedia databases

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8. Which of the following is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target class of data? a. Data discrimination b. Data characterization c. Data compression d. Meta data 9. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is a comparison of the general features of target class data objects with general features of objects from one or a set of contrasting classes. a. Data characterization b. Data summarization c. Data discrimination d. Meta data 10._ _ _ _ _ _ _ interestingness measures are based on user beliefs in the data. a. Objective b. Descriptive c. Collective d. Subjective 11._ _ _ _ _ _ mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the databases. a. Descriptive b. Predictive c. Metadata d. Data 12.The derived model may be represented in the form of a. ER model b. Flow chart c. Decision trees d. DFD 13.Which of the following is the classification of data mining systems? a. Summarization b. Visualization c. Discrimination d. Characterization 14.An _ _ _ _ _ _ System typically adopts either a star or snow flake model and subject oriented database design. a. On-Line Transaction Processing

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b. On-Line Electronic Processing c. On-Line Analytical Processing d. On-Line Data Processing 15.The access patterns of an _ _ _ _ system consist mainly of short, atomic transactions. a. On-Line Analytical Processing b. On-Line Transaction Processing c. On-Line Electronic Processing d. On-Line Data Processing 16.Which of the following approach requires complex information filtering and integration processes and competes for resources with processing at local sources? a. Update-driven approach b. Integrate-driven approach c. Query-driven approach d. Data-driven approach 17.An _ _ _ system focuses mainly on the current data with in an enterprise or department, without referring to historical data or data in different organizations . a. On-Line Analytical Processing b. On-Line Data Processing c. On-Line Electronic Processing d. On-Line Transaction Processing 18.The basic characteristic of On-line Analytical Processing is a. Informational processing b. Operational processing c. Data processing d. Data cleaning 19.Which of the following cuboid that holds the highest level of summerization? a. Cuboid b. Base cuboid c. Non-base cuboid d. Apex coboid 20._ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is a visualization operation that rotates the data axes in view in order to provide an alternative presentation of the data a. Rollup b. Drill down c. Pivot d. Slice & dice 21._ _ _ _ _ _ tables can be specified by users or experts, or automatically generated and adjusted based on data distributions.

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a. Fact b. Summarized c. Dimension d. Relational 22._ _ _ _ _ _ _ executes queries involving more than one fact table a. b. c. d. 23.A Drill-through Drill-across Drill-down Rotate _ _ _ _ _ allows data to be modeled and viewed in multiple dimensions.

a. Meta data b. Data cube c. Database d. Fact table 24.The major difference between the snowflake and star schema models is that the dimension tables of the snowflake model image kept in _ _ _ _ form a. Standard b. De-normalized c. Normalized d. Multi dimensional 25.Which of the following is not a measure, which is based on the kind of aggregation functions used? a. Cumulative b. Distributed c. Algebraic d. Holistic 26.Which of the following focuses on socioeconomic applications? a. Statistical database systems b. Online Analytical Processing systems c. Spatial database systems d. Temporal database systems 27.A _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ model consists of radial lines emanating from a central point, where each line represents a concept hierarchy for a dimension a. Cube net b. Triangle net c. Square net d. Star net 28.Which of the following is a Multi Dimensional Online Analytical Processing ? a. Ess base b. Database c. Swiss base

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d. Red brick 29.Which of the following is a Hybrid OLAP server? a. MS SQL server 1.0 b. MS SQL 5.0 c. MS SQL server 7.0 d. MS SQL server 3.0 30.To architect the DWH, the major driving factor to support is a. An inability to cope with requirements evolution b. Not populating the warehouse c. Day- to- day management of the warehouse d. Supporting Online Transaction processing 31.A _ _ _ _ _ _ _ contains a subset of corporate-wide data that is of value to a specific group of users. a. b. c. d. 32.A Enterprise warehouse Virtual warehouse Data warehouse Data mart _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is a set of views over operational databases

a. Enterprise warehouse b. Virtual warehouse c. Data warehouse d. Data mart 33.What kind of the intermediate servers that stand in between a relational back-end server and client front-end tools? a. Hybrid OLAP servers b. Multidimensional OLAP server c. Relational OLAP servers d. Specialized SQL servers e. 34.Choose the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ that will populate each fact table record a. Measures b. Dimensions c. Grain d. Business Process 35.Meta data repository contains a. b. c. d. Operational meta data Data irrelevant to system performance The mapping from the DWH to the operational environment Summarized data

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36._ _ _ _ _ _ _ are created for the data names and definitions of the given warehouse a. Data cube b. Summarized data c. Meta data d. Detailed Information 37.The _ _ _ _ _ _ _ operator computes aggregates over all subsets of the dimensions specified in the operation. a. Data base b. Computer cube c. Define cube d. Group by 38.The bit mapped join indices method is an integrated form of a. Composite join indexing and bitmap indexing b. Join indexing and composite join indexing c. Join indexing and bitmap indexing d. Bitmap indexing and outer join indexing 39.Which of the following typically gathers data from multiple, heterogeneous, and external sources? a. Data cleaning b. Load c. Refresh d. Data extraction 40.OLAM is particularly important for the following reason a. How quality of data in DWH b. Data processing c. OLTP-based exploratory data analysis d. Online selection of data mining functions 41.Which of the following sets a good example for interactive data analysis and provides the necessary preparations for exploratory data mining? a. OLP b. OLAP c. OLTP d. OLDP 42._ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ can help business managers find and reach more suitable customers, as well as gain critical business insights that may help to drive market share and raise profits. a. b. c. d. Data Data Data Data warehouse mining summarization processing

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43._ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is an alternative approach in which pre-computed measures indicating data exceptions are used to guide the user in the data analysis process at all levels of aggregation. a. Hypothesis-driven exploration b. Inventory-driven exploration c. Discovery-driven exploration d. Exception-driven exploration 44._ _ _ _ _ is a powerful paradigm that integrates OLAP with data mining technology. a. Online Analytical Modeling b. Online Analytical Machine c. Online Analytical Mining d. Online Analytical Monitoring 45.Data warehouse application is _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ a. Data Processing b. Transaction Processing c. Datacube d. Datamining 46.Which of the following performs a linear transformation on the original data? a. Z-score normalization b. Normalization with decimal scaling c. Zero-standard deviation d. Min-max normalization 47.Which of the following is the best method for missing values in data cleaning? a. Fill in the missing value manually b. Use the most probable value to fill in the missing value c. Use the attribute mean to fill the missing value d. Use a global constant to fill in the missing value 48.The minimum and maximum values in a given bin are identified as the a. Bin means b. Bin average c. Bin medians d. Bin boundaries 49.Which of the following is data transformation operation? a. b. c. d. Normalization Regression Clustering Binning

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50._ _ _ _ _ methods smooth a sorted data value by consulting in neighborhood ie the values around it. a. Clustering b. Binning c. Regression d. Data reduction 51.Z-score normalization is also called as a. Min-max normalization b. Zero-standard deviation normalization c. Zero-mean normalization d. Normalization by decimal scaling 52._ _ _ _ _ _ is a random error or variance in a measured variable. a. Bin b. Cluster c. Noise d. Regression 53.The data are consolidated into forms appropriate for mining is called as a. Data reduction b. Data Redundancy c. Data clean d. Data transformation 54.Which of the following is a decision tree algorithm? a. C3.2 b. ID3 c. PP2 d. DIM 55.Multidimensional index trees include a. A- trees b. T-trees c. P-trees d. R-trees 56.Which of the following strategy for data reduction is irrelevant, weakly relevant, or redundant attributes may be detected and removed? a. b. c. d. Data cube aggregation Dimension reduction Data compression Numerosity reduction

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57.In database systems, _ _ _ _ _ are primarily used for providing fast data access. a. Red-black trees b. Game trees c. Multidimensional index trees d. splay trees 58.If the mining task is classification, and the mining algorithm itself is used to determine the attribute subset, then this is called a _ _ _ _ _ _ approach. a. Filter b. Reduction c. Smoothing d. Wrapper 59.The discrete wavelet transformation is closely related to the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ transform. a. Discrete fourier b. Fourier c. Laplace d. wavelet 60._ _ _ _ _ _ can be used as a data reduction technique since it allows a large data set to be represented by a much smaller random subset of the data. a. Clustering b. Regression c. Histograms d. Sampling 61.Loy-linear models are a. Parametric methods b. Discrete methods c. Non-parametric methods d. Non- discrete methods 62.Which of the following method is the generation of concept of hierarchies for categorical data? a. Specification of a portion of a hierarchy by implicit data grouping b. Specification of their partial ordering, but not of a set of attributes c. Specification of a set of attributes, but not of their partial order d. Specification of only a partial set of entities 63.Which of the following is based on the maximal asset values, which may lead to a highly biased hierarchy? a. b. c. d. Cluster analysis Segmentation Binning Histogram analysis

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64.The _ _ _ _ _ can be used to segment numeric data into relatively uniform, "natural" intervals. a. 1-2-3 rule b. 2-3-4 rule c. 3-4-5 rule d. 4-5-6rule 65._ _ _ _ _ _ _ techniques can be used to reduce the number of values for a given continuous attribute, by dividing the range of the attribute into intervals a. Concept hierarchy b. Discretization c. Tree-based d. Index 66._ _ _ _ _ _ _ may be used to guide the mining process or, after discovery to evaluate the discovered patterns. a. Task-relevant data b. The kind of knowledge to be mined c. Background knowledge d. Interestingness measures 67.Which of the following clause is the task-irrelevant data primitive? a. In relevance to b. Use for warehouse c. Analysis d. Order by 68.Which of the following coupling schema is used to fetch data from a data repository managed by database systems? a. No coupling b. Loose coupling c. Tight coupling d. Semi tight coupling 69 . Decision support systems are used for a. Management decision making b. providing tactial information to management c. providing strategic information to management d. Better operation of an organization 70. Quality of information is ensured by a. Information is complete and uses correct processing rules b. Information is complete and includes all data c. Information is timely and includes all data d. Information is complete and includes all data up to present time

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71. Drilling down operation in time is a. Going from months to quarters b. Going from quarters to months c. Going from days to months d. Going from hours to months 72 A characteristic or quality describing an entity is called a) Attribute b) Key field c) Tuple d) Field

73. The data hierarchy goes from bits and bytes to a) Fields ,records ,files and data bases b) Entites,attributes,fileds and records c) Records,entites,fileds and records d) None of the above 74. In a -------------- database parts of the database are stored and maintained physically in one location and other parts are stored and maintained in other location a. fragmented b. contiguous c. split d. partitioned 75. The type of logical database model that treats data as if they were stored in the two dimensional table is the a. Network DBMS b. Hybrid DBMS c. Relational DBMS d. Hierarchical DBMS 75. Activities for detecting and correcting data in a database that are incorrect , incomplete ,improperly formatted or redundant are called a. Data Cleansing a. Data Auditing b. Data Fragmenting c. Data Verifying 76. Microsoft SQL Server is a a. DBMS for mid range computers b. DBMS for small hand held computing c. Internet DBMS d. Mainframe relational DBMS

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77.

For storing data types such as complex information or recursive data--------are useful a. Hierarchical DBMS b. OODBMS c. Network DBMS d. Relational DBMS 78 .The fundamental principle of data administration is that all data a. Recursive b. Be normalized c. Belongs to a company as a whole d. Be owned by individual department 79. Online transaction processing requires a. b. c. d. A large server network Fault tolerant computer systems A dedicated phone line More processing time

80. As a part of market basket analysis effort a retail company needs to analyze sales transactions data to understand which products tend to be bought together by the same customer during each visit to the store. Which data mining function is most appropriate for this business problem? a.Clustering b.Regression c.Association d.Classification 81 Which mining model needs to be processed through training and testing phase before being applied into the scoring function a. Sequential b. Clustering c. Association d. Classification 82. The dimension attributes are various------------ in a dimension table a. Columns b. Rows c. Rows and columns d. None of the above 83. A data mart is at the following ------------ level in an enterprise a. Enterprise b. Business Division/Department c. Enterprise and business division

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d. None of the above 84. A data ware house is at the following ---------a. Enterprise b. Business Division/Department c. Enterprise and business division d. None of the level in an enterprise

85. Star schema is a data ware house schema where dimensional tables are a. Normalized b. De normalized c. Many fact tables d. None of the above 86. Snow flake is a data ware house schema where dimensional tables are a. Normalized b. De normalized c. Many fact tables d. None of the above 87. All of a. b. c. the following terms describe OLAP, except Gathering of input information Processing information Updating existing information to reflect to the gathered and processed information d. None of the above

88. Which tool is used to help an organization build and use business intelligence a. Data Ware house b. Data Mining tool c. Data Base Management Systems d. All the above 89. Spatial databases includes a. b. c. d. 90..What a. b. c. d. Legacy databases Time series databases Satellite image databases Temporal databases does data dictionary identity Field names Field types Field Formats All of the above

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91. Which of the following is a data manipulation tool? a. File generators b. Query by example tool c. Structure question language d. All of the above 92. Which data administration subsystem enables recovery of information data base a. Concurrency control facilities b. Reorganization facilities c. Backup facilities d. Security management facilities 93. Online transaction processing is used because a) It is efficient b) Disk is used for storing files c) It can handle queries d) Transactions occur in batches 94. Data mining is to aid in a) Operational management b) Analyzing past decisions c) Detecting patterns in operational data d) Receiving archival data 95. Data mining requires a) Lots of tactical data b) Large quantity of operational data over large period of data c) Several disk drives to store archival data d) Large main frame computers 96. Aggregation is done in one of the following phases of data ware house a) Extraction b) Transformation c) Loading d) None of the above 97. Roll up operation in location is a. From countries to cities b. From cities to countries c. From countries to Towns d .None of the above 98. Dice operation defines a sub cube from original cube a. By performing a selection on one dimension b. By performing a selection on two or more dimensions c. By retaining the original cube d. None of the above e. Translation

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99.Concept hierarchy defines a sequence of mapping from e. Set of high level concepts to low level concepts b. Set of low level concepts to high level concepts c. Set of high level concepts to mid level concepts d. None of the above 100. .A Data Ware House is Subjected oriented collection of Data, The Subjects a. Computer Science b. Super Market c. Product d. None of the above Section-C Computer Networks and Security 1. The application Layer of OSI Reference model is responsible for a) b) c) d) Providing network communication services Providing services for the program that the user uses Assembling and disabling Packets Synchronization of Communicating nodes

2. In OSI reference model HTTP is which layer Protocol a) b) c) d) Layer Layer Layer Layer 1 4 5 7

3. A disadvantage of the ---------------------- topology is that if one computer goes down it can take entire network with it a) b) c) d) Bus Ring Star Pyramid

4. The ------------ Topology uses more cables than other network topologies a) b) c) d) Bus Ring Star Pyramid

5. Every network interface card(NIC) comes with its own ------------ address

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a) b) c) d)

MAC IP address OSI None of the above

6. Which of the following is used in the Telephone Network a) b) c) d) Packet Switched Circuit Switched Message Switched None of the above

7. Which of the following are connection less protocols a) TCP b) UDP c) BGP d) IP 8. Given the IP address 201.180.56.5, Find the Beginning address a) b) c) d) 201.180.56.0 201.180.56.5 201.180.0.0 201. 0.0.0 00001011 11101111 to which class the IP address

9. 00000001 00001011 belong to a) b) c) d) A B C D

10.Determine which of the following is Fully qualified domine name space(FQDN) a) b) c) d) XXX XXX.YYY.ZZZ XXX.YYY.net ZZZ.YYY.ZZZ.Edu.

11.Which network forwards packet according to host destination address a) Circuit switched network b) Datagram network

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c) Virtual network d) B and c 12.Error checking and recovery are responsible for which layer a) b) c) d) Network Layer Transport Layer Data Link Layer Session Layer

13.Frequency division and Time division multiplexing are used in --------a) Message switched b) Packet switched c) Circuit switched d) None of the Above 14.Which of the following is a list of TCP Services features {} a) Reliable, Flow Control, Data may be out of order b) Reliable, Connection Oriented, Flow Control c) Congestion Control, No hand shake, Flow control d) Reliable, Congestion Control, Data may be out of order 15.When Compared to Transmission delay, Propagation delay is always {} a) Smaller or Equal Never grater b) Always smaller c) No restriction- May be greater or smaller d) Greater 16.Backward learning Algorithm is used in a) Data link layer b) Network layer c) Transport layer d) None 17.The purpose of Error Control is a) To detect errors at source b) To detect errors at each Router c) All the above d) None 18.DNS(Domain Name Space) is implemented as a) Distributed Database b) Centralized Database c) Data ware house d) None 19.The routing Algorithm used in Internet is a) Shortest path routing algorithm {}

{}

{}

{}

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b) BGP c) ICMP d) OSPF 20. Start and Stop bits are used in serial communication for a) Error Detection b) Error Correction c) Synchronization d) Slow down and communication 21.Unmodulated signal coming from a transmitter is known as a) Carrier Signal b) Base band signal c) Primary Signal d) None 22.Manchester Code is a a) Bi-Polar Code b) Non return to zero code c) Polar Code d) None of the above 23.Which of the following are non-polling systems a) TDMA b) Stop and wait c) Xon/Xoff d) Continuous ARQ {}

{}

{}

{}

24.How many characters per second(7bits+1 parity) can be transmitted over a 2400 bps line if the transfer is synchronous(1 start and 1 stop bit) {} a) 300 b) 240 c) 250 d) 275 25.The Hamming distance between 001111 and 010011 is {} a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 26.HDLC is a) Bit orientation b) Code Transparent c) Code Dependent d) None 27.In Ethernet CSMA/CD, the special bit sequence transmitted by media access management for collision handling is called as {}

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a) Preamble b) Post amble c) Jam d) None of the above 28.The number of cross points needed for 10 lines in a cross point switch is full duplex in nature and there are no self connection is {} a) 100 b) 45 c) 50 d) 90 29.Maximum data rate of a channel for noiseless 3-KHz binary channel is { } a) 3000bps b) 6000bps c) 1500 bps d) None of the above 30.What address is changing when packet moves from one network to another network. {} a) Logical b) Physical c) Port d) Both a and b 31.The name of the data unit in network layer a) Segment b) Frame c) Datagram d) Message 32.What will be minimum size of packet in Ethernet a) 70 bytes b) 64 bytes from S.A c) 1500 bytes d) 1526 bytes 33.A token ring operate in -------------------mode a) Transmit mode b) Listen mode c) Bypass made d) all the above 34.What flag is used to take care of out of bound data in TCP header a) RST b) SYN c) FIN d) URG {}

{}

{}

{}

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35.What is default subnet mask for a class B addressing mode a) 255.255.0.0 b) 255.255.255.0 c) 255.0.0.0 d) 0.0.0.0 36.Gateway is -----------------layer device a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 7 37.The protocols(s) that uses connection less UDP a) SMTP b) SNMP c) FTP d) RARP

{}

{}

{}

38.The value carried by the fragment offset field in IP header is 100, then how many bytes are ahead of this fragment {} a) 100 bytes b) 400 bytes c) 800 bytes d) 0 bytes 39.TTL field in the IP header can be used for {} a) Trace route b) To avoid loops c) To know how many routers are available between source and destination d) All the above 40.If the packet size is 1 KB and channel capacity is 109 bits/sec, what is the transmission time {} a) 6s b) 10s c) 8s d) Can not be calculated 41.In IEEE 802.5, the size of ring is {} a) TRT*propagation speed of light b) Latency * propagation speed of the media c) TRT * propagation speed of media d) None of the above

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42.If 4 cycles are used to represent a bit, then what is the bound rate of standard 10mbps Ethernet {} a) 20 Mega Baud b) 40 Mega Baud c) 2.5 Mega Baud d) 5 Mega Baud 43.If the propagation delay is 20ms and transmission delay is 200ms, find the through of Ethernet {} a) 50 % b) 66 % c) 56 % d) 86 % 44.Which of the following IP addresses belong to private host address {} a) 200.200.200.89 b) 127.1.1.1 c) 10.1.1.1 d) 255.255.255.255 45.In slow start phase of TCP, Initial congestion window is equal to {} a) 1 byte b) 1 MSS c) 1 Window d) Senders window 46.Which layer in OSI model determines, whether the transmission will be half duplex or full duplex {} a) Transport Layer b) Session Layer c) Data link Layer d) Application Layer 47.The CIDR IP address is given as 190.168.0.0/14 Yields approximately how may possible host address {} a) 1024 b) 2,56,000 c) 256 d) 5,12,000

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48.Which layer in OSI model determines, whether the transmission will be half duplex or full duplex {} a) Transport Layer b) Session Layer c) Data link Layer d) Application Layer 49.If the TCP,RTT, is currently 30 m sec and ACK comes in 26msec What is the RTT value {} a) 29.0 b) 28.6 c) 29.84 d) 29.6 50.In TCP, the timeout value is equal to {} a) Estimate time RTT+4 * deviation b) Estimate time RTT-4 * deviation c) Estimate time RTT*4 * deviation d) 4+ deviation* Estimated RTT

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Section-D WEB Technologies

1. What is the correct syntax of the declaration which defines the XML
version? a. <xml version="1.0" /> b. <?xml version="1.0" /> c. <?xml version="1.0"?> d. <xml version="1.0?>

2. Is

this

---------

XML

document? version="1.0"?>

<?xml <to>Tove</to> <from>Jani</from> <heading>Reminder</heading> <body>Don't forget me this weekend!</body>

a. well formed b. not a well formed c. valid d. invalid

3. Which statement is true?

a. All XML elements must be lower case b. All XML elements must be properly closed c. All XML documents must have a DTD d. All the statements are true

4. Where in an HTML document is the correct place to refer to an

external style sheet? a. b. c. d. At At In In the the the the top of the document end of the document <body> section <head> section

5.

Which HTML attribute is used to define inline styles? a. styles b. class c. style d. font

6.

Which is the correct CSS syntax?

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7.

a. b. c. d.

body {color: black} {body:color=black(body} body:color=black {body;color:black}

8. Which CSS property controls the text size?

a. text-size b. text-style c. font-style d. font-size

9.

How do you display hyperlinks without an underline? a. b. c. d. a a a a {decoration:no underline} {underline:none} {text-decoration:no underline} {text-decoration:none}

10. How do you add a background color for all <h1> elements?
a. all.h1 {background-color:#FFFFFF} b. h1 {background-color:#FFFFFF} c. h1.all {background-color:#FFFFFF} d. h1.all {background-fontr:#FFFFFF}

11. For the XML parser to ignore a certain section of your XML document,
which syntax is correct? a. <CDATA> Text to be ignored </CDATA> b. <xml:CDATA[ Text to be ignored ]> c. <PCDATA> Text to be ignored </PCDATA> d. <![CDATA[ Text to be ignored ]]>

12. What

is a correct "mystyle.xsl"?

way

of

referring

to

stylesheet

called

a. <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="mystyle.xsl" ?> b. <link type="text/xsl" href="mystyle.xsl" /> c. <stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="mystyle.xsl" /> d. <a type="text/xsl" href="mystyle.xsl" />

13. Which is not a correct name for an XML element?

a. <age> b. <NAME>

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c. <first name> d. All 3 names are incorrect

14. How do you write "Hello World" in an alert box using JavaScript?
a. alert("Hello World") b. alertBox("Hello World") c. msgBox("Hello World") d. alertBox="Hello World"

15. How do you call a function named "myFunction" using JavaScript?

a. b. c. d. call function myFunction call myFunction() myFunction() _ myFunction()

16. How do you write a conditional statement for executing some code if
"i" is equal to 5? a. if (i==5) b. if i=5 then c. if i=5 d. if i==5 then

17. All XHTML tags and attributes must be in ------? 18. Do all XHTML documents require a _____?

a. Upper Case b. Lower Case c.Any Case d. preferably lower case

a. doc-type b. doctype c. docx type d. txt type

19. What XHTML code is "well-formed"?

a. <p>A <b><i>short</b></i> paragraph</p> b. <p>A <b><i>short</i></b> paragraph c. <p>A <b><i>short</b> paragraph</i> d. <p>A <b><i>short</i></b> paragraph</p>

20. What is the correct XHTML for an attribute and its value?
a. width=80 b. WIDTH=80 c. width="80"

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d. WIDTH="80"

21. ASP comes with a standard component that displays a different

advertisement each time a user enters or refreshes a page, what is the name of this component? a. AdRotator b. Advertisement c. Advertise d. RotateAds

22. Page

1 has this link: <a href="page2.asp?color=green">Go</a> How can page2.asp get the "color" parameter? a. Request.QueryString("color") b. Response.QueryString("color") c. Response.Parameter("color") d. Get("color") 23. How can you script your ASP code in JavaScript? a. JavaScript is the default scripting language b. Start the document with: <% language="javascript" %> c. End the document with: <% language="javascript" %> d. Start the document with: <%@ language="javascript" %> 24. What is the default scripting language in ASP? a. EcmaScript b. JavaScript c. VBScript d. PERL 25. How do you write "Hello World" in ASP? a. Response.Write("Hello World") b. "Hello World" c. Document.Write("Hello World") d.out.println(Hello World)

26. ASP server scripts are surrounded by delimiters, which?

a. <script>...</script> b. <&>...</&> c. <%...%> d. <%>...</%> 27. A web browser and web server communicate with which protocol? a. HTTP b. FTP c. SMTP d. MMTP 28. Default port for webserver ? a.8080 b.1099 c.80 d.1947 29. Static web content is made of ? a .ASP b. JSP c.HTML and gif/jpeg d. Servlets 30. Default request method is ?

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a. GET b. POST c. HEAD d. PUT 31. What is the root tag and ending tag of the HTML document ? a.<html> <html> b.<html></html> c.<html></head> d. <html><body> 32. Correct URL format? a. protocol://host:port/path b. protocol://host/path c. protocol://path/ d. host:port/path 33. Domain name .com is used for a. Network organizations b. Organizations c. commercial business d. none

34. Which one is Microsofts web server?

a.IIS b.websphere c. weblogic d. tomcat

35. What is the root directory (folder) of Tomcat Server?

a.inetpub b. webapps c. server d. path 36. The IP address is a_____bit integer? a.64 b.16 c.128 d.32 37. Abbreviation of SSL is? a. Social Secure Layer b. Secured Socket Layer c. Social Socket Layer d. Secured Service Layer 38. Domain name .in is used for? a. Network organizations b. Organizations c. India d. Increment 39. Who invented the World Wide Web? a. BillGates b. Warren Baffet c. Tim BernerLee d. Tom crusei 40. Web server uses which pools to service multiple concurrent request? a. application b. request c. session d. thread 41. Which active contents are more secure? a.javascript b. Java Applet c. ActiveX d.Servlets 42. HTTP status code 500-599 indicates a.indicates an error on the server b.indicates information message c.indicates an error on client d.indicates an error in webbrowser 43. Dynamic web content is generated by a. JSP or ASP b. HTML c. C d. XML 44. HTTP is ------ protocol a. stateless b. stateful c. semistateful d. none

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45. HTML is ------ language

a. case sensitive b. case insensitive c. partially sensitive d. Hyper text

46. IP address is provided by

a. Microsoft b. ISP c. Netscape d. Oracle 47. <%=Hello +username %> Is an example of a. JSP scriplet b. JSP comment c. JSP declaration d. JSP expression 48. Which of the following is a proper way to include java.util package in your JSP ? a. <page:import=java.util.*> b. <%@ import class=java.util.*> c. <%=import java.util.*> d. <%@ page import=java.util.* %>

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49. What is the output of the following code?

<HTML> <HEAD></HEAD> <BODY> <%! int counter; %> <% counter = 100; %> The number of hits <% = ++counter %> </BODY> </HTML>

a. The number of hits ++counter b. The number of hits 100 c. Page won't compile d. The number of hits 101 50. Active contents are called ----- technologies a.server side b. client side c. web based d. service oriented 51. HTTP status code 200-299 indicates a. Successful client request b. Server errors c. Client request errors d. Redirect client request