Health Care Management – Part 2 14Mar2009

HCM #1 – Medical Practice Management: Financial Success

1) Which of the following is NOT a response to change in medical practice?
a) Health plan consolidation
b) Pay for performance
c) Physician-driven health insurance
d) Changes in delivery system
e) Technology
2) In Pennsylvania, what is the cost for insuring children who qualify for the Children’s
Health Insurance Plan (CHIP)?
a) $1000 / year
b) $100 / month
c) 10% of parent’s income
d) 5% of parent’s income
e) Free
3) According to the Modern Physician’s Compensation Survey in 2006-07, which of the
following did NOT see a large average increase in total annual compensation?
a) Oncology
b) Pathology
c) Psychiatry
d) Family practice
e) Orthopedic surgery
f) Neurology
4) According to the 2007 Cejka Search and ACPE Physician Executive Compensation
Survey, which of the following degrees is the most common at nearly 20% of physicians?
a) MBA
b) MPH
c) MMM
d) MHA
5) TransforMED is a program to implement a patient-centered, collaborative model for
which type of physicians?
a) Internal medicine
b) Family practice
c) Anesthesiology
d) Cardiology
e) Pathology
6) Which of the following phrases best describes handling financial accounting in
medical practice?
a) You win some, you lose some
b) That which gets measured, gets managed
c) If you want quick and effective results you must put money in
d) Sometimes your best investments are the ones you don’t make
e) Show me the money
7) Which of the following describes net income, which contains operational results over a
specified period of time?
a) Expenses + Revenues = Net Income
b) Expenses - Revenues = Net Income

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c) Revenues + Expenses = Net Income

d) Revenues - Expenses = Net Income
e) Revenues * Expenses = Net Income
8) Which of the following describes capitation?
a) Amount shown is less than clinic’s gross charges for services provided
b) Services are paid on the basis of utilization
c) Premium revenue reported at start of each contract
d) Interest on investments, contributions, consulting
e) Net gain
9) Which of the following ist he dominant portion of a clinic’s cost structure?
a) Labor
b) Medical supplies
c) Purchased medical services
d) Depreciation expense
e) Provision for bad debts
f) Interest expenses
10) What is the most important piece of information on an income statement (profit and
loss statement)?
a) Net income
b) Income before taxes
c) Operating profit
d) Selling expenses
e) Profitability
11) Financial condition depends, at least in the short run, more on _____ into and out of
the business than reported ____.
a) Net income; Cash flow
b) Cash flow; Net income
c) Rough estimate; Cash flow
d) Cash flow; Rough estimate
e) Rough estimate; Net income
12) A balance sheet gives a snapshot of the financial position of an organization at a
given point of time and involves assets, liabilities, and equity. Which of the following
describes assets?
a) Liabilities + Equity = Assets
b) Liabilities - Equity = Assets
c) Equity - Liabilities = Assets
d) Equity * Liabilities = Assets
e) Liabilities / Equity = Assets
13) Long-term investments is money invested in securities whose maturities exceed what
time frame?
a) 1 day
b) 1 month
c) 1 quarter
d) 1 year
e) 1 decade
14) Which of the following describes profit margin?

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a) Net income + Total revenues = Profit margin

b) Net income - Total revenues = Profit margin
c) Total revenues - Net income = Profit margin
d) Total revenues * Net income = Profit margin
e) Net income / Total revenues = Profit margin
15) Which of the following describes return on investment?
a) Net income + Total assets = Return on investment
b) Net income - Total assets = Return on investment
c) Total assets - Net income = Return on investment
d) Total assets * Net income = Return on investment
e) Net income / Total assets = Return on investment
16) Which of the following describes current ratio?
a) Current assets + Current liabilities = Current ratio
b) Current assets - Current liabilities = Current ratio
c) Current liabilities - Current assets = Current ratio
d) Current liabilities * Current assets = Current ratio
e) Current assets / Current liabilities = Current ratio
f) Current liabilities / Current assets = Current ratio
17) Which of the following describes days cash on hand?
a) Cash - Short-term investments / (Expenses - non-cash expenses) / 365
b) Cash - Short-term investments / (Expenses + non-cash expenses) / 365
c) Cash + Short-term investments / (Expenses - non-cash expenses) / 365
d) Cash + Short-term investments / (Expenses + non-cash expenses) / 365
18) Which of the following (in standard deviations) is defined as 3.4 defects per million
opportunities?
a) One Sigma
b) Two Sigma
c) Three Sigma
d) Four Sigma
e) Five Sigma
f) Six Sigma
19) About how many sigmas (standard deviations) is 99%, which would mean 50,000
incorrect surgical operations per year and 200,000 wrong drug prescriptions each year?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) Five
20) For accounts receivable (A/R) to be within normal limits, it would have to be less
than ____ total gross charges.
a) One month
b) Two months
c) Three months
d) Four months
e) Five months
21) What is a good goal for adjusted collection rates?

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a) Rates always 100%

b) Rates at least 90-95%
c) Rates at least 80-85%
d) Rates at least 50-60%
e) Rates at least 5-10%
22) What is a good goal for the A/R age?
a) Less than 10% is aged 120 days or more
b) Less than 25% is aged 120 days or more
c) 50% is aged 120 days or more
d) More than 75% is aged 120 days or more
e) More than 90% is aged 120 days or more
23) What percentage of medical practices will be involved in fraud?
a) 5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 95%

HCM #2 & 3 – Business Knowledge in Medical Practice

1) Which of the following positions would NOT be necessary when starting your own
medical practice?
a) Accountant
b) Attorney
c) Management Consultant
d) Receptionist
e) Acupuncturist
2) Which of the following is the best option for ensuring business partners know their
office schedules and to reduce confusion?
a) Calling each partner
b) Separating the call and work schedules
c) Combing the call and work schedules
d) Putting schedules in writing
e) Letting partners decide their own schedules
3) Which of the following is the most important step when starting your own medical
practice?
a) Credentialing
b) The loan
c) A line of credit
d) Office space
e) Office location
4) Which of the following aspects (licensures/certificates) of beginning a medical
practice involves registration for laboratory quality and accuracy?
a) Medical license
b) DEA license
c) Employer identification number (EIN)
d) State taxpayer identification number (TIN)

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e) Medicare number
f) Medicade number
g) CLIA certificate
h) Local business license
i) Insurance credentialing
5) Which of the following would benefit from the use of technology (electronic)?
a) Medical records
b) Scheduling
c) Billing
d) Hospital linking
e) Communication between physicians and staff
f) All of the above
6) Which of the following deals with receiving payment for the medical services
provided by the practice?
a) Fee schedule
b) Billing/coding
c) Collections
d) Bookkeeping
e) Payroll

HCM #4 – Starting a Practice: The first steps, one year out

1) Which of the following is the best choice for a starting point to get connected with the
community and understand demographics when looking to start a medical practice?
a) American Red Cross
b) Police precinct
c) Car dealerships
d) Community center
e) Local hospitals
2) Which of the following types of information would likely NOT be found at a local
chamber of commerce and local libraries?
a) Local school information
b) Local service provided
c) Local crime information
d) Local growth information
e) Local economic profile
3) If you called a local physician in your area and inquired about appointment time,
which of the following would be true if there was a significant wait?
a) Insurance will cover most costs for that specialty in the area
b) Finding patients for a new business would not be difficult
c) Many of the patients in the area are very ill
d) Many of the patients in the area are elderly
e) Traffic patterns would not affect a new business
4) Which of the following is NOT one of the key advisers a new medical practice would
need?
a) Attorney
b) Statistician

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c) Accountant (CPA)
d) Management consultant
5) Which of the following questions would NOT be helpful to ask when interviewing a
potential practice management adviser?
a) What do you know about opportunities for my specialty in this neighborhood?
b) How do you charge for your services?
c) What should I expect from you in the first three months?
d) Will you be available to complete medical coding and billing documents?
e) What documents will you be producing for me and what input do I have?
6) Lending instaurations do not need to see start-up cost and cash-flow projections in
detail before loaning you money, thus time can be saved by skipping this task.
a) True
b) False
7) For a solo medical practice, how much space would be sufficient and not wasteful?
a) 135 square feet
b) 1,350 square feet
c) 6,850 square feet
d) 13,500 square feet
e) 68,500 square feet
8) Which of the following budget items will likely be the most expensive on a month to
month basis?
a) Rent
b) Utilities
c) Clinical supplies
d) Malpractice premiums
e) Staffing
9) To estimate how much cash will come in, you and your adviser will need to find out
what the insurance companies pay per current procedural terminology (CPT) code, and
project how many patients you'll see each month for the first how many months?
a) 24
b) 14
c) 9
d) 6
e) 3
10) Which of the following is a component of the cash-flow forecast?
a) Placing an ad in the Yellow pages
b) Determining the age of the population in the area
c) Deciding if you want to have mid-level practitioners on staff
d) Hiring a management consultant

HCM #5 – Starting a Practice: 9-10 months out: Loans, leases, and credentialing
1) Which of the following typically has a variable rate and is used to cover cash-flow
shortfalls for routine operating expenses, such as payroll, and would not be used to cover
start-up costs and long-term expenses?
a) Loan
b) Mortgage

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c) Line of credit
d) Cash on hand
e) Loan shark
2) When choosing a private practice location, it should be near ____ if you are a
specialist and near ____ if you are a generalist.
a) A hospital; A hospital
b) A hospital; Population centers
c) Population centers; A hospital
d) Population centers; Population centers
3) What rental term is recommended for a new medical practice?
a) 3 months
b) 3 years
c) 10 years
d) 15 years
e) 25 years
4) Which of the following would be an additional cost if you failed to pay your building
rent on time?
a) Liability
b) Exclusivity
c) Accessibility
d) Operation cost
e) Default provisions
5) Which of the following is a medical licensing requirement that may NOT be required
by all states?
a) Periodic competency exams
b) Written licensing exam
c) Graduation from an accredited medical school
d) Completion of a recognized postgraduate training program
6) Some states require a separate Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) license for
the prescription of what type of drugs?
a) Hypnotics
b) Amphetamines
c) Barbituates
d) Paralytics
e) Narcotics
7) Which of the following is needed in order to get paid by Medicare?
a) DEA
b) CLIA
c) EIN
d) UPIN
e) ECGMG

HCM #6 – Starting a practice: 7-8 months out: Benefits and insurance

1) What is the Section 125 cafeteria plan for employees?
a) A reduced-cost meal plan
b) A reduced-cost health coverage plan

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c) A maternity leave plan

d) A reduced-cost work-related travel insurance plan
e) An employee union
2) What type of expense would NOT be reimbursable under a flexible spending account
(FSA) plan as it is often covered?
a) Eye care
b) Elder care
c) Chiropractic care
d) Prescription drugs
3) A Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees (SIMPLE) IRA is a good starting plan
as it does not have associated overhead costs. How much salary can be deferred on top of
the employer matching amount?
a) $3,000
b) $6,000
c) $9,000
d) $12,000
e) $15,000
4) The Simplified Employee Pension (SEP) plan allows for the preservation of what
percentage of employee compensation, up to a max of $41,000 annually?
a) 5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 95%
5) What type of inexpensive business coverage is also known as an employee fidelity
bond?
a) Business Owners
b) Business Continuation
c) Employee Dishonesty
d) Worker’s Compensation
e) Umbrella
6) What type of coverage insures for vandalism, theft, fire, and assets?
a) Business Owners
b) Business Continuation
c) Employee Dishonesty
d) Worker’s Compensation
e) Umbrella
7) Which of the following types of coverage would be very important to have if you
owned a solo practice and became disabled?
a) Business Owners
b) Business Continuation
c) Employee Dishonesty
d) Worker’s Compensation
e) Umbrella
8) What type of coverage, typically for $1 million or more, is used for when claims
exceed the limits of existing coverage?

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a) Business Owners
b) Business Continuation
c) Employee Dishonesty
d) Worker’s Compensation
e) Umbrella
9) What type of coverage is mandatory in most states and covers employee lost wages
due to on-the-job injury?
a) Business Owners
b) Business Continuation
c) Employee Dishonesty
d) Worker’s Compensation
e) Umbrella

HCM #7 – Starting a practice: 5-6 months out: Office design and supplies
1) Planning a medical office well can improve overall efficiency and effectiveness.
Experts say primary care doctors need how many exam rooms for top productivity?
a) None
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) As many as possible
2) When determining the waiting room size, patient families should be accounted for and
exam rooms should be subtracted. A waiting room should hold how many times the
maximal number of patients seen during the busiest hour of the day?
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
d) 2.5
e) 3
3) When calculating the floor size of a waiting room, the number of chairs calculated
should be multiplied by what floor-space size?
a) 5 square feet
b) 20 square feet
c) 50 square feet
d) 100 square feet
e) 200 square feet
4) What is the benefit of having an aquarium in the waiting room?
a) Provides heat
b) Has a calming affect
c) Provides a good smell
d) Provides entertainment for the elderly
e) Helps dehumidify the air
5) When purchasing furniture, prices should be limited to wholesale plus 25%. For chairs,
it is necessary to buy some chairs with arm rests and some without arm rests for what
type of patients?
a) Elderly

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b) Sick
c) Obese
d) Infants
e) Sleeping
6) When looking to use an electronic medical record (EMR) system, which of the
following should be purchased first?
a) Software
b) Computers
c) Flat-panel monitors
d) Backup data drives
e) Wireless routers

HCM #8 – Starting a practice: 3-4 months out: Hiring staff

1) When creating a job description for recruiting physicians into your new, modern
practice, which of the following would NOT be a helpful characteristic?
a) Previous knowledge of computers and electronic medical records
b) Willingness to learn new technology and procedures
c) Communication ability with colleagues and patients
d) Dedication to the job including willingness to work call
e) Working at a leisurely pace
2) If you would like to hire an employee for your practice at $10/hour, but no one will
sign for under $11/hour, what should you do?
a) Wait until someone accepts $10/hour
b) Pay $11/hour
c) Place a new ad for $12.50/hour
d) Do the work on your own time
e) Don’t hire anyone
3) Which of the following is necessary when hiring a candidate for a position that handles
money and finances?
a) Resume
b) Phone interview
c) In-person interview
d) Health insurance
e) Background check

HCM #9 – Starting a practice: 1-2 months out: Setting up office systems

1) Which of the following is NOT necessary when choosing a phone system?
a) Has at least three lines
b) Has a personal physician line
c) Has answering service
d) Has hold music (muzak)
2) What term length contract should be negotiated with an insurer when opening a new
practice?
a) 1 Month
b) 1 Year
c) 3 Years

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d) 5 Years
e) 10 Years
3) Having a collections system in place would ensure which of the following?
a) The insurance company know your commonly performed services
b) A health care attorney reviews all insurance contracts
c) When your reimbursement schedule expires
d) Maximize the amount of money you can earn
e) That insurance companies are reimbursing properly
4) All of the following tasks should be assigned to certain responsible individuals (one
individual has a task) EXCEPT:
a) Patient care
b) Book keeping
c) Payroll
d) Lab test results
e) Ordering supplies

HCM #10 – Starting a practice: The final steps

1) Which type of advertising is currently the least effective?
a) Internet
b) Local newspaper
c) Mailing announcements
d) Using referring physicians
e) Community health outlets
2) Which of the following would NOT be included in a practice’s brochure?
a) Health plans that the practice participates in
b) HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices
c) Practice’s financial policy
d) How to renew prescriptions
3) A patient registration packet would NOT include which of the following?
a) Acknowledgement of Receipt
b) Authorization to Disclose Medical Information
c) General informed consent
d) Physician photo and personal profile
e) Insurance information
4) Which of the following would improve patient loyalty and help create a successful
medical practice?
a) Short visits
b) Crowded waiting rooms
c) Follow-up phone calls
d) Casual dress code for physicians
e) Titanium statues of the practice’s physicians

HCM #11 – The Medical Home: An idea whose time has come…again
1) Which of the following is a key issue standing in the way of the medical home
concept?
a) Whether there is value

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b) Ability to use e-mail

c) Whether coordinated care can take place
d) Being patient-centered
e) Malpractice
2) Which of the following is true of the Community Care of North Carolina medical
home concept between 2003 and 2004?
a) Medicaid enrollees were not allowed to join
b) Patients received extremely poor medical care
c) The program showed no financial benefit or loss
d) The program cost the state millions of dollars
e) The program saved the state millions of dollars
3) Having a regular source of continuous care over time has been shown to:
a) Leads to better health outcomes but higher costs
b) Leads to better health outcomes and lower costs
c) Leads to worst health outcomes and higher costs
d) Leads to worse health outcomes but lower costs
4) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the implementation of a care
management fee for medical homes?
a) Due to physician’s inability to afford to provide the non-face-to-face time
required for this type of care
b) Due to inability to support the required technical infrastructure
c) Would be a per-member, per-month fee
d) Would bring large profits to the business
5) The National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) vetoed pilot testing proposed
by the American Academy of Family Practitioners (AAFP) for a medical home model,
further delaying development and approval of medical homes.
a) True
b) False

HCM #12 – The ideal medical practice model

1) Which of the following is NOT true of an Ideal Medical Practice (IMP)?
a) Enhances doctor-patient relationship
b) Increases face-to-face time between doctors and patients
c) Increase physician workloads
d) Instills patients with a sense of responsibility for their health
e) Cuts wasted dollars from the entire medical system
2) Which of the following is NOT a key principle of a professional IMP?
a) High quality
b) Patient centered
c) Collaborative care
d) Fettered access and continuity
e) Extreme efficiency
3) Which of the following involves measurement to understand how well a practice is
doing and to demonstrate the value the practice has?
a) Efficiency
b) Access

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c) Quality
d) Care coordination
4) Which of the following has the primary goal of enhancing the doctor-patient
relationship?
a) Efficiency
b) Access
c) Quality
d) Care coordination

HCM #13 – Seven strategies for creating a more efficient practice

1) Which of the following efficiency strategies places responsibility on the patient and
helps reduce initial time during a physician-patient encounter?
a) Offer online appointment booking
b) Delegate history taking to patients
c) Use free tools to measure how you’re doing
d) Use e-mail to convey laboratory and x-ray results to patients
e) Don’t be afraid to let the answering machine pick up
f) Use electronic billing
g) Hire a poster/biller
2) Which of the following most reduces the need for a receptionist?
a) Offer online appointment booking
b) Delegate history taking to patients
c) Use free tools to measure how you’re doing
d) Use e-mail to convey laboratory and x-ray results to patients
e) Don’t be afraid to let the answering machine pick up
f) Use electronic billing
g) Hire a poster/biller
3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding starting a micro medical practice?
a) It can help reduce overhead costs
b) It can help reduce patient volume
c) It can allow for more time with each patient
d) It can be mobile, such as a van (down by the river)

HCM #14 – Virtual Office Visits: A Reachable and Reimbursable Innovation

1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding virtual office visits?
a) They are best suited for established patients
b) The patient still has the option of an office visit
c) They can be used for everyday as well as emergency situations
d) The physician can require the patient to make an in-person visit
e) They provide convenience for the patient
2) Which of the following is a good candidate patient who would benefit from utilizing a
virtual office visit?
a) A 50-year-old man with substernal chest pain
b) A mother whose son has a swollen tongue after a bee sting
c) A 30-year-old who has not seen a physician since middle school
d) A 45-year-old software engineer with a very tight work schedule

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HCM #15 & 16 – Physician Contracts

1) Although operating margins are decreasing, what is the operating margin for hospitals
(historically)?
a) 5-10%
b) 25-30%
c) 45-50%
d) 65-70%
e) 85-90%
2) If a hospital is losing money and physicians are being paid within the average pay
ranges, there is no legal issue.
a) True
b) False
3) In 1980, the net fee-for-service was about 90%. Increasing discounts that medical
groups must offer to insurance companies to obtain managed care contracts have forced
the fee-for-service (FFS) gross collection rate to approximately:
a) 100%
b) 80%
c) 60%
d) 40%
e) 20%
4) Which of the following is NOT a way to help improve net revenue for a private
medical practice?
a) Add a Level II lab
b) Hire mid-level providers
c) Add radiology
d) Add more general practice rooms
5) What was the first year to see a double digit reduction in physician Medicare
reimbursement?
a) 2002
b) 2004
c) 2006
d) 2007
e) 2008
6) Which of the following is true (in 2007) regarding the median compensation for
physician specialties by practice owner?
a) Hospital-owned practices pay significantly more
b) Physician-owned practices pay significantly more
c) There is no significant difference between hospital- and physician-owned
practice compensation
7) Approximately how many days a year would a normal physician work, given 2080
hours of full-time work and a standard benefits package?
a) 50 days
b) 100 days
c) 150 days
d) 200 days

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e) 250 days
8) In general, an internal medicine physician will see over 21 patients per day in an
office. How many patients a day will a hospital physician see?
a) 1
b) 5
c) 10
d) 15
e) 30
9) A visit with a relative value unit (RVU) of 3.00 would be considered?
a) Minimal
b) Problem focused
c) Expanded problem focused
d) Detailed
e) Complex
10) A multispecialty group is most likely to use what classification of compensation plan
for pay-by-performance?
a) 100% productivity
b) 50-99% productivity
c) 50-99% guaranteed
d) 100% salary
e) 100% equal share
11) An Evergreen (perpetual) agreement is general associated with what type of group?
a) Solo specialty group
b) Multi-specialty group
c) Family practice group
d) Internal medicine group
e) Hospital-owned group
12) What is tail coverage?
a) Malpractice insurance while at a practice (cover your tail)
b) Insurance in the event of a disability
c) Insurance in the event of an illness
d) Malpractice insurance after leaving a practice
e) Maternity leave insurance
13) Which of the following compensation arrangements would be most likely seen in
private practice?
a) Salary
b) Base salary with incentive compensation
c) Straight production
14) Which of the following is NOT a fringe benefit?
a) Continuing medical education (CME)
b) 401(k)
c) Salary
d) Sick days
e) Dental insurance
15) Occurrence-based professional liability (malpractice) insurance requires tail
coverage.

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a) True
b) False
16) Which of the following locations has the highest professional liability insurance rate
for internal medicine (2004-2006)?
a) Chicago
b) Cleveland
c) Erie
d) Los Angeles
e) Miami
17) Two times annual earnings is considered reasonable for a non-compete provision
within an employment contract. What is a reasonable time period?
a) Two years
b) Five years
c) Seven years
d) Ten years
e) Indefinite
18) What is a non-solicitation provision within an employment contract?
a) Prevents leaving physician from selling services to old employer
b) Prevents leaving physician from starting a new practice
c) Prevents leaving physician from practicing within ten miles
d) Prevents leaving physician from recruiting old coworkers
e) Prevents leaving physician from applying for tail coverage
19) An employment contract may require controversy to be settled by arbitration.
Arbitration is often less costly than litigation.
a) True
b) False
20) Which of the following is NOT true regarding Buy/Sell Agreements?
a) Historically they involved an economic apprenticeship
b) Today physicians feel value comes from annual earnings
c) Modest buy/sell transactions with predetermined terms are becoming popular
d) Partnership is guaranteed after a contract limited time (1-3 years)
e) They may be executed at the end of the employment term
21) The value for accounts receivable is usually calculated based on:
a) Book value
b) Subjective value
c) Fair market value
d) Historical collection rates
22) Which of the following is NOT a successful characteristic of a buy/sell agreement?
a) Methodology is established up front
b) Price is established up front
c) The agreement services the short-term strategic interest of the group
d) The price of the transaction is not an unreasonable financial burden
e) Equity holders can purchase equal share and equal vote
23) Dispute negotiations should be done in good faith and in fairness to all involved.
a) True
b) False

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24) How long do confidentiality agreements last after employment is terminated?

a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 3 years
d) 5 years
e) Indefinitely
25) Which of the following would NOT be considered accounts receivable?
a) Cash
b) Outstanding patient debt
c) Credit card payments for services
d) Reimbursements

James Lamberg

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AnswerKey 10) C 12) D

HCM #1 HCM #10 13) C
1) C 1) A 14) C
2) E HCM #5 2) B 15) B
3) D 1) C 3) D 16) E
4) A 2) B 4) C 17) A
5) B 3) B 18) D
6) B 4) E 19) A
7) D 5) A HCM #11 20) D
8) C 6) E 1) A 21) D
9) A 7) D 2) E 22) C
10) E 3) B 23) A
11) B 4) D 24) E
12) A HCM #6 5) B 25) A
13) D 1) B
14) E 2) D
15) E 3) C HCM #12
16) E 4) B 1) C
17) C 5) C 2) D
18) F 6) A 3) C
19) C 7) B 4) B
20) C 8) E
21) B 9) D
22) A HCM #13
23) D 1) B
HCM #7 2) A
1) D 3) D
HCM #2 & 3 2) D
1) E 3) B
2) D 4) B HCM #14
3) A 5) C 1) C
4) G 6) A 2) D
5) F
6) C
HCM #8 HCM #15 & 16
1) E 1) A
HCM #4 2) B 2) A
1) E 3) E 3) C
2) C 4) D
3) B 5) E
4) B HCM #9 6) C
5) D 1) D 7) D
6) B 2) B 8) B
7) B 3) E 9) E
8) E 4) A 10) A
9) A 11) E

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