Quiz Neuroscience Part 1 of 4

Neuroscience – Part 1 26Mar2009
Neuro #1 – Physiology: General Sensory System (Chapter 7)

1.1) Which of the following is NOT mediated by the trigeminothalamic tract?
a) Oral
b) Nasal
c) Cranial
d) Neck
e) Face
1.2) Which of the following sensations is part of the spinothalamic tract and not the
dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway?
a) Flutter-vibration
b) Touch & pressure
c) Temperature & pain
d) Proprioception
1.3) Sensory neurons of the central nervous system have what type of receptive fields?
a) Excitatory only
b) Inhibitory only
c) Excitatory and inhibitory
d) None of the above
1.4) What sensory modality is evoked by transient cutaneous mechanical stimuli?
a) Cold
b) Warm
c) Pain
d) Touch-pressure
e) Flutter-vibration
1.5) Which aspect of stimulus can be encoded by the intervals between discharges of
sensory neurons?
a) Stimulus location
b) Stimulus threshold
c) Stimulus intensity
d) Stimulus frequency
e) Stimulus duration
1.6) In the receptor equation, Response = (Stimulus)^n * Constant, what does “Stimulus”
represent?
a) Stimulus location
b) Stimulus threshold
c) Stimulus intensity
d) Stimulus frequency
e) Stimulus duration
Match the type of neuron (order) with the location or description:
2.1) Located in sensory nucleus of thalamus a) First-order
2.2) Located in a sensory pathway b) Second-order
2.3) Located in sensory receiving areas of cerebral cortex c) Third-order
2.4) Located in spinal cord or brainstem d) Higher-order
3.1) Cell bodies of primary afferent neurons are generally located in:
a) Intermediolateral cell column (IML)
b) Dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -1-

c) Sensory receptors peripherally

d) Spinal cord or brainstem
e) Second-order neurons
3.2) What somatovisceral projection generally represents the face?
a) Spinocervicothalamic pathway
b) Trigeminothalamic tract
c) Postsynaptic dorsal column pathway
d) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
e) Spinoreticular tract
f) Spinomesencephalic tract
4.1) Rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors include Meissner corpuscles (flutter sensation),
which are located:
a) On the hairy skin
b) On the non-hairy skin
c) In subcutaneous tissue
d) On visceral organs
e) In bone marrow
4.2) Pacinian corpuscles (pressure touch, high frequency vibration) and Ruffini
corpuscles (skin stretch) are located:
a) On the hairy skin
b) On the non-hairy skin
c) In subcutaneous tissue
d) On visceral organs
e) In bone marrow
4.3) What type of sensation is transmitted by Merkel nerve endings?
a) Temperature
b) Pain
c) Proprioception
d) Vibration
e) Touch
4.4) Which of the following types of receptors is un-myelinated?
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Touch
d) Flutter
e) Vibration
4.5) A! fibers are ____ nociceptors and C fibers are ____ nociceptors.
a) Myelinated; Myelinated
b) Myelinated; Unmyelinated
c) Unmyelinated; Myelinated
d) Unmyelinated; Unmyelinated
4.6) Which of the following events would most stimulate A! fiber nociceptors?
a) Itching induced by histamine
b) Diving into a cold pool
c) Stepping into a hot tub
d) Being stuck with an IV needle

5.1) Which of the following would respond most when a joint is moved into extreme
flexion or extension?
a) Merkel nerve endings
b) Ruffini corpuscles
c) Meissner corpuscles
d) Pacinian corpuscles
5.2) Which of the following is NOT involved in proprioception?
a) Golgi tendon organs
b) Muscle spindle fibers
c) Nociceptors that respond to applied pressure to the muscle
d) Pacinian corpuscles in limb joints
e) Hair follicles on the skin of moving joints
6.1) Small myelinated and unmyelinated nociceptive and thermoceptive primary afferent
fibers of the trigeminal nerve terminate in what nucleus?
a) Principal sensory nucleus
b) Spinal nucleus
c) Mesencephalic nucleus
6.2) Primary afferent fibers from stretch receptors have their cell bodies in what
trigeminal nerve nucleus?
b) Spinal nucleus
6.3) The large myelinated fibers that supply the mechanoreceptors of the skin and
structures of the oral and nasal cavities synapse in what trigeminal nerve nucleus?
b) Spinal nucleus
7) Which of the following is NOT a main difference between the responses of the dorsal
column neurons when compared to primary afferent neurons?
a) Dorsal column neurons have smaller receptive fields
b) Dorsal column neurons sometimes respond to more than one class of sensory
receptors because of the convergence of several different types of primary
afferent fibers on the second order neurons
c) Dorsal column neurons have inhibitory receptive fields mediated through
interneuronal circuits in the dorsal column nuclei
d) Dorsal column neurons have more than one primary afferent fiber synapsing on
a given dorsal column neuron
8) Which of the following is NOT a sensory function of the dorsal spinal tracts?
a) Flutter-vibration
b) Touch-pressure
c) Temperature
d) Position sense
e) Joint movement
f) Visceral distention
9) In general, the spinothalamic tract is responsible for somatic:
a) Flutter (low frequency) & vibration (high frequency) sensation

b) Position sense and joint movement

c) Visceral organ distention and damage
d) Pain and temperature sensation
e) Deep touch and moving pressure sensation
10) Which of the following stimuli would likely evoke the greatest response in wide-
dynamic-range cells?
a) Innocuous stimuli
b) Weakly tactile stimuli
c) Normal noxious stimuli
d) Pathological innoculous stimuli
e) Pathological noxious stimuli
11) The trigeminal nociceptive system would include headaches and which of the
following?
a) Torticollis pain
b) Referred chest pain
c) Tooth pain
d) Occipital pain
e) Carotid bruits pain
12.1) Which of the following is involved in the transmission of somatovisceral sensory
information associated with the attentional mechanisms and arousal?
b) Spinoreticular tract
e) Trigeminothalamic tract
12.2) Which of the following terminates in the periaqueductal gray, which is an important
component of the endogenous analegesia system and causes vocalization and aversive
(avoidance) behavior?
e) Ventral spinal tract
13) Which of the following functions to sense temperature and painful stimuli?
e) Ventral spinal tract
14) In angina pectoris, pain may be referred to the body following affected dermatomes
(e.g. T1). Nociceptors in the heart lead to activation and cross-excitation of what two
pathways, resulting in referred pain?
a) Spinothalamic tract & sensory receptors supplying the affected dermatomes

b) Spinomesencephalic tract & sensory receptors supplying the affected

dermatomes
c) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract & ventral spinal tract
d) Ventral spinal tract & postsynaptic dorsal column pathway
e) Sensory receptors supplying the heart and surrounding dermatomes
15.1) When the periaqueductal gray activates the raphe-spinal pathway, cells in what tract
are inhibited?
c) Spinothalamic tract
e) Spinomesencephalic tract
15.2) The main function of raphe nuclei is to release what into the brain?
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Melatonin
d) Epinepherine
e) Norepinepherine
16) The endogenous analgesia system is divided into pathways that release one of the
endogenous opioids and those that do not. Which of the following could reverse the
actions of opioid analgesia?
a) Naloxone (Narcan)
b) Fentanyl (Duragesic)
c) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
d) Oxycodone (OxyContin)
e) Midazolam (Versed)
17.1) The ____-synaptic action of opiates on nociceptive afferent terminals is thought to
prevent the release of ____ transmitters, such as the neuropeptide Substance P.
a) Pre; Excitatory
b) Pre; Inhibitory
c) Post; Excitatory
d) Post; Inhibitory
17.2) Serotonin (in raphe nuclei) ____ nociceptors neurons and catecholamines (in
brainstem neurons), such as norepinephrine, ____ nociceptors neurons.
a) Activate; Activate
b) Activate; Inhibit
c) Inhibit; Activate
d) Inhibit; Inhibit
18) Stress-induced analgesia is a(n) ____ pathway engaged by stress and thus ____ to
naloxone.
a) Opioid; Responds
b) Opioid; Does not respond
c) Non-opioid; Responds
d) Non-opioid; Does not respond
e) None of the above

Neuro #2 – Physiology: Special Senses (Chapter 8)

1) Which of the following best describes the cones of the eye regarding their ability to
view visible light (400-700nm wavelength)?
a) Color vision and low visual acuity
b) Color vision and high visual acuity
c) Non-color vision and low visual acuity
d) Non-color vision and high visual acuity
2) Rods are considered ____ and cones are considered ____, regarding their ability to see
in either reduced lighting or daylight conditions.
a) Photopic; Photopic
b) Photopic; Scotopic
c) Scotopic; Photopic
d) Scotopic; Scotopic
3) A patient is given morphine in the intensive care unit (ICU) due to intense pain. Since
morphine works on the parasympathetic nervous system, it is expected that the patient’s
pupils ____ due to action of the pupillary ____ muscle.
a) Constrict; Dilator
b) Constrict; Sphincter
c) Dilate; Dilator
d) Dilate; Sphincter
4) Imbalances in the secretion or absorption of the aqueous humor can increase the
pressure in the eye (glaucoma). Which of the following describes the correct flow order
of aqueous humor?
a) Ciliary processes => Posterior chamber => Pupil => Anterior chamber =>
Schlemm canal => Venous circulation
b) Ciliary processes => Anterior chamber => Pupil => Posterior chamber =>
c) Ciliary processes => Pupil => Posterior chamber => Anterior chamber =>
d) Ciliary processes => Pupil => Anterior chamber => Posterior chamber =>
e) Ciliary processes => Posterior chamber => Anterior chamber => Pupil =>
5.1) What is the refractive power of the cornea of the eye, which is the main refractive
surface of the eye?
a) 1 diopter
b) 13 diopters
c) 26 diopters
d) 39 diopters
e) 43 diopters
5.2) What is the refractive power range of the lens of the eye, which is crucial for
focusing images on the retina?
a) 1-13 diopters
b) 13-26 diopters
c) 26-39 diopters
d) 39-43 diopters

6.1) In myopia (nearsightedness), images are focused ____ the retina because the eye is
disproportionately ____. In hypermetropia (farsightedness), images are focused ____ the
retina because the eye is disproportionately ____.
a) Behind; Short; In front; Long
b) Behind; Long; In front; Short
c) In front; Short; Behind; Long
d) In front; Long; Behind; Short
6.2) During aging, the lens loses its elasticity and this loss reduces the ability of the eye
to accommodate. This is termed:
a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
c) Astigmatism
d) Miosis
e) Mydriasis
f) Presbyopia
6.3) Astigmatism is a lack of symmetrical focusing, which usually occurs due to
diminished radial symmetry of which of the following?
a) Cornea
b) Iris
c) Lens
d) Fovea
e) Sclera
f) Macula
7.1) Which of the following best describes rods, when compared to cones?
a) Rods have more photopigment and greater convergence (more sensitivity)
b) Rods have more photopigment and less convergence (more resolution)
c) Rods have less photopigment and greater convergence (more sensitivity)
d) Rods have less photopigment and less convergence (more resolution)
7.2) In cones, which of the following colors (types of opsin) are present?
a) Blue, Green, and Orange
b) Yellow, Orange, and Violet
c) Blue, Green, and Red
d) Yellow, Orange, and Blue
e) Blue, Red, and Orange
8) Absorption of light causes isomerization of a rhodopsin form so that is it no longer
bound. What two rhodopsin forms are bound in the dark, prior to absorption of light?
a) Chromophore & cis-retinal
b) Cis-retinal & Opsin
c) Opsin & chromophore
d) Trans-retinal & opsin
e) Chromophore & trans-retinal
9.1) Cones are most concentrated at the ____ and rods are most concentrated at the ____.
a) Optic disc; Fovea
b) Fovea; Parafoveal region
c) Optic disc; Paraoptic disc region
d) Fovea; Optic disc

e) Optic disc; Parafoveal region

9.2) The optic disc is located on the ____ side of the retina, and thus the part of the visual
field that would be imaged on the blind spot is on the ____ side of the field of vision of
that eye.
a) Lateral; Nasal
b) Lateral; Temporal
c) Medial; Nasal
d) Medial; Temporal
10) Which of the following best describes the most direct route for light passage through
the retina?
a) Bipolar cells => Photoreceptors => Ganglion cells => Thalamus
b) Ganglion cells => Bipolar cells => Photoreceptors => Thalamus
c) Photoreceptors => Thalamus => Ganglion cells => Bipolar cells
d) Bipolar cells => Ganglion cells => Photoreceptors => Thalamus
e) Photoreceptors => Bipolar cells => Ganglion cells => Thalamus
11.1) In non-light situations, a dark current exists in the eyes resulting in a tonic release
of neurotransmitter onto bipolar cells and horizontal cells. This dark current is caused by
what type of channels being open in photoreceptors?
a) Potassium
b) Chlorine
c) Sodium
d) Calcium
e) ATPase
11.2) Light activates a G-protein called transducin, which activates a phosphodiesterase,
which leads to the hydrolization of which of the following, causing hyperpolarization?
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) cAMP
d) cGMP
12.1) Bipolar cells that are off-center will ____ when light is shined on the center of the
receptive field and ____ when light is shined on the annulus around the center of the
receptive field.
a) Depolarize; Depolarize
b) Depolarize; Hyperpolarize
c) Hyperpolarize; Depolarize
d) Hyperpolarize; Hyperpolarize
12.2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the P cell subtype of ganglion cells
in the eye?
a) Larger receptive field
b) Respond more tonically to stimuli
c) Have slower axons
d) Summate in a linear fashion
e) Distinguish between colors
12.3) What type of ganglion cell in the eye signal the intensity of ambient light, are
controlled by amacrine cells, and have a projection on the superior colliculus?
a) M cells

b) P cells
c) W cells
13.1) In which case is vision lost in only one eye, either full vision loss (blindness) or
partial vision loss (scotoma)?
a) Damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
b) Damage to the geniculo-calcarine tract (optic radiation)
c) Damage to the optic chiasm
d) Damage to the visual cortex
e) Damage to an optic tract
f) Damage to an optic nerve
13.2) A pituitary gland tumor causes damage to the optic chiasm. Which of the following
best describes the vision loss the patient will have?
a) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
b) Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopia
c) Bitemporal hemianopia
d) Binasal hemianopia
e) Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
13.3) Destruction of a single optic tract will result in which of the following?
a) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
b) Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopia
c) Bitemporal hemianopia
d) Binasal hemianopia
e) Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
13.4) The Meyer loop or Archambault loop is part of the optic radiation with fibers from
the inferior portion of the retina (superior visual field). Damage to this loop on one side
of the brain will lead to which of the following?
a) Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
b) Ipsilateral superior quadrantanopia
c) Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia
d) Ipsilateral inferior quadrantanopia
e) Binasal hemianopia
13.5) The primary visual cortex (striate cortex, V1) is anatomically located in which of
the following Brodmann areas?
a) BA 4
b) BA 8
c) BA 15
d) BA 17
e) BA 22
13.6) Stereopsis (binocular depth perception) depends on slight differences in the images
in the two eyes such that a given cortical neuron has its receptive field at points on the
two retinas that are slightly out of correspondence.
a) True
b) False
13.7) What type of retinal ganglion cells do spectral opponent (color vision) cells belong?
a) M cells
b) P cells

c) W cells
13.8) Which of the following mediates orienting reflexes involving retinal ganglion cells?
a) Lower layers of inferior colliculus
b) Upper layers of inferior colliculus
c) Lower layers of superior colliculus
d) Upper layers of superior colliculus
13.9) What type of ganglion cells activate the projection of cortical neurons onto the
superior colliculus?
a) M cells
b) P cells
c) W cells
Match the anatomical location with the functional description:
14.1) Visual and coordination center for orientation reflexes a) LGN
14.2) Interconnected with thalamus nuclei, process information b) Striate cortex
14.3) Receives input from retinal ganglion cells c) Extrastriate visual cortex
14.4) Orientation of stimulus is important, end of optic radiation d) Superior colliculus
15.1) At what audible frequencies is threshold zero (most sensitive frequencies)?
a) 0-20 Hz
b) 20-1,000 Hz
c) 1,000-3,000 Hz
d) 3,000-30,000 Hz
e) 20-30,000 Hz
15.2) The human acoustic system can sense sound from about 20 Hz up to approximately
what frequency?
a) 1,500 Hz
b) 3,000 Hz
c) 15,000 Hz
d) 30,000 Hz
e) 150,000 Hz
15.3) Normal speech intensity is approximately 65 dB. Damage to the human acoustic
system begins at about what frequency?
a) 65 dB
b) 90 dB
c) 100 dB
d) 110 dB
e) 120 dB
16) Which of the following describes the correct order of sound conduction starting at the
external ear canal and leading to the coiled cochlea?
a) Stapes => Incus => Malleus => Tympanic membrane
b) Malleus => Tympanic membrane => Incus => Stapes
c) Tympanic membrane => Incus => Malleus => Stapes
d) Tympanic membrane => Incus => Stapes => Malleus
e) Tympanic membrane => Malleus => Incus => Stapes
17) Endolymph is contained within the ____ and is high in potassium. Perilymph is
contained within the ____ and is high in sodium. ____ disruption can cause motion
sickness (kinetosis).
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 10 -
a) Bony labyrinth; Cochlear duct; Perilymph

b) Bony labyrinth; Cochlear duct; Endolymph
c) Cochlear duct; Bony labyrinth; Perilymph
d) Cochlear duct; Bony labyrinth; Endolymph
18) As the basilar membrane within the inner ear oscillates, the sterocilia of the hair cells
of the organ of Corti are subjected to shear forces. When the stereocilia are bent toward
the longest cilia, the hair becomes ____, causing the release of an excitatory transmitter.
As sterocilia move in the opposite direction, the membrane becomes ____.
a) Depolarized; Depolarized
b) Depolarized; Repolarized
c) Depolarized; Hyperpolarized
d) Hyperpolarized; Depolarized
e) Hyperpolarized; Repolarized
19.1) The organ of Corti is organized tonotopically, meaning that the lower part of the
frequency range detected by the cochlea is at the apex. Which of the following
frequencies would be characteristic for this location (apex of the cochlea)?
a) 20 Hz
b) 1,500 Hz
c) 4,000 Hz
d) 15,000 Hz
e) 40,000 Hz
19.2) What is the resting potential of cochlear hair cells, with reference to the
endolymph?
a) 40 mV
b) 60 mV
c) 85 mV
d) 115 mV
e) 170 mV
19.3) By means of these binaural cues, signals from the superior olivary nuclei allow the
central auditory pathways to judge the ____ of a sound.
a) Location
b) Tone (frequency)
c) Loudness (sound pressure)
20.1) Damage to which of the following would cause unilateral conduction deafness, not
sensorineural deafness?
a) Organ of Corti
b) Tympanic membrane
c) Cochlear nuclei
d) Cochlear nerve
20.2) In the Weber test, a tuning fork placed on the forehead will localize sound to the
____ ear in conduction deafness and to the ____ ear in sensorineural deafness. In the
Rinne test, a tuning fork placed against the mastoid process produces sound the
disappears, but reappears when the forks is moved next to the ear, meaning ____.
a) Normal; Deft; Bone conduction > Air conduction
b) Deft; Normal; Bone conduction > Air conduction
c) Normal; Deft; Air conduction > Bone conduction
d) Deft; Normal; Air conduction > Bone conduction

21.1) There are ____ semicircular canals in the ear and they are arranged ____ to each
other to measure movement in different planes of motion.
a) 3; Diagonal
b) 2; Parallel
c) 3; Parallel
d) 2; Orthogonal
e) 3; Orthogonal
21.2) Which of the following is an otolith organ of the ear containing mechanoreceptors
to distinguish between degrees of tilting of the head?
a) Saccule
b) Posterior canal
c) Superior canal
d) Horizontal canal
e) Utricle
22.1) Bending of sterocilia on the vestibular hair cells towards the kinocilium results in
____, and bending away from the kinocilium results in ____ of the hair cell membrane.
a) Depolarized; Depolarized
b) Depolarized; Repolarized
c) Depolarized; Hyperpolarized
d) Hyperpolarized; Depolarized
e) Hyperpolarized; Repolarized
22.2) The orientation of kinocilia in the utricular macula is ____ the striola and the
orientation of the kinocilia in the saccular macula is ____ the striola.
a) Towards; Towards
b) Towards; Away from
c) Away from; Towards
d) Away from; Away from
23) What cranial nerve terminates in the vestibular nuclei, which connects with the
cerebellum and reticular formation of the oculomotor nuclei and the spinal cord, allowing
for vestribular control of the eye and head movements?
a) CN II
b) CN III
c) CN IV
d) CN VI
e) CN VIII
Match the taste bud groups with their location and gustation (taste) response:
24.1) Posterior tongue, respond best to bitter a) Fungiform papillae
24.2) Posterior edge of tongue, respond best to sour b) Foliate papillae
24.3) Anterior 2/3 of tongue, respond best to sweet & salty c) Circumvillate papillae
Match the taste sensation with their supposed region of greatest response on the tongue:
25.1) Tip of tongue a) Bitter
25.2) Anterior, lateral edges of tongue b) Sour
25.3) Mid-lateral edges of tongue c) Salty
25.4) Posterior of tongue d) Sweet
26) Primary afferent fibers from taste buds enter the brainstem and travel caudally in the
solitary tract, ending in the nucleus of the solitary tract. The gustatory projection on the
postcentral gyrus is, like most projections, crossed (contralateral).
a) True
b) False, the projection is ipsilateral
27) Which of the following is NOT one of the seven primary odors sensed by humans?
a) Camphoaceous
b) Musk
c) Floral
d) Licorice
e) Peppermint
f) Ethereal
g) Pungent
h) Putrid
28.1) Which of the following is concerned with the discrimination of different odors?
a) Archicortex
b) Paleocortex
c) Neocortex
d) Thalamus
e) Limbic system
28.2) Like in all sensory systems, the central olfactory path has primary afferent neurons
synapsing several layers below the telencephalon.
a) True
b) False, they synapse directly on neurons of the telencephalon
Neuro #3 – Orientation To The Structure & Imaging Of The CNS (Chapter 1)

1) Which of the following is NOT part of the autonomic (visceromotor, vegetative)
nervous system?
a) Brain
b) Sexual organs
c) Heart
d) Large intestine
e) Esophagus
2) Which of the following is true of motor fibers in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
a) They enter via the posterior (dorsal) root
b) They enter via the anterior (ventral) root
c) They exit via the posterior (dorsal) root
d) They exit via the anterior (ventral) root
3) When an action potential causes neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft,
binding of the neurotransmitter with receptors on the post-synaptic membrane cause the
post-synaptic neuron to be:
a) Excited
b) Inhibited
c) Both excited and inhibited
d) Either excited or inhibited
e) Neither excited nor inhibited
4) Which of the following is most associated with the insulating lipoprotein myelin?
a) Nucleus
b) Ganglion
c) Dendrite
d) White matter
e) Synapse
5) Which of the following is NOT a component of a neural pathway?
a) Cerebral cortex
b) Spinal cord
c) Forebrain
d) Midbrain
6) Which of the following are involved in a monosynaptic reflex?
a) A sensory neuron, a motor neuron, and two synapses
b) A sensory neuron, a motor neuron, and a single synapse
c) A sensory neuron with one synapse
d) A motor neuron with one synapse
e) Either a sensory or a motor neuron and two synapses
7.1) How many pairs of nerves are associated with the spinal cord?
a) 5
b) 12
c) 13
d) 31
e) 33
7.2) Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT located in the medulla (along with
portions of the nuclei for CN V, VIII, and XI)?
a) CN VII
b) CN IX
c) CN X
d) CN XII
7.3) Which of the following serves to coordinate the activity of individual muscle groups
to produce smooth, purposeful, synergistic movements?
a) Medulla
b) Pons
c) Cerebellum
d) Midbrain
e) Thalamus
7.4) Which of the following cranial nerve (or portion of cranial nuclei) is NOT located in
the pons?
a) V
b) VI
c) VII
d) VIII
e) IX
7.5) Nuclei for what cranial nerve is NOT located in the midbrain?
a) III
b) IV
c) V
d) VI
7.6) With the exception of olfactory, all information reaching the cerebral cortex must
pass through which of the following?
a) Medulla
b) Pons
c) Cerebellum
d) Midbrain
e) Thalamus
7.7) Which part of the thalamus is responsible for sexual behavior, feeding, hormonal
output of the pituitary, body temperature regulation, and various visceromotor functions?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Subthalamus
c) Epithalamus
d) Dorsal thalamus
7.8) Which of the following contains the largest portion of white matter within the
cerebral hemispheres (largest portion of the brain)?
a) Cerebral cortex
b) Internal cortex
c) Corticospinal tract
d) Thalamacortical radiations
e) Basal nuclei (ganglia)
8.1) Damage to which of the following locations would likely affect fibers to the hand
and fibers to the eye muscles?
a) Medulla
b) Pons
c) Cerebellum
d) Midbrain
e) Thalamus
8.2) Damage to which of the following locations would likely affect fibers to the hand
and fibers to the tongue musculature?
a) Medulla
b) Pons
c) Cerebellum
d) Midbrain
e) Thalamus
Match the following localizing sign with the likely location of a lesion:
9.1) Deficits in the body only a) Cerebral hemispheres
9.2) Ipsilateral head deficits, contralateral body deficits b) Brainstem
9.3) Ipsilateral head and body deficits c) Spinal cord
10) Efferent (motor) information flows ____ the CNS and afferent (sensory) information
flows ____ the CNS.
a) Away from; Towards
b) Towards; Away from
11) Which of the following best describes anatomical locations that are rostral?
a) Front of the spinal cord/body & bottom of the brain
b) Back of the spinal cord/body & top of the brain

c) Top of the spinal cord & front of the brain
d) Bottom of the spinal cord & back of the brain
12) A sign is an indicated described by a patient as to what they are experiencing.
a) True
b) False, a sign is an observed indicator
Neuro #4 – The Cell Biology Of The Neurons & Glia (Chapter 2)

Match the type of neuron with the description:
1.1) The major neuron of the brain a) Multipolar
1.2) Sensory neuron in the PNS b) Pseudounipolar
1.3) Sensory neuron for special senses, e.g. retina c) Bipolar cells
2.1) Which of the following describes fast antegrade axonal transport?
a) Kinesin; 400 mm/day
b) Kinesin; 1 mm/day
c) Dynein; 400 mm/day
d) Dynein; 20-50 mm/day
e) Dynein; 1 mm/day
2.2) Which of the following describes retrograde axonal transport?
a) Kinesin; 400 mm/day
b) Kinesin; 1 mm/day
c) Dynein; 400 mm/day
d) Dynein; 20-50 mm/day
e) Dynein; 1 mm/day
3.1) Which of the following describes a group of parallel axon bundles in the CNS?
a) Tracts
b) Fasciculi
c) Funiculus
d) Lemnisci
e) Column
3.2) Which of the following is a group of nerve cell bodies oriented perpendicular to the
plane of the cortex?
a) Tracts
b) Fasciculi
c) Funiculus
d) Lemnisci
e) Column
4.1) What is the process of converting sensory input into a form interpretable by the
nervous system?
a) Transaction
b) Translation
c) Transduction
d) Conjugation
e) Synergism
4.2) Which of the following is NOT considered a sensory input for chemoreceptors?
a) Blood pH
b) Oxygen tension
c) Glucose levels
d) Temperature
e) Smell
5) Which of the following describes the location of the neuron active site?
a) Bouton expansion at the tip of axons
b) Synaptic vesicle containing neurotransmitter (quantum)
c) Presynaptic neurotransmitter release site
d) Postsynaptic neurotransmitter binding site
e) Postsynaptic neurotransmitter breakdown site
6.1) Although they depend on the receptor, which of the following neurotransmitters
activates adenylyl cyclase activity?
a) Glutamate
b) GABA
c) Dopamine D1
d) Dopamine D2
e) Acetylcholine
f) Adenosine
g) Substance P
6.2) Which of the following affects dopamine-synthesizing neurons in the substantia
nigra?
a) Parkinson disease
b) Alzheimer disease
c) Myasthenia gravis
6.3) Which of the following is a pathologic destruction of the neuromuscular junction
caused by autoimmune antibodies that bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors?
6.4) Which of the following results in loss of cortical cells receiving terminals from
cholinergic (acetylcholine-releasing) cells in the basal forebrain nuclei?
7.1) Which of the following are found in the gray and white matter of the CNS, and
phagocytize debris following cell injury?
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Schwann cells
7.2) Which of the following form myelin sheaths around CNS axons?
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Schwann cells
7.3) Which of the following forms sheaths around myelinated and unmyelinated axons of
the PNS?
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Schwann cells
7.4) Which of the following plays a role in maintaining extracellular ionic environment,
secretion of growth factors, and structural and metabolic support of neurons in the CNS?
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Schwann cells
8) Which of the following is NOT true of regeneration within the nervous system?
a) The growth rate of sprouting axons is about 1mm/day
b) Schwann cells cleaning degenerated neurons release nerve growth factor
c) Olfactory receptor neurons are replaced often by neural stem cells
d) Crush injuries (axonotmesis) is associated with some axonal regeneration
e) Severance injuries (neurotmesis) is associated with full axonal regeneration
Neuro #5 – Development Of The Nervous System (Chapter 5)

1.1) What day does the notochord arise from the axial mesoderm during embryonic
development, eventually persisting as the nucleus pulposus?
a) 10
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18
e) 22
1.2) During primary neurulation, the neural tube will give rise to the brain and spinal cord
down through what level?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
e) Coccygeal
1.3) What day does the anterior neuropore close during embryonic neurulation?
a) 18
b) 20
c) 22
d) 24
e) 26
1.4) Exposure to what drug during embryonic development affects microtubules and
microfilaments, thus preventing neurulation?
a) Colchicine
b) Lithium
c) Thalidomide
d) Tetracycline
e) Adenosine
2.1) Which of the following congenital defects would involve herniation of the cranial
contents through the occipital region?
a) Anencephaly
b) Encephalocele
c) Arnold-Chiari malformation
d) Myeloschisis
e) Spina bifida cystica
2.2) Which of the following is congenital herniation of the cerebellar vermis through the
foramen magnum?
a) Anencephaly
b) Encephalocele
c) Arnold-Chiari malformation
d) Myeloschisis
e) Spina bifida cystica
2.3) Congenital ____ is associated with a failure of the anterior neuropore to close and
____ is associated with a defect in the posterior neuropore, resulting in spina bifida.
a) Anencephaly; Spina bifida cystica
b) Spina bifida cystic; Anencephaly
c) Arnold-Chiari malformation; Tethered cord syndrome
d) Myeloschisis; Anencephaly
e) Anencephaly; Myeloschisis
3.1) Which of the following is associated with secondary neurulation (sacral/coccygeal)
and is marked by unusual pigmentation, hair growth, telangiectases, or prominent
dimple?
a) Anencephaly
b) Myeloschisis
c) Myelodysplasia
d) Spina bifida cystica
e) Encephalocele
3.2) An infant presents with loss of sensation in the lower limbs and subsequent loss of
bladder function. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a) Anencephaly
b) Myeloschisis
c) Myelodysplasia
d) Tethered cord syndrome
e) Encephalocele
4.1) During development, the pontine flexure divides which of the following into the
myelencephalon caudally and the metencephalon rostrally?
a) Prosencephalon (forebrain)
b) Mesencephalon (midbrain)
c) Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
4.2) During development, the telencephalic flexure divides which of the following into
the diencephalon caudally and the telencephalon rostrally?
a) Prosencephalon (forebrain)
b) Mesencephalon (midbrain)
c) Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
4.3) Which of the following describes the anatomical locations in order from the back
(posterior) to the front (anterior) of the brain?
a) Myelencephalon => Mesencephalon => Metencephalon => Diencephalon =>
Telencephalon
b) Myelencephalon => Metencephalon => Mesencephalon => Diencephalon =>
Telencephalon
c) Metencephalon => Mesencephalon => Myelencephalon => Diencephalon =>
Telencephalon
d) Myelencephalon => Metencephalon => Mesencephalon => Telencephalon =>
Diencephalon
e) Mesencephalon => Myelencephalon => Diencephalon => Metencephalon =>
Telencephalon
4.4) The major structures of the brain develop during what month of gestation?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Sixth
e) Eighth
4.5) Which of the following is associated with development of the diencephalon, not the
telencephalon?
a) Amygdale
b) Optic cup
c) Olfactory bulb
d) Cerebral cortex
e) Hippocampus
4.6) Which of the following is NOT associated with congenital nervous system defects?
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) Rubella
c) Syphilis
d) Cytomegalovirus
e) Escherichia coli
f) Herpes simplex virus
4.7) Which of the following is a third trimester neural defect associated with
hypotelorism, cyclopia, and a proboscis?
a) Encephalocele
b) Myeloschisis
c) Myelodysplasia
d) Holoprosencephaly
e) Anencephaly
5.1) The intraventricular foramina connects what two structures?
a) Third and forth ventricles
b) Lateral and third ventricles
c) Lateral and forth ventricles
d) Forth ventricle (median) and subarachnoid space
e) Lateral apertures (openings) of the forth ventricle
5.2) The cerebral aquaduct (of Sylvius) connects what two structures?
5.3) Which of the following ventricular system structures is NOT matched correctly with
its developmental structure?
a) Cavities of the telencephalic vesicles become the lateral ventricles
b) Diencephalic cavity becomes the third ventricle
c) Rhombencephalic cavity becomes the fourth ventricle
d) Ependymal cells and pia mater form the choroid plexus
e) The choroid plexus forms most of the intraventricular foramina
5.4) Which of the following describes the foramina of Luschka?
5.5) Which of the following describes the foramina of Magendie?
6.1) Placodes (epidermal cells) and neural crest cells in the PNS form the ganglia of all of
the following cranial nerves EXCEPT:
a) CN V
b) CN VI
c) CN VII
d) CN VIII
e) CN IX
f) CN X
6.2) Most of the autonomic neurons of the digestive tract (Meissner and Auerbach
plexuses) are formed by neural crest cells that migrate from the area of rhombencephalon,
which is why they are innervated by what cranial nerve?
a) CN V
b) CN VI
c) CN VII
d) CN VIII
e) CN IX
f) CN X
7.1) During spinal cord development, the basal plate becomes the anterior horn and the
alar plate becomes the posterior horn.
a) True
b) False
7.2) Which of the following is NOT innervated by general sensory afferent (GSA)
nerves?
a) Skin
b) Stomach
c) Joint capsules
d) Tendons
e) Muscles
7.3) During development, the sulcus limitans separates the basal and alar plates in the
lateral wall of the central cord, remaining as an important landmark in which location?
a) Lateral ventricles
b) Third ventricle
c) Forth ventricle
d) Cervical spine
e) Cerebral cortex
7.4) The interomediolateral cell columns (IML) of the general visceral efferent (GVE)
system is specific to what region of the spinal cord?
a) The entire cord
b) C1-C8
c) T1-T5
d) T1-L2
e) S2-S4
8.1) Which of the following cranial nerve nuclei is NOT located in the brainstem?
a) Spinal trigeminal nucleus
b) Principal sensory trigeminal nucleus
c) Solitary nucleus
d) Facial nucleus
e) Vestibular and cochlear nuclei
8.2) Which of the following originates primarily from the otic placode?
a) Spinal trigeminal nucleus
b) Principal sensory trigeminal nucleus
c) Solitary nucleus
d) Facial nucleus
e) Vestibular and cochlear nuclei
8.3) Which of the following types of nuclei is NOT general visceral efferent (GVE)?
a) Hypoglossal nucleus ( XII) of the medulla
b) Dorsal motor vagal nuclei (X) of the medulla
c) Inferior salivatory nucleus (IX) of the medulla
d) Superior salivatory nucleus (XII) of the pons
e) Edinger-Westphal nucleus (III) of the midbrain
8.4) Which of the following is a component of the medial (GSE) column and not the
lateral (SVE) column?
a) Ambiguus nucleus (IX, X) of the medulla
b) Facial nucleus (VIII)
c) Oculomotor and trochlear nuclei (III/IV) of the midbrain
d) Trigeminal motor nucleus (V) of the pon
9.1) Which of the following portions of the forebrain is NOT developed from the
rhombic lips?
a) Inferior olivary nucleus
b) Cochlear and pontine nucleus
c) Corpus cerebelli
d) Flocculonodular lobe
e) Primordium
9.2) What type of cells extend from the ventricular zone to the marginal layer and are
necessary for the proper migration of developing neurons?
a) Golgi cells
b) Radial glial cells
c) Purkinje cells
d) Unipolar brush cells
e) Cerebellar nuclei
f) Granular cells
9.3) Developmental defects in which of the following locations would clinically manifest
with ataxia, hypotonia, and tremor?
a) Thalamus
b) Cerebral cortex
c) Cerebellum
9.4) Which of the following nuclei in the thalamus develops last?
a) Geniculate nuclei
b) Ventral nuclei (somatotopic map)
c) Lateral nuclei (retinotopic map)
d) Dorsomedial nuclei (tonotopic map)
9.5) During cortical development, which of the following occurs when migration of
immature neurons from the ventricular surface is disrupted?
a) Lissencephaly
b) Pachygyria
c) Microgyria
d) Schizencephaly
e) Heterotopia
9.6) Which of the following is a condition in which there are unilateral or bilateral clefts
in the cerebral hemispheres of almost any size, leading to mental defects?
a) Lissencephaly
b) Pachygyria
c) Microgyria
d) Schizencephaly
e) Heterotopia
9.7) If the gyri fail to form developmentally, giving the cerebral cortex a smooth surface,
what condition is said to be present?
a) Lissencephaly
b) Pachygyria
c) Microgyria
d) Schizencephaly
e) Heterotopia
10.1) The developing brain is much more vulnerable to injury than the mature brain.
a) True
b) False, the developing brain shows more plasticity
10.2) Congenital cortical blindness is a delay in myelination, which can resolve during
the peak period of myelination, which occurs:
a) During the 3rd month of development
b) During the 6th month of development
c) During the first year of life
d) During teenage years
e) During adulthood
f) None of the above
Neuro #6 – The ventricles, Choroid Plexus, & CSF (Chapter 6)

1.1) The choroid plexus is located in all of the following locations EXCEPT:
a) Left lateral ventricle
b) Right lateral ventricle
c) Subarachnoid space
d) 3rd ventricle
e) 4th ventricle
1.2) Which of the following arteries is NOT involved in development of the choroid
plexus, which begins circulating cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the end of the 1st trimester?
a) Branch of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
b) Branch of the posterior spinal medulla artery
c) Branch of the medial posterior choroidal artery
d) Branch of the lateral posterior choroidal artery
e) Branch of the lateral anterior choroidal artery
2.1) An elderly adult undergoes a CT scan of portions of their choroid plexus. The
radiograph shows white spots (calcifications) in a large clump of choroid plexus; the
glomus (plexus) choroideus. Where is this located within the lateral ventricles?
a) Posterior horn
b) Anterior horn
c) Inferior horn
d) Atrium
2.2) What makes up the floor of the lateral ventricle?
a) Corpus callosum
b) Thalamus
c) Septum pellucidum
d) Fornix (bundle of fibers)
e) Caudate nucleus
2.3) What makes up the floor of the 3rd ventricle?
a) Optic chiasm, infundibulum, caudal line along rostral midbrain
b) Posterior commissure, pineal recesses
c) Tele choroidea
d) Anterior commisure, lamina terminalis
e) Cerebral aquaduct, lateral ventricles
2.4) What makes up the floor of the 4th ventricle?
a) Foramina of Luschka
b) Foramina of Magendie
c) Rhomboid fossa
d) Tele choroidea
e) Cerebellum, superior cerebellar peduncles, anterior medullary velum
2.5) Which of the following makes up the lateral recess of the 4th ventricle?
a) Foramina of Luschka
b) Foramina of Magendie
c) Rhomboid fossa
d) Tele choroidea
e) Cerebellum, superior cerebellar peduncles, anterior medullary velum
3.1) What type of ciliated cells are ependymal cells, which line the ventricles of the brain
and produce CSF?
a) Simple squamous epithelial
b) Simple cuboidal epithelial
c) Simple columnar epithelial
d) Transitional epithelial
e) Psuedocolumnar epithelial
3.2) What portion of the choroid plexus is involved in the blood-CSF barrier?
a) Shallow grooves
b) Lateral cell surface
c) Connective tissue base
d) Connective tissue core
3.3) When compared with blood plasma, which of the following is higher in CSF?
a) Cl, Mg, Na
b) K, Ca, Glucose
c) Proteins
d) Albumin
e) Uric acid
3.4) Approximately how much CSF is present in the ventricles and subarachnoid space at
any given time for an adult?
a) 10 mL
b) 120 mL
c) 450 mL
d) 500 mL
e) 1,000 mL
4) Starting with the production of CSF in the choroid plexus, which of the following
describes the descending pathway?
a) Lateral ventricles => Foramina of Monro => 4th ventricle => Foramina of
Magendie => 3rd ventricle
b) Lateral ventricles => 4th ventricle => Foramina of Monro => 3rd ventricle =>
Foramina of Magendie
c) Lateral ventricles => 3rd ventricle => Foramina of Magendie => 4th ventricle
=> Foramina of Monro
d) Lateral ventricles => 4th ventricle => Foramina of Magendie => 3rd ventricle
=> Foramina of Monro
e) Lateral ventricles => 3rd ventricle => Foramina of Monro => 4th ventricle =>
Foramina of Magendie
5.1) A 25-year-old obese female presents with headaches and visual defects. Labs show
vitamin A deficiency. Increased intracranial pressure is found. Which of the following is
the most likely?
a) Obstructive hydrocephalus
b) Aqueductal stenosis
c) Communicating hydrocephalus
d) Hydrocephalus ex Vacuo
e) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
f) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
5.2) Which of the following may be caused by a tumor near the midbrain leading to an
enlarged 3rd and both lateral ventricles?
5.3) Which of the following is NOT associated with normal pressure hydrocephalus?
a) Elderly patients
b) Urinary problems
c) Impaired gait
d) Loss of vision
e) Dementia
5.4) A patient presents with high protein in CSF, high CSF pressure, and impaired flow
through the subarachnoid space. Which of the following is the most likely?
5.5) A patient presents post-stroke with atrophy of the brain (loss of white matter), no
increase in intracranial pressure, and no neurologic defects. Which of the following is the
most likely?
Neuro #7 – The Meninges (Chapter 7)

1) What cell line gives rise to the meninges of the brain (meninx primitiva)?
a) Neural crest cells and ectoderm
b) Neural crest cells and endoderm

c) Neural crest cells and mesoderm
d) Ectoderm and endoderm
e) Endoderm and mesoderm
2.1) Which section of the dura mater is supplied by the middle and accessory meningeal
arteries?
a) Anterior cranial fossa
b) Middle cranial fossa
c) Posterior cranial fossa
d) Spinal
2.2) Which of the following arteries does NOT supply the anterior cranial fossa of the
dura mater?
a) Internal carotid artery
b) Ethmoidal artery
c) Lacrimal artery
d) Ascending pharangeal artery
2.3) Which of the following sections of the dura mater is innervated by a branch of the
ophthalmic nerve?
a) Anterior cranial fossa
b) Middle cranial fossa
c) Posterior cranial fossa
d) Tentorium cerebelli
e) Spinal dura
2.4) The anterior and middle cranial fosses of the dura mater have each of the following
nerves in common EXCEPT:
a) Trigeminal nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Mandibular nerve
d) Ethmoidal nerve
2.5) What are the attachments of the falx cerebri?
a) Tentorium cerebelli rostally and clinoid process caudally
b) Clinoid process rostally and crista galli caudally
c) Clinoid process rostally and tentorium cerebelli caudally
d) Tentorium cerebelli rostally and crista galli caudally
e) Crista galli rostally and tentorium cerebelli caudally
2.6) Which of the following encircles the pituitary stalk?
a) Falx cerebri
b) Tentorium cerebelli
c) Falx cerebelli
d) Diaphragma sellae
3.1) Which of the following layers does NOT contain collagen?
a) Arachnoid barrier cell layer
b) Arachnoid trabeculae
c) Arachnoid granulations
d) Subarachnoid space
3.2) Which of the following may be called Pacchionian bodies if it is enlarged or

calcified, such as in the elderly?
a) Arachnoid barrier cell layer
b) Arachnoid trabeculae
c) Arachnoid granulations
d) Subarachnoid space
3.3) Which of the following is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
a) Cocaine use
b) Trauma
c) Sickle cell anemia
d) Cerebral aneurysm
e) Non-aneurysmal perimesencephalic hemorrhage
4.1) A 50-year-old female patient is diagnosed with a meningioma. Which of the
following represents the abnormally growing cells?
a) White matter
b) Gray matter
c) Arachnoid cells
d) Ependymal cells
e) Blood cells
4.2) Which of the following types of meningiomas has layers of long, spindle-shaped
cells with elongated nuclei?
a) Meningotheliomatous (syncytial) meningioma
b) Transitional meningioma
c) Fibroblastic (fibrous) meningioma
4.3) Extradural (epidural) hematomas are usually ____ with blood ____, while subdural
hematomas are usually ____ with blood ____.
a) Arterial; Pooling; Venous; Spreading
b) Venous; Pooling; Arterial; Spreading
c) Arterial; Spreading; Venous; Pooling
d) Venous; Spreading; Arterial; Pooling
5.1) When doing a lumbar puncture into the lumbar cistern to draw CSF, what space is
the needle located?
a) Epidural
b) Subdural
c) Subarachnoid
d) Subpial
e) Peri-denticulate
5.2) Virchow-Robin spaces, or enlarged perivascular spaces (EPVS), surround blood
vessels for a short distance as they enter the brain and are covered by:
a) Dura mater
b) Arachnoid mater
c) Pia mater
d) Myelin
Match the subarachnoid cistern with the description (location and/or nerves):
6.1) Glossopharangeal, vagus, hypoglossal, and CN XI a) Ambient
6.2) Abducens nerve, basilar artery, pontine vein b) Cerebellopontine (inf)
6.3) Roots of C1 and C2, tonsillar vein, branch of PICA c) Cerebellopontine (sup)
6.4) Trochlear nerve root, pineal gland, sup/inf colliculi d) Chiasmatic
6.5) Oculomotor nerve root, mammillary body e) Cisterna magna
6.6) Trochlear nerve, lateral aspect of crus cerebri f) Interpeduncular
6.7) Optic nerve, ophthalmic artery g) Prepontine
6.8) Trigeminal, facial, vestibulococchlear nerves h) Quadrangular
7.1) A motorcycle crash victim presents with excruciating headache, neck stiffness,
vomiting, and blood in the CSF via lumbar puncture. CT scan reveals a subarachnoid
hemorrhage. What is the overall chance this patient will have no or minimal neurological
deficits?
a) 100%
b) 95%
c) 65%
d) 35%
e) 5%
7.2) Leptomeningitis would affect which of the following?
a) Dura mater and arachnoid mater
b) Arachnoid mater and pia mater
c) Dura mater and pia mater
d) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater
7.3) Along with Neisseria meningitis, which of the following is the most common agent
seen in bacterial meningitis?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c) Staphylococcus pyogenes
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
e) Escherichia coli
7.4) A 21-year-old patient presents with fever, headaches of increasing intensity, and
confusion. Lumbar puncture reveals CSF that is diagnostic for viral meningitis. What
antiviral agent should this patient receive?
a) Acyclovir
b) Idoxuridine
c) Fomivirsen
d) Cytarabine
e) No antivirals exist for this patient
Neuro #8 – A Survey Of The Cerebrovascular System (Chapter 8)

1.1) Which of the following is most likely to occur during a surgical procedure that opens
the dural sinus?
a) Cerebral aneurysm
b) Cerebal septic emboli
c) Cerebral air embolism
d) Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
1.2) Which of the following is associated with vascular hamartomas including capillary
telangiectases, cavernous angiomas, and venous angiomas?
a) Cerebral aneurysm
b) Cerebal septic emboli

c) Cerebral air embolism
d) Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
1.3) Cerebral aneurysms are most commonly found in the internal carotid system.
a) True
b) False, they are found in the vertebrobasilar system
2.1) Which of the following arterial segments is within the circle of Willis and
anastamoses with the internal carotid artery?
a) A1
b) A2
c) P1
d) P2
e) P3
2.2) The left and right posterior communicating arteries anastamose with what large,
single artery?
a) Anterior spinal artery
b) Anterior inferior cerebral artery (AICA)
c) Basilar artery
d) Vertebral artery
e) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
3.1) Compression of what artery leads to vertebrobasilar insufficiency?
a) M1
b) M2
c) V1
d) V2
e) V3
3.2) Which of the following branches from the vertebral artery?
c) Basilar artery
d) Superior cerebellar artery
3.3) What is the first large branch of the basilar artery, possibly causing CN VII or CN
VIII deficits if an aneurysm is present?
c) Anterior communicating artery
d) Superior cerebellar artery
4) A(n) ____ watershed infarct would commonly produce partial visual loss and language
problems, while a(n) ____ watershed infarct would cause contralateral hemiparesis of the
lower limb and expressive behavioral changes. Since watershed infarcts affect border
zones, it is more likely that damage is due to _____.
a) Anterior; Posterior; Hypertension
b) Anterior; Posterior; Hypotension
c) Posterior; Anterior; Hypertension
d) Posterior; Anterior; Hypotension

5.1) Including both left and right sides, how many arteries make up the circle of Willis?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
e) 9
5.2) What arterial group within the circle of Willis serves the optic chiasm?
a) Anteromedial group
b) Anterolateral group
c) Posteromedial group
d) Posterolateral group
6.1) Which of the following vessels drains the venous sinuses?
a) External jugular vein
b) Internal jugular vein
c) Vertebral vein
d) Axillary vein
e) Cephalic vein
6.2) The cerebral veins on the lateral surface of the hemisphere drain into what sinus?
a) Straight sinus
b) Superior sagittal sinus
c) Inferior sagittal sinus
d) Transverse sinus
e) Sigmoid sinus
6.3) The basal vein (of Rosenthal) joins with what sinus?
a) Straight sinus
b) Superior sagittal sinus
c) Inferior sagittal sinus
d) Transverse sinus
e) Sigmoid sinus
6.4) What veins (bilateral) joins to form the great cerebral vein (of Galen)?
a) Anterior cerebral veins
b) Superior cerebellar veins
c) Inferior cerebellar veins
d) Internal cerebral veins
e) Deep cerebral veins
7.1) Which of the following spinal cord arteries is often found between the levels of T12
and L2?
b) Posterior spinal artery
c) Posterior radicular artery
d) Spinal medullary artery
e) Artery of Adamkiewicz
7.2) Venous drainage of the spinal cord has no valves, making is a pathway for cancer
metastasis.
a) True
b) False, cancer cannot metastasize though the spinal cord

8) Which of the following are able to cross the blood brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Proteins and penicillin
b) Dopamine and lipid-soluble substances
c) Penicillin and L-DOPA
d) Lipid-soluble substances and L-DOPA
e) Dopamine and lipid-insoluble substances
Neuro #9 – The Spinal Cord (Chapter 9)

1) Which of the following would cause developmental rachischisis?
a) Failure of the cephalic portion of the neural tube
b) Failure of the caudal portion of the neural tube
c) Failure of the neural tube to close
d) Early closure of the neural tube
e) Overlapping closure of the neural tube
2.1) The spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?
a) C8
b) T12
c) L2
d) L5
e) S2
2.2) The lumbar cistern extends to the end of the dural sac, which is located at what
vertebral level?
a) L2
b) L4
c) L5
d) S1
e) S2
2.3) At what vertebral levels can the posterior funiculus be seen as the gracile and cuneat
fasciculi?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
e) Coccygeal
2.4) What laminal area in the gray matter surrounds the central canal?
a) Lamina I
b) Lamina V
c) Lamina VII
d) Lamina IX
e) Lamina X
2.5) What laminal area is seen at the intermediate gray?
a) Lamina I
b) Lamina V
c) Lamina VII
d) Lamina IX
e) Lamina X
2.6) Which of the following serves most of the gray matter and adjacent parts of the
white matter?
b) Posterior spinal artery
c) Posterior radicular artery
d) Spinal medullary artery
e) Artery of Adamkiewicz
3.1) In a cross-section (MRI/CT), which of the following has the largest amount of white
matter and is the largest overall?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
3.2) Which cross-section level will have large posterior and anterior horns and an
expansive subarachnoid space?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
3.3) Which cross-section level shows a prominent lamina VII with posterior thoracic
nucleus (dorsal nucleus of Clarke) and lateral horn?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
3.4) Which spinal cord level is mainly gray matter with a thin shell of white matter and
an obvious substantia gelatinosa at lamina II?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
4.1) Sensory fibers have their cell bodies in the ____ and motor fibers have their cell
bodies in the ____.
a) Spinal cord white matter; Spinal cord gray matter
b) Spinal cord white matter; Dorsal root ganglion (DRG)
c) Dorsal root ganglion; Spinal cord gray matter
d) Spinal cord gray matter; Dorsal root ganglion
e) Dorsal root ganglion; Spinal cord white matter
4.2) What type of fibers are sensory input for deep structures such as muscles, tendons,
and joints?
a) GSA (general somatic afferent)
b) GVA (general visceral afferent)
c) GSE (general somatic efferent)
d) GVE (general visceral efferent)
e) SSA (special somatic afferent)
4.3) Proprioceptive GSA fibers are:

a) Slowly conducting and lightly myelinated
b) Slowly conducting and heavily myelinated
c) Rapidly conducting and lightly myelinated
d) Rapidly conducting and heavily myelinated
4.4) Visceromotor (autonomic) fibers have their cell bodies in lamina VII and are present
in the IML cell column, at levels:
a) C1-C8
b) S2-S4
c) T2-T12
d) T1-L2
e) L2-L4
4.5) Which of the following results from antibodies directed against nicotinic ACh
receptors at the neuromuscular junction?
d) Hypertension
e) Transient ischemic attack
5) Which of the following describes correct somatotopy of the ventral horn?
a) Proximal muscle nerves are medial and extensor nerves are anterior
b) Proximal muscle nerves are medial and extensor nerves are posterior
c) Proximal muscle nerves are lateral and extensor nerves are anterior
d) Proximal muscle nerves are lateral and extensor nerves are posterior
6.1) In the deep tendon reflex of the patella, group ____ fibers fire for the quadriceps
(activating) and group ____ fibers fire for the hamstrings (inhibiting).
a) Ia; II
b) II; Ib
c) Ia; Ib
d) Ib; II
e) II; Ia
6.2) During a crossed extension reflex, ____ nociceptive input enters the posterolateral
tract of Lissauer and ____ anterior horn, which excite motor neurons ____.
a) Ipsilateral; Contralateral; Monosynaptically
b) Contralateral; Ipsilateral; Monosynaptically
c) Ipsilateral; Contralateral; Polysynaptically
d) Contralateral; Ipsilateral; Polysynaptically
7.1) Damage to the posterior columns (gracile fasciculi below T6 or cuneate fasciculi
above T6) will result in ____ loss of proprioception, discriminative touch, and vibratory
sense ____ the level of the lesion.
a) Contralateral; Above
b) Contralateral; Below
c) Ipsilateral; One or two segments above
d) Ipsilateral; Below
7.2) The posterior spinocerebellar tract arises from T1-L2 on what lamina (Clark’s
nucleus)?
a) Lamina I
b) Lamina III
c) Lamina V
d) Lamina VII
e) Lamina IX
7.3) Damage to the anteriolateral system (ALS) will result in ____ loss of pain,
temperature, and crude touch sensations ____ the level of the lesion.
a) Contralateral; One or two segments below the lesion
b) Contralateral; Directly below the lesion
c) Ipsilateral; One or two segments below the lesion
d) Ipsilateral; Directly below the lesion
8.1) Stringomyelia, or cavitation of the central regions of the spinal cord, would most
likely result in which of the following?
a) Ipsilateral loss of pain and thermal sensation
b) Bilateral loss of pain and thermal sensation
c) Contralateral loss of pain and thermal sensation
d) Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and discriminative touch
e) Bilateral loss of proprioception and discriminative touch
8.2) A hemisection lesion at C4 would result in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Weakness or paralysis on the right side
b) Loss of pain and thermal sensations on the left side
c) Loss of proprioception on the right
d) Loss of vibratory sense on the right
e) Loss of discriminative touch on the left
Neuro #10 – An Overview Of The Brainstem (Chapter 10)

1.1) Which of the following cranial nerves exits the midbrain posteriorly?
a) CN III
b) CN IV
c) CN V
d) CN IX
e) CN XII
1.2) What large cranial nerve exits the pons laterally?
a) CN III
b) CN IV
c) CN V
d) CN IX
e) CN XII
1.3) What cranial nerve runs between the olive and the pyramids?
a) CN VIII
b) CN IX
c) CN X
d) CN XI
e) CN XII
1.4) Which of the following is anterior to the tegmentum?
a) Medulla
b) Cerebellum
c) Cervical spinal cord
d) Pons
e) Diencephalon
2) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly regarding cranial nerve nuclei and
their relation to the sulcus limitans?
a) Basal plate and GVE
b) Basal plate and SVE
c) Alar plate and GVA
d) Alar plate and SVA
e) Alar plate and SSA
3.1) Which of the following is associated with damage to the midbrain, possible
hydrocephalus, and increased intracranial pressure (ICP) leading to headache and
vomiting?
a) Central herniation
b) Uncal herniation
c) Upward cerebral herniation
d) Tonsillar herniation
3.2) Which of the following is associated with Cheynes-Stokes breathing, irregular eye
movements, and loss of motor/sensory functions?
b) Uncal herniation
3.3) What is the most likely result of a tonsillar herniation?
a) Ipsilateral double vision
b) Contralateral loss of sensation
c) Bilaterally dampened reflexes
d) Rapid respiratory and cardiac failure
Neuro #11 – The Medulla Oblongata (Chapter 11)

1) Which of the following does NOT emerge from the postolivary sulus?
a) Vestibulocochlear cranial nerve
b) Glosopharyngeal cranial nerve
c) Vagus cranial nerve
d) Accessory cranial nerve
e) Hypoglossal cranial nerve
2.1) At the most rostral level of the medulla (4th ventricle), which of the following is the
most lateral at the hypoglossal nucleus?
a) Dorsal longitudinal fasciculus
b) Dorsal vagal nucleus
c) Solitary nucleus
d) Spinal trigeminal tract and nucleus
2.2) What decussation occurs with motor fibers at the anterior median fissure of the
medulla oblongata?
a) Pyramids
b) Inferior olive
c) 4th ventricle
d) Cochlear nucleus
3.1) What is the primary neurotransmitter at the raphe nucleus?
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Melatonin
d) Epinepherine
e) Norepinepherine
3.2) Which of the following is important for inhibition of pain transmission in the
posterior horn of the spinal cord?
a) Nucleus raphes pallidus
b) Nucleus raphes obscurus
c) Nucleus raphes magnus
d) Medial medullary reticular area
e) Lateral medullary reticular area
4.1) Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) is associated with which of the
following arteries, feeding the medulla oblongata?
b) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c) Posterior spinal artery
4.2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Wallenberg syndrome?
a) Dysphagia and hoarseness
b) Nystagmus and vertigo
c) Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the face
d) Ipsilateral loss of taste on the tongue
e) Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation on the body
5) Which of the following affects the medulla and can result from a mass (tumor,
hemorrhage), surgery in the posterior fossa, or lumbar puncture, giving symptoms such as
hypertension and Cheyne-Stokes respiration?
b) Uncal herniation
Neuro #12 – The Pons & Cerebellum (Chapter 12)

1) Which of the following is NOT correct?
a) The tegmentum is in the dorsal pons
b) The basilar pons is in the ventral pons
c) The basilar pons is posterior to the trigeminal root
d) The middle cerebrallar peduncle is anterior and lateral in the pons
e) The crux cerebri is rostral and extends into the basilar pons
1.2) Which of the following does NOT emerge from the pons?
a) CN V
b) CN VI
c) CN VII
d) CN VIII
e) CN IX
2.1) Which of the following occurs at the level of the trigeminal nuclei?
a) Presence of the chief sensory nucleus of CN V
b) Presence of the motor nucleus of CN V
c) Both A & B
d) Neither A nor B
2.2) Constriction of the ventricular system at the cerebral aqueduct and presence of
trochlear nerve fibers leaving the dorsal aspect of the brainstem can be seen at what
level?
a) Caudal pontine level
b) Mid-pontine level
c) Rostral pontine level
3.1) What is the correct order of the cerebellar cortex layers from external to internal?
a) Molecular layer => Purkinje cell => Granular layers
b) Purkinje cell => Granular layers => Molecular layer
c) Granular layers => Molecular layer => Purkinje cell
d) Molecular layer => Granular layers => Purkinje cell
e) Purkinje cell => Molecular layer => Granular layers
3.2) Which of the following arteries does NOT feed the cerebellum?
a) Superior cerebellar artery
b) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
c) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
d) Anterior spinal artery
Neuro #13 – The Midbrain (Chapter 13)

1.1) Which of the following areas of the midbrain is responsible for auditory?
a) Lateral geniculate body in the superior colliculus
b) Medial geniculate body in the inferior collicuus
c) Crura cerebri in the anterior midbrain
d) Pulvinar in the posterior midbrain
e) Pineal gland in the posterior midbrain
1.2) Which of the following is most likely to be compressed by a pineal gland tumor?
a) Optic chiasm
b) Tegmentum
c) Basilar pons
d) Cerebral aqueduct
e) Cranial nerve XII
Match the structure with the location it is found:
2.1) Red nucleus in large gray mass a) Troclear nucleus
2.2) Banding pattern of superior colliculus b) Oculomotor nucleus
2.3) Periaqueductal gray seen c) Midbrain/diencephalons junction
3) Which of the following arteries of the midbrain branches into the anterior choroidal
artery?
a) Quadrigeminal artery
b) Superior cerebellar artery

c) Basilar artery
d) P2 artery of posterior cerebral artery
e) Internal carotid artery
4) Which of the following would force the diencephalon downward through the tentorial
incisura and into the midbrain?
b) Upward cerebellar herniation
c) Uncal herniation
Neuro #14 – A Synopsis Of Cranial Nerves Of The Brainstem (Chapter 14)

1.1) Which of the following cranial nerves is the most lateral at the level of the
brainstem?
a) Abducens
b) Hypoglossal
c) Glossopharangeal
d) Trochlear
e) Oculomotor
Match the nucleus with the associated cranial nerve:
1.2) Glossopharangeal (CN IX) a) Edinger-Westphal nuclus
1.3) Oculomotor (CN III) b) Inferior salivatory nuclus
1.4) Facial (CN VII) c) Superior salivatory nucleus
1.5) Trigeminal (CN V) d) Mesencephalic nucleus
Match the developmental pharyngeal arch with the associated cranial nerve:
1.6) CN V a) Arch 1
1.7) CN VII b) Arch 2
1.8) CN IX c) Arch 3
2.1) Which of the following is a component of the superior ganglion of the vagus nerve,
not the inferior ganglion?
a) Ear
b) Heart
c) Lungs
d) Pharynx
e) Larynx
2.2) Which of the following is NOT associated with the nucleus ambiguus (4th
pharyngeal arch)?
a) Pharyngeal constrictors
b) Intrinsic laryngeals
c) Upper esophageal skeletal muscles
d) Levator veli palantini
e) Tensor veli palantini
2.3) Fibers of which of the following cross in the midline before exiting the midbrain?
a) Abducens nucleus
b) Trigeminal nucleus
c) Facial nucleus
d) Superior salivatory nucleus
e) Trochlear nucleus
3.1) Damage to the ____ motor neuron of the facial nerve would lead to drooping or
sagging of the corner of the mouth on the ____ side (Bell palsy).
a) Upper; Contralateral
b) Lower; Contralateral
c) Upper; Ipsilateral
d) Lower; Ipsilateral
3.2) Symptoms of Ménière disease (vestibular nuclei) would be increased with excess
____ as this would increase ____, leading to more pressure and vertigo.
a) Sodium; Perilymph
b) Potassium; Perilymph
c) Sodium; Endolymph
d) Potassium; Endolymph
3.3) Tic Douloureux or “suicide disease” is a neuralgia associated with what cranial
nerve, having its sensory nucleus situated in the pons?
a) Oculomotor nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Trigeminal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve
4) Which of the following would NOT be affected by a lesion at the facial colliculus?
a) Taste
b) Salivation
c) Facial expression
d) Hearing
e) Tears
Neuro #15 – The Diencephalon (Chapter 15)

1) Which of the following regions of the diencephalon contains the pineal gland and
habenula?
a) Dorsal thalamus
b) Hypothalamus
c) Ventral (sub) thalamus
d) Epithalamus
2.1) Which of the following contains the VPM (ventral posteromedial nuclei),VPL
(ventral posterolateral nuclei), and medial geniculate?
a) Pulvinar
b) Red nucleus
c) Habenula
d) Thalamus
e) Internal capsule
f) Mammillary bodies
2.2) The optic chiasm is related to all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Mammillary bodies
b) Crus cerebri
c) Medial geniculate
d) Lateral geniculate
3) Which of the following is a motor nucleus that receives input from the globus pallidus
and substantia nigra?
a) Ventral anterior nucleus (VA)
b) Ventral lateral nucleus (VL)
c) Medial thalamic nuclei
d) Anterior thalamic nuclei
e) Ventral posterior nucleus
4) Which of the following has its projection on the cingulate gyrus?
a) Anterior thalamic nuclei
b) Ventral lateral nucleus
c) Ventral posterior lateral and medial nucleus
d) Lateral posterior nucleus
e) Pulvinar
f) Lateral geniculate
g) Lateral geniculate
5) What region of the thalamus is involved in cardiovascular regulation, food regulation,
and water uptake regulation?
a) Anterior medial hypothalamic zone
b) Tubular medial hypothalamic zone
c) Mammillary medial hypothalamic zone
d) Lateral hypothalamic zone
6) A patient presents with rapid and forceful flailing movements of their right arm.
Testing reveals hemiballismus due to contralateral lesions involving posteromedial
branches of the communicating arteries to which of the following regions?
a) Dorsal thalamus
b) Hypothalamus
c) Ventral thalamus
d) Epithalamus
7) Which of the following is a source of melatonin, regulates circadian rhythms
(“biological clock”), and inhibits sexual activity?
a) Optic chiasm
b) 3rd ventricle
c) Pineal gland
d) Anterior pituitary gland
e) Posterior pituitary gland
8) The diencephalon is supported mainly by branches of the circle of Willis, including the
thalamogeniculate artery, which is a branch of the:
a) Middle cerebral artery
b) Posterior cerebral artery
c) Anterior choroidal artery
d) Anterior cerebral artery
e) Internal carotid artery
Neuro #16 – The Telencephalon (Chapter 16)

1) Which of the following has a single midline ventricle with no hemispheres or corpus
callosum present?
a) Agenesis of the corpus callosum
b) Anencephaly
c) Alobar holoprosencephaly
d) Semilobar holoprosencephaly
e) Lobar holoprosencephaly
2.1) A patient presents with inability to understand words, inability to read, inability to
write, and speaks in a “jumble of words.” A CT scan finds damage to the Wernicke area,
which corresponds to what Brodmann areas?
a) BA 1, 2, 3
b) BA 4
c) BA 15, 17
d) BA 22
e) BA 39, 40
2.2) Which of the following Brodmann areas represents the primary somatosensory
cortex, dealing with pain, thermal, and proprioception senses?
a) BA 1, 2, 3
b) BA 4
c) BA 15, 17
d) BA 22
e) BA 39, 40
2.3) Which of the following is superior to the uncus and parahippocampal gyrus, and
lateral to the cingulate gyrus and subcallosal area?
a) Temporal lobe
b) Insular cortex
c) Occipital lobe
d) Limbic lobe
e) Frontal lobe
f) Parietal lobe
2.4) Which of the following accounts for most of the lateral vasculature of the cerebral
cortex?
a) Middle cerebral artery
b) Anterior cerebral artery
c) Posterior temporal artery
d) Inferior temporal artery
2.5) The primary motor cortex is found in what lobe of the cerebral cortex?
a) Temporal lobe
b) Insular cortex
c) Occipital lobe
d) Limbic lobe
e) Frontal lobe
f) Parietal lobe
2.6) Which of the following would be affected by damage to the postcentral gyrus?
a) Primary somatosensory cortex
b) Wernicke speech area

c) Either A or B depending on which side if affected
d) Both A and B
e) Neither A nor B
3.1) Which of the following commisural fibers connects the frontal and temporal lobe
structures?
a) Corpus callosum
b) Anterior commissure
c) Hippocampal commissure
d) Posterior commissure
e) Habenular commissure
3.2) Which of the following is located at the posterior limb of the internal capsule
(projection fibers)?
a) Thalamocortical
b) Corticothalamic
c) Corticobulbar
d) Corticospinal
3.3) Which of the following is between the claustrum and insular cortex?
a) Extreme capsule
b) External capsule
c) Commisural fibers
d) Internal capsule
4) The caudate and lenticular nuclei form what structure?
a) Striatum (neostriatum)
b) Paleostriatum
c) Basal nuclei of Meynert
d) Dorsal basal nuclei
e) Substantia nigra
5.1) A patient with Alzheimer disease is having difficulty remembering common
locations in his hometown. He is also having trouble recognizing faces of his relatives.
Which of the following areas is most likely responsible for this presentation?
a) Pineal gland
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Corpus callosum
5.2) In a laboratory, monkeys are being tested for fear conditioning. After a neurosurgical
procedure, monkeys have difficulty associating a light with an electric shock. Which of
the following was likely removed during the procedure?
a) Pineal gland
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala
e) Corpus callosum
Neuro #17 – The Somatosensory System I (Chapter 17)

1.1) Which of the following peripheral mechanoreceptors is slowly adapting to touch and
pressure and have a small field of perception?
a) Meissner corpuscles
b) Hair follicle receptors
c) Pacinian corpuscles
d) Merkel cells
e) Ruffini end organs
1.2) What type of fibers do the proprioceptive muscle spindle receptors uses for dynamic
and static tension?
a) Ia
b) Ib
c) II
d) Ia and II
e) Ib and II
1.3) Which of the following uses type II fibers for proprioceptive limb positioning?
a) Golgi tendon organ
b) Muscle spindle
c) Ruffini end organ
d) Merkel cell
e) Pacinian corpuscle
2.1) Which is true of 2nd order neurons?
a) Ascend in medial lemniscus to VPL of thalamus
b) Ascend in dorsal column to VPL of thalamus
c) Ascend in medial lemniscus to gracile or cuneate nucleus in medulla
d) Ascend in dorsal column to gracile or cuneate nucleus in medulla
2.2) A lesion involving the dorsal columns at the level of the caudal medulla would affect
touch, proprioception, and vibration on the ____ side. A lesion of the medial meniscus in
the pons would affect those functions on the ____ side.
a) Contralateral; Contralateral
b) Contralateral; Ipsilateral
c) Ipsilateral; Contralateral
d) Ipsilateral; Ipsilateral
3) The proprioceptive pathway of the trigeminal nerve has 1st order axons to the cell
body in what nucleus?
a) Edinger-Westphal nuclus
b) Inferior salivatory nuclus
c) Superior salivatory nucleus
d) Mesencephalic nucleus
e) Trigeminal nucleus
4) Which of the following is true of receptive fields?
a) Peripheral fields are more complex than cortical fields
b) Peripheral fields are a summation of many different receptors
c) Cortical fields are interchangeable with peripheral fields
d) Cortical fields are less complex than peripheral fields
e) Cortical fields are a summation of peripheral fields
5) Which of the following projects onto the dorsal nucleus of Clarke?

a) Posterior spinocerebellar tract, 1st order neurons
b) Posterior spinocerebellar tract, 2nd order neurons
c) Lateral cuneate nucleus pathway, 1st order neurons
d) Lateral cuneate nucleus pathway, 2nd order neurons
e) Anterior spinocerebellar tract, 1st order neurons
Neuro #18 – The Somatosensory System II (Chapter 18)

1) Which of the following types of receptors responds to innocuous stimulation?
a) Cutaneous nociceptors
b) Cutaneous thermoreceptors
c) Muscle nociceptors
d) Visceral nociceptors
e) Joint nociceptors
2.1) What would be the affect of a lesion involving the ventral white commissure at the
level of T10?
a) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the contralateral lower trunk
b) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the ipsilateral lower trunk
c) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the contralateral upper/lower limb
d) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the ipsilateral upper/lower limb
2.2) What would be the affect of a lesion of the anterolateral system within the midbrain?
a) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the contralateral lower trunk
b) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the ipsilateral lower trunk
c) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the contralateral upper/lower limb
d) Loss of pain/temperature sensation from the ipsilateral upper/lower limb
3) A lesion of the chief sensory nucleus of V (spinal trigeminal) would affect all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
e) CN XII
4) Without the presence of primary or secondary cortices, which of the following can still
be perceived at subcortical levels?
a) Discriminative touch
b) Non-discriminative touch
c) Thermal sensation
d) Pain sensation
5) Central structures implicated in the descending control of nociceptive transmission
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Somatosensory cortex
b) Periventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
c) Periaqueductal Gray (PAG)
d) Raphe nuclei and adjacent medullary reticular formation
e) Dorsal thalamus
Neuro #19 – Viscerosensory Pathways (Chapter 19)

1) Which of the following locations has many C-polymodal nociceptors?
a) Heart
b) Lungs
c) Gastrointestinal (GI) tract
d) Urogenital (UG) tract
2) Sympathetic afferent fibers to laminas ____ project to the thalamus by way of the ALS
(contralateral) and fibers to laminas ____ project bilaterally as spinoreticular fibers.
a) I & V; VII & VIII
b) I & VII; V & VIII
c) I & VIII; V & VII
d) VII & VIII; I & V
e) V & VIII; I & VII
3) Which of the following cranial nerves contains fibers of GVE preganglionic
parasympathetic motor neurons but no sensory ganglia?
a) CN III
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
4) Sudden pain from the stomach or small intestine, or the stimulus of a full bladder will
excite the reticulothalamocortical circuit and:
a) Cause a person mild, achy pain when walking
b) Cause a person pain so they must stop normal activities
c) Cause a person to empty their bowels or bladder involuntarily
d) Cause a person to enter a state of anesthesia
e) Cause a person to wake from a deep sleep
Neuro #20 – The Visual System (Chapter 20)

1.1) Presbyopia, or loss of visual accommodation, is caused by aging of which of the
following?
a) Cornea
b) Anterior chamber
c) Posterior chamber
d) Iris
e) Lens
1.2) Which retinal layer contains the nuclei of photoreceptor cells?
a) Pigment epithelium (PE)
b) Outer and inner segment layer
c) Outer limiting membrane
d) Outer nuclear layer (ONL)
e) Outer plexiform layer (OPL)
f) Inner nuclear layer (INL)
g) Inner plexiform layer (IPL)
h) Ganglion cell layer (GCL)
i) Nerve fiber layer
j) Inner limiting membrane
1.3) Which of the following is the correct order of the phototransduction pathway?
a) Light => Opsin => Transducen => PDE => Na+ channels close
b) Light => Opsin => PDE => Transducen => Na+ channels close
c) Light => Transducen => Opsin => PDE => Na+ channels close
d) Light => PDE => Opsin => Transducen => Na+ channels close
e) Light => PDE => Transducen => Opsin => Na+ channels close
2.1) M (magnocellular region) retinal cells are ____ cells (! or Y cells) from the ____
retina and P (parvocellular region) retinal cells are ____ cells (" or X cells) from the ____
retina.
a) Large; Central; Small; Peripheral
b) Large; Peripheral; Small; Central
c) Small; Central; Large; Peripheral
d) Small; Peripheral; Large; Central
2.2) The temporal retina is activated by light from the ____ visual field and projects on
the ipsilateral geniculate nucleus layers ____, while the nasal retinal is from the ____
visual field and projects on the contralateral geniculate nucleus layers ____.
a) Temporal; 2, 3, 5; Nasal, 1, 4, 6
b) Nasal; 2, 3, 5; Temporal, 1, 4, 6
c) Temporal; 1, 4, 6; Nasal, 2, 3, 5
d) Nasal; 1, 4, 6; Temporal, 2, 3, 5
3) Visual information in Meyer’s loop is from the:
a) Contralateral superior retinal quadrant
b) Contralateral inferior retinal quadrant
c) Ipsilateral superior retinal quadrant
d) Ipsilateral superior retinal quadrant
4.1) Which visual area is sensitive to orientation, spatial frequency, and color, and is
tuned for object features of intermediate complexity, like simple geometric shapes?
a) Visual area V1
b) Visual area V2
c) Visual area V3
d) Visual area V4
e) Visual area V5/MT
4.2) The name "striate cortex" is derived from the stria of Gennari, a distinctive stripe
visible to the naked eye that represents myelinated axons from the lateral geniculate body
terminating in what gray matter layer?
a) Layer I
b) Layer II
c) Layer III
d) Layer IV
e) Layer V
5) If visual input from one eye is disrupted prior to the synaptic connection during eye
competition phase, which of the following will occur?
a) Loss of color vision
b) Loss of motion perception
c) Loss of depth perception
d) Loss of pupil dilation ability
e) Loss of pupil constriction ability

6) Point to point mapping of visual information onto retinal ganglion cells is called:
a) Retinotopy
b) Visual perception
c) Receptive field
d) Visual cortex projection
e) Maculotopy
7.1) In Brodmann area 18, the M and P pathways of visual processing together before
diverging. The M stream proceeds to the V3 region of area 18 and goes to:
a) Area 7 - Somatosensory Association Cortex
b) Area 17 - Primary Visual Cortex (V1)
c) Area 22 - Superior Temporal Gyrus
d) Area 37 - Fusiform gyrus
e) Area 45 - Pars triangularis Broca's area
7.2) From Brodmann area 18, the P stream proceeds from the V2/V4 region of Brodmann
area 19 to:
a) Area 7 - Somatosensory Association Cortex
b) Area 17 - Primary Visual Cortex (V1)
c) Area 22 - Superior Temporal Gyrus
d) Area 37 - Fusiform gyrus
e) Area 45 - Pars triangularis Broca's area
8) A patient presents with the ability to write down their thoughts, but the inability to
read writing including what they have just written down (alexia without agraphia). Which
area is most likely damaged?
a) Rostrum of corpus callosum
b) Body of corpus callosum
c) Genu of corpus callosum
d) Splenium of corpus callosum
9) Unilateral loss of the sympathetic chain would lead to which of the following?
a) Inability to dilate the eye on the ipsilateral side
b) Inability to dilate the eye on the contralateral side
c) Inability to constrict the eye on the ipsilateral side
d) Inability to constrict the eye on the contralateral side
Match the lesion with the visual field effect:
10.1) Bitemporal hemianopia a) Optic nerve
10.2) Contralateral superior homonymous quadrantanopia b) Optic tract
10.3) Contralateral inferior homonymous quadrantanopia c) Optic chiasm
10.4) Ipsilateral blind eye d) Meyer’s loop
10.5) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia e) Cuneus
10.6) Damage to the lingual gyrus would cause which of the following?
a) Bitemporal hemianopia
b) Ipsilateral blind eye
c) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
d) Contralateral inferior homonymous quadrantanopia
e) Contralateral superior homonymous quadrantanopia
Neuro #21 – The Auditory System (Chapter 21)

1) Frequency range for speech is approximately:
a) 20-20,000 Hz
b) 50-16,000 Hz
c) 1,000-3,000 Hz
d) 50-5,000 Hz
e) 3,000-16,000 Hz
2) Normal human hearing sensitivity is between:
a) 20-200,000 Hz
b) 50-16,000 Hz
c) 1,000-3,000 Hz
d) 50-5,000 Hz
e) 3,000-16,000 Hz
3) Which of the following would NOT result in conduction deftness?
a) Damage to the pinna
b) Infection or inflammation
c) Vestibulocochlear nerve damage
d) Tympanic membrane trauma
e) Exessive cerumen in the auditory canal
4) In the organ of Corti, deflection of stereocilia toward tallest side (away from limbus)
results in ____ of K+ channels (K+ in endolymph) resulting in ____.
a) Closing; Depolarization
b) Closing; Hyperpolarization
c) Opening; Depolarization
d) Opening; Hyperpolarization
5) After performing a Weber test using a 512Hz tuning fork, a clinician uses the same
fork to perform a Rinne test. On the patient’s left side, sound is not heard when the fork is
placed on the mastoid process, but is heard when the fork is placed next to the external
auditory canal (positive Rinne test). Which of the following is true?
a) Conduction deficit on left side (ipsilateral)
b) Conduction deficit on right side (contralateral)
c) Sensorineural deficit on left side (ipsilateral)
d) Sensorineural deficit on right side (contralateral)
6) What is the first site in the brainstem where information from both ears converge?
a) Cochlear nuclei
b) Superior olivary complex
c) Lateral lemniscus
d) Inferior colliculus
e) Medial geniculate nucleus
Match the structure with the auditory brainstem response (ABR) recording peak:
7.1) Auditory cortex a) I
7.2) Auditory nerve b) II
7.3) Cochlear nucleus c) III
7.4) Inferior colliculus d) IV
7.5) Lateral lemniscus e) V
7.6) Medial geniculate nucleus f) VI
7.7) Superior olive g) VII

8) The olivocochlear efferent system (descending auditory pathway) arises from groups
of cells in the ____, leading to an overall cochlear amplifier effect to selectively tune the
cochlea to important sounds.
a) Cochlear nuclei
d) Inferior colliculus
9.1) In the middle ear reflex, loud sounds cause contraction of the stapedius and tensor
tympani muscles. Which of the following has its caudal end associated with the stapedius
motor neurons and rostral end associated with the tensor tympani motor neurons?
a) Cochlear nuclei
d) Superior colliculus
9.2) The deep layers of the ____ integrate auditory, visual, and somesthetic information
and project to brainstem and cervical spinal cord nuclei via tectobulbospinal fibers, which
are involved in controlling orientation of the head, eyes, and body to sound.
a) Inferior colliculus
d) Superior colliculus
e) Hippocampus
Neuro #22 – The Vestibular System (Chapter 22)

1.1) Which of the following resides in the inner ear and is responsible for transducing
head motion and position into neural information?
a) Peripheral receptor apparatus
b) Central vestibular nuclei
c) Vestibulo-ocular network
d) Vestibulospinal network
e) Vestibulo-thalamo-cortical network
1.2) Which of the following gives conscious perception of movement and spatial
orientation?
a) Peripheral receptor apparatus
b) Central vestibular nuclei
c) Vestibulo-ocular network
d) Vestibulospinal network
e) Vestibulo-thalamo-cortical network
2.1) Which of the following vestibular projections lies near the medial vestibular nucleus
and contains some large neurons known as Deiters cells?
a) Superior vestibular nucleus
b) Medial vestibular nucleus
c) Lateral vestibular nucleus
d) Inferior vestibular nucleus

2.2) The vestibular labyrinth is the only sensory organ in the body that sends direct
primary afferent projections to the cerebellar cortex and nuclei.
a) True
b) False
3.1) Which of the following components of the vestibulo-ocular reflex helps control
torsional eye movements as the body is moving and the eye is steady on an object?
a) Vertical semicircular canals and the saccule
b) Vertical semicircular canals and the utricle
c) Horizontal canals and the saccule
d) Horizontal canals and the utricle
e) Utricle and saccule
3.2) Cold water produces nystagmus beating to the ____ side and warm water produces
nystagmus beating to the ____ side.
a) Ipsilateral; Ipsilateral
b) Contralateral; Contralateral
c) Ipsilateral; Contralateral
d) Contralateral; Ipsilateral
4) In the caloric test, ____ water is used to irrigate the external auditory canal and the
patient is examined for horizontal nystagmus with the slow component toward the ____
side (of stimulus) and fast corrective component to the ____ side.
a) Cold; Contralateral; Ipsilateral
b) Warm; Contralateral; Ipsilateral
c) Cold; Ipsilateral; Contralateral
d) Warm; Ipsilateral; Contralateral
5) If a person begins tilting to the right, ipsilateral LVST fibers elicit ____ of the ____
axial and limb musculature. Concurrently, right ____ muscles are inhibited. These actions
stabilize the body's center of gravity and preserve upright posture.
a) Flexion; Left; Flexion
b) Extension; Left; Extension
c) Flexion; Right; Flexion
d) Extension; Right; Extension
6) Which of the following is NOT a vestibular region of the thalamus or cerebral cortex?
a) Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
b) Anterior nuclear group
c) Posterior nuclear group
d) Cortex area 2v
e) Cortex area 3a
7) Which of the following is a specific perception of body motion, often spinning or
turning, experienced when no real motion is taking place?
a) Syncope
b) Dizziness
c) Tinnitis
d) Impetigo
e) Vertigo
Neuro #23 – Olfaction & Taste (Chapter 23)

1) Where does olfactory transduction occur?
a) Mucus layer of olfactory epithelium
b) At odorant-binding protein sites
c) At odorant receptors on the cilia of the olfactory receptor neurons
d) At the olfactory bulb
2) Which of the following parts of the associated fiber olfactory system projects onto the
hippocampus?
a) Anterior olfactory nucleus
b) Olfactory tubercle
c) Piriform cortex
d) Anterior cortical amygdaloid nucleus
e) Periamygdaloid cortex
f) Lateral entorhinal cortex
3.1) What type of taste bud receptors explain why foods treated with monosodium
glutamate (MSG) often taste "heartier"?
a) Sweet
b) Salty
c) Bitter
d) Sour
e) Umami
3.2) What is the approximate life-span of a taste receptor within a taste bud?
a) 12-24 hours
b) 1-3 days
c) 10-14 days
d) 2-5 years
e) They do not reform
3.3) Taste buds on the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue are:
a) Fungiform papillae
b) Vallate (circumvallate) papillae
c) Foliate papillae
d) Filiform papillae
Match the taste(s) with their method of transduction of taste information:
4.1) Closing of apical voltage-sensitive potassium channels a) Sweet, some bitter
4.2) Movement of ions through amiloride-sensitive cation channels b) Salty
4.3) Activation of intracellular second messenger pathways c) Sour, some bitter
Match the cranial nerve ganglia with the taste fiber cranial nerve:
5.1) Geniculate ganglia a) CN VII
5.2) Petrosal ganglia b) CN IX
5.3) Nodose ganglia c) CN X
6) Like most pathways, the solitary nucleus to ventral postermedial nucleus of the
thalamas (VPMpc) to cortex (BA 3b) discriminatory taste pathway has decussations for
contralateral innervations.
a) True James Lamberg
b) False, it is exclusively ipsilateral
AnswerKey 5.1) E 24.2) B 6.1) C

Neuro #1 5.2) B 24.3) A 6.2) A
1.1) D 6.1) D 25.1) D 6.3) C
1.2) C 6.2) F 25.2) C 6.4) B
1.3) C 6.3) A 25.3) B 7.1) C
1.4) E 7.1) A 25.4) A 7.2) B
1.5) D 7.2) C 26) B 7.3) D
1.6) C 8) B 27) D 7.4) A
2.1) C 9.1) B 28.1) C 8) E
2.2) A 9.2) D 28.2) B
2.3) D 10) E Neuro #5
2.4) B 11.1) C Neuro #3 1.1) C
3.1) B 11.2) D 1) A 1.2) C
3.2) B 12.1) C 2) D 1.3) D
4.1) B 12.2) A 3) D 1.4) A
4.2) C 12.3) C 4) D 2.1) B
4.3) E 13.1) F 5) D 2.2) C
4.4) A 13.2) C 6) B 2.3) E
4.5) B 13.3) A 7.1) D 3.1) C
4.6) D 13.4) A 7.2) A 3.2) D
5.1) B 13.5) D 7.3) C 4.1) C
5.2) E 13.6) A 7.4) E 4.2) A
6.1) B 13.7) B 7.5) D 4.3) B
6.2) C 13.8) D 7.6) E 4.4) B
6.3) A 13.9) A 7.7) A 4.5) B
7) A 14.1) D 7.8) B 4.6) E
8) C 14.2) C 8.1) D 4.7) D
9) D 14.3) A 8.2) A 5.1) B
10) E 14.4) B 9.1) C 5.2) A
11) C 15.1) C 9.2) B 5.3) E
12.1) B 15.2) C 9.3) A 5.4) E
12.2) F 15.3) C 10) A 5.5) D
13) E 16) E 11) C 6.1) B
14) A 17) D 12) B 6.2) F
15.1) C 18) C 7.1) A
15.2) B 19.1) C Neuro #4 7.2) B
16) A 19.2) C 1.1) A 7.3) C
17.1) A 19.3) A 1.2) B 7.4) D
17.2) D 20.1) B 1.3) C 8.1) D
18) D 20.2) D 2.1) A 8.2) E
21.1) E 2.2) D 8.3) A
Neuro #2 21.2) E 3.1) C 8.4) C
1) B 22.1) C 3.2) E 9.1) E
2) C 22.2) B 4.1) C 9.2) B
3) B 23) E 4.2) D 9.3) C
4) A 24.1) C 5) C 9.4) D
9.5) E 6.6) A 6.1) C

9.6) D 6.7) D 6.2) C Neuro #14
9.7) A 6.8) C 7.1) D 1.1) C
10.1) B 7.1) D 7.2) D 1.2) B
10.2) C 7.2) B 7.3) A 1.3) A
7.3) D 8.1) B 1.4) C
Neuro #6 7.4) E 8.2) E 1.5) D
1.1) C 1.6) A
1.2) B Neuro #8 Neuro #10 1.7) B
2.1) D 1.1) C 1.1) B 1.8) C
2.2) B 1.2) D 1.2) C 2.1) A
2.3) A 1.3) A 1.3) E 2.2) E
2.4) C 2.1) A 1.4) D 2.3) E
2.5) A 2.2) C 2) E 3.1) B
3.1) B 3.1) E 3.1) C 3.2) D
3.2) D 3.2) E 3.2) A 3.3) C
3.3) A 3.3) B 3.3) D 4) E
3.4) B 4) D
4) E 5.1) E Neuro #11 Neuro #15
5.1) E 5.2) A 1) A 1) D
5.2) B 6.1) B 2.1) D 2.1) D
5.3) D 6.2) B 2.2) A 2.2) C
5.4) C 6.3) A 3.1) B 3) A
5.5) D 6.4) D 3.2) C 4) A
7.1) E 4.1) B 5) D
Neuro #7 7.2) A 4.2) E 6) C
1) C 8) D 5) D 7) C
2.1) B 8) B
2.2) C Neuro #9 Neuro #12
2.3) D 1) C 1.1) C Neuro #16
2.4) D 2.1) C 1.2) E 1) C
2.5) E 2.2) E 2.1) C 2.1) E
2.6) D 2.3) A 2.2) C 2.2) A
3.1) A 2.4) E 3.1) A 2.3) D
3.2) C 2.5) C 3.2) D 2.4) D
3.3) B 2.6) A 2.5) E
4.1) C 3.1) A Neuro #13 2.6) D
4.2) C 3.2) C 1.1) B 3.1) B
4.3) A 3.3) B 1.2) D 3.2) D
5.1) C 3.4) D 2.1) C 3.3) A
5.2) C 4.1) C 2.2) B 4) E
6.1) B 4.2) A 2.3) A 5.1) C
6.2) G 4.3) D 3) E 5.2) D
6.3) E 4.4) D 4) A
6.4) H 4.5) C
6.5) F 5) A
Neuro #17 Neuro #21

1.1) D 1) C
1.2) D 2) B
1.3) C 3) C
2.1) A 4) C
2.2) C 5) C
3) D 6) B
4) E 7.1) G
5) A 7.2) A
7.3) B
Neuro #18 7.4) E
1) B 7.5) D
2.1) B 7.6) F
2.2) C 7.7) C
3) E 8) B
4) D 9.1) B
5) E 9.2) D
Neuro #19 Neuro #22

1) D 1.1) A
2) A 1.2) E
3) A 2.1) C
4) E 2.2) A
3.1) B
Neuro #20 3.2) D
1.1) E 4) C
1.2) D 5) B
1.3) A 6) B
2.1) B 7) E
2.2) B
3) A Neuro #23
4.1) D 1) C
4.2) D 2) F
5) C 3.1) E
6) A 3.2) C
7.1) A 3.3) A
7.2) D 4.1) C
8) D 4.2) B
9) A 4.3) A
10.1) C 5.1) A
10.2) D 5.2) B
10.3) E 5.3) C
10.4) A 6) B
10.5) B
10.6) E

Quiz Neuroscience Part 1 of 4

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Neuroscience – Part 1 26Mar2009

Neuro #1 – Physiology: General Sensory System (Chapter 7)

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -1-

c) Sensory receptors peripherally

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -2-

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -3-

b) Position sense and joint movement

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -4-

b) Spinomesencephalic tract & sensory receptors supplying the affected

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -5-

Neuro #2 – Physiology: Special Senses (Chapter 8)

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -6-

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -7-

e) Optic disc; Parafoveal region

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -8-

DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -9-

a) Bony labyrinth; Cochlear duct; Perilymph

d) Deft; Normal; Air conduction > Bone conduction

Neuro #3 – Orientation To The Structure & Imaging Of The CNS (Chapter 1)

b) Back of the spinal cord/body & top of the brain

Neuro #4 – The Cell Biology Of The Neurons & Glia (Chapter 2)

Neuro #5 – Development Of The Nervous System (Chapter 5)

Neuro #6 – The ventricles, Choroid Plexus, & CSF (Chapter 6)

Neuro #7 – The Meninges (Chapter 7)

b) Neural crest cells and endoderm

3.2) Which of the following may be called Pacchionian bodies if it is enlarged or

Neuro #8 – A Survey Of The Cerebrovascular System (Chapter 8)

b) Cerebal septic emboli

d) Posterior; Anterior; Hypotension

b) False, cancer cannot metastasize though the spinal cord

Neuro #9 – The Spinal Cord (Chapter 9)

4.3) Proprioceptive GSA fibers are:

Neuro #10 – An Overview Of The Brainstem (Chapter 10)

Neuro #11 – The Medulla Oblongata (Chapter 11)

Neuro #12 – The Pons & Cerebellum (Chapter 12)

Neuro #13 – The Midbrain (Chapter 13)

b) Superior cerebellar artery

Neuro #14 – A Synopsis Of Cranial Nerves Of The Brainstem (Chapter 14)

Neuro #15 – The Diencephalon (Chapter 15)

Neuro #16 – The Telencephalon (Chapter 16)

b) Wernicke speech area

Neuro #17 – The Somatosensory System I (Chapter 17)

5) Which of the following projects onto the dorsal nucleus of Clarke?

Neuro #18 – The Somatosensory System II (Chapter 18)

Neuro #19 – Viscerosensory Pathways (Chapter 19)

Neuro #20 – The Visual System (Chapter 20)

e) Loss of pupil constriction ability

Neuro #21 – The Auditory System (Chapter 21)

7.7) Superior olive g) VII

Neuro #22 – The Vestibular System (Chapter 22)

d) Inferior vestibular nucleus

Neuro #23 – Olfaction & Taste (Chapter 23)

AnswerKey 5.1) E 24.2) B 6.1) C

9.5) E 6.6) A 6.1) C

Neuro #17 Neuro #21

Neuro #19 Neuro #22

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