BRILLIANTS MOCK ALL-INDIA TESTS (B.

MAT) NATIONAL SIT-DOWN PROGRESSIVE EVALUATION TEST 1

FOR STUDENTS OF OUR TWO-YEAR ELITE POSTAL COURSE TOWARDS

ELITE 2011 I PET/CMP/P(I)/QNS 02.08.2009

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

PAPER I CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PHYSICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

Maximum Marks: 240

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has 28 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 7 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

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PART A : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Single Correct Choice Type This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. The nucleus of an atom can be assumed to be spherical. The radius of the nucleus of mass number A is given by 1.25 10 A cm. Radius of atom is 1 . If the mass number is 64 then the fraction of the atomic volume that is occupied by the nucleus is (A) 1.0 10
3 13 1/3

(B) 5.0 10

(C) 2.5 10

(D) 1.25 10

13 1

2. Wave number of first line in Lyman series of Hydrogen spectrum (RH = 109678 cm ) is (A) 82259 cm
1

(B) 82200 cm

(C) 97492 cm

(D) 102823 cm

3. In OF2, oxygen has the hybridisation of (A) sp (B) sp

2 3

(C) sp

(D) sp d

4. The d-orbital involved in the sp d hybridisation is (A) d

x
2

(B) dxy

(C) d

(D) dxz

5. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by a very small tube having a stop cock. Bulb A has a volume of 100 cm and contained the gas while the bulb B was empty. On opening the stop-cock, the pressure fell down to 40%. The volume of the bulb B will be (A) 250 cm
3 3

(B) 40 cm

(C) 140 cm

(D) 150 cm

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6. At certain temperature, the r.m.s velocity for CH4 gas molecules is 100 m/sec. The r.m.s velocity for SO2 gas molecules at the same temperature will be (A) 400 m/sec (B) 200 m/sec (C) 25 m/sec (D) 50 m/sec

7. A metal oxide has the formula Z2O3. It can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water. 0.1596 g of the metal oxide required 6 mg of hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic weight of metal is (A) 27.9 (B) 159.6 (C) 79.8 (D) 55.8

8. A solution containing Na2CO3 and NaOH requires 300 mL of 0.1 N HCl for neutralisation using phenolphthalein as indicator. Methyl orange is then added to the above titrated solution, when a further 25 mL of 0.2 N HCl is required. The amount of NaOH present in the solution is [NaOH = 40, Na2CO3 = 106] (A) 0.8 g (B) 1.0 g (C) 1.5 g SECTION II Multiple Correct Choice Type This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 9. Which of the following give a straight line plot for ideal gas? (A) P versus V at constant Temperature (B) V versus T at constant Pressure (C) P versus T at constant Volume (D) P versus 1 V at constant Temperature (D) 2.0 g

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10. Which of the following have sp hybridisation for the central atom? (A) PH
3
76 32

(B) SO 2
3

(C) SO 2

(D) XeF4

11. Isotones of (A)

77 32

Ge are (B)
77 33

Ge

As

(C)

77 34

Se

(D)

78 34

Se

12. Which of the following have the same mass? (A) 0.1 mole of O gas 2 (B) 0.1 mole of SO2 gas (C) 6.02 10
22

molecules of SO2 gas molecules of O2 gas SECTION III Comprehension Type

(D) 1.204 10

23

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15 Diffusion refers to the spreading of a gas throughout the space or into a second gas or substance. Effusion refers to the escape of a gas through an orifice. Grahams law of diffusion states that under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, the rates of diffusion of different gases are inversely proportional to square root of their densities. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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13. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of a given gas to that of helium is 1 : 4. The molecular weight of the gas is (A) 20 (B) 64 (C) 8 (D) 16

14. The time taken for a certain volume of gas x to diffuse through a small hole is 2 minutes. It takes 5.65 minutes for oxygen to diffuse under similar conditions. The molecular weight of x is (A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 8 (D) 4

15. 50 mL of H2 diffuses out through a small hole from a vessel in 20 minutes. The time needed for 40 mL of oxygen to diffuse out under similar conditions is (A) 12 minutes (C) 48 minutes (B) 64 minutes (D) 36 minutes

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18 A chemical bond is a force which holds the atoms of a molecule together. Atoms form bonds since it leads to decrease in energy. The important types of chemical bonds are ionic, covalent, coordinate and metallic. In addition, attractive interactions between atoms of different molecules develop weak bonds between the molecules such as Hydrogen bond and van der Waals interactions. The covalent bond is not always 100% covalent. Polarity is developed in the bond due to the electronegativity difference between the bonded atoms. 16. The correct order of the strengths of the bonds is (A) H ... F > H .... O > H .... N (B) H ... O > H ... N > H .... F (C) H .... F > H .... N > H .... O (D) H .... O > H .... F > H .... N SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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17. Out of the following arrangements, the incorrect order of decreasing boiling points is (A) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (C) CH4 > GeH4 > SiH4 (B) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S (D) Br2 > Cl2 > F2

18. The polarity of a covalent bond in the molecule develops dipole moment. Dipole moment is a vector quantity. H2O has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole moment, because (A) H O molecule is linear while BeF is bent. 2 2 (B) BeF2 molecule is linear but H2O is bent. (C) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen (D) Be has more electronegativity than oxygen SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example: If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.

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19.

Column I (A) O2 (B) N (C) O

2

Column II (p) Paramagnetic (q) Bond order 1.5 (r) Bond order 2.0 (s) Bond order 2.5 (t) Bond order 3.0

(D) N

20.

Column I (A) SF6 (B) XeF4 (C) CCl4 (D) NO 2

Column II (p) Linear (q) Square planar (r) Tetrahedral (s) sp d or d sp (t) sp
3 3 2 2 3

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PART B : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Single Correct Choice Type This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 21. If a, b, c are in G.P., and if log 2a 3b 5c lengths of the sides of a triangle which is (A) right angled (C) equilateral , log 3b , log 5c 2a are in A.P., then a, b, c are the

(B) acute angled (D) obtuse angled

22. If x, y, z are different positive numbers in H.P., then the minimum value of z 4y x 4y exceeds 2x y 2z y (A) 11 (B) 12 1 1 3 (C) 13 2 1 3 5 (C) 1 3 1 3 5 7 (D) 10 4 1 3 5 7 9 + .... is

23. Sum to infinity of the series 3 2 1 2

(A)

(B)

(D) None of these

24. If 1, 2, 3, 4 are the smallest positive angles in ascending order of magnitude which have their sines equal to the positive number , then the value of 4 sin
1

+ 3 sin

+ 2 sin

+ sin

is equal to (D) None of these

(A) 2

(B) 2 1

(C) 2 1

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25. The value of k for which the equation 2 + kx + sin (A) 2 2 2

2 1

(x 2x + 2) + cos

(x 2x + 2) = 0 has a real solution is 2 2 sin 2 2

(B)

(C)

(D)
1 1

2
1

26. The sum of the infinite series sin 4 3 sin

2 6

2 (C)

sin

3 12

2 + .... is

(A)

(B)

(D)

27. In ABC, D and E are the points of trisection of BC and , , are the opposite angles, then (A) 4 sin (B) 3 x 4 sin sin is (D) 1 1 sin x 4 2 cos x cos x = 0 is

(C) 2 2 sin x sin x (B) 2n + 2 (D) None of these SECTION II

28. The general solution of cos (A) 8n + 2 (C) 4n + 2, where n N

Multiple Correct Choice Type This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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29. The value of a for which the equation sin x + cos (a + x) + cos (a x) = 2 has real solution satisfy (A) sin a
2

1 2

(B) sin a

1 4

(C) cos a

1 4

2 (D) cos a 3 4

30. In ABC if the median through A is inclined at an angle 45 with the side BC and C = 30 , then B is (A) 75 31. If x y = 5 12 1 3 (B) 15
2 2

(C) 105 3 2

(D) 135

and sin x sin y = 17 13 12, 12

then the ordered pair (x, y) is 7 12 11 12 11 12 7 12

(A)

1 12

(B)

(C)

(D)

32. In a G.P., the product of the first 4 terms is 9 and the 2nd term is reciprocal of the 4th term, then the sum to infinity of the G.P. is (A) 27 2 (B) 27 2 (C) 1 8 (D) 1 8

SECTION III Comprehension Type This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 to 35 For any progression rth term = Sum to n terms Sum to (n 1) terms. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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33. In a sequence the sum to n terms is a 3 a where a is a real constant. Then the sequence is (A) an AP with common difference 2a (B) an AP with common difference a (C) a GP with common ratio 3 (D) a GP with common ratio 3a 34. In a sequence 4 9a

k=1

= a4

a where a, is a real constant then 1 2 1 3

k=1

1 t
k

is

(A)

(B)

2 3a

(C)

a 1 n 12

(D)

35. Sum to n terms of a progression is n n term, then (A) 1

2 , t stands for the general k

k=1

1 t
k

is (C) 3 (D) 4

(B) 2

Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 In ABC if two sides a, b and one angle opposite to any one of them say A is given. By Sine rule a sin A = b sin B . Two values of B that is B1and B2 can be found.

Evidently B1 + B2 = namely c1 and c2. Correspondingly there are two values of C, that is C1 and C2 and two values of c SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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sin C 36. Value of

1 1

sin C

2 2

sin B

sin B

is (C) cos A (D) 3 cos A

(A) 2 cos A

(B) 4 cos A

37. The sum of the areas of the possible triangles is (A) (C) 1 2 1 2 b cos 2A b sin A
2 2

(B)

1 2

b sin 2A

(D) None of these

38. If a = 3.5, b = 4 and A = 60 the difference between the two possible values of c is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example: If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following. (D) 2

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39.

Column I (A) The value of Lt

Column II

n k=1

tan

2k k
4

is 2

(p)

12 4 2 3

(B) In (0, ) the sum of a pair of solutions of 81

cos
2

81

sin

(q)

= 30 is b c x 1 6 c b a b cos x = 3 , then A is 6 2 (r) (s)

(C) If in ABC 1

a c

(D) Maximum value of sin is attained at x =

in 0,

(t) 40. Column I (A) If

6 Column II (p) 2

k=1 j=1 i=1

2 = An + Bn + Cn, then 3 (A + C) + B is 3r q p

(B) If 64, 27, 36 are the pth, qth, rth terms of a GP, then (C) If in ABC, b + c = 3a , then
2 2 2

is (q) 4 (r) 0 (s) 1 (t) 5

cot B

cot C
2 x

cot A 2

is

(D) The number of solutions of 1 + sin x sin

= 0 in ( , ) is

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PART C : PHYSICS SECTION I Single Correct Choice Type This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 41. The radius vector of a point depends on time t, as r = c t where c and b 2 are constant and collinear vectors. Then the modulus of velocity of the point is (A) (c + bt) (B) (c bt) (C) c + b t
2 2

bt

(D) c + b t

2 2

42. The velocity-displacement equation of a particle moving along a straight line is given by v = to (A) 4 2s . Then the ratio of acceleration a to displacement s is equal (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 2

43. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as A x U = where A and B are dimensional constants. Then dimensional 2 2 x B formula for AB is (A) M L
1 1 7/2

2 2

(B) M L
1

5/2 9/2

2 2

(C) M L

11/2

(D) M L

44. Suppose the diameter of a wire is measured to be 2.40 cm. What is its circumference? (Given = 3.14159) (A) 7.540 cm (B) 7.54 cm (C) 7.541 cm (D) 7.542 cm

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45. Velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in Figure. At t = 0, displacement s = 0. Then the displacement-time graph (A) between 0 and 2s is a parabola with non-zero slope at t = 0 (B) between 4 and 6s is an inverted parabola (C) between 2 and 4s is not a straight line (D) has zero slope at t = 8 sec 46. Two particles separated by a distance of 1 m are projected simultaneously at t = 0, one vertically up and the other at an angle , from the same horizontal level. The velocity of the particle projected vertically is 10 m/s. If the two particles move in the same vertical plane and collide at t = 1 sec, the angle of projection for the other particle is (g = 10 m/s ) (A) tan
1 2 1 1 1

(10)

(B) tan

(5)

(C) tan

(15)

(D) tan

(20)

47. Two particles A and B start at the origin O and travel in opposite directions along a circular path of radius 5 m at constant speeds v = 0.7 m/s and v = 1.5 m/s A B respectively. Determine the time when they collide.

(A) 8.5 s

(B) 11.2 s (C) 14.3 s (D) 17.2 s SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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48. Two blocks of masses 7 kg and 3 kg are connected by a spring of stiffness 1000 N/m and placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They are acted upon by horizontal forces F = 72 N and F = 32 N in opposite directions as shown in the Figure. When accelerations of the blocks are equal and constant, the extension in cm of the spring is
1 2

(A) 4 cm

(B) 5 cm

(C) 6 cm SECTION II

(D) 8 cm

Multiple Correct Choice Type This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 49. To a man walking at the rate of x km/hr the rain appears to fall vertically. When he doubles his speed, it appears to fall with a velocity of 3 2 km hr making an angle of 45 with the vertical. Then (A) The value of x is 3 km/hr (B) Vertical speed of rain is 2 km/hr (C) The rain would appear to fall behind the back of the man (D) The rain would appear to fall in front of the man 50. A mass m kg is subjected to a constant force F kgf under which it moves a distance of x metre in t seconds and acquires a velocity of v m/s. Distance x in metre is (A) gt F m
2

(B) v m gF

(C) Fgt 2m

(D) v m 2gF

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51. In the arrangement shown, pulleys are massless and frictionless and threads are inextensible. The block of mass m remains at rest. Then 1 (A) m =
1

4m m
2

3 3

(B) m1 = m2 + m3 (C) Tension T1 in the string connected to mass m1 is 4m m

1 3 3

2 2

(D) Tension T2 in the string connected to mass m2 is

2m m m
2

3 3

52. A particle starts from a point O along a straight line OX with a velocity of 40 cms and an acceleration of 8 cms . At the same instant, another particle starts from a point O behind O, (OO = 36 cm) in the same direction with a velocity of 70 cms
1 1 2

and a retardation of 4 cms . Then

(A) the two particles meet twice (B) the timings of their meetings are 2 sec and 3 sec (C) the timings of their meetings are 1 sec and 4 sec (D) the distances from the point O at which they meet are 96 cm and 156 cm respectively SECTION III Comprehension Type This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 to 55 A particle of mass 10 of a force F(x) = K

2

kg is moving along the positive x-axis under the influence

2

where K = 10

N/m . At time t = 0, the particle is at x = 1.0 m

2x and its velocity is v = 0. 53. Velocity of the particle when it reaches x = 0.50 m is (A) 1 m/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 2 m/s (D) 1.5 m/s

54. The time at which it reaches x = 0.25 m is (A) t = 5 3 3 3 4 3 4 (B) t = 2 1 3 5 4 3 4

(C) t =

(D) t =

55. Average acceleration during the time the particle takes to go from x = 1.0 m to x = 0.5 m is (A) 3 4 2 2 m s
2

(B)

4 1 2 2

m s

(C)

m s

(D)

m s

Paragraph for Question Nos. 56 to 58 A smooth ring A of mass m can slide on a fixed horizontal rod. A string tied to the ring passes over a fixed pulley B and carries a block C of mass M (= 2m) as shown in SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Figure. At an instant the string between the ring and the pulley makes an angle with the rod.

56. If the ring slides with a speed v, the block descends with speed (A) v cos (B) v cos (C) v sin (D) v tan

57. If the system is released from rest with = 30, the ring will start with acceleration (A) 6.8 m/s
2

(B) 8.6 m/s

(C) 9.2 m/s

(D) 10.2 m/s

58. Tension in the string if m = 1 kg is (A) 5.5 N (B) 4.4 N (C) 6.9 N SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example: SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) 7.8 N

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If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.

59. Match the items in columns I with those in column II Column I (A) Weight (B) Force (C) Vector (D) Unit vector Column I (A) Change in velocity is constant in magnitude and direction with respect to time (B) Change in velocity is constant in direction but not in magnitude with respect to time (C) Position vector r is such that r constant (D) Position vector r is such that is constant (t) Uniform circular motion SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK dr dt Column II (p) Depends on place (q) Depends on frame of reference (r) Independent of frame of reference (s) No unit Column II (p) Uniform motion

60. Match the items in column I with those in column II

(q) A body falling under gravity from a height comparable to the earths surface (r) A body falling under gravity near the earths surface (s) Velocity is not constant

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Mathematics and Part C: Physics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct. 16. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension (paragraph) type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph followed by 3 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one Choice is correct. 17. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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