Jeee Advance Paper1

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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Questions Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed
to do so by the invigilators.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work. No additional
sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers,
and electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
6. On breaking the seals of the booklet check that it contains 32 pages and all the 20 questions
in each subject and corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instructions
printed at the beginning of each section.
B. Filling the ORS :
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble
with the help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
8. Write your Name, FNO and sign with pen in the boxes provied on part of the ORS. Do not write
any of this information anywhere else.
C. Question Paper Format :
9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of
two sections.
10. SECTION I
(i) In this part of section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct
(ii) In this part of section I contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc.
There are 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with 2 questions on each
paragraph. Each question of a particular paragraph has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which is ONLY ONE is correct
11. SECTION IV contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.
D. Marking scheme :
12. For each question in Section I (i), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY. In all other cases, zero(0) marks will be awarded.
No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section I (ii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all
other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded in this section.
14. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded.
No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
15. Take g = 10 m/s
2
unless otherwise stated.
INSTRUCTIONS
PAPER 1 Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 222
Write your Name, Form No. & Sign in the space provided on the back page of this booklet.
E1/ 32 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2013
Note: In case of any correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Your Form No. & Complete Test Details.
DATE : 14 - 05 - 2013
SCORE : TEST # 06
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MEDIUM : ENGLISH
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Space for Rough Work
JEE 2013
LEADER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17,
Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
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Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 10
23
JK
1
Coulomb's law constant
pe
9
0
1
= 910
4
Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 10
11
Nm
2
kg
2
Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 10
8
ms
1
StefanBoltzmann constant s = 5.67 10
8
Wm
2
K
4
Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 10
3
mK
Permeability of vacuum
0
= 4p 10
7
NA
2
Permittivity of vacuum
0
= 2
0
1
c m
Planck constant h = 6.63 10
34
Js
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION~I
(i) Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
1. A rigid rod of mass m slides along a fixed semicircular track (in vertical plane) followed by a flat track.
At the given instant velocity of end B is v along horizontal plane. Then at the given instant :-
A
C
B
v
r
O
r
(A) angular speed of rod is
v
r
(B) velocity of centre of mass is
v
2
(C) angular momentum of rod about O is
2
mvr
3
(D) kinetic energy of rod is
2
mv
6
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
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2. The figure shows a cylindrical container fitted with a piston. It contains two immiscible incompressible
liquids with densities r
1
and r
2
. A block floats is equilibrium in the position shown. Choose the
CORRECT statement:-
r
2
r
1
(A) Suppose the spring is compressed. Now, if the piston is moved downward then compression in
spring will be same as before.
(B) Suppose the spring is compressed. Now if the whole system is moved with some acceleration
upward then spring will definitely become more compressed.
(C) Supposed the spring is initially relaxed. The piston is moved downward and whole system is
accelerated upward then no change will occur in the state of spring.
(D) Supposed the spring is initially relaxed. The piston is moved downward and whole system is
accelerated upward then the change in state of spring will depend on r
1
and r
2
.
3. Figure shows force vectors at different points in space for two forces.
(a) (b)
In figure (a) the force function is
1 0
F F j =
r
, where F
0
is a constant. The force in figure (b) is given by
2 0
x
F F j

=

a
r
, where origin is taken at center of left edge of the box, a is width of the square box.
(A)
1
F
r
is conservative force
(B)
1
F
r
is non conservative force
(C)
2
F
r
is conservative force
(D)
2
F
r
is non-conservative force
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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4. In the figure Box-1 contains one capacitor and one resistor
Box-2 contains one inductor and one resistor
R
1
= resistance in Box 1, R
2
= resistance in Box 2
Power factor of Box 1 =
1
5
, Power factor of Box 2 =
1
5
Power factor of (Box 1 + Box 2) =
1
2
, Power factor of Box 3 =
1
2
(inductive circuit)
Resistance of Box 3 = R
1
+ R
2
Current I = I
0
sin (wt + f)
On the basis of above mentioned information pick the CORRECT option from below :
Box-1 Box-2
Box-3
I
V sin ( t)
0
w
(A)
1
2
R
3
R
=
(B) Z
3
= 4
2
R
2
(Impedance of box 3)
(C) I =
0
2
V
sin( t)
4R
w
(D) f = (2n + 1)p, where n may be some integer
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5. X-ray from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z shows strong K lines for target A and weak K
lines for impurities. The wavelength of K
a
lines is l
z
for target A and l
1
and

l
2
for two impurities.
If
z
1
l
l
= 4 and
z
2
l
l
=
1
4
Screening constant of K
a
lines to be unity. Select the correct statement(s)
(A) The atomic number of first impurity is 2Z 1
(B) The atomic number of first impurity is 2Z+ 1
(C) The atomic number of second impurity is
( ) Z 1
2
+
(D) The atomic number of second impurity is
Z
2
+ 1
6. A 100 cm long cylindrical flask with inner and outer diameter 2 cm and 4 cm respectively is completely
filled with ice as shown in the figure. The constant temperature outside the flask is 40C. (Thermal
conductivity of the flask is 0.693 W/mC, L
ice
= 80 cal/gm & ln2 = 0.693).
ice
r
2
r
1
(A) Rate of heat flow from outside to the flask is 80 p J/s
(B) The rate at which ice melts is
kg / s
4200
p
(C) The rate at which ice melts is 100 p kg/s
(D) Rate of heat flow from outside to flask is 40 p J/s
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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7. A hemispherical surface of mass M is placed on smooth horizontal floor. A man of mass m starts
moving on the surface from position A with constant speed v relative to hemisphere and man doesn't
slip on it. While man moves from position A to C relative to surface :-
//////////////////////////////////////
m
B
C A M
(A) speed of hemisphere will first increase and then decrease.
(B) net work done by contact force between man and the hemisphere on system containing man and
hemisphere during the walking of man is zero.
(C) hemisphere will get displaced by
2mR
M m +
towards left after man reaches C.
(D) speed of hemisphere will be maximum when man reaches B.
8. In the given hypothetical electric field
( )
0

E d x i E j N/ C

= + -

r
, a hypothetical closed surface is
taken as shown in figure :-
y
z
x C
b
c
a
B
F
E
D
A
(A) Net flux through plane ABCD is acd unit.
(B) Net flux through plane CDEF is bcE
0
unit.
(C) Net flux through plane ABEF is 0
acb
bcE acd
2

- + +

unit.
(D) Net charge enclosed by the closed surface is abc
0
unit.
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(ii) Paragraph Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions relating to three paragraphs with two questions
on each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
Paragraph for Questions 9 & 10
A spherical soap bubble with internal air density r
i
, temperature T
i
and radius R
O
is surrounded by air
with density r
a
, atmospheric pressure P
a
and temperature T
a
. The soap film has surface tension g. The
mass and the surface tension of the soap solution do not change with the temperature. Assume that air
both inside and outside behaves like same ideal gas.
9. When the bubble is first formed, the air within is warmer (T
i
> T
a
). The buoyant force acting on the soap
bubble must be equal to the weight, for it to float in air. For finding the mass of the soap film you can
assume that the density of the soap solution is r
s
and that the thickness of the film is t (t << R
O
). The
minimum value of T
i
so that the bubble can float in still air :-
(A)
0 a a
0 a s 0 a
R T 3
1
R 3 t R P
r g
+

r - r

(B)
0 a a
0 a s 0 a
R T
1
R 3 t R P
r g
+

r - r

(C)
0 a a
0 a s 0 a
R T
1
R 3 t 2R P
r g
+

r - r

(D)
0 a a
0 a s 0 a
R T 4
1
R 3 t R P
r g
+

r - r

10. After due time, the temperature of air within the bubble becomes equal to that of the surrounding air.
Now the soap bubble floats in air due to an air current flowing upwards. Find the minimum velocity u of
the air so that viscous drag and buoyancy will balance the weight of the soap bubble. The coefficient of
viscosity of air is h. The soap bubble finally acquires radius R, when it is in thermal equilibrium with
surroundings :-
(A)
a
s
a
2 2Rg
t
3 3P
gr
r +

h

(B)
a
s
a
4 Rg
t
3 3P
gr
r +

h

(C)
a
s
a
4 2Rg
t
3 3P
gr
r +

h

(D)
a
s
a
4 2Rg
t
3P
gr
r +

h

(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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A small particle of mass m is given an initial velocity v
0
tangent to the horizontal rim of a smooth cone
of base radius r
0
from the vertical centerline as shown at point A. As the particle slides to point B, a
vertical distance h below A , its velocity v makes an angle q with the horizontal tangent to the cone
through B.
A
B
q
v
a
a
v
0
r
0
h
11. The value of q and speed of the particle at point B are respectively:-
(A)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
(r h tan ) v 2gh
-
- a +
,
2
0
v 2gh +
(B)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
(r h tan ) v 2gh
-
+ a +
,
2
0
v 2gh +
(C)
1 0 0
2
0 0
v r
cos
(r h tan ) v 2gh
-
- a -
,
2
0
v 2gh -
(D)
1 0
2
0
v
cos
v 2gh
-
+
,
2
0
v 2gh +
12. The minimum value of v
0
for which particle will be moving in a horizontal circle of radius r
0
:-
(A)
0
2gr
tan a
(B)
0
gr
2tan a
(C)
0
gr
tana
(D)
0
4gr
tana
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Figure shows a ball rolling toward a hill.
y
max
The ball has
kinetic energy K
E > U
0
E < U
0
x 0
U
0
U(x)
A ball with this energy slows
down while going over the hill,
but it makes it over
A ball with
this energy
reverses
direction at the
turning point
Turning point
U = mgy
0 max
(a)
According to the laws of classical physics, a ball that is incident on the energy barrier from the left with
E > U
0
can go over the barrier (i.e., roll over the hill), but a ball with E < U
0
will reflect from the energy
barrier at the turning point.
Figure shows the situation from the perspective of quantum mechanics. We will interpret y(x) in terms
of the probability of detecting a particle at position x. Quantum particles can penetrate with an
exponentially decreasing wave function into the classically forbidden region of an energy barrier. Suppose
that the barrier is very narrow. Although the wave function decreases within the barrier, starting at the
classical turning point, it hasnt vanished when it reaches the other side. In other words, there is some
probability that a quantum particle will pass through the barrier and emerge on the other side.
E < U
0
x 0
U
0
U(x)
The particle approaches
from the left with energy
E < U
0
y(x)
0
x
The particle energes
with the same de Broglie
wavelength after tunneling
through the energy barrier
y decays exponentially
in the classically
forbidden region.
(b)
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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If the ball of figure (a) gets to the turning point and then, instead of reversing direction and rolling back
down, tunnels it way through the hill and emerges on the other side. Although this feat is strictly forbidden
in classical mechanics, it is apparently acceptable behavior for quantum particles. The process is called
quantum-mechanical tunneling.
The penetration distance h was given in equation
( )
0
2
h =
-
h
m U E
Tunneling probability is the probability that a particle will tunnel through the energy barrier it is given
by P
tunneling
=
2w/
e
- h
where w is the width of barrier.
13. Mark the CORRECT statement :-
(A) Quantum tunneling can be explained with the help of Bohr's atomic model & Wave particle duality
(B) The parameter h, which measures how far the particle can penetrate into the barrier, depends both
on the particle's mass and on U
0
E.
(C) The tunneling probability can be substantially increased by increasing the thickness of the barrier.
(D) Quantum tunneling can be explained with the help of Coulombs law & Wave particle duality
14. Which of the following pair of potential barrier (U) of very small thickness and total energy (E) of the
object can be best explained by the concept of quantum tunneling if the object is found beyond the
barrier
(A) U = 5 eV (B) U = 7J (C) U = 7eV (D) U = 100 eV
E = 7 eV E = 5J E = 6.9 eV E = 1eV
object is electron object is ball object is electron obj ect i s proton
SECTION ~II & SECTION ~III
Matrix Match Type Integer Answer Type
No question will be asked in section II and III
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SECTION~IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit Integer, ranging from
0 to 9.
1. A disc of mass M and radius R is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A light rod of length 2R is fixed
to the disc at point A as shown in the figure and force
3
2
Mg is applied at the other end. The minimum
value of coefficient of friction between disc and horizontal surface so that disc starts to roll without
slipping is given by m, then fill the value of 10m in OMR sheet.
R/2
R
3/2Mg 2R
A
2. Two particles of mass 'm' each and having charge +q and q respectively joined by a light rod of length
6a as shown in the figure. The whole system is kept on a horizontal frictionless surface and two spring
are connected to the rod. Rod is hinged at centre and assume no energy loss takes place in form of
electromagnetic wave during the motion of particles.
A uniform electric field exists in the region as shown in the figure in entire region. The rod is given a
small angular displacement from equilibrium, then the frequency of small oscillation
2
k
Given m kg & Eq 8ka
3

= =

p

is f Hz. Fill the value of 4f in OMR sheet.
////////
////////
a
2a
2k
k
E
m
q
m
C +q
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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3. A solid sphere of mass M of radius R is moving with speed
1
GM
100 10 ms
R
-
=
in free space. Due
to application of external impulsive force, it breaks into eight spheres of same radius in such a way that
the total mechanical energy before breaking and after breaking of sphere remains same. The speed of
each sphere when separation between them is very large (assume at that instant speed of each sphere is
same) is given by
10
b
a
m/s where a and b are integers between 0 to 9. Fill a+b in OMR sheet.
4. An AC source of angular frequency w is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current
registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to w/3 (but maintaining the same voltage), the
current in the circuit is found to be halved. The ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency
w is
K
5
. Find the value of K.
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5. Two potentiometer wires w
1
and w
2
of equal length l, connected to a battery of emf e
0
and internal
resistance 1 W through two switches s
1
and s
2
. A battery of emf e is balanced on these potentiometer
wires one by one. If potentiometer wire w
1
is of resistance 2 W and balancing length is l/2 on it, when
only s
1
is closed and s
2
is open. On closing s
2
and opening s
1
the balancing length on w
2
is found to be
2
3
l
, then the resistance of potentiometer wire w
2
is given by a W. Fill 6a in OMR sheet.
G
e
w
2
w
1
s
2
s
1
e W
P
, 1
6. A laser beam propagates through a spherically symmetric medium, as shown in the figure. The refractive
index varies with the distance to the symmetric centre C by the law (r) =
0
0
r
r

, where
0
= 1,
r
0
= 3 cm, r
0
r < . The beam's trajectory lies in the plane that includes C. At distance r
1
= 82 cm the
beam makes an angle f = 30 with
1
r
r
as shown in figure. Find the minimum distance (in cm) the beam
reach relative to the symmetry centre C.
f
radial
dirction
laser beam
r
1
C
r
0
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION~I
1. 2 moles of ideal gas undergo isothermal & reversible expansion from V
1
litre to 10 V
1
litre. Initial
pressure was 100 atm. If work done by the gas is 4.606 kcal which of following is correct ?
(A) initial volume = 8.17 L (B) temperature of gas = 500 K
(C) final volume = 8.21 L (D) enthalpy of gas increases
2. For a given reaction, rate = k[A] [B]
2/3
. Correct option(s) is/are :-
(A) Units of k = mol
-5/3
L
5/3
sec
-1
(B) Units of k = mol
-2/3
L
2/3
sec
-1
(C) on diluting the solution 8 times rate will become 32 times the initial rate
(D) the reaction is a complex reaction
3. Select the correct statement for ZnS type unit cell -
(A) Interionic distance is
a
3
2
(B) Number of next nearest neighbers is 12 for S
2-
ion
(C) Effective number of ZnS units are 4
(D) Cations are present in octahedral voids
4. N
2
gas can produced on heating -
(A) Ba(N
3
)
2
(B) NaN
3
(C) NH
4
NO
3
(D) All of these
5. Which of the following statement is correct regarding bleaching powder-
(A) It decolorises the substance by oxidation (B) It decolorises the substance by reduction
(C) Oxidation state of Cl are -1 and +1 (D) It releases Cl
2
when comes in contact with moisture
6. The clathrate compound can be formed by which of the following inert gases-
(A) Xe (B) Ne (C) Ar (D) He
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7. (P)
(i)
(ii) H
MgBr
(Q)
H
+
D
(R)
CHCl
3
KOH

Ph CH
3
Cl
Cl
(P)
I
2
NaOH yellow
(X) + (Y)
choose correct statement(s) for above reaction sequence :-
(A) (Y) is sodium Benzoate (B) (Q) is
Ph CH
3
OH
(C) (P) give (+) victor mayer test (D) a
H
atoms in (R) are 7.
8.
CH
2
COOEt
COOEt
Br(CH ) Br
2 4
NaOEt/EtOH
EtOH + (P)
H /H O
+
2
(Q)
D
(R)
Correct statement(s) for the above reaction sequence :-
(A) Product (R) is
(B) (R) on Kolbe's electrolysis will produce as one of the product.
(C) Conversion of (Q) to (R) is intramolecular elimination
(D) Sum of number of carbon atoms in (P) & (Q) is 13.
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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(ii) Paragraph Type
is correct.
Infrared lamps are used in restaurant to kept the food warm. The infrared radiation is strongly absorbed
by water, raising its temperature and that of the food. An infrared lamp used in a restaurant emits
monochromatic light of wavelength 1240 nm. (h = 6.62 10
-34
J-sec.)
9. If the power of lamp is 100 W, then the number of photons emitted per sec is -
(A) 62.5 10
20
(B) 6.25 10
20
(C) 12.5 10
20
(D) None of these
10. If the radiations of the same lamp are falling on a metal surface (work function = 2eV) and the quantum
yield is 0.2. The number of ejected electron from the surface in 1 minute is -
(A) 1.25 10
19
(B) 12.5 10
19
(C) 6.25 10
19
(D) None of these
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
E18/ 32
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(i) . Salt (A)
D
No residue.
(ii). Solution

of salt (A)
n
4
CuSO Sol
green ppt (B)
(iii). Solution of (A)
NaOH
gas (C)
Nesslar ' s
reagent
Brown ppt. (D)
(iv) The gas mixture obtained on heating (A) , is passed through Baryta water and white ppt is obtained
11. The ppt (B) is of
(A) CuO (B) Cu(OH)
2
(C) Cu(OH)
2
CuCO
3
(D) Cu(OH)
2
.2CuCO
3
12. The compound (A) is -
(A) NaHCO
3
(B) NH
4
HCO
3
(C) (NH
4
)
2
CO
3
(D) NH
4
Cl
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
CHEMISTRY
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CaC
2
+ H
2
O (A)
Red Hot
Cu
(B)
3
2 4
HNO
H SO
(C)
Sn / HCl
(D)
2
NaNO
HCl
(E)
-
3
CH C C: Cu
(F)
(F)
2 4
H / Pd / BaSO
(G)
4
dil.KMnO
(K)
(F)
3
Na / NH
(H)
4
dil.KMnO
(L)
(G)
3
2
1). O
2).Zn / H O
(I) + (J)
13. Which of the following is/are true for above reaction sequence :-
(A) (G) & (H) are distereomers
(B) (K) & (L) are enantiomers
(C) (F) Reacts with Na metal and liberate H
2
gas
(D) (K) & (L) are not isomers
14. If (I) gives positive iodoform test which of the following is/are true for above reaction sequence
(A) (J) gives cannizaro reaction (B) (J) gives self aldol condensation
(C) (K) is optically inactive (D) (L) is a meso compound
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
E20/ 32
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SECTION~IV
Integer Answer Type
0 to 9.
1. The ratio of DT
b
to DT
f
for 0.1 m solution of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute was found to be 0.2. If
the sum of the magnitudes of DT
f
and DT
b
for same solution was 0.3, find the value of K
b
(in K kg/mole) 10.
2. 20 ml of KMnO
4
solution completely reacts with 10 ml solution of 1 M FeS
2
and 2M CuS to produce
Cu
+2
, Fe
+3
, SO
2
. Calculate Normality of KMnO
4
solution?
Fill your answer as sum of digits (excluding decimal places) till you get the single digit answer.
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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3. Find the number of ores which consists of Fe. -
(i) Limonite (ii) Chalcocite (iii) Ilmenite (iv) Haematite
(v) Cerussite (vi) Siderite
4. Find the number of reagent which gives white ppt. with excess of KI solution-
(i) AgNO
3
(ii) Pb (OAc)
2
(iii) Hg(NO
3
)
2
(iv) BiCl
3
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
E22/ 32
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5. (A)
O
O
PhSOH
NaHCO
3
14
(P) gas.
(B)
COOH
COOH
C
HO
O

D
(Q) gas
(C) CH
3
~CH=CH
2
( )
2
Br
Brine sol.
(R)
mol. mas of gas (P) + no. of CO
2
evolved in (Q) + All possible products including stereoisomers of (R) =
6. For the product(s) of the given reaction the characteristics or relationships of product(s) will be
represented as a number according to the table
Racemicmix 1
meso 2
distereomer 3
vicinal dihalides 4
(1)
CH
3
H

2
4
Br
CCl
(A) (2)
CH
3
H

2
4
Br
CCl
(B)
(3)
CH
3

2
4
Br
CCl
(C) (4)
CH
3
H
C=C
H
CH
3

2
4
Br
CCl
(D)
characteristics & relationships for (A) + (B) + (C) + (D) =
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION~I
1. If A & B are non singular square matrices of even order such that A
T
= A, B
T
= - B & AB + BA = O
(where O is a null matrix), then
(A) B and A
-1
anticommute each other (B) (AB) is skew symmetric matrix
(C) A
-1
& B
-1
commute each other (D) (A
-1
B) is symmetric matrix
2. If y = y(x) is solution of differential equation
2
dx
(1 x ) xy x
dy
- + = such that y(1) = 1 and
g(x) = (y - 1)
2
, then
(A) g(x) is an even function (B) 2
x 1
g(x)
lim 2
(x 1)
=
-
(C) g(x) has only two local minima (D) g(x) = 1 has four solution
3. If
2
a sin x bcos 2x x c
, x 0
](x) x
d, x 0
+ - -

is differentiable at x = 0, then which option(s) is/are correct

" b R -
(A) ](0) = -1 (B) a + b + c = 0 (C) 6f '(0) = -1 (D) a + b + c + d = 1
4. If sinA - cos2A = x, cosA + sin2A = y and x
2
+ y
2
= z (z 0,1,2), then -
(A)
2x
z 1
z
= -
(B)
2x
z 3
z
= -
(C)
2 2
2
y (z 2)
1
(z 1) 4
-
+ =
-
(D)
2 2
2
y (z 1)
1
(z 2) 4
-
+ =
-
MATHEMATICS
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
E24/ 32
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5. Tangents drawn from the point P(-2, -3) to the circle x
2
+ y
2
- 2x - 4y - c = 0 touch the circle at the
points A and B such that chord AB is of maximum length. If slopes of these tangents are m
1
and m
2
,
then
(A) c is a prime number (B) c is a composite number
(C) m
1
+ m
2
> 0 (D) m
1
+ m
2
< 0
6. For the function
/ 2
0
](x) sin x ](t) cos x dt
p
= -

, correct option(s) is/are -
(A) minimum value of ](x) is
2 -
(B) maximum value of ](x) is
5
4
(C)
5
3
3
](x)dx 0
p
p
-
=
(D) ](0) + ]'

2
p

= 0
7. Let a, b, g are in A.P. and b, g, d are in G.P. If a, g are roots of x
2
- 2x - p = 0 and b, d are roots of
x
2
+ qx + 9 = 0, then
(A) Sum of all possible values of p is 18 (B) p is an odd integer
(C) a and d can be roots of x
2
- 14x + 45 = 0 (D) q is an odd integer
8. Tangents are drawn from any point on the ellipse
2 2
x y
1
9 4
+ = to the circle x
2
+ y
2
= 1 and respective
chord of contact always touches a conic 'C' , then -
(A) minimum distance between 'C' & ellipse is
3
2
(B) maximum distance between 'C' & ellipse is
10
3
(C) eccentricity of 'C' is
5
3
(D) product of eccentricity of 'C' & ellipse is 1
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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(ii) Paragraph Type
is correct.
P(0, 1, 2) be a point on the plane P
1
: x + 2y + 3z = 8. Let Q be the only point on the plane
P
2
: 2x + 2y + z = k (k > 0) which lies at a distance 5 units from point P.
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :
9. Co-ordinates of Q are.
(A) (4, 1, 5) (B)
10 13 11
, ,
3 3 3

(C)
7 1 3
, ,
2 2 2

(D) (3, 1, 2)
10. Vector perpendicular to
PQ
uuur
which lies in the plane P
1
, can be
(A)
` ` `
4i 5j 2k - +
(B)
` ` `
2i 5j 4k + - (C)
` `
3i 2k - (D)
` ` `
3i 2j k + +
MATHEMATICS
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
E26/ 32
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Let A6P + BQ4 + C45 = 887, where 'XYZ' denotes three digits number.
11. Number of ordered triplets (A,B,C) is -
(A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 15 (D) 21
12. Probability that product of A, B & C is an odd integer, is
(A)
2
5
(B)
1
6
(C)
2
9
(D)
2
7
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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Let z is a complex number which satisfies
z
2
z 3 3i
=
- -
13. If k = |z - 2 - 2i|
2
+ |z - 6 - 6i|
2
, then
(A) 4 k 10 (B) 30 k 36 (C) k 64 (D) k = 50
14. If |z - 4| + |z - 4i| is minimum, then |z| is equal to -
(A)
2
(B) 2 (C) 2 2 (D) 4 2
MATHEMATICS
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
E28/ 32
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SECTION~IV
Integer Answer Type
0 to 9.
1. Let volume of a tetrahedron ABCD is
81
2
sq. unit and volume of parallelopiped whose three coterminous
edges are line segments joining centroid of any face of tetrahedron with centroids of its other three faces
is 3
l
, then l is
2. If fourth term in the binomial expansion of
64
log x 10
(x (x 1) ) + + is 120x
8
, then sum of all possible values
of 'x' is
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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3. Let A & B are two points on the curve y = x -x
2
, 0 < x < 1 such that AB is parallel to x-axis. If maximum
possible area of DOAB {O being origin is 'A' then (36A)
2
is equal to
4. If curve y = kcos
x
2
divides area bounded by y = sinx, x-axis in between x = 0 & x = p, in two equal
parts, then
( )
k 2 + is
MATHEMATICS
TARGET : JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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5. If
2
1 1
1 y
tan x tan
y 3
- -
- p
+ = &
1 1
2
x
sin y cos
6
1 x
- -

p
- =

+
, then
1
1
5sin x
sin y
-
-
is
6. P(1,2), Q & R are three points on parabola y
2
= 4x such that PQR =
2
p
and PQ is normal to parabola
at P. If area of DPQR is 2
l
, then l is
JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
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Name of the Candidate
I have read all the instructions and shall
abide by them.
Signature of the Candidate
Form Number
I have verified all the information filled
in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Invigilator
JEE 2013
(DATE : 14-05-2013)
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, SANKALP, CP-6, INDRA VIHAR, KOTA-324005
PHONE : +91 - 744 - 2436001, Fax : +91-744-2435003, E-mail: info@allen.ac.in Website: www.allen.ac.in
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D

is differentiable at x = 0, then which option(s) is/are correct

(D) ](0) + ]'

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