Examination of Medical Microbiology Name: Number:

Choices (50) 1. Which of the following components is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria? A. Capsule B. Spore C. Peptidoglycan D. Flagella E. Pili 2. Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the laboratory when cultures are incubated at A. 15-20 B. 20-30 C. 30-37 D. 38-50 E. 50-55 3. The form of genetic exchange in which genetic recombination is mediated to the recipient by phages is A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transfection D. Transduction E. All of the above 4. The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in E coli requires A. Lysis of the donor B. a sex pilus C. Transfer of both strands of DNA D. 16s rRNA E. Integration of a transposon 5. Which of the following factors is related to the pathogenesis of bacterial infection? A. Exotoxins B. LPS C. Enzymes D. Antigenic heterogeneity E. All of the above 6. Which of the following statements is correct? A. LPS is part of the cell wall of Escherichia coli B. Cholera toxin is attached to the flagella of Vibrio cholerae C. The lecithinase of C perfringes causes diarrhea D. Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is produced by Staphylococcus epidermidis E. All of the above 7. Which one the following agents simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Viroids D. Prions E. Plasmids 8. Certain microorganisms are never considered to be members of the normal flora. They are always considered to be pathogens. Which one of the following organisms fits into that category? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Escherichia coli C. Mycobatrium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcuc aureus E. Neisseria meningitids 9. Which of the following is an important feature of exotoxin? A. Heat-stable B. Highly toxic C. Controlled by chromosomal genes only D. Found only by gram-positive bacteria E. Not converted to toxoids

10. Streptococcus pneumonia can be part of normal flora of 5-40% of people. At what anatomic site can it be found? A. Conjunctiva B. Nasopharynx C. Colon D. Urethra E. Vagina 11. A 36-year-old male patient has an abscess with a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is betalactamase-positive. This indicates that the organism is resistant to which of the following antibiotics? A. Penicillin G, amipicillin B. Trimethoprin-sulfamethoxazole C. Erythromycin D. Vacomycin E. Cefazolin and ceftriaxone 12. Staphylococcus aureus is A. Coagulase-positive B. Coagulase-negative C. Catalase-negative D. Gram-negative E. Motile 13. Streptococcus pyogens is A. Hemolysin-production B. Hyaluronidase-production C. Streotodornase-production D. Gram-positive E. All of above 14. A 70-year-old man comes to the emergency room felling feverish, he has a chronic cough. Chest xray shows a patchy right lower lobe infiltrate. The differential diagnosis of this patients pneumonia is A. Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia B. Legionella pneumophilla pneumonia C. Haemophillus influenzae pneumonia D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia E. All of the above 15. Which of the following bacteria is a frequent cause of community-acquired pneumonia? A. Legionella pneumophilla B. Chlamydia pneumoniae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae E. All of the above 16. Lysogenic bacteria are refered to bacteria, which is A. Lysogenically converted by prophage B. Lysed by phage C. Auxotroph D. Integrated with prophage E. Resisyant to antibiotics 17. Following factors contribute invasiveness of bacteria except A. Capsule B. pili C. hyaluronidase D. endotoxin E. IgA protease 18. Which one of following media is suitable for cultivation of Vibrio cholera? A. Common agar plate B. Liquid medium C. Semi-solid medium D. Blood agar plate E. Blood agar with pH 8.5 19. Which of properties regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not correct? A. aerobic rod B. acid-fast property C. rich in lipid D. forming spores E. slow growth rate 20. Which of following statements regarding Treonema pallidum subspecies pallidum is not true? A. It causes syphilis

B. Pathogenic Treonema pallidum can be cultured using complex medium C. A pregnant syphilitic woman can transmit T pallidum to the fetus D. Pathogenic Treonema pallidum is sensitive to penicillin E. In the second lesions of syphilis, treponemes can be easily found 21. Which of following statements regarding viruses is false? A. Viruses may have an envelope B. Viruses have their own metabolism C. Viruses have cell wall D. Viruses have DNA or RNA only E. Viruses may contain enzymes for replication 22. Adenoviruses A. are associated with genital cancers B. may cause gastroenteritis C. are RNA viruses D. may cause warts E. None of above 23. Coxsackie B virus is associated with the following except A. Paralytic illness B. Myocarditis C. Meningitis D. enveloped viruses E. resistant to low pH value 24. Influenza A virus is associated with the following except A. undergoing antigenic shift and antigenic drift B. vaccination confer lifelong protection C. enveloped viruses D. glycoprotein (hemagglutinin) E. spreading from person to person by airborne droplets 25. Which of following statements regarding measles virus infection is false? A. Paramyxoviruses B. may cause encephalitis C. SSPE D. may be prevented by vaccination E. infected to adults only 26. Food poisoning with enterotoxins elaborated by following bacteria is caused by A. Clostridium botulinum B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Vibrio cholerae D. Salmonella typhimurium E. Haemophilus influenzae 27. Which statement regarding fungal growth and morphology is correct? A. Pseudohyphae are produced by all yeasts B. Molds produce hyphae that may or may not be partitioned with cross-walls or septa C. Conidia are produced by sexual reproduction D. Most yeasts reproduce by budding and lack cell walls E. Most pathogenic molds produce hyphae in the host and yeasts at 30 28. An 18-year-old woman in countryside develops profuse (8 L/d) diarrhea. She has no symptoms other than the diarrhea and the manifestations of the fluid and electrolyte loss caused by the diarrhea. The most likely cause of her diarrhea is A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Vibrio cholerae C. Salmonella typhimurium D. Shigella dysenteriae E. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli 29. Prevention of tetanus depends on A. Active immunization with toxoids only B. Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil

C. Prophylactic use of antitoxin only D. Administration of antibiotics E. All of the above 30. Which one of the following statements about Enteric Fever is not true? A. Urine cultures may be positive in the first week of the disease B. Widal reaction is very important for diagnosis C. Reinfection may occur but is often milder than the first infection D. Duration of the disease may last several weeks E. Bone marrow cultures may be useful 31. Infections with which of the following agents can result in a false-positive nontreponemal (VDRL or RPP) test for syphilis? A. Varicella-zoster virus B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Sreptococcus pyogens D. Epstein-Barr virus E. All of the above 32. Mycoplasmas have all of the following characteristics except A. Possession of both DNA and RNA B. Capability for cell-free growth C. Susceptibility to penicillin G D. Extracellular parasitism in vivo E. None of the above 33. A new subtype of influenza virus A reflects which of the following viral constituent? A. Viral natrix protein B. Viral nucleoprotein C. Transcriptase D. Hemaglutinin and Nueraminidase E. Lipid 34. Which of the following viruses contains reverse transcriptase? A. Papilomaviruses B. Human T-lymphotropic viruses C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Adenoviruses E. Coxsackieviruses 35. Which of the virus particles is closely associated with cervical cancer? A. Papillomavirus type 16 and 18 B. Human Herpesvirus 7 C. Hantavirus D. Rubella virus E. Coronavirus 36. The following markers are usually present in a hepatitis B carrier with chronic active hepatitis except A. HBeAg B. Anti-HBc IgG C. Anti-HBc Ig M D. HBV-DNA E. HBsAg 37. The following viruses can be transmitted by blood, except A. Hepatitis A virus B. HIV B. HTLV-1 D. HBV E. HCV 38. The following are RNA viruses, except A. Picornaviruses B. Adenoviruses C. Hepatitis A viruses D. Rhabdoviruses E. Rotaviruses 39. The following are DNA viruses, except A. HSV B. Hepatitis B viruses C. Enteroviruses D. Adenoviruses E. CMV

40. The following viruses are associated with gastroenteritis A. Astroviruses B. Caliciviruses C. Adenoviruses D. Rotaviruses E. All of above 41. Viruses belonging to which of the following groups are likely to establish latent infections? A. Poxviruses B. Filoviruses C. Herpesviruses D. Influenza viruses E. Caliciviruses 42. Which of following viral infections is sexually transmitted? A. HIV B. HBV C. HPV D. HSV E. All of above 43. The most important virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumonia is A. its peptidoglycan layer B. an extracellular substance C. its common pilli D. its polysaccharide capsule E. none of the above 44. When two or more virus particles infect the same host cell, they may interact in a variety of ways as following A. Recombination B. Genetic reactivation and complementation C. Phenotypic mixing D. Interference E. All of above 45. One of the following statements applies to Hepatitis B virus (HBV) A. Exhibiting two morphologic forms in HBsAg-positive serum B. Causing acute hepatitis only C. Containing HbsAg on the outer surface (envelop) D. Containing a double-stranded RNA genome E. Being trasmitted primarily by the fecal-oral route 46. Which of the following pathogens is associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease? A. Coxsackievirus group A B. Poliovirus C. Rhinovirus D. Echovirus E. None of all above 47. Hepatitis D virus is found only in patients who have either acute or chronic infection with HBV. Hepatitis D virus A. Is a defective mutant of HBV B. Depends on HBV surface antigen for virion formation C. Induces an immune response indistinguishable from that induced by HBV D. Is related to HCV E. Contains a circular DNA genome 48. The most common pathogen of child diarrhea in winter or fall is A. Rotavirus B. Echovirus C. Norwalk virus D. Adenovirus E. Hepatitis A virus 49. Several different viruses can cause hepatitis. One of the following statements applies to all four viruses: HAV, HCV, HDV, and HEV A. Contains a single-stranded RNA genome B. is transmitted primarily by the parenteral route C. is transmitted primarily by the fecal-oral route D. is associated with fulminant hepatitis E. Undergoes sequence variation during chronic infection 50. Interferons are an important part of the host defense against viral

infections. What is interferons princividuals, providing a viral surveillance role B. It coats viral particles and blocks their attachment to cells C. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translation or transcription D. It protects the virus-infected cell that produced it from cell death E. None of the above Definition (30) Plasmid, Pathogenicity islands, Transformation, LPS, Nucleocapsid, Neigri body, Antigenic drift, PrionSC, SSPE, Cytopathic effect Questions (10) 1. Please describe the Characteristics of Exotoxins and Endotoxins. 2. How many steps are in viral replication cycle?