eii9268561517 MAHENDRA GTB NAGAR HomeAboutCoursesFeeFacilityFAQCareerContactBlog

Target-GATE About GATE ExamGATE 2014 EligibiltyGATE 2014 PatternGATE 2014 SyllabusGATE 2014 ScheduleGATE Previous PapersGATE Reference BooksGATE Solution KeyGATE Cutoff Mar ksM.Tech Admission 2013-14GATE Cut Off 2010-2012GATE Detail solutions IES 2013-14 About IESIES 2013 EligibiltyIES 2013 PatternIES 2013 SyllabusIES 2013 Exam Sched uleIES Previous PapersIES Reference BooksIES-ESE Cutoff MarksIES Selection ListI ES Tentative vacancyIES Solution PSUs About PSUsPSUs EligibiltyPSUs PatternPSUs SyllabusPSUs Exam SchedulePSUs Previous Pape rsPSUs Reference Books Tell Your Friends SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend Google SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT

SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT SAMPLE PAPER-1 1. When compared to a first-order low-pass filter, a second order low-pa ss filter has A. lower voltage gain B. higher voltage gain C. faster drop in filter response D. higher cut-off frequency. 2. Three concentric conducting spherical surfaces of radii R1, R2 and R 3 (R1< R2< R3) carry charges of -1, -2 and 4 coulombs respectively. The charges on the inner and outer surfaces of the outermost sphere will be respectively (in coulombs). A. 0, 4 B. 3, 1 C. -3, 7 D. -2, 6 3. In a power MOSFET switching times are of the order of few A. seconds

4.

5. 0 K 0 < K < 10 > 10 K < < K 20

B. milliseconds C. microseconds D. nano seconds. VTVMs have A. very high ohms / volt rating B. moderate ohms / volt rating C. low ohms / volt rating D. very low ohms / volt rating The characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is given by s4 + 6s3 + 11s2 + 6s + K = 0 Stable closed loop behavior can be ensured when gain K is such that

6. The disk head is initially at sector 0, track 0. If all three files A , B and C are to be read in the minimum amount of time, they should be read in t he following order : A. A, B, C B. A, C, B C. B, A, C D. B, C, A. 7. If 8 identical RC sections are used in the feedback path of a phaseshift oscillator (with non-inverting amplifier) it will oscillate at the frequen cy at which each section shifts phase by A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 22.5 8. A discrete zero memory information source has 40 symbols is equally l ikely. The minimum number of bits required to code the source with uniform lengt h code and the entropy of the source are respectively A. 5, 5.03 B. 6, 5.83 C. 5, 6.64 D. 6, 5.32 9. Which of the following is an example of a spooled device ? A. a line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs B. a terminal used to enter input data to a running program C. a secondary storage device in a virtual memory system D. a graphic display device. 10. Which of the following devices does not have negative resistance char acteristics? A. UJT B. Tunnel diode C. SCR D. FET 11. Silicon steel is widely used in A. cutting tools B. dies and punches C. electrical industry D. chemical industry. 12. When there is a snowy picture, the trouble lies in A. R.F. amplifier B. antenna C. too much AGC D. weak vertical amplifier. 13. A solution of the blind speed problem is to A. change to Doppler frequency

B. vary the PRF C. use monopulse D. use MTI. 14. A magnetron whose oscillation frequency is electrically adjustable ov er a wide range is called as A. frequency agile magnetron B. VTM C. coaxial magnetron D. none of the above. 15. No picture, no sound, no raster, trouble is in A. vertical oscillator B. R.F. amplifier C. horizontal amplifier D. Video amplifier. 16. A periodic rectangular signal, x(t) has the waveform shown in Figure b elow. Frequency of the fifth harmonic of its spectrum is 40 Hz 200 Hz 250 Hz 1250 Hz 17. The potential difference between the forces A and B of a uniformly pol arized infinite slab shown in the figure is : 18. Which type of power supply is usually preferred for PC ? A. Switched mode power supply B. Resonant power supply C. Bidirectional power supply D. none of the above 19. A radio frequency (RF) probe in VTVM is used to measure A. high resistances B. low frequency voltages C. high frequency voltages D. low resistances 20. By a suitable choice of the scalar parameter K, the system shown in t he figure given below, can be made to oscillate continuously at a frequency of 1 2 4 8 rad rad rad rad / / / / s s s s

21. The disk head is initially at sector 0, track o. If all three files A, B and C are to be read in the minimum amount of time, they should be read in th e following order : A. 143.9 ms. B. 116.4 ms. C. 114.0 ms. D. 102.6 ms. 22. In the circuit shown in figure |V0| = 1 V for a certain set of values of w, R and C. |V0| will remain as V even if w is doubled

w is halved R is halved C is doubled. 23. The information capacity (bits / sec.) of a channel with bandwidth W a nd transmission time T is given by A. C WT B. C = W / T C. C = T / W D. C = W2 T 24. A ROM is used to store the table for multiplication of two 8-bit unsi gned integers. The size of ROM required is A. 256 16 B. 64 K 8 C. 4 K 16 D. 64 K 16 25. Araldite is A. vegetable oil resins B. thermosetting plastic C. epoxy resin D. a variety of PVC. 26. Bakelite is a A. acrylate B. silicon varnish C. thermoplastic synthetic resin D. phenol formaldehyde resin. 27. The shadow mask in a colour picture tube is use to A. reduce X-ray transmission B. increase screen brightness C. ensure that each beam hits only its own dots D. none of these. 28. Blind speed causes target appear A. Moving B. Stationary C. Distinguish correctly D. none of the above 29. To overcome difficulties with strapping high frequencies the type of cavity structure desired for magnetron is A. hole and slot B. slot C. rising run D. vane. 30. The function of telegraph repeater is A. to repeat the signal B. to amplify the signal C. to amplify the signal and eliminate distortion in the signal D. demodulate the signal. 31. In the circuit shown in figure below, X is an element which always abs orbs power. During a particular operation, it sets up a current of 1 amp in the direction shown and absorbs a power Px. It is possible that X can absorb the sam e power Px for another current i; the value of this currents is amps. amps 5 amps None of the above. 32. The electric field across an interface is shown in the fig. The sur

face charge density (in coulombs / m2) on the interface is -4 0 -30 + 3 0 + 40 33. Which of the following statements are correct ? 1. BJTs have positive temperature coefficient 2. Diodes are connected in series to increase the blocking voltage capability 3. The input power factor of controllers, which varies with delay angle, is generally poor, especially at the low output range 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 34. The best method of measuring capacitance is the A. C.R.O. method B. VTVM method C. Voltmeter-ammeter method D. a.c. bridge method. 35. The open-loop transfer functions with unity feedback are given below for different systems : 1. 2. 3. 4. Among these systems, the unstable system is 1 2 3 4 36. The most nearly average latency time is A. 1 ms. B. 7 ms. C. 30 ms. D. 50 ms. 37. Figure shows the circuit diagram of a Wien bridge oscillator using th e op-amp. The frequency of oscillation is given by f = 1 / 2p CR. To have the sy stem oscillate the ratio R2 / R1 should be 0.5 29 2 Any value 38. If each stage had a gain of 10 dB, and noise figure of 10 dB, then the overall noise figure of a two-stage cascade amplifier will be A. 10 B. 1.09 C. 1.0 D. 10.9 39. Number of machine cycles required for RET instruction in 8085 micropr ocessor is A. 1

B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 40. Bakelite is a A. phenol formaldehyde resin B. acrylate C. thermoplastic synthetic resin D. silicon varnish. 41. Which of the following is a copper free allowy ? A. Brass B. Phosphor bronze C. Invar D. Muntz metal. 42. In TV system function of equalizing pulses is A. to smooth out differences between the vertical sync signals B. to maintain horizontal synchronization over three line periods C. to smooth out difference between horizontal sync signals. D. none of the above. 43. Indicate which one of the following application or advantages of rada r becomes false A. Target identification B. Navigation C. Very significant extension of the maximum range D. More accurate tracking of enemy target. 44. TWT is characterized by A. low noise figure wide bandwidth and average gain B. gain exceeding 40 dBs, wide bandwidth and low noise figure C. more noise and wide bandwidth D. none of the above 45. Linear velocity of a satellite equals A. B. C. D.

Solution 1.C. The filter has faster drop in filter response. 2.B. The total charge on spheres 1 and 2 taken together is -1 + (-2) = -3C. This cha rge will induced + 3C on inner surface and -3C on the outer surface of sphere 3. Thus the total charge on the inner surface of sphere 3 is 3C and on the outer s urface -3 + 4 = 1C. 3.D. In case of power MOSFETs the switching speed is very high and the swit ching times are of the order of nano seconds. 4.A. VTVMs have very high ohms / volt rating. 5.A. s4 1 11 K s3 6 6 s2 10 K s1 6 - 0.6 K s0 K \ K 0 and also 6 (1 - 0. 1K) 0 Thus, 0 K 10. 6.B. Latency time is the time required to rotate the disk of the proper sec tor and seek time is the time required to move the disk head to the proper track

. It takes 200 ms to rotate the disk through 20 sectors, i.e., 10 ms per sector. It takes 20 ms to rotate the disk through 10 tracks, i.e. 2 ms per track. Traversing five tracks equals traversing one sector. Th erefore, try to minimize the number of sectors traversed. Reading A then C then B means going from sectors 0 to 1 to 3 to 5, a total of 5 sectors are traversed, and from tracks 0 to 6 to 5 to 2, a total of 10 tracks are traversed. Any other order would require traversing atleast two additional sectors and atleast six t racks. 7.B. For a non-inverting amplifier, phase shift required is 360. For 8 sections, phase shift / phase = 8.D. H = S Pu log2 1 / Pu = log2 40 = 5.32 9.A. A line printer. 10.D. FET device does not have negative resistance characteristics. 11.C. Silicon steel is widely used in electrical industry for motor stampings and transformer cores. 12.A. When there is a snowy picture, the trouble lies in R.F. amplifier. 13.B. A solution of the blind speed problem is to vary the PRF. 14.B. The wide range is called as VTM. 15.C. horizontal amplifier has no trouble in picture, sound and raster. 16.D. The signal shown has time period T = 4 ms. Therefore, f = 1 103 / 4 = 25 0 Hz. This is the fundamental frequency. Fifth harmonic frequency, f5 = 250 5 = 1250 Hz. 17.A. D = 0 E + P; D = 0r E \0r E = 0 E + P or E = \ Potential difference V = Ed = 18.A. Switched mode power supply. 19.C. A radio frequency probe in VTVM is used to measure high frequency volta ges. 20.C. For a system with feedback loop to oscillate ab = -1, where a = G(s) an d b = Feedback path gain or alternatively, the ch. eqn. is solved. or s(s + 2) (s + 8) + k = 0 Thus, the same is the ch. eqn. 1 + G (s) H (s) = 0. 8 (s2 + 10s + 16) + K = 0 jw (-w2 + 10jw + 16) + K = 0 For this system to oscillate j terms should be set to zero. \ - jw3 + 16 jw = 0 or w = 4 rad / s. And then, - 10 w2 + k = 0 or K = 160. Read C : traverse 3 sectors, 5 tracks, read 2 blocks Read B : traverse 2 sectors, 3 tracks, fead 5 blocks. Read A : traverse 4 sectors, 4 tracks, read 1 block. Total : traverse 9, sectors-12, tracks 8 blocks Total time to read = 9 10 + 12 2 + 8 0.3 = 116.4 ms. Please refer to all pass filter circuit So when w, R and C are changed by the same magnitude, the TF is unc hanged at 1. 23.D. 24.D. 25.C. 26.D. 27.A. 28.B. 29.C. Answers (b), (c) and (d) are also correct. If is W2T = (1./ sec2). Sec = 1 / sec. 64 K 16 Araldite is an epoxy resin Phenol formaldehyde resin. It used to ensure that each beam hits only its own dots. Blind speed causes target appear stationary. It is rising sun.

21.B.

22.A.

30.C. The function of telegraph repeater is to amplify the signal and elimina te distortion in the signal. 31.C. For the conditions shown, the current is 1A and the voltage across X is 5V. Therefore, the power is 5W. If the current is 5A, then the voltage across X becomes 6 - 5 1 = 1V and the power absorbed by it is 1 5 = 5W. 32.A. the boundary condition for displacement density D is in. (D1 - D2) = rs where in is the unit normal vector directed from medium 2 to medium 1, and rs i s the surface charge density at the interface. It is specified here that E1 and E2 are entirely normal to the interface, assuming to ax to be a unit normal vect or. D1 = 2 1 e0 in ; D2 = 3 2 e0 in \ in (2 in - 6 in) e0 = -4 e0 thus, rs = - 40. 33.B. BJTs have a negative temperature coefficient. 34.D. A.C. bridge is the best method of measuring capacitance. 35.C. If G(s) = N(s) / D(s), then with unity feedback loop ch. eqn. is N(s) + D(s) = 0. For the system to be stable, the roots of ch. eqn. should neither lie in RHP, nor it should have multiple poles on the imaginary axis. It can be quickly checked that the real parts of roots of check quotations for 1, 2 and 4 are negative. To find the roots or s2(s + 2) + 2 = 0 is slightly difficult. However, one concludes without actually checking that answer is (c). 36.D. Regardless of initial sector, we can arrive at the destination sector b y rotating the disk through atleast zero both directions. Therefore, we must tra verse about 5 sectors on the average. Thus, the most likely average latency time is 5 10 ms = 50 ms. 37.A. The negative feedback should be such as to give gain of 3 and above or 38.D. F = F1 + (F - 1 / ga1) = 10 + 9 / 10 = 10.9 39.C. 3 machine cycles 40.A. Bakelite is a phenol formaldehyde resin. 41.C. Invar is nickel (36%) iron (64%) alloy. Standard brass contains 70% cop per and 30% zinc. Phosphor bronze contains 90% copper, 0.7 tin and 0.3 phosphoro us. Muntz metal contains 60% copper, 40% zinc. 42.A. In TV system function of equalizing pulses is to smooth out differences between the vertical sync signals. 43.D. More accurate tracking of enemy target. 44.B. TWT is characterized by gain exceeding 40 dBs wide bandwidth and averag e gain. 45.B. Linear velocity of a satellite equals

Registration Form

NEXT BATCH Regular : 10thJune & 2nd July (40seats available)

Weekend : 15th June & 6th July (30seats available) Summer Batch:25th June & 2nd July (Only at Delhi)

BSNL-JTO JTO EligibiltyJTO SyllabusJTO Previous PapersJTO 2008 Cut-offJTO 2008 SolutionJT O Sample paper DRDO-SET About DRDO-SETDRDO EligibiltyDRDO SyllabusDRDO Examination PatternDRDO Previous PapersDRDO Sample Paper Important Links GATE IESPSUsOthers Links

home|about|cources|fee|facility|faq|Links|Sitemap|contact | Rules and Regulation s Copyright by Engineers institute of India 2012

eii HomeAboutCoursesFeeFacilityFAQCareerContactBlog

Target-GATE About GATE ExamGATE 2014 EligibiltyGATE 2014 PatternGATE 2014 SyllabusGATE 2014 ScheduleGATE Previous PapersGATE Reference BooksGATE Solution KeyGATE Cutoff Mar ksM.Tech Admission 2013-14GATE Cut Off 2010-2012GATE Detail solutions IES 2013-14 About IESIES 2013 EligibiltyIES 2013 PatternIES 2013 SyllabusIES 2013 Exam Sched uleIES Previous PapersIES Reference BooksIES-ESE Cutoff MarksIES Selection ListI ES Tentative vacancyIES Solution PSUs About PSUsPSUs EligibiltyPSUs PatternPSUs SyllabusPSUs Exam SchedulePSUs Previous Pape rsPSUs Reference Books Tell Your Friends SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend Google SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT

SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT SAMPLE PAPER-2 1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the co des given below the lists : List-I List-II (Pole-zero configuration) (Number of elements in Fosters first form network) A. 1. Two B. 2. Three C. 3. Four D. 4. Five Codes: A B C D A. 3 2 1 4 B. 4 3 1 2 C. 3 4 2 1 D. 2 1 4 3 2. An electric dipole of moment P is placed in front of a grounded sphe re as shown in the fig. The charge induced on the surface of the sphere is : 1.zero 2.PR / d2 3.PR2 / d3 4.PR3 / d4 3. A power MOSFET is a A. voltage controlled device B. current controlled device C. frequency controlled device D. none of the above. Megger is an instrument for

4.

A. B. C. D. 5.

measuring current measuring voltage testing insulation measuring power.

The root locus of a unity feedback system is shown in the above figure. The ope n-loop transfer function is given by : 1. 2. 3. 4. 6. : 1.1100 2.0010 3.1010 4.0110 5.1110 6.0001 7.1001 8.0101 9.1101 10.0011 Which of the following expressions is the correct one for an invalid code ? 1. 2.B .C .D . + A .C .D . 3. 4. 7. An amplifier has a bandwidth of 20 kHz and a midband gain of 50 witho ut feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied, then bandwidth with feedba ck is A. 13.3 kHz B. 30 kHz C. 10 kHz D. 40 kHz. 8. The critical frequency of an ionospheric layer during the day time i s A. more than B. less than C. same as for night time D. None of the above. 9. The data bus in 8080A / 8085 microprocessor is a group of A. eight bidirectional lines that are used to transfer 8 bits betwe en the microprocessor and its I / O and memory. B. eight lines used to transfer data among the registers C. eight unidirectional lines that are used for I / O devices. D. xisteen bidirectional lines that are used for data transfer betw een the microprocessor and memory. 10. The ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity of a meta l M decreases at low temperatures and the value tends to be zero at zero degree Kelvin. From the above statement, it can be concluded that 1.Thermal conductivity of metal M is constant An excess-3 code is used to represent the integers 0 through 9, thus Number Code (ABCD)

2.Electrical conductivity of metal varies with temperature only 3.At absolute zero thermal conductivity of M is zero 4.At absolute zero the electrical conductivity of metal M is infinitely large ? 11. Which of the following expression states Gibbs phase rule (where the no tations have their usual meaning) A. F = C - P + 1 B. F = C - P + 2 C. F = C - P + 3 D. F = C - P + 4. 12. In horizontal scanning in TV receiver, the beam starts from A. left top corner and moves to the right B. centre of top of the frame and moves to right C. centre of the bottom of the frame and move to the right D. right top corner of the frame and moves to the right. 13. The equipment used for measuring the height of the aeroplane for grou nd is called A. MTI B. Pulse radar C. Radar altimeter D. CW radar. 14. A reflex Klystron functions as A. microwave amplifier B. microwave oscillator C. a high gain cavity D. both as amplifier and as oscillator 15. The effect of noise in a communication system is most adverse with re ference to A. Channel B. Encoder C. Source D. Receiver

16.In the circuit shown in the given figure, the switch S is open for a long tim e and closed at t = 0. The value of I at t = 0+ is 1.-6 A 2.-3/2 A 3.3 A 4.9/2 A 17. A slab of uniform magnetic field deflects a moving charged particle by 45 as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the charged particle at the ent ry and exit points in the magnetic field will change in the ratio of 1.1 : 2. : 1 3.1 : 1 4.1 : 2 18.

A power MOSFET is a A. current controlled device B. voltage controlled device C. both current and voltage controlled device D. none of the above 19. The instrument whose deflection is given by the expression q I2 dm / d q is known is

20. given by :

A. electrodynamic type B. repulsion type C. electrostatic type D. attraction type The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is

It the gain K is increased to infinity, then the damping ratio will tend to become : 1 0 21. Maximum I / 0 space which can be addressed by 8088 cPU is A. 1024 B. 2048 C. 65536 D. 2000. Statement-I

22. ment - II

State

Theoretical efficiency of Class-A power amplifier uses one power amplifier is 78%. Key : Statement I is correct but II is wrong Statement 2 is correct but I is wrong Both statements I and II are correct Neither statement I nor II is correct. 23.

A single-ended transistor only.

24.

25.

26.

27. tem is

How many loud speakers are required in a quadraphonic A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six The stack pointer in the 8085 microprocessor is a A. 16 bit register that point to stack memory locations B. 16 bit accumulator C. memory location in the stack D. flag register used for the stack. Which of the following UHF ? A. 40 GHz B. 400 MHz C. 400 kHz D. 1680 MHz. Gunmetal is an alloy of A. 80% Cu + 15% Zn + 5% Sn B. 86% Cu + 9% Zn + 5% Sn C. 88% Cu + 2% Zn + 10% Sn D. 70% Cu + 10% Zn + 20% Sn Number of picture frames displayed per second in TV as per CCIR B-sys A. 16 B. 25 C. 50 D. 60. An ideal pulse radar receiver A. should have a very large BW B. should not have a very large BW C. should have a small BW

28.

29.

30. as

D. none of the above. Klystron operates on the principle of A. amplitude modulation B. frequency modulation C. pulse modulation D. velocity modulation A satellite of low circular orbit than a geostationary orbit is known A. B. C. D. Passive satellite Active satellite Fast moving satellite Slow moving satellite.

31. >

The Laplace transform of the following voltage waveform is

32. In the above figure, the force acting on the conductor PQ is in the di rection of PQ PQ -n n 33. The major application of chopper drive is in A. traction B. computers C. heating furnaces D. miniature motors 34. The following error does not result in moving iron instrument with bo th d.c. and a.c. : A. stray magnetic field error B. hysteresis error C. eddy current error D. temperature error. 35. The characteristic equation of a unity feedback control system is giv en by s3 + K1s2 + s + K2 = 0 Consider the following statements in this regard : 1. For a given of K1, all the root-locus branches will terminate at inf inity for K2 in the positive direction. 2. For a given value of K2, all the root-locus branches will terminate at infinity for variable K1 in the positive direction. 3. For a given value of K2, only one root-locus branch will terminate a t infinity for variable K1 in the positive direction. Of these statements : 1 and 2 are correct 3 alone is correct 2 alone is correct 1 and 3 are correct. 36. The widely used code in data communication is A. 8 bit ASCII B. 7 bit ASCII C. EBCDIC D. None of the above. 37. An amplifier is used to amplify a 30p Hz square wave with a sag not e xceeding I%. Maximum permissible lower 3 dB frequency of the amplifier in Hz is

A. 30 B. 300 C. 0.3p D. 100 38. A communication channel disturbed by additive white Gaussian noise ha s a bandwidth of 4 KHz and SNR of 15. The highest transmission rate that such a channel can support (in K-nits / sec) A. 16 B. 1.6 C. 32 D. 60 39. How many address lines are needed to address each memory location in a 2048 4 memory chip ? A. 10 B. 11 C. 8 D. 12 40. Varactor is a A. non-linear resistor B. variable resistor C. non-linear capacitor D. non-linear inductor. 41. Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 3.4% D. 12.5% 42. To eliminate ghosts in the picture we may A. use a longer transmission line B. twist the transmission line C. connect a booster D. change the antenna orientation or location 43. The COHO in MTI radar operates as the A. Intermediate frequency B. Transmitted frequency C. Received frequency D. Pulse repetition frequency. The transit time in the repeller space of a reflex Klystron must be A. n cycles B. n + cycles C. n + 3 / 4 cycles D. n + cycles Orbit height, H for a satellite is given by A. H = (r km - 6370) km B. H = (r km + 6370) km C. H = r km D. none of the above.

44.

45.

Solution 1.C. The number of elements is given by the number of internal critical fre quencies (i.e., number of poles and zeros other than those located at the origin and infinity) plus one. Then it is easy to find the number of elements for each case : A : 3 + 1 = 4; B : 4 + 1 = 5; C : 2 + 1 = 3: D : 1 + 1 = 2 2.B.

The charge induced on a spherical surface is given by where Q is the inducing point charge, D is the distance of the poin t charge from the centre of the sphere and R the radius of the sphere. Total charge induced in the present case is Now for a dipole d is very small, i.e., d << d. Hence, Q = PR / d2 whe re, P = qd, the dipole moment. 3.A. a power MOSFET is a voltage-controlled device and requires only a smal l input current. 4.C. Megger is an instrument for testing insulation. 5.C. From the location of poles and zeros, it is seen that the plot corresp onds to the function 6.C. The function of plotted above has a 1 output for all invalid codes. BWr = BW (1 - Av) Where, BWf = bandwidth with negative feedback BW = bandwidth without feedback Av = mid-band gain without feedback 8.A. f0 = where Nmax is maximum electron density. 9.D. The dtat bus in 8080A / 8085 microprocessor is a group of sixteen bidi rectional lines that are used for data transfer between the microprocessor and m emory. 10.D. As the ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity tends t o be zero at absolute zero temperature, it can be safely concluded that electric al conductivity (denominator) increases to infinitely large values. 11.B. F = C - P + 2 expression states Gibbs phase rule. 12.B. It starts from centre of top of the frame and moves to right. 13.C. The equipment is called radar altimeter. 14.B. A reflex Klystron functions as microwave oscillator. 15.A. It is with reference to channel. 7.B. 16.A. The voltage across capacitor prior to closing of the switch is 6 4 / 2 = 12 V. Immediately after closing of the switch S, the source current is all dive rted into the short and capacitor furnishes a current of 12 / 2 = 6 A in the 2-ohm resistor. The direction is opposite to the marked one. Thus I = -6 A. 17.C. The force on a charge moving in a magnetic field is F = q v x B; the fo rce is ^ to both v & B. Hence the magnitude of v is not changes and thus kinetic energy at the entry and exit points will be same. 18.B. A power MOSFET is a voltage controlled device and requires only a small input current. 19.A. The instrument is known as electrodynamic type. 20.C. The ch. eqn. corresponding to unity feedback control loop is (s + 1 ) + K = 0 i.e. s2 + s + K = 0. This may be written in the form s2 + 2 dwn s + wn2 = 0, whereind is the damping ratio. It is seen that wn = Thus, if K , d 0. 21.C. Maximum 1 / 0 spare which can be addressed by 8088 CUP is 65536. 22.B. Theoretical efficiency of Class-A power amplifier is 50%. 23.C. In quadraphonic sound there are four audio signals. Two signals provide the usual stereo effect left and right from the front; the other two, left and right from the back. Thus four loud speakers are necessary. 24.A. The stack pointer in the 8085 microprocessor is a 16 bit register that

point to 25.B. 26.C. 27.B. 28.A. 29.D. 30.C. 31.D.

stack memory locations. The range of Ultra High frequency is 300 MHz to 3 GHz. Gunmetal is an alloy of 88% Cu + 2% Zn + 10% Sn. Twenty five An ideal pulse radar receiver should have a very large BW. Klystron operates on the principle of velocity modulation. It is known as fast moving satellite The given function can be expressed as

32.C. The direction of flux density produced by all the elements of two verti cal sections of the current shown, at points on PQ is to the plane of the paper and outward. This can be checked with IB :IdI x IR. Then the force on an element of PQ is found from dF = IdI x B. Keeping in view the direction d I (which is t he same as that of I (at points on PQ, we find direction of force on PQ is along - n. 33.A. Chopper drive is used in traction applications. 34.C. The eddy current error does not result in moving iron instrument with b oth d.c. and a.c. 35.A. s3 + K1 s2 + s + K2 = 0 may be written as 1 + 36.B. 37.A. 38.A. Thus only 1 and 2 are correct. The widely used code in data communication is 7 bit ASCII. The formula is pulse repetition frequency of the square wave. C = B log2 (1 + s / N) = 4k log2 16 = 16 k bits / sec. 10 address lines. Varactor is a non-linear resistor. Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of 0.

39.A. 40.A. 41.C. 5%. 42.D. To eliminate ghosts in the picture we may change the antenna orientatio n or location. 43.A. The COHO in MTI radar operates at the intermediate frequency 44.A. It must be n cycles. 45.A. It is given by H = (r km - 6370) km.

Registration Form

NEXT BATCH Regular : 10thJune & 2nd July (40seats available) Weekend : 15th June & 6th July (30seats available) Summer Batch:25th June & 2nd July (Only at Delhi)

BSNL-JTO JTO EligibiltyJTO SyllabusJTO Previous PapersJTO 2008 Cut-offJTO 2008 SolutionJT O Sample paper DRDO-SET About DRDO-SETDRDO EligibiltyDRDO SyllabusDRDO Examination PatternDRDO Previous PapersDRDO Sample Paper Important Links GATE IESPSUsOthers Links

home|about|cources|fee|facility|faq|Links|Sitemap|contact | Rules and Regulation s Copyright by Engineers institute of India 2012 gate | gate institute |gate training institute gate study material gate details gate question paper gate patter best gate institute gate previous paper gate pre vious yearpaper gate coaching gate centre gate coaching in noida gate coaching i n ghaziabad gate coaching in agra gate coaching in ranchi gate coaching in jaipu r gate coaching in patna gate coaching in dhanbad gate coaching in bhopal gate c oaching in lucknow gate coaching in faridabad gate coaching in kolkata gate coac hing in jamshedpur gate coaching in Hyderabad gate coaching in Itangar gate coac hing in Raipur gate coaching in delhi gate coaching in Chandigarh gate coaching in Jammu gate coaching in Bangalore gate coaching in Thiruvananthapuram gate coa ching in Bhopal gate coaching in Mumbai gate coaching in Dehradhun gate coaching in Chennai gate coaching in Bhubaneswar gate coaching in Chandigarh gate coachi ng in Shillong gate coaching centre best gate coaching best gate coaching in del hi gate study material gate study material electronics gate study material elect rical gate study material mechanical gate study material computer science gate s tudy material civil gate 2011 gate 2012 gate 2013 gate 2014 gate solution gate s ample paper gate cutoff gate eligibility GATE Overview GATE Eligibility Structur e Of GATE GATE Training Institutes Colleges Providing M.Tech/M.E. GATE Score GAT E Results Article On GATE GATE Forum | GATE 2010 Exclusive GATE 210 Syllabus GAT E Organizing Institute Important Dates for GATE Exam How to Apply for GATE GATE Syllabus for Chemical Engineering GATE Syllabus for Chemistry GATE Syllabus for Civil Engineering GATE Syllabus for Computer Science / IT GATE Syllabus for Elec tronics and Communication Engineering GATE Syllabus for Engineering Sciences GAT E Syllabus for Instrumentation Engineering GATE Syllabus for Life Sciences GATE Syllabus for Mathematics GATE Syllabus for Mechanical Engineering GATE Syllabus for Metallurgical Engineering GATE Syllabus for Mining Engineering GATE Syllabus for Physics GATE Syllabus for Production and Industrial Engineering GATE Prepar ation GATE Pattern download gate paper gate solution 2010 gate solution 2011 gat e solution 2012 GATE Tips & Tricks GATE Evaluation GATE Sample Papers GATE Downl oads Experts View on GATE ies IES iesinstitute ies training institute ies study

material ies details ies question paper ies patter ies gate institute ies previo us paper ies previous yearpaper ies coaching ies centre ies coaching in noida ie s coaching in ghaziabad ies coaching in agra ies coaching in ranchi ies coaching in jaipur ies coaching in patna ies coaching in dhanbad ies coaching in bhopal ies coaching in lucknow ies coaching in faridabad ies coaching in kolkata ies co aching in jamshedpur ies coaching in Hyderabad ies coaching in Itangar ies coach ing in Raipur ies coaching in delhi ies coaching in Chandigarh ies coaching in J ammu ies coaching in Bangalore ies coaching in Thiruvananthapuram ies coaching i n Bhopal ies coaching in Mumbai ies coaching in Dehradhun ies coaching in Chenna i ies coaching in Bhubaneswar ies coaching in Chandigarh ies coaching in Shillon g ies coaching centre best ies coaching best ies coaching in delhi ies study mat erial ies study material electronics ies study material electrical ies study mat erial mechanical ies study material computer science ies study material civil ie s 2011 ies 2012 ies 2013 ies 2014 ies solution ies sample paper ies cutoff ies r esult ies eligibility ies Overview ies Eligibility Structure Of ies ies Training Institutes ies Score IES Results Article On ies ies Forum ies 2010 Exclusive ie s 210 Syllabus ies Organizing Institute Important Dates for ies Exam How to Appl y for ies ies Syllabus for Chemical Engineering ies Syllabus for Chemistry ies S yllabus for Civil Engineering ies Syllabus for Computer Science / IT ies Syllabu s for Electronics and Communication Engineering ies Syllabus for Engineering Sci ences ies Syllabus for Instrumentation Engineering ies Syllabus for Life Science s ies Syllabus for Mathematics ies Syllabus for Mechanical Engineering ies Sylla bus for Metallurgical Engineering ies Syllabus for Mining Engineering ies Syllab us for Physics ies Syllabus for Production and Industrial Engineering ies Prepar ation ies Pattern download gate paper gate solution 2010 gate solution 2011 gate solution 2012 ies Tips & Tricks ies Evaluation ies Sample Papers ies Downloads Experts View on ies

SAIL 2009

eii HomeAboutCoursesFeeFacilityFAQCareerContactBlog

Target-GATE About GATE ExamGATE 2014 EligibiltyGATE 2014 PatternGATE 2014 SyllabusGATE 2014 ScheduleGATE Previous PapersGATE Reference BooksGATE Solution KeyGATE Cutoff Mar

ksM.Tech Admission 2013-14GATE Cut Off 2010-2012GATE Detail solutions IES 2013-14 About IESIES 2013 EligibiltyIES 2013 PatternIES 2013 SyllabusIES 2013 Exam Sched uleIES Previous PapersIES Reference BooksIES-ESE Cutoff MarksIES Selection ListI ES Tentative vacancyIES Solution PSUs About PSUsPSUs EligibiltyPSUs PatternPSUs SyllabusPSUs Exam SchedulePSUs Previous Pape rsPSUs Reference Books Tell Your Friends SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend Google Electro & Telecom. Engineering 2009

Electro & Telecom. Engineering 2009 1.The rank of the matrix is 1.zero 2.1 3.2 4. 2.The particular integration (P.I.) of (D2+4)y = cos 2x is 1. 2. 3. 4. 3. 6 boys and 6 girls in a row randomly. The probability that all the six girls sit together is 1. 2. 3. 4. 4. Value of is 1.1 2.2 3.3 4.0 5. The value of is 1.7 2.4 3.9 4.10 6. The Taylor series expansion of the function F(x) = x/(1+x), around x=0 is 1.x +x2+x3+x4+. 2.x+x2+x3+x4+. 3.2x+42+8x3+16x4+. 4.x-x2+x3-x4+. 7. If x+y=k, x>0, y >0, then xy is the maximum when 1.x=ky 2.kx=y 3.x=y 4.None of these 8. The probability that two friends share the same birth-month is 1.1/6 2.1/12 3.1/144 4.1/24 9. If a function is continuous at a point, then its first derivative 1.may or ma y not exist 2.exist always 3.will not exist

4.has a unique value 10. When 2-port networks are connected in parallel, which parameters convenient to use 1.inverse hybrid 2.open circuit impedance 3.short circuit admittance 4.transmission 11. Fouriers series expansion of an odd periodic function contains 1.sine terms o nly 2.cosine terms only 3.Both A and B 4.None of the above 12. For a LC parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are c orrect except 1.the line current is maximum at resonance 2.the branch currents at resonance are equal 3.the admittance is minimum at resonance 4.the angle between the branch current is 180oC at resonance. 13. If a square wave voltage having 5V average value is applied to a low pass fi lter, then average value of output is 1.10 V 2.2.5 V 3.5 V 4.0 V 14. The magnetic field intensity emanating from a closed surface 1.is zero 2.is infinite 3.depends on dipole moments 4.depends on volumetric compaction factors 15. Brewster angle is the angle for which there is 1.no reflection and the incid ent waves in vertically polarized. 2.Reflection and the incident wave is horizontally polarized 3.No reflection and the incident wave is horizontally polarized 4.Any of the above. 16. The minimum value of the life of a transistor to be used in three section RC phase shift oscillator is 1.54.4 2.45.4 3.44.5 4.29 17. A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit ripple counter. The frequency of third f lip-flops output would be 2 MHz 1 MHz 2.5 MHz 1.25 MHz 18. The number of comparators needed in a 4-bit flash type ADC is 32 15 8 14 19. A n-channel silicon (Eg = 1.1ev) MOSFET was fabricated using n+ poly-silicon gate and the threshold voltage was found to be 1V. Now, if the gate is changed to p+ poly-silicon, other things remaining the same, the new threshold voltage s hould be -0.1 V 0 V 1 V 2.1 V 20. A system has the transfer function . It is known as a: low pass system high pass system all pass system process control system 21. The mechanical item constant of a motor is equal to 50 secs. If the friction coefficient is 0.04 Nm/rad/sec, the value of moment of inertial of the motor is equal to 50 kg m2 kg m2 1 kg m2

0.1 kg m2 22. If the noise figure of a receiver is 1.6, its equivalent noise temperature i s 464.00o K 174.00o K 108.75o K 181.25o K 23. The mobility of electron in copper is : Given atomic weight = 63.54, density = 8.96 gm/cc, resistivity = 1.7106 W-cm, Avogadros number = 6.025 1023 30 cm2/V-5 43.28 cm2/V-5 50 cm2/V-5 data not sufficient 24. In an N type semiconductor, the Fermi-level lies 0.3 eV below the conduction band and at 300oK. If the temperature is increased at 330oK, then the new posit ion of Fermi-level conduction band is 0.1 eV 0.33 eV 0.3 eV 0 eV 25. For the circuit shown in the figure: assuming b = 100 for the transistor, the transistor will be in the cut-off region the inverse active region the active region the saturation region 26. An antenna array comprises of two dipoles. These dipoles are separated by w avelength. If these dipoles are fed with currents that are 90o out of phase, the n null of the pattern will occur at angle > 90o p 27. A MOSFET amplifier circuit is as shown below The Tran conductance of the MOSFET is : 0.015 ms 0.03 ms 0.06 ms 1 ms 28. Consider a manage signal X(t) as shown in figures. This manage signal is applied to AM modulator with modulation index b = 0.5 The modulation efficiency will be: 33% 20% 66.67% 50% 29. The minimum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with tran sfer function is 15o 30o 45o 60o 30. The resonant frequency shown by the diagram will be 13.84 Hz 148.44 Hz 158.44 Hz None 31. When a uniform plane wave traveling in air is incident on the plane boundary between air and another dielectric medium with r = 9, the reflection coefficient

for normal incidence is given by 0.333 0o 0.5 0o 0.5 180o 0.333 180o 32. What will happen to a bird sitting on a conductor carrying 11 KV? It will die of shock. It will not die of shock because its claws are insulated. It will not die because it is insulated from earth and other conductors. None of the above. 33. It an aluminum foil is introduced midway the plates of a capacitor and conne cted to one plate the capacitance 1.decreases 2.increases 3.increases twice 4.remains unaltered 34. J = 6E is known as 1.Ohms Law 2.Amperes Law 3.Coulombs Law 4.Bio Savarts Law 35. Electrical capacitance in pneumatic systems is analogous to 1.volume of air 2.restriction to flow 3.filled helical tube 4.None of the above. 36. In aircraft the use of hydraulic motor is preferred over the electric motor because they are 1.cheap 2.flexible 3.not electrical driven 4.light and have high torque to inertia ratio 37. Which of the following emitter material usually needs less than 1 kV as plat e voltage? 1.Pure tungsten 2.Thoriated tungsten 3.Oxide coated 4.All the above 38. At a P-N junction, the potential barrier is due to the charges on either sid e of the junction, these charges are 1.minority carriers 2.majority carriers 3.both A and B 4.fixed donor and acceptor ions 39. In a class A amplifier utilizing a direct resistive load, the maximum conver sion efficiency could be 1.25% 2.40% 3.46.5% 4.85% 40. If 1.5% of the output of an amplifier is feedback positively to the input, t he minimum gain required of the amplifier for oscillations to occur, is 1.16.6 2.14.4 3.66.6 4.95 41. Ultra high frequency oscillations work in the range 1.10 Hz to 10 kHz 2.1 kHz to kHz 3.20 kHz to 30 MHz 4.above 30 MHz 42. If a 1 MHz signal is combined with the output of a 1.4 MHz oscillator, the b est frequency obtained will be 1.150 kHz 2.250 kHz 3.400 kHz 4.600 kHz 43. The D flip-flop and T flip-flop are respectively used as 1.delay and toggle switch 2.toggle switch and delay gate 3.both used as toggle switch

4.both used as delay gates. 44. In a monolithic integrated circuit the resistor is obtained by 1.utilizing P -type base diffusion only 2.utilizing the bulk resistivity of one of the diffused areas or thin film techn iques 3.diffusing a semiconductor in the chip 4.diffusing carbon in the chip 45. When a large number of analog signals are to be converted an analog multiple xer is used. In this case most suitable A.D. converter will be 1.up-down counter type 2.dual slop type 3.forward counter type 4.successive approximation type 46. The output of a two input EX-NOR gate is high when 1.one input is high and o ther is low 2.both the inputs re high 3.both the inputs are low 4.both the inputs are same 47. An electric wrist watch has a clock of frequency 32 kHz. To divide this freq uency down to 1 Hz it is necessary to have one four-bit binary counter one T flip -flop and one decade counter three decade counters, one four-bit binary counter and one T flip-flop two decade counters, one two-bit binary counter and a T flip-flop four four-bit binary counters and one decade counter. 48. The initial and final counts of mod-16 counter are 0000 to 1001 0001 to 1111 0000 to 1111 0000 to 1000 49. Which of the following logic circuits is the fastest? RTL DTL TTL All the above have speed 50. What command must have been used on the diskette before you can use the SYS command to copy the DOS system files to it? TREE APPEND FORMAT /S or FORMAT /S FORMAT /V 51. In the CONFIG.SYS file, the command STACKS = 9,256 means 9,256 stacks of 64 K B each having been set aside for Multitasking 9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for DOS kernel operations 9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for DOS disk buffering 9 stacks of 256 bytes have been set aside for processing IRQS 52. How much should you specify in RAM-DRIVE if you want to create a 640 K RAM d rive? 640 64 1024 32767 53. What is the name of the computer based EMMS that provides a common forum whe re users can check in at their convenience, post messages, actively exchange ide as and participate in ongoing discussion e-mail Bulleting board system (BBS) Teleconferencing Video-conferencing 54. Many larger organizations with other offices in different countries of the w orld connect their computers through telecommunication satellites and telephone line. Such a communication network is called LAN WAN VAN MAN 55. In photoconductive effect, radiation of wavelength greater than critical wav

elength will produce protons produce free electrons doesnt produce free electron emit electrons from the surface 56. On which of the following principles the desired squeeze, weld and hold time durations are obtained in the digital timer of a resistance welding machine? Dig ital-to-analog conversion Analog-to-digital conversion Time multiplexing Time-to-voltage conversion 57. The anode current through a conducting SCR is 10A. If its gate current is ma de one-fourth, the anode current will become 1 A 4 A 10 A None of these 58. When two A.C. signals of the same frequencies and amplitudes are applied to the X and Y inputs of a CRO respectively, the resulting pattern on the screen wi ll be a parabola a circle a straight line an ellipse 59. One volt range on a 4 digit digital multimeter can be read upto 1.0000 V 0.9999 V 1.999 V 1.9999 V 60. A signal of 10 m V at 75 MHz is to be measured. Which of the following instr uments can be used? Digital multimeter cathode ray oscilloscope Moving iron voltmeter VTVM 61. In a Wein bridge oscillator, the frequency of oscillation does not depend on capacitance is directly proportional to capacitance is inversely proportional to capacitance is inversely proportional to square of capacitance 62. A permanent magnet is used in a telephone receiver to avoid second harmonics to provide large bandwidth to amplify speech to provide greater sensitivity 63. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space decrease with increase of frequency increases with increase of frequency may decrease or increase with increase of frequency is independent of frequency 64. Radio frequencies are of the range 20 kHz 200 kHz 200 kHz 20 MHz 3 MHz 30 MHz 30 MHz 3GHz 65. Microwave signal transmitted towards the sky are unable to reach the ionosphe re because of the strong absorption in the lower atmosphere. strongly reflected by the ionosphere transmitted by the ionosphere strongly absorbed by the ionosphere. 66. It is required to match a 200 W load to a 300 W transmission line, to reduce the SWR along the line to 1. The characteristic impedance of the quarter wave t ransformer used for this purpose, if it is directly connected to the load, must be 2000 W 600 W 245 W 40 W

67. Two transmission lines P and Q are having SWRs equal to 1/5 and 7/5 respecti vely. It can be concluded that both have identical SWR Q is better than P P has the higher SWR is better than Q 68. For an AM wave having a power of 800 W at its carrier frequency and modulati on index of 90 percent, the power content of each sideband is 162 W 262 W 300 W 400 W 69. An FM signal containing the sound intelligence of a television broadcast has a maximum frequency deviation of 50 kHz. The depth of modulation is 40 percent 60 percent 100 percent None of these 70. For a satellite communication, the lower limit of frequency is 1 MHz 10 MHz 20 GHz 200 GHz 71. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)? 1.S and P 2.X 3.C and Ku 4.L 72. Distribution of electric power from one place to another is done at high A.C . voltage because 1.It increases brightness of the light 2.Wastage of electricity is reduced 3.Stealing of electric wires is reduced 4.Electricity moves in a very short time 73. When a monochromatic light wave travels from one medium to another , its unc hanged parameter is 1.wavelength 2.velocity 3.frequency 4.amplitude 74. The corrosion resistance of steel is increased by alloying its with which of the following? 1.Vanadium 2.Aluminum 3.Copper 4.Chromium 75. In an electric motor, magnetic noise is least 1.at no load 2.at full load 3.at full speed 4.at synchronous speed 76. In the amplifiers, transistor inter-junction capacitance causes which of the following? 1.Phase shift 2.Harmonic distortion 3.Noise 4.Parasitic oscillation 77. What will happen if A.C. is fed by mistake to a D.C. motor? 1.The motor will run at its normal speed. 2.The motor will run at a tower speed 3.The efficiency will be very poor 4.The motor will burn as the eddy current in the field produce heat 78. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small home air-conditioners because 1.it is comparatively cheaper 2.it has almost non-destructible capacitor 3.it has low starting as well as running current as relatively high power factor 4.it is quiet in operation 79. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensi ons; which will have more value of capacitance? 1.Ceramic capacitor 2.Mica capacitor

3.Both will have identical value of capacitance 4.It depends on applied voltage 80. In case of a 3-phase wound-rotor induction motor, an increase in rotor resis tance affects the motor performance in the following way 1.the motor efficiency decreases 2.the motor efficiency increases 3.starting current decreases 4.starting current increases 81. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density 1.Waber 2.Lumens 3.Texla 4.Darof 82. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because 1.more wire ca n be used with less D.C resistance in coil. 2.the laminations are insulated form each other 3.the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core. 4.the laminations are stacked vertically. 83. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without los ing its synchronism is known as 1.slip torque 2.pull out torque 3.braking torque 4.synchronizing torque 84. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at: 1.insulatio n layer 2.sheath 3.armour 4.conductor surface SECTION II GENERAL AWARENESS 85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest? 1.Samveda 2.Yaju veda 3.Atharva veda 4.Rig veda 86. Who wrote Panchtantra? 1.Bhavbhuti 2.Vishnu Sharma 3.Kalidasa 4.Shri Harsha 87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs? 1.Guru Govind Singh 2.Guru Tegh Bahadur 3.Guru Nanak Dev 4.Guru Harkishan 88. Who said, Man is a social animal. 1.Aristotle 2.Rosseau 3.Plato 4.Laski 89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexanders invasi on? 1.The Nanda Dynasty 2.The Maurya Dynasty 3.The Kanva Dynasty 4.The Sunga Dynasty 90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of 1 .Lord Cornwallis 2.Lord William Bentinck 3.Lord Rippon 4.Lord Clive 91. Who designed the National Flag of India? 1.Pingly Venkaiyya 2.Vallabh Bhai Patel 3.B.R. Ambedkar 4.Aurobindo Ghosh

92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass? 1.Raja sthan 2.Jharkhand 3.Tripura 4.Manipur 93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise? 1.Nagaland 2.Mizoram 3.Meghalaya 4.Manipur 94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest gr owth rates of population during the period of 1991 to 2001. 1.Andhra Pradesh 2.Karnataka 3.Kerala 4.Tamil Nadu 95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta? 1.Ganges 2.Narmada 3.Mandavi 4.Mahanadi 96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at: 1.The North Po le 2.The South Pole 3.The Equator 4.The Center of the Earth 97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country? 1.Cambodia 2.Thailand 3.Vietnam 4.Laos 98. Earthquake travels fastest in- 1.Soil 2.Molten Rock 3.Water 4.Flexible Rock 99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by 1. The President of India 2.The Speaker of Lok Sabha 3.The Chairman of Rajya Sabha 4.The Prime Minister 100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible? 1.The Presiden t 2.The Prime Minister 3.The Lok Sabha 4.The Rajya Sabha 101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting o f: 1.only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament 2.only Rajya Sabha members 3.all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies 4.all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendatio ns made by the 1.Inter-State Council 2.Finance Commission 3.Planning Commission 4.Parliament 103. Sellers market denotes a situation where 1.Commodities are available at com petitive rates 2.Demand exceeds supply 3.Supply exceeds demand 4.Supply and demand are equal 104. Development means economic growth plus 1.Inflation 2.Deflation 3.Price Stability 4.Social change

105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone? 1.Cochin 2.Mumbai 3.Kandla 4.Diu 106. Dual pricing implies 1.Wholesale price and Retail price 2.Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer 3.Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market 4.Daily prices and Weekly prices 107. Sudden Death rule is associated with: 1.Wrestling 2.Hockey 3.Water Polo 4.Football 108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of 1.Tin 2.Lead 3.Zinc 4.Chromium 109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is: 1.Theory of Angular Momentu m 2.Newtons third Law 3.Theory of Friction 4.Theory of Kinetic Energy 110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in - 1.t emperature 2.pressure 3.density 4.radiation from them 111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through 1.glass 2.vacuum 3.air 4.water 112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court? 1.Austra lian Open 2.French Open 3.Wimbledon 4.U.S. open 113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called: 1.Hyd rometer 2.Hygrometer 3.Lactometer 4.Barometer 114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located? 1.T ip 2.Back 3.Sides 4.Middle 115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing 1.Cotton 2.Banana 3.Jute 4.Sugar Cane 116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the c oagulation of blood? 1.Calcium 2.Iron 3.Potassium 4.Sodium 117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body? 1.Antib odies 2.WBC 3.Nails 4.Skin 118. In the case of a test tube baby 1.Fertilisation takes place inside the test

tube 2.Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube 3.Fertilization takes place outside the mothers body 4.Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube 119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis? Ri bosome Mitochondria Chloroplast Golgi Complex VERBAL ABILTY In questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is: 120.SPURIOUS 1.genuine 2.angry 3.glorious 4.antique 121.ENUNCIATE 1.pray 2.deliver 3.request 4.mumble 122.RESILIENT 1.pungent 2.worthy 3.unyielding 4.insolent 123.EXPEDITE 1.explore 2.obstruct 3.prompt 4.disburse Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the qu estions after it. Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained b y reference to the complex manpower requirements of the modern state. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because it doe s not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel lik e clerical workers technician, civil servants and so on. In this respect seconda ry socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. The former, we might say, provides the individual with skills which allow him to tak e on specialist employment and to have a role in a larger social environment, wh ereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group in to which he is born. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individuals role in a small social group and enables him to identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. Secondary socialization, on the o ther hand provides for the individuals role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. In Short, and to oversimplify, w e might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security an d social interaction, whereas the second provides opportunity and the possibilit y of social mobility. 124.Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization? 1.defining individuals role in a small social group 2.identifying oneself with ones family 3.identifying oneself as a citizen of the state 4.integrating into the local community 125.The modern state very much requires:

1.primary socialization of its citizens 2.many unskilled workers 3.a large social environment 4.specialist manpower 126. The opportunity to go up in ones profession and society is: 1.derived from ones upbringing 2.derived form secondary socialization 3.availed through complex manpower requirements 4.availed by identifying oneself with ones state 127.Secondary socialization is important in ones life because it helps one to: 1.take one specialized employment 2.identify oneself with ones family 3.define his role in his social group 4.integrate with his community 128.Complex manpower requirements means 1.man requires complex powers 2.highly trained personnel are required 3.acquiring power in a complex process 4.power of man is required to be complex Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the qu estions after it. Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. Physicists assure us that there is no such thing as matter and psychologists assure us that there is no such thing as mind. This is an unprecedented occurrence. To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems t o the mental activity to an activity of the body. There are however various diff iculties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity. What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hith erto called out body is really as elaborate scientific construction, not corresp onding to any physical reality. The modern would be materialist, thus finds hims elf in a curious conceptual dilemma. Evidently we have to look for something tha t is neither body nor mind, out of which both can spring. The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. The physicists disagree as matter in motion whic h in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a concept quite inadequate for the needs of physics. 129.In the sentence To begin with the latter, some of them.. latter refers to : 1.physicists 2.matter 3.psychologists 4.mind 130.But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to . Here it refers to : his analysis of man the human body the mind of the man idea in the mind 131.A plain man thinks that material objects exist because1.they constitute the metaphysics 2.they are real in his through process 3.certain electrons and protons form them 4.he can perceive them 132.Psychologists mentioned in the passage 1.believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities 2.try to equate mental activity to physical activity 3.do not accept the distinction between body and soul 4.support the physicists perception of a body 133.Which of the following does the modern science support according to the pass age? 1.Mind the matter are necessary to organize events

2.Metaphysical division of events 3.The discovery of equally important mind and matter 4. Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity In questions 134-138, then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is: 134.ATROCITY 1.endurance 2.hatred 3.brutality 4.aversion 135.FORTITUDE 1.enthusiasm 2.bravery 3.cleverness 4.excitement 136.GARRULOUS 1.sociable 2.showy 3.gourmet 4.talkative 137.RESPERCUSSION 1.reaction 2.resistance 3.repetition 4.repulsion 138.SYCOPHANT 1.fun-loving 2.self-controlled 3.benevolent 4.flatterer In questions 139-143, the key word is used in four different ways. Choose the op tions in which the usage of the word is NOT correct. 139.COVER 1.The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes. 2.Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year? 3.We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter. 4.People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity. 140.PUSH 1.The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo. 2.He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words. 3.We should be able to move this table if we push it together. 4.She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor. 141.FLASH 1.Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium. 2.The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes. 3.Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night. 4.A strange through flashed through her mind. 142.OPENING 1.The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks. 2.I like to get out in the opening air on weekends. 3.The films opening night was a huge success. 4.the opening of the novel is by far its best part 143.ISSUE 1.The problem came to a successful issue. 2.My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine. 3.The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day. 4.There were problems of property as he died without any issue.

In questions 144-146, each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option to complete the statement. 144.Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century n one was to have _____________ of the steam engine. 1.quite such enormous impact as inventing 2.quite such an enormous impact as the invention 3.quite such enormous an impact like inventing 4.quite such an enormous impact like invention 145.One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialist ic nation, a nation which exalts the money-grubber and has a minimum of respect for things of the mind and spirit. 1.fashionable of the clichs is the one 2.fashionable clichs is the one 3.fashionable clich is the one 4.fashionable of the clich is that 146.____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children, wh o view television shortly before bed time. 1.Among children more common sleep disturbances are 2.More common sleep disturbances among children are 3.sleep disturbance among children are more common 4.sleep disturbance are more common among children In questions 147-149, a sentence with two blanks is given. From the alternative pairs, select the words of which best completes the given sentence. 147.State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used sym bolically to convey ________ messages, and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences. 1.subtle..mask 2.loud..camouflage 3.sharp..hide 4.important.....accentuate 148.A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police wh en they went to cover the ___________ drive of the state government. 1.deliberately..constitute 2.mistakenly..discover 3.inadvertently..install 4.wantonly..create 149.It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons, fo r as each new chemical pesticides is introduced, the insects gradually become __ ________ to it. Quantitative Aptitude 150.Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes. First A and B are opened. After 7 minu tes, C is also opened. In how much total time, the tank will be full. 36 minutes 42 minutes 46 minutes 45 minutes 151.A toy was sold at a loss for Rs. 60. Had it been sold for Rs. 81, the gain w ould have been 3/4th of the former loss. The cost of the toy is Rs. 65 Rs. 70 Rs. 81 Rs. 72 152.Vijay invested Rs. 50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%. His total income after a year was Rs. 6000. How much did he invest at the rate of 10%? Rs. 30,000 Rs. 40,000 Rs. 12,000

Rs. 20,000 153.Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 2 5 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a new alloy which contains 35% of iron, find t he amount of iron in alloy B. 15 kg 7.8 kg 8.7 kg 18.2 kg 154.Two trains 121 m and 99 m long, are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hr respectively. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet? 7 seconds 9 seconds 10 seconds 11 seconds 155.The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two yea rs, 6% per annum for the next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 y ear. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs. 1120, what is the sum? Rs. 1500 Rs. 2000 Rs. 2500 Rs. 4000 156.A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. He ascends 3 metres in firs t minute and descends 1 metre in second minute. He again ascends 3 meters in thi rd minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In how much time will he reach to top? 36 minutes 33 minutes minutes minutes 157.The current of a stream runs at 1 km.hr. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point in 12 hours. The speed of motorboat in stil l water is: 6 km/hr 7 km/hr 8 km/hr 8.5 km/hr 158.The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. The average age of the husband, the wife and a child, who was born during the interim period, is 20 years now. What is the present age of the child? 159.Kripal, Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. Kripal had Rs. 100 with him, Vinay had Rs. 104 and decided to give a tip of Rs. 16. They further d ecided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money each carr ied. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is Rs. 120 Rs. 200 Rs. 60 Rs. 36 160.Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. 1000. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price, while merchant B computes his profit on selling price, th ey end up making profits of 25% respectively. By how much is the profit made by merchant B greater than that of merchant A? Rs. 66.67 Rs. 50 Rs. 125 Rs. 200 161.What is the greatest value of a positive integer n such that 3n is a factor of 1818?

15 18 30 33 162.If x+y=5; x+z=7 and y+z=12, then the value of x+y+z=? 12 2 5 24 163.What is the remainder when 3x22x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)? 0 y x+y x+2y 164.At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose from among five differen t ice cream flavors and can choose either a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Conside ring both ice cream flavor and cone types, how many distinct triple-scoop cones with three different ice cream flavors are available? 12 16 20 24 165.If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2,1) and (-1,0), then ordered pa ir (a,b) is: (3, -1) (-1,3) (3,3) 166.If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area . Then ABCD must be a: parallelogram Rectangle Square All of the above 167.The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and r espectively from the centre O of the circle, then the area of the smaller sector POQ is : 24 p cm2 21 p cm2 15 p cm2 12 p cm2 168.On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and the length of AB equals the circles diameter. If the (x,y) coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are (4,6), what are the (x,y) coordinates of A? 169.ABCD is a square, each of side of which is 2 cm. Taking AB and AD as axes, t he equation of the circle circumscribing the square is : x2+y2 = (x+y) x2+y2 = 2(x+y) x2+y2 = 4 x2+y2 = 16 170.If a is the length of the base and b the height of a right angled triangle hypot enuse of which is h and if the values of a and b are positive integers, which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse? 13 23

37 41 171.The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel? 200 ft 250 ft 750 ft 900 ft 172.Four circular card-board pieces; each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a wa y that each piece touches two other pieces. The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is: 21 cm2 42 cm2 84 cm2 168 cm2 173.The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn. Find the area that is inside the circle but outside the triangle? 22.21 19.78 22.11 18.76 174.A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radi us 5mm are made. The total number of possible small lead balls is: 800 125 400 8000 175.A rectangle, having a 72 cm perimeter, is divided into 9 congruent rectangle s and two congruent squares. The edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. What is the perimeter and area of the smaller rectang le? 24 cm, 36 cm2 24 cm, 32 cm2 12 cm, 32 cm2 12 cm, 36 cm2 176.In a triangle ABC, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to: 180o - BAC 180o + BAC 180o - 2BAC 180o + 2BAC 177.If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20, then which of the following is true? x2-y=1 x2 =1-y y=x2+1 y2=x+1 178.The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower, from two points on t he level ground on its opposite sides are 45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points? 30 51.96 47.32 81.96 179.A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 de gree. If a bullet is fired, it will travel P m before reaching the bird. The a v alue of P (in m) is : 10

180.Of the two boxes, Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 conta ins 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks. Four chalks are taken out, two from Box 1 and rem aining from Box 2. What is the probability of getting four different colour chal ks? 181.A problem is given to three students x,y,z whose chances of solving the prob lem are and respectively. What is the probability that the problem will be sol ved? In questions 182-183, a series is given. Which one of the number or letter-numbe r clusters in the given series is wrong. 182.G 4 T, J 10 R, M 20 P, P 43 N, S 90 L G 4 T J 10 R M 20 P P 43 N 183.5, 12,19,33,47,75,104. 33 47 75 101 In questions will ensure 184.3, 6, 5, 54 60 66 72 185.0, 2, 8, 34 35 36 42 183 to 185, a number-series is given. Which one of the alternatives the sequential continuity of the series? 20, 7, 42, 9,..

14, 24, .

In question 186-187, a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. Wh ich one of the alternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark? 186.6, 15, 3, (?), 143, 221 63 77 90 56 187.7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, (?) 17 E 4 18 F 5 17 E 3 18 D 4 In questions 188-189, a letter series is given, in which some letters are missin g. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternativ es. Find the correct alternative. 188.aa _ ab _ aaa _ a aaab

aabb abab baaa 189.mnonopqopqrs _ _ _ _ _ _ mnopq oqrst pqrst qrstu 190.The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest? GTSH BYXC ETUF LONM 191.The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest? BD CI EY AC 192.In a certain code MANISH is written as 415918. How will PRASHANT be written in t he same code? 79181152 79181125 79118125 79118152 193.If in an cricket season, Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice, Hyderabad defeated Bangalore twice, Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. Which of the teams lost the largest numbe r of matches? Mumbai Hyderabad Bangalore Kolkata 194.A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enqui ry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this i nformation to the passenger? 1.10:05 a.m. 2.9:55 a.m. 3.10:35 a.m. 4.10:15 a.m. 195.As a Lion is to Cub, a Camel is to: 1.Signet 2.Stag 3.Calf 4.Foal 196.Identify the correct deduction. Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers. Conclusions: 1.All grocers are wrestlers 2.Some wrestlers are grocers. 3.Some wrestler are labourers. 4.Some labourers are grocers. 1.All conclusions are correct 2.Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct 3.Only 4 conclusion is correct 4.Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct 197.Identify the correct deduction.

Statements: All fruits are sweets. All sweets are chocolates. Conclusions: 1.All sweets are fruits. 2.All fruits are chocolates 3.Some chocolates are sweets. 4.No chocolate is sweet. 1.Only conclusion 1 is correct 2.All conclusions are correct 3.Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct 4.Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct 198.In the question, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 are given on the top. Whi ch among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below it would continue the series 1-2 -3-4-5. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1. 2. 3. 4. In each of the questions 199 to 200, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 continuou s a continuous series with a gap marked (?) are given. Which figure from among t he figures marked a,b,c,d given below them would accurately fill-in the place ma rked with the questions mark. 199.Answer the Question: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 200.Answer the Question: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1. 2. 3. 4. In each of the questions 201 to 203, the figure marked as X is incomplete. Which of the figures marked as a, b, c, and d would accurately complete the given fig ure? 201. 1. 2. 3. 4.

202. 1. 2. 3. 4. 203. 1. 2. 3. 4. In each of the questions 204 to 206, a figure drawn on a transparent paper is gi ven on the left hand side. Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked as abcd) will this figure take if its is folded along th e dotted lines. 204. 1. 2. 3. 4. 205. 1. 2. 3. 4. 206. 1. 2. 3. 4. In each of the questions 207 to 209, figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a c ertain relationship. From among the given figures a, b, c and d which one, when placed at the position of the question mark, would establish the same relationsh ip. 207. 1. 2. 3. 4. 1. 2. 3. 4. 208. 1. 2. 3. 4. 1.

2. 3. 4. 209. 1. 2. 3. 4. 1. 2. 3. 4.

Registration Form

NEXT BATCH Regular : 10thJune & 2nd July (40seats available) Weekend : 15th June & 6th July (30seats available) Summer Batch:25th June & 2nd July (Only at Delhi)

BSNL-JTO JTO EligibiltyJTO SyllabusJTO Previous PapersJTO 2008 Cut-offJTO 2008 SolutionJT O Sample paper DRDO-SET About DRDO-SETDRDO EligibiltyDRDO SyllabusDRDO Examination PatternDRDO Previous PapersDRDO Sample Paper Important Links GATE IESPSUsOthers Links

home|about|cources|fee|facility|faq|Links|Sitemap|contact | Rules and Regulation s Copyright by Engineers institute of India 2012

SAIL2010

eii HomeAboutCoursesFeeFacilityFAQCareerContactBlog

Target-GATE About GATE ExamGATE 2014 EligibiltyGATE 2014 PatternGATE 2014 SyllabusGATE 2014 ScheduleGATE Previous PapersGATE Reference BooksGATE Solution KeyGATE Cutoff Mar ksM.Tech Admission 2013-14GATE Cut Off 2010-2012GATE Detail solutions IES 2013-14 About IESIES 2013 EligibiltyIES 2013 PatternIES 2013 SyllabusIES 2013 Exam Sched uleIES Previous PapersIES Reference BooksIES-ESE Cutoff MarksIES Selection ListI ES Tentative vacancyIES Solution PSUs About PSUsPSUs EligibiltyPSUs PatternPSUs SyllabusPSUs Exam SchedulePSUs Previous Pape rsPSUs Reference Books Tell Your Friends SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend Google SAIL Previous Paper 2010

SAIL Technical Papers Electronics-Engineering MT 2010 1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH an

d 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the comb ination is A. 5.7 mH B. 5.85 mH C. 6 mH D. 6.15 mH. 2. Two point charges Q and -Q are located on two opposite corners of a square as shown in figure. If the potential at the corner A is taken as 1V, then the potential at B, the centre of the square will be 1.zero 2. 3.1V 4. 3. Optocouplers combine A. SITs and BJTs B. IGBTs and MOSFETS C. Power transformers and silicon transistor D. Infrared light-emitting diode and a silicon phototransistor 4. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a q uantity is known as A. Gross error B. Absolute error C. Dynamic error D. Relative error 5. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to : A. linear time variant systems B. non-linear time variant systems C. linear time invariant systems D. non-linear time invariant systems. 6. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0, A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devic es. D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with t he I / 0 data. 7. The transistor shown in figure below, is biased 1.at cut-off 2.at saturation 3.well into saturation 4.well into cut-off 8. In any transmitting antenna system, efficiency primarily depends upon A. ohmic losses of various conductors B. radiation resistance C. ground conductivity D. atmospheric conditions. An instruction used to set the carry Flag in a computer can be class A. data transfer B. arithmetic C. logical D. program control The binary representation of 5.375 is A. 111.1011 B. 101.1101

9. ified as

10.

C. 101.011 D. 111.001 11. Dislocations in materials are A. point defect B. line defect C. planer defect D. surface defects. 12. In TV system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulse s by the use of A. integrator B. differentiator C. sweep credit D. sync separator. 13. Frequency in the UHF range propagate by means of A. Ground waves B. Sky waves C. Surface waves D. Space waves. 14. 200 MHz may be classified as A. VHF B. SHF C. UHF D. EHF 15. A communication satellite is a repeater between A. a transmitting station and a receiving station B. a transmitting station and many receiving stations C. many transmitting stations and many receiving stations D. none of the above 16. The power in a series R-L-C circuit will be half of that at resonance when the magnitude of the current is equal to A. V / 2R B. V / C. V / D. 17. A point charge Q is located on the surface of a sphere of radius R as shown in the figure. The average electric field on the surface of the sphere wi ll be 1.infinite 2. 3. 4.Zero 18. The efficiency of a chopper can be expected in the range

A. 50 to 55 percent B. 65 to 72 percent C. 82 to 87 percent D. 92 to 99 percent 19. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages? A. Hot wire instrument B. Electrostatic voltmeter C. Moving coil voltmeter D. Moving iron voltmeter.

20. Which one of the following transfer functions represents the Bode p lot shown in the above figure : 1. 2. 3. 4. 21. 0 2003 PUSH H 2004 PUSH D 2005 CALL 2050 2008 POP 2050 2009 HIT As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains , and the stack pointer contains .. 1.2050, OFFC 2.2251, OFFC 3.1025, OCCF 4.1025, OCCF 22. With reference to figure, value of VCE is The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor, Memory address in Hex Instruction 2000 LXI SP, 100

1.0 V 2.5 V 3.-5V 4.none of the above 23. The smallest change in sound intensity that can be detected A. 1 dB B. 3 dB C. 10 dB D. 20 dB. In a generic microprocessor, instruction cycle time is A. shorter than machine cycle time B. larger than machine cycle time C. exactly double the machine cycle time D. exactly the same as the machine cycle time The value of M in the end will be Do 100 I = 1, 2 DO 200 J = 1, 2 M = M + I + J 200 CONTINUE 100 CONTINUE STOP END

24.

25.

1.10 2.11 3.12 4.14

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by A. temperature B. pressure C. composition D. all of the above. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during A. equalizing pulse B. retrace interval between each line C. retrace period of vertical line D. none of the above. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is A. Horizontal (linear) B. vertical (linear) C. Circular D. Elliptical Multicavity Klystron A. is not a microwave device B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise C. is not suitable to pulse operation D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time Transponder comprises of A. Transmitter B. Receiver C. Antenna D. a, b, c combined

31. Consider the following statements regarding the circuit shown in the g iven figure : 1. If the switch K is closed at a proper instant there will be no transient 2. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero dep ends on the frequency of the supply 3. The instant at which K is closed such that the transient is zero dep ends on the circuit elements 4. There will always be a non-zero transient after the switch K is colo sed. 1.1 2.1 3.1 4.4 alone and 2 and 3 alone Of these statements : is correct. are correct. are correct is correct.

32. A circular ring carrying a uniformly distributed charge Q and a point charges -Q on the axis of the ring are shown in the fig. The magnitude of the di pole moment of the charge system is 1.Qd 2.Q R2 / d 3.Q 4.QR. 33. Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reve rsal without a transformer A. Buck regulator B. Boost regulator C. Buck-boost regulator D. Cuk regulator 34. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on A. RMS value of alternating current

B. voltage C. average value of a.c. current D. instantaneous value of a.c. current. 35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the cod es given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Response to a unit step input) (Location of poles in the s-plane) 1. 1.One at the origin B. 2.Two identical roots on the negative real axis. C. 3.Two on the imaginar y axis D. 4.One on the position real axis. Codes: A B C D A. 4 3 2 1 B. 3 4 1 2 C. 3 4 2 1 D. 4 3 2 1 36. Dual slope integration type Analog-to-Digital converters provide A. higher speeds compared to all other types of A / D converters B. very good accuracy without putting extreme requirements on compo nent stability C. poor rejection of power supply hums D. better resolution compared to all other types of A / D converters for the sa me number of bits. 37. In the figure given below, the collector current is 2 mA 200 mA Almost zero 0.02 mA 38. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly A. 250 - 300 MHz B. 150 - 200 MHz C. 90 - 105 MHz D. 30 - 70 MHz 39. A 32 bit microprocessor has the word length equal to A. 2 bytes B. 1 byte C. 4 bytes D. 8 bytes 40. In electronic microcircuits, a resistor may be fabricated from consta nt-thickness layer of semiconductor material with conductor connections at the e dges as shown below. If the resistor shown has resistance R, then a similar resi stor 0.2 millimeter has a resistance of 4 R 2 R R R / 2 41. Line imperfection in a crystal is called

42. ter

A. Schottky defect B. Frenkel defect C. edge dislocation D. Miller defect. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmit B. to increase the bandwidth C. to increase the power output D. to increase the efficiency of transmission. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earths curvature. This due to A. Ionospheric reflection B. Faraday rotation C. Ducting D. Ionospheric scatter. The modes in a reflex Klystron A. give the same frequency but different transit time B. result from excessive transit time across the resonator gap C. are caused by spurious frequency modulation D. are just for theoretical considerations. The capacity of a channel is A. number of digits used in coding B. volume of information it can take C. maximum rate of information transmission D. bandwidth required for information

43.

44.

45.

Solution 1.A. When two inductors are connected in series, the effective inductance i s Leff = L1 + L2 2 m. In this case, Leff = L1 + L2 - 2 M = 2 + 4 - 2 0.15 = 5.7 mH. 2.C. The plane midway between a and -a, i.e., the one passing through ABC a nd perpendicular to the plane of the paper is an equipotential plane. Hence the potential at B is the same as that of A or C, i.e., 1V. 3.D. In optocouplers the input signal is applied to the ILED and the output is takes from the phototransistor. These are used to isolate the gate signals f rom the power circuit. 4.C. The difference between the indicated value and the true value of a qua ntity is known as dynamic error. 5.C. The Principles of homogeneity and superposition are applied to linear time invariant systems. 6.D. In an 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0 arithmetic a nd logic operations can be directly performed with I / 0 data. 7.B. Neglecting VBE, IB = 10 / 100 = 0.1 A. IC = 100 0.1 = 10 A. Drop over RL = 10 v. Hence, VCE = 0 which is the condition for saturation. 8.B. whereRr is radiation resistance and Rd is the total loss resistance of the antenna. 9.B. Arithmetic 10.C. 101.001 = (4 + 0 + 1) (0 + 0.25 + 0.125)

11.B. 12.A. 13.D. 14.A. 15.C. ons and

= 5.375 Dislocations in materials are line defects. Integrator. Frequency in the UHF Range propagate by means of space waves. VHF. a communication satellite is a repeater between many transmitting stati many receiving stations.

16.C. V / 2 R 17.C. The point charge Q emanates a total electric displacement flux of Q. If a plane is passed through the point of location of charge and tangential to the sphere, half the flux is on one side and half on the other. The first half of f lux is passing through the spherical surface. Thus the average displacement dens ity has a direction opposite to that of n and the magnitude is \ Average electric field is : Eav = The efficiency of a practical chopper varies from 92 to 99 percent. Electrostatic voltmeter should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltage. it can easily be checked that the corresponding function is G (s) = (1 - s) / (1 + s) It is seen immediately that | G (jw) | = 1 and hence gain is db = 0. Memory address in hex Instruction Remarks 2000 LXI SP 1000 2003 PUSH H 2004 PUSH D do not CALL 2025 know the content subrout ine at 2050 . 2006 50 2007 20 2008 POP H 2009 HALT At the completion of the execution of the program, the program counter of the 8 085 contains 2050 and the stack pointer contains OFFC. 22.B. Neglecting, VBE = 23.B. 24.D. 25.C. Increase = 10 log10 P2 / P1 = 10 log102 = 10 0.3 = 3dB. Instruction cycle time is exactly the same as the machine cycle time. Taking index of I = 1 and M = 0 computing the value of M with J = 1, 2 J = 1 M = 0 + 1 + 1 = 2 J = 2 M = 2 + 1 + 2 = 4 Taking index of I = 2 and computing the value of M with J = 1, 2 J = 1 M = 5 + 2 + 1 = 8 J = 2

18.D. 19.B. 20.A.

21.A.

We 2005 s of

M = 1 + 2 + 2 = 12 26.A. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affected by temperature. 27.B. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during retrace interva l between each line 28.B. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is vertical (linea r). 29.A. Multicavity Klystron is not a good low level amplifier because of noise . 30.D. Transponder comprises of transmitter, receiver and antenna. 31.C. If the switch is closed at instant t = to, the complete expression for c urrent will be The transient is zero if wt0 + q - f = 0 or t0 = (f - q) / w Thus it is possible to find to such that there is no transient. Further to depe nds upon the circuit parameters and the frequency. So, the statements 1 and 3 are true. 32.A. For points far away, the charge on the ring may be considered to be loc ated be at the centre of the ring. Hence, the dipole moment becomes Qd. 33.C. a puck-boost regulator provides on output voltage which may be less tha n or greater than the input voltage. The output voltage polarity is opposite to that of the input voltage. It has high efficiency. 34.A. The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on RMS value of alternati ng current. 35.A. Considering that there are poles of H (s), then H1 (s) = H3 (s) = The impulse responses [a-1 H (s)] can be found and the step respons e are integrations of the corresponding impulse responses. 36.B. Dual slope integration type A to D converters are of slow speed and req uire more number of bits, than successive approximation ADC. 37.C. Since emitter and base have same polarity and same potential, EBJ is no t biased property. Hence, IB is zero and so is IC. 38.C. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly 90 - 105 M Hz. 39.C. 4 bytes. 40.C. Resistance will be directly proportional to length and inversely propor tional to the cross-sectional area. Let t mm be the thickness of semi-conductor material so that the cross-sectional area for R ohm resistor is 0.1 t sq. mm and length of semi - conductor material 0.1 mm. For a 0.2 mm 0.2 mm section, cross - sectional area = 0 .2 t sq. mm. Length = 0.2 mm Hence, resistance, = R = 41.C. Line imperfection in a crystal is called edge dislocation. 42.A. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is to prevent the l oading of several transmitters by video transmitter. 43.C. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earths curvature. This is due to ducting. 44.A. The modes in a reflex Klystron give the same frequency but different tr ansit time. 45.C. The capacity of a channel is maximum rate of information transmission Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009 A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known a s A thermodynamic system B thermodynamic cycle C thermodynamic process D thermodynamic law

2. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system? A volume B Temperature C mass D energy 3. Temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes 0 is called A absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperature C absolute temperature D none of these 4. The unit of energy in SI units is A joule B joule metre C watt D joule/metre 5. 1 joule is equal to A 1 Nm B kNm C 10 Nm/s D 10 kNm/s 6. In an irreversible process there is a A loss of heat B no loss of heat C gain of heat D no gain of heat 7. The following is an SI engine A diesel engine B petrol engine C gas engine D none of the above 8. In a 4 stroke cycle petrol engine during suction stroke A only air is sucked in B only petrol is sucked in C mixture of petrol and air is sucked in D none of the above 9. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is A lower B higher C same for same power output D same for same speed 10. Compression ratio of diesel engines may have a range A 8 to 10 B 10 to 15 C 16 to 20 D none of the above 11 The thermal efficiency of good I.C engine at the rated load is in the range of A 80 to 90% B 60 to 70% C 30 to 35% D 10 to 20% 12 Carburettor is used for A SI engines B gas engines C CI engines D none of the above 13 In SI engine to develop high voltage for spark plug A battery is installed B distributor is installed C carburetor is installed D ignition coil is installed 14 In a four cylinder petrol engine the standard firing order is A 1-2-3-4 B 1-4-3-2 C 1-3-2-4 D 1-3-4-2 15 The knocking is SI engines increases with A increase in inlet air temperature B increase in compression ratio

C increase in cooling water temperature D all of the above 16 Petrol commercially available in India for Indian passenger cars has octane number in the range A 40 to 50 B 60 to 70 C 80 to 85 D 95 to 100 17 The knocking tendency in C.I engines increases with A decrease of compression ratio B increase of compression ratio C increasing the temperature of inlet air D increasing cooling water temperature 18 The air standard otto cycle comprises A two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes B two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes C two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes D none of the above 19 The thermal efficiency of theoretical otto cycle A increases with increase in compression ratio B increases with increase in isentropic index gamma 1.C does not depend upon the pressure ratio D follows of the above 20 Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant has compared to diesel engine plan t is A higher B lower C same D may be higher or lower 21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion Reciprocating engine is A higher B lower C same D unpredictable 22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range A 2 to 3 B 3 to 5 C 16 to 18 D 18 to 22 23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by A reheating B intercooling C regenerator D all of the above 24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbin e Plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature A decreases B increases C first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases 25In two stage turbine plant, reheating after first stage A increases work ratio B decreases work ratio C does not affect work ratio D none of the above 26For a jet propulsion unit , ideally the compressor work and turbine work are A equal B unequal C not related to each other D unpredictable 27 Various kinematic pairs are given below.choose the lower pair A ball bearings B tooth gears in mesh C camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing

28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and the Number of links is A l=2p-2 B l=2p-3 C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5 29In a reciprocating engine A crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic links B crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics links C crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links D flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links 30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when A none of the link is fixed B one of the links is fixed C two of the links are fixed D all of the links are fixed 31 Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain? A beam engine B watts indicator mechanism C elliptical trammels D whitworth quick return motion mechanism 32 control volumes refer to A a fixed region in space B a specified mass C an isolated system D a closed system 33An isentropic process is always A irreversible and adiabatic B reversible and isothermal C friction less and irreversible D reversible and adiabatic 34Work done in a free expansion process is A 0 B minimum C maximum D positive

35.The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. The member LN of the truss is subjected to a load of? http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/Q4-Pin-Jointed-Trus-300x198.jp g (a) 0 Newton

(b)490 Newtons in compression (c)981 Newtons in compression (d) 981 Newtons in tension 36.In terms of.Poissons ratio (v) the ratio of Youngs Modulus (E) to Shear Modulu s (G) of elastic materials is ? (a)2(1 + v) (b) 2(1 v) (c)(1 + v)/2 (d)(1 v)/2 37. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotate s at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N. m. The torque transmitted by the gear is (a) 6.6 Nm (b) 20 Nm (c) 40 Nm (d) 60 Nm 38. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body. The magnitudes of normal stresses in the x and y direction are 100 MPa and 20 M Pa respectively. The radius of Mohrs stress circle representing this state of str ess is http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q4-stress-300x221.jpg (a)120 (b)80 (c)60 (d)40 39.For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical advantage for the given configura tion is? http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/Q5-300x51.jpg (a)0 (b) 0.5 (c)1.0 (d)Infinity 40.A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio o f excitation frequency of vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the i solation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility of ratio of isolation is (a)1/2 (b)3/4 (c)4/3 (d)2 41. A torque of 10 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure . http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q7-torque-300x59.jpg The torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of lengths MN, NO and OP are 2 0 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60 Nm respectively. The angular deflection between the en ds M and P of the shaft is? (a) 0.5 rad (b) 1.0 rad (c) 5.0 rad (d) 10.0 rad 42. http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/Q8-1024x229.jpg 43. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at (a)10 3 cycles (b) 10 4 cycles (c)10 6 cycles (d) 10 9 cycles 44. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is (a)capillary tube

(b) thermostatic expansion valve (c)automatic expansion valve (d) float valve 45. During chemical de-humidification process of air (a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease (b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases (c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases (d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase 46.An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2 /s, specific grav ity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top.plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is ? (a)0.651 x 10 -3 (b) 0.651 (c)6.51 (d) 0.651 x 103 47.Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domesti c refrigerators. Its chemical formula is ? (a)CH ClF2 (b) C2 Cl 3F3 (c)C2 Cl 2F4 (d) C2 H2F4 48. http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q14.jpg (a)x2y=0 (b) 2x+y=0 (c)2xy=0 (d) x+2y=0 49. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compress ion being 5000 kJ. During the process, heat interaction of 2000 kJ causes the su rroundings to the heated. The change in internal energy of the gas during the pr ocess is (a)7000kJ (b) 3000kJ (c)+ 3000 kJ (d) + 7000 kJ 50.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum wo rk output for the given temperature limits of Tmin and Tmax will be http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q16-1024x280.jpg 51.http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q17-1024x90.jpg (a)10 microns (b) 20 microns (c)30 microns (d) 60 microns 51. http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q18-1024x104.jpg (a) circular Interpolation clockwise (b) circular Interpolation counterclockwise (c) linear Interpolation (d) rapid feed 52. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is (a) Melting and Evaporation (b) Melting and Corrosion (c) Erosion and Cavitation (d) Cavitation and Evaporation 53. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. A ssuming, effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2

second, heat generated during the process will be (a)0.2 Joule (b) 1 Joule (c)5 Joule (d) 1000 Joules 54. In PERT analysis a critical activity has (a)maximum Float (b) zero Float (c)maximum Cost (d) minimum Cost 55. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the exponential smoothing constant (a) is taken as 0.2, the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ? (a)21 (b)23 (c)24 (d) 27 56. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to (a) very high pouring temperature of the metal (b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal (c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal (d) improper alignment of the mould flasks 57. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of (a)0.25 to 0.75 percent (b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent (c)3 to 4 percent (d) 8 to 10 percent 58.In the figure shown, http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q25-300x95.jpg the relative velocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/sec. Link 2 rotat es at a constant speed of 120 rpm. The magnitude of Coriolis component of aceele ration of link 1 is (a)302 m/s2 (b)604 m/s2 (c)906 m/s2 (d) 1208 m/s2 59. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom. http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q26-300x95.jpg The instant center 24 for the given configuration is located at a position ? (a) L (b) M (c) N (d)Infinity 60.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and having a weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected to a spring at the other end. http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q27-300x98.jpg For keeping the rod vertical in a stable position the minimum value of spring c onstant K needed is ? (a) 300 N/m (b) 400 N/m (c) 500 N/m (d) 1000 N/m 61. In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200 N. http://exams.qoney.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/q28-300x81.jpg If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch, the torque required for achi eving the tightening force is? (a)0.7Nm (b)1.0 Nm

(c)1.4 Nm (d) 2.8 Nm

Registration Form

NEXT BATCH Regular : 10thJune & 2nd July (40seats available) Weekend : 15th June & 6th July (30seats available) Summer Batch:25th June & 2nd July (Only at Delhi)

BSNL-JTO JTO EligibiltyJTO SyllabusJTO Previous PapersJTO 2008 Cut-offJTO 2008 SolutionJT O Sample paper DRDO-SET About DRDO-SETDRDO EligibiltyDRDO SyllabusDRDO Examination PatternDRDO Previous PapersDRDO Sample Paper Important Links GATE IESPSUsOthers Links

home|about|cources|fee|facility|faq|Links|Sitemap|contact | Rules and Regulation s Copyright by Engineers institute of India 2012

eii HomeAboutCoursesFeeFacilityFAQCareerContactBlog

Target-GATE About GATE ExamGATE 2014 EligibiltyGATE 2014 PatternGATE 2014 SyllabusGATE 2014 ScheduleGATE Previous PapersGATE Reference BooksGATE Solution KeyGATE Cutoff Mar ksM.Tech Admission 2013-14GATE Cut Off 2010-2012GATE Detail solutions IES 2013-14 About IESIES 2013 EligibiltyIES 2013 PatternIES 2013 SyllabusIES 2013 Exam Sched uleIES Previous PapersIES Reference BooksIES-ESE Cutoff MarksIES Selection ListI ES Tentative vacancyIES Solution PSUs About PSUsPSUs EligibiltyPSUs PatternPSUs SyllabusPSUs Exam SchedulePSUs Previous Pape rsPSUs Reference Books Tell Your Friends SocialTwist Tell-a-Friend Google AIR INDIA Examination paper 2009

OBJECTIVE TEST BOOKLET Test Battery Number Booklet Series C 2 9 1 Test Form No. Test-Booklet Serial No.

26642 1 7 2

1.This Test-Booklet consists of an objective type of test having questions on In telligence, Reasoning, General Awareness, General English, Electronics, Electric al Engineering, Computer Applications, Information technology, Physics. Tele-com munication and Mathematics. There are 100 questions in total in the test and dur ation of the test is two hours. 2.You have to answer these questions on an Answer-Sheet which is given to you se parately. Write your roll number on the Answer-Sheet at the appropriate place an d blacken from H.B. Pencil the corresponding circle in it. 3.On the top right hand corner of the cover page of you Test-Booklet, Booklet se ries is printed as A. In the Box for Booklet Series in your Answer-Sheet, blacke n circle with your HB pencil. Similarly on the left hand corner of the cover pag er of your Test-Booklet, Test Form No. is printed, blacken from H.B. pencil the corresponding circles in the Box for Test Form No. in your Answer-Sheet. Please make sure that you do not blacken more than one circle in any column. The three circles blackened by you, one in each column below the Test Form No., in your An swer-Sheet should tally with the Test Form No. as printed to you Test-Booklet. 4.Dont forget to mention the Test Battery Number and Test-Booklet Serial Number w hich are printed on the cover page of your Test-Booklet, at the indicated places in you Answer-Sheet. 5.You had already written the category to which you belong in your Application F rom. Therefore leave the rectangle for Category, blank in you Answer-Sheet. 6.Also leave the Rectangles X1 and X2 blank in you Answer-Sheet. 7.For each question in you Test-Booklet, four alternative answer numbered as (1) , (2), (3) and (4) are given. Of these four alternative answers only one alterna tive answer is the correct answer to each question. Your task in this test is to find out this correct answer and to show it in SIDE-2 of you Answer-Sheet by bl ackening with an H.B. pencil, the circle having the alternative number of your c hoice under the corresponding serial number of the question. If you want to chan ge the answer given by you earlier for a question, then erase the black mark mad e by you earlier in the alternative for that question, leaving no impression at all and make a fresh mark in the alternative of you new choice. For any question , if more than one circle are found blackened, the machine will allot zero mark to such an answer. 8.There is a provision to answer 200 questions on SIDE-2 of your Answer-Sheet bu t as there are only 100 questions in total in the test, use the space for the fi rst hundred questions in SIDE-2 of your Answer-Sheet to mark your answers and le ave the remaining space blank. 9.Before beginning to answer the questions please make sure that all the entries in your Answer-Sheet have been duly completed. Any carelessness in this regard may jeopardize your chances of selection. 10.Do not spend time on reading all the questions before beginning to answer the m. Try the questions one by one and wherever you are not sure of the answer, pas s one to the next question. If time permits, you may again try the left out ques tions. 11.For rough work, blank space has been provided on pages 2 and 23 of you Test-B ooklet. Dont make any mark elsewhere. Note: In case of variation of any kind in the English and Hindi version of any q uestion(s). English version will be considered as final. AAI (ATC)-2009

1.Which of the following series observes the rule, skip in between adjacent lette r, increasing one letter each time to build a set of letters? A C F J L Q B D G K P V C E H L Q V H I L P U Z 2.If in the following alphabet the first four letters are interchanged with the 2nd four letters, 3rd four letters are interchanged with the 4th four letters, 5 th four letters are interchanged with the 6th four letters. What will be the 9th letter to the right of 18th letter from your right? ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ M N U V 3.Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain but the rest one is different. Find the one which is different from the rest three. 7359 1593 9175 3781 4.A girl moves towards South-east a distance of 7 m, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 14 m. From there, she moves towards North-west a dist ance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stood at th at point. How far is the starting point (in metres) from where she stood? 3 4 10 11 5.In this question arithmetical symbols are denoted by capital letters as given below: A , B>, C=, D<, E, F Two formulae are given. Find the inference which is drawn from the given Formula e. Formulae: 3x B 4y, 4y E 3z 3x C 3z 3x A 3z 3x B 3z 3x D 3z 6.Select one alternative in which the third statement is implied by the first tw o statements. All oranges are black. All figs are oranges. So, all figs are black. No man can fly. No kite can fly. So, all mean are kites. All dogs are mad. All rich persons are mad. So, all rich persons are dogs. All windows are dogs. Some doors are dogs. So, all windows are doors. 7.There is some relationship between the figures A and B given below. the same r elationship exists between the figures C and one of the alternative figure (a), (b), (c) or (d). Choose that alternative figure. A. B. C. D. a. b. c. d. 8.Out of the four figures given below, three are similar in a certain way. Choos

e the figure which is different from the rest. 1. 2. 3. 4. 9.State the minimum number of straight lines required to make the figure given b elow: 1.15 2.16 3.17 4.18 10.A father tells his on, I was of your present age when you were born. If the fat her is 36 now, how old was the boy 5 years back? 1.13 2.15 3.17 4.20 11.In a certain code language. TRIANGLE is written as RSGBLHJF. How is CROWN wri tten in that code? 1.ASNXL 2.ASMXM 3.ATMXL 4.ASMXL 12.Four Youngman, A, B, C and D are friendly with four girls P, Q, R and S. P an d R are friends. Cs girl friend does not like P and R. Q does not care for C. Bs g irls friend is friendly with P. P does not like A. Who does not like P and R? 1.A 2.Q 3.B 4.S 13.Two words given below have a definite relationship. Find out the alternative whose words have the same relationship. Volcano: Lava 1.Vegetable : Gravy 2.Surprise : Wonder 3.Laugh :Cry 4.Eyes : Tears 14.Find out the group of missing letters for the series given below: a-caabc-bba-caab-abbab 1.babc 2.bacc 3.aabc 4.abca 15.A story book for children has 8 stories. Each story is told in three more pag es than the previous one. If the total number of pages in the book is 124, then in how pages has the sixth story been told? 1.16 2.18 3.20 4.22 16.Decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the two given sta tements, disregarding commonly know facts. Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white. Conclusions: 1.Some blue are green

2.Some white are green 3.Some green are not white 4.All white are blue. a.Only 1 and 2 follow b.Only 2 and 3 follow c.Only 1 and 3 follow d.Only 1 and 4 follow. 17.Three out of four pairs of numbers given in the alternatives below, have simi lar relationship. Found out the odd-man 1.1 : 11 2.7 : 23 3.11: 31 4.13: 37 18.A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from am ongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transpar ent sheet is folded at the dotted line. A. 1. 2. 3. 4. 19.The set of figures X, Y and Z shows a sequence of folding a piece of paper. F ig (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figu res are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose as figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig (Z). 1. 2. 3. 1. 2. 3. 4. 20.Count the number of cubes in the figure given below: 1.144 2.150 3.158 4.168 21.The prominent nationalist write in Marathi was 1.Lakshminath Bezbarua 2.Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar 3.Subrahmanyam Bharti 4.Altaf Hussain Hali 17.Three out of four pairs of numbers given in the alternatives below, have simi lar relationship. Found out the odd-man 1.1 : 11 2.7 : 23 3.11: 31 4.13: 37 18.A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Figure out from am ongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transpar ent sheet is folded at the dotted line. A. 1. 2. 3. 4. 19.The set of figures X, Y and Z shows a sequence of folding a piece of paper. F ig (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figu

res are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose as figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Fig (Z). 1. 2. 3. 1. 2. 3. 4. 20.Count the number of cubes in the figure given below: 1.144 2.150 3.158 4.168 21.The prominent nationalist write in Marathi was 1.Lakshminath Bezbarua 2.Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar 3.Subrahmanyam Bharti 4.Altaf Hussain Hali 22.The highest mountain peak in India is 1.Nanga Parbat 2.Nanda Devi 3.Nilgiri 4.K-2 23.The first country-wide agricultural census in India was completed in 1.June, 1951 2.June, 1961 3.June, 1971 4.June, 1981 24.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? 1.Pimpri : Drugs 2.Sindri : Rubber Goods 3.Ballarpur : Leather 4.Shahabad : Fertilizer 25.Who was the first Indian woman to swim across the English Channel? 1.Rita Faria 2.Arti Saha 3.Shipra Dutta 4.Shanta Rangaswami 26.Which one of the following provides constitutional guarantee of personal free dom? 1.Quo Warranto 2.Mandamus 3.Certiorari 4.Habeas Corpus 27.The holy book of the Parsis is called 1.Ahura Mazda 2.Avestare-Zend 3.Ahirman 4.Zarathustra 28.The most populous of the Nordic countries is 1.Sweden 2.Norway 3.Switzerland 4.Denmark 29.White Lily is the emblem of 1.Cyprus 2.Guinea

3.Greece 4.Italy 30.OPEC stands for 1.Oil Producing European Countries 2.Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries 3.Oil and Petroleum Exploring Countries 4.Organization of Pacific Exploring Countries 31.Which of the following cities is situated on the banks of river Tiber? 1.Rome 2.Berlin 3.Peking 4.Tokyo 32.Chennai is hotter than Kolkata because 1.there is no mountain nearby it. 2.Chennai has sandy region everywhere. 3.Chennai is closer the sea than Kolkata. 4.Chennai is nearer to the Equator. 33.What is the distance of running in a Marathan race? 1.26 miles 2.26 miles 180 yards 3.26 miles 385 yards 4.26 miles 405 yards 34.C. Funks name has been associated with the research of which of the following? 1.Vitamins 2.Minerals 3.Carbohydrates 4.Proteins 35.Dar-es-Salaam is the capital of 1.Kenya 2.Tanzania 3.Libya 4.United Arab Emirates Directions (Q. Nos. 36-37): Use the correct form of word given in the brackets f rom the choices to fill in the blank in the sentences. 36.The brides friends admired the .. of the embroidery on her wedding dress. (fine) 1.fine-drawn 2.finery 3.fineness 4.finity 37.His . attitude to the marvels of nature irritates me. (prose) 1.prosy 2.prosaic 3.prosaical 4.prosing Directions (Q. Nos. 38-39): From the choice given below, select the correct prep osition to fill in the blanks. 38.The headmaster sent .. the two boys who were accused of bullying their classmates . 1.through 2.about 3.for 4.by 39.We cannot publish this story giving offence to some people. 1.by 2.beside 3.through 4.without

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-41): From the choices given below, fill in the blanks wit h the correct word or phase. 40.Since I have .... some money, I have decided to leave my job. 1.come down with 2.come through 3.come into 4.come upon 41.I am definitely not the examination. 1.expecting 2.anticipating 3.looking forward to 4.awaiting Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44): From the choices given below, select the nearest mea ning of the given phrase/idiom. 42.Make common cause with 1.side with or support 2.come to an agreement with 3.make similar observations as 4.find mutual friends 43.Bring down the house 1.scatter ones belongings 2.create an unpleasant scene 3.elicit general and loud applause 4.rebuild ones house 44.Burn the candle at both ends 1.overtax ones energies 2.by unhealthy 3.overspend 4.overspeed. Directions (Q. Nos. 45-47): From the choices given below, select the appropriate part of speech or figure of speech represented by the underlined word or phrase . 45.I retreated after I was told to mind my own business. 1.Noun 2.Adverb 3.Adjective 4.Gerund. 46.The camel is the ship of the desert. 1.Oxymoron 2.Metaphor 3.Epithet 4.Metonymy 47.The teachers words were met with a deafening silence. 1.Hyperbolc 2.Epither 3.Metaphor 4.Oxymoron. Directions (Q. Nos. 48-50): From the choices given below, select the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the given word/phrase. 48.testy 1.quarrelsome 2.ittitable 3.inquisitive 4.miserly 49.esoteric 1.universal 2.simplistic

3.horrifying 4.taught to a select few 50.shamrock a musical genre a form of agate a musical instrument a plant 51.The Ruths criterion tells us the number of roots lying In the right half of s-plane In the left half of s-plane On the origin of s-plane None of the above 52.Which of the following characteristic equations represents a stable state? as2+bs+c=0 as4+bs2+cs+d=0 as2+bs-c=0 as2-bs-c=0 53.The common collector amplifier is also called emitter follower Emitter current follows the collector current Emitter voltage follows the collector voltage Emitter voltage follows the base signal voltage Emitter current follows the collector voltage 54.In an FET, transconductance gm is proportional to IDS I/IDS 55.The 3-dB frequency of an amplifier is one at which gain reduces to unity zero of its mid-band value Half of its mid-band value 56.Which of the following types of amplifier operations causes maximum distortio n? Class A Class AB Class B Class C 57.Class B push pull amplifier suffers from inter modulation distortion cross-over distortion excessive harmonic distortion phase distortion 58.Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillations gives -Ab = 1 Ab = 0 Ab = 0 A = 1/b 59.Low frequency response of an RC coupled amplifier can be improved by increasing the coupling capacitors only increasing the bypass capacitors only increasing both the coupling capacitor and bypass capacitor decreasing the bypass capacitor 60.An ideal Operational Transconductance Amplifier (OTA) has infinite Zin, infinite Z0 infinite Zin, zero Z0 zero Zin, infinite Z0 zero Zin, zero Z0 61.The radiation resistance of folded dipole is approximately 75 W

150 W 300 W 377 W 62.IN IC timer 555, a low on pin 4 (reset) causes output state : low output state : high no effect on output toggle 63.Which one of the following is a privileged instruction? MOV B, A INT 21 IN 08 A D D B, A (where A, B are CPU registers) 64.Which of the following items in the assembly language program is not converte d in machine language? Privileged instructions Assembler directives Interrupt instructions Trap instruction 65.In assembly language: Macro is more efficient than subroutine w.r.t. storage space and execution time. Subroutine is more efficient than macro w.r.t. storage space and execution time Macro is more efficient than subroutine w.r.t. execution time. Subroutine is more efficient than macro w.r.t. execution time. 66.Conversion of 13,8125 in digital form is 1101.1011 1011.1011 1101.1101 1011.1111 67.In a full adder, there are two binary number inputs and two outputs three binary digital inputs and two binary outputs three binary digit inputs and three binary digit outputs none of these 68.For a Schmitt trigger, the upper and lower trip voltages are 3V and 1V, and h igh and low states are 15V and 2V. The output for a sinusoidal input of 10V peak will lie between 1 V and 3 V 2 V and 15 V 3V and 15 V 10 V and 15 V 69.The output of a circuit shown below is A pulse train A pulse train A pulse train A pulse train 70.The circuit of duration of duration of duration of duration shown below 0.5 sec 2 sec 1 sec 5 sec is a

Half-wave rectifier Average detector Peak detector Clamping circuit 71.A program that translated symbolically represented instruction into their bin ary equivalents is called A loader

Assembler Linker Autoloader 72.Normally, a microprocessor cycles between Fetch and Halt states Fetch and Interrupt states Fetch and Executes states Half and Executes states 73.The voltage levels for a six-bit binary ladder are 0 = 0V, 1 = +10V. Its output f or the input 101001 will be 0.423 V 0.552 V 0.641 V 0.9223 V 74.A mass of moment of inertia J is supported by a shaft of stiffness coefficien t k and is rotated by a torque T through an angle. If the viscous frictional coe fficient is B, the transfer function q(s)/T(s) of this rotational mechanical sys tem is given by (assuming zero initial conditions) 75.In a feedback system, feedback factor of 0.1 is used with a forward gain of 1 0. The sensitivity of the system with respect to the feedback element is -0.5 0.5 -0.9 +0.9 76.The impulse response of a system is h(t) is inverse Laplace transform of the input excitation inverse Laplace transform of its transfer function inverse Laplace transform of inputs multiplied by the transfer function None of these 77.The LINUX operating system is implemented as: 1.Monolithic architecture 2.Micro-kernel architecture 3.Virtual machine architecture 4.Multi-threaded micro-kernel architecture. 78.The characteristics equation of a system is given by s4+5s3+5s2+4s+k=0. The s ystem is stable if k lies in the range 1. 2. 3.3 > k > 1 4.4 > k > 3 79.In order that a feed back control system is stable the following applies: 1.roots of the characteristic questions should be locate din right half of the S -plane 2.roots of the characteristic questions should be located in left half of the Splane excluding the poles on the imaginary excess 3.roots of the characteristic questions should be real and be located on left ha lf of the S-plane excluding the imaginary excess 4.roots of the characteristic question should be located in left of the S-plane. 80.A phase-locked-Loop is useful for 1.FM demodulation 2.Rectification 3.Phase compensation 4.Ensuring stability of a loop 81.The random variable X is Gaussian distributed with zero mean and unit varianc e. What is the variance of a random variable Y. where Y=X1? 1.2.0

2.3.0 3.zero 4.1.0 82.The input to a stable and causal LTI system is a Gaussian process. The output process will be 1.Poisson 2.Gaussian 3.Weiner 4.None of the above 83.The frequency response of an ideal communication channel should have 1.flat amplitude response and linear decreasing phase response 2.flat amplitude response and flat phase response 3.linear decreasing amplitude response and linear decreasing phase response 4.linear decreasing amplitude response and flat phase response 84.The transmission bandwidth required for a single sideband (SSB) modulated sig nals is 1.two times bandwidth of modulating signal 2.three times bandwidth of modulating signal 3.same as bandwidth of modulating signal 4.half the bandwidth of modulating signal. 85.Which one of the following given the best error performance for the same aver age energy per bit? 1.16QAM 2.16ASK 3.16PSK 4.QPSK 86.In sampling theorem. Nyquist interval T equals 1. 2. 3. 4. 87.For a periodic function, the spectral density and the auto-correlation functi ons are 1.Fourier transform pair 2.Laplace transform pair 3.One and the same thing 4.None of the above

Registration Form

NEXT BATCH Regular : 10thJune & 2nd July (40seats available) Weekend : 15th June & 6th July (30seats available) Summer Batch:25th June & 2nd July (Only at Delhi)

BSNL-JTO JTO EligibiltyJTO SyllabusJTO Previous PapersJTO 2008 Cut-offJTO 2008 SolutionJT O Sample paper DRDO-SET About DRDO-SETDRDO EligibiltyDRDO SyllabusDRDO Examination PatternDRDO Previous PapersDRDO Sample Paper Important Links GATE IESPSUsOthers Links

home|about|cources|fee|facility|faq|Links|Sitemap|contact | Rules and Regulation s Copyright by Engineers institute of India 2012 gate | gate institute |gate training institute gate study material gate details gate question paper gate patter best gate institute gate previous paper gate pre vious yearpaper gate coaching gate centre gate coaching in noida gate coaching i n ghaziabad gate coaching in agra gate coaching in ranchi gate coaching in jaipu r gate coaching in patna gate coaching in dhanbad gate coaching in bhopal gate c oaching in lucknow gate coaching in faridabad gate coaching in kolkata gate coac hing in jamshedpur gate coaching in Hyderabad gate coaching in Itangar gate coac hing in Raipur gate coaching in delhi gate coaching in Chandigarh gate coaching in Jammu gate coaching in Bangalore gate coaching in Thiruvananthapuram gate coa ching in Bhopal gate coaching in Mumbai gate coaching in Dehradhun gate coaching in Chennai gate coaching in Bhubaneswar gate coaching in Chandigarh gate coachi ng in Shillong gate coaching centre best gate coaching best gate coaching in del hi gate study material gate study material electronics gate study material elect rical gate study material mechanical gate study material computer science gate s tudy material civil gate 2011 gate 2012 gate 2013 gate 2014 gate solution gate s ample paper gate cutoff gate eligibility GATE Overview GATE Eligibility Structur e Of GATE GATE Training Institutes Colleges Providing M.Tech/M.E. GATE Score GAT E Results Article On GATE GATE Forum | GATE 2010 Exclusive GATE 210 Syllabus GAT E Organizing Institute Important Dates for GATE Exam How to Apply for GATE GATE Syllabus for Chemical Engineering GATE Syllabus for Chemistry GATE Syllabus for Civil Engineering GATE Syllabus for Computer Science / IT GATE Syllabus for Elec tronics and Communication Engineering GATE Syllabus for Engineering Sciences GAT E Syllabus for Instrumentation Engineering GATE Syllabus for Life Sciences GATE Syllabus for Mathematics GATE Syllabus for Mechanical Engineering GATE Syllabus for Metallurgical Engineering GATE Syllabus for Mining Engineering GATE Syllabus for Physics GATE Syllabus for Production and Industrial Engineering GATE Prepar ation GATE Pattern download gate paper gate solution 2010 gate solution 2011 gat e solution 2012 GATE Tips & Tricks GATE Evaluation GATE Sample Papers GATE Downl oads Experts View on GATE ies IES iesinstitute ies training institute ies study

material ies details ies question paper ies patter ies gate institute ies previo us paper ies previous yearpaper ies coaching ies centre ies coaching in noida ie s coaching in ghaziabad ies coaching in agra ies coaching in ranchi ies coaching in jaipur ies coaching in patna ies coaching in dhanbad ies coaching in bhopal ies coaching in lucknow ies coaching in faridabad ies coaching in kolkata ies co aching in jamshedpur ies coaching in Hyderabad ies coaching in Itangar ies coach ing in Raipur ies coaching in delhi ies coaching in Chandigarh ies coaching in J ammu ies coaching in Bangalore ies coaching in Thiruvananthapuram ies coaching i n Bhopal ies coaching in Mumbai ies coaching in Dehradhun ies coaching in Chenna i ies coaching in Bhubaneswar ies coaching in Chandigarh ies coaching in Shillon g ies coaching centre best ies coaching best ies coaching in delhi ies study mat erial ies study material electronics ies study material electrical ies study mat erial mechanical ies study material computer science ies study material civil ie s 2011 ies 2012 ies 2013 ies 2014 ies solution ies sample paper ies cutoff ies r esult ies eligibility ies Overview ies Eligibility Structure Of ies ies Training Institutes ies Score IES Results Article On ies ies Forum ies 2010 Exclusive ie s 210 Syllabus ies Organizing Institute Important Dates for ies Exam How to Appl y for ies ies Syllabus for Chemical Engineering ies Syllabus for Chemistry ies S yllabus for Civil Engineering ies Syllabus for Computer Science / IT ies Syllabu s for Electronics and Communication Engineering ies Syllabus for Engineering Sci ences ies Syllabus for Instrumentation Engineering ies Syllabus for Life Science s ies Syllabus for Mathematics ies Syllabus for Mechanical Engineering ies Sylla bus for Metallurgical Engineering ies Syllabus for Mining Engineering ies Syllab us for Physics ies Syllabus for Production and Industrial Engineering ies Prepar ation ies Pattern download gate paper gate solution 2010 gate solution 2011 gate solution 2012 ies Tips & Tricks ies Evaluation ies Sample Papers ies Downloads Experts View on ies