Pharmacology/Anesthesiology 1. The gate control theory is developed by: a. Descartes b. Melzack and wall C. Gold and Scheider D.

Monheim

2. The skin is an important route of excretion for A. Methyl drops B. Salicylic Acid C. Nitrous Oxide D. Griseofluvin

3. Which of the following is not a drawback to penicillin G? A. rapid renal excretion B. Propensity to reduce hypersensitization C. weak activity against hemolytic streptococci D. Susceptibility to penicillinase

4. Which of the following minerals is particularly needed in the blood clotting mechanism? A. Magnesium B.Iron C.Potssium D. Calcium

5.The maxillary division of cranial nerve V is A. entirely motor B. autonomic C. entirely sensory D. entirely sensory and entirely motor

6. Which of the following factors present may result in faulty anesthesia A. Deposition of anesthetic solution near the nerve target B. Excessive dilution within the tissue fluids C. Excessive amount of anesthetic solution D. Use of anesthetic solution with a vasoconstrictor

7. Which of the following Is not used in angina pectoris? A. trinitroglycerine B. Propanolol C. Amyl nitrite D. amphetamine

8. The drug of choice in the management of mild allergic skin rashes is: A. Isoproterenol B. Antihistamine C. Epinephrine D. Nor epinephrine

8. A psychophysiological process expressing the person overt manifestation of unpleasant sensation A. pain reaction B. pain sensation C. pain impulse D. pain resistance

9. The state of superinfection in the therapeutics means: A. sensitivity to infection B. secondary infection C. severe infection D. rapidly progressing infection

10. Site absorption is in the gastrointestinal tract. A. Inhalation route B. Topical Route C. Oral Route D. Parenteral route

11. Hepatoxicity to tetracyclines is a most commonly problem in A. young adults B.Pregnant women C.diabetic persons D.Stven johnsons syndrome

12. The most common syringe used in dental practice is: A. breech loading aspirating metallic syringe B. H-D tuberculin C. breech loading non-aspirating metallic syringe D. plastic disposable

13. Phase of drug action which deals with preparing the drug for absorption A. pharmacodynamic phase B. pharmacokinetic phase C. toxicology phase D. pharmaceutical phase

14. The treatment of choice in severe toxic reaction to aspirin is A. Gastric lavage, parental sedatives and forced fluids B . instant hospitalization of intravenous fluids C. intravenous cortisone and vasopressors D. intravenous glucose and respiration support

15. As a general rule, the potency level of local anesthetic depends solely on A. chemical nature B. volume anesthesia C. action on nerve fiber D. Ph of the tissue

16. No irritation of the tissues should result from the injection of local anesthesia. For this reason, it should: A . have a ph lower than that of tissue B. not be isotonic C. have a ph than that of tissue D. have a ph compatible with that of tissue

17. Local anesthetics inhibit nerve conduction at the: A. synapses B. all of these C. sensory endings D. Nerve fibers

18. The most severe outcome of toxicity with local anesthetics is: A. restlessness and convulsion B. hypertension C. respiratory and cardiovascular depression D. dizziness

19. Drug administration in renal malfunction could lead to: A. allergy B. addiction C. idiosyncracy D. Drug Cumlation

20. Site of absorption is in the oral mucosa membrane A. inhalation route B. Oral route C. Parenteral Route D. Topical route

21. The clinical diagnosis of morphine overdose presents the triad of: A. dilated pupils, tremors B. constricted pupils, tremors and vomiting C. tremor, chills and perspiration D. coma, depressed respiration, and constricted pupils

22. During the deposition of local anesthesia, an inadvertent intravascular injection can be easily detected by: A. feeling of numbness in the lips B. increased salivation C. presence of backflow of blood in the syringe D. painful reaction

23.Exteroreceptive impulses conveyed thru the afferent thru the different fibers of the trigeminal nerve A. thermal B. pain C. touch and thermal D. touch

24. Across the cell membrane along the concentration gradient: A. it increases the antineoplastic B. it inhibits the metabolism C. it possesses uricosuric activity D. it decreases serum urin acid levels

25. Sulfonamides may cause renal damage that has been shown to be the results of precipitation of crystals in the collecting tubules of the kidney. Predisposing factors to such crystal formation includes? A. urine pH of 5.0 B. high urinary solubility of the drug C. simultaneous administration of several sulfonamides D. low urinary concentration of the drug

26. Name of a drug which indicates its composition and biochemical structure A. code name B. trade name C. chemical name D. generic name

27. Palatal injections should never be given posterior to the maxillary second molar: A. because the absence of nerve in that area B. to avoid anesthetizing the lesser palatine area C. to avoid anesthetizing the greater palatine area D. because of the presence of nerve in that area

28. Site of absorption in the respiratory epithelium: A. inhalation route B. parenteral route C. Topical route D. Oral route

29. The rapid effect of anesthesia with inhalation is principally associated to its A. temperature in the gas phase B. interaction with preoperative drugs C. molecular weight D. degree of blood solubility

30. Short acting local anesthetics have duration of: A. 180 min. or longer B. less than 30 min. C. 45-75 min. D.90-120 min.

31. The first phase of drug action A. toxicology phase B. pharmaceutical phase C. paharmacokinetic phase D. pharmacodynamic phase

32.The drug of choice for neutralizing the withdrawal effects of morphine addicted patients is methadone because: A. antagonizes the depressing actions of morphine B. will not lead to physical dependence C. withdrawal reactions are less intense and stressful than those of morphine

D. enhances withdrawal reaction

33. Phase of drug action which deals with the disintegration and dissolution of drugs: A. pharmacodynamic phase B. pharmaceutical phase C. pharmacokinetic phase D. toxicology phase

34. Ampicillin is superior to chloramphenicol of typhoid carriers because it: A. is less expensive B. is less toxic C. has a broader spectrum D. is more potent

35. A nerve cell in a depolarize or state of reverse polarity: A. The inside or the nerve cell is positively charged in relation to the outside of the nerve B. no difference in electric potential between the inside and outside of the nerve C. the inside of the nerve cell is negatively charged in relation to the outside which is egative D. the inside of the nerve cell is at rest.

36. Before the deposition of anesthetic solution, the habit should always be done: A. none of these B. shaking the cartridge and aspiration C. shaking of the cartridge D. Aspiration

37. Which of the following basis for treatment of cardiac patients is most likely choice with the use of vasoconstrictors? A. fully recovered cardiac patient B. Adequate cardiac reserve C. Monitoring of vital signs during treatment D. Controlled hypertension

38. Afferent fibers of CN V transmit: A. None of these B. exteroreceptive impulse C. proprioreceptive impulse D. exteroreceptive and proprioreceptive impulse

39. Local anesthetics is most effective in A. alkaline tissue B. inflamed tissue C. high dose D. acidic tissue

40. Faulty technique in the conduction of L.A will most likely result in: A. hypertension B. in effective analgesia C. bradycardia D. prolonged analgesia

41. After injection of local anesthetics, loss of fxn results in which of the following order A. Temperature,pain, touch, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone B. Pain, temperature, touch, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone C.Pain, touch,skeletal muscle tone,proprioception and temperature D. Touch, pain, temperature, proprioception and skeletal muscle tone

42. Which of the following causes death is attributed to irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors? A. Convulsion B. Shock C. respiration analysis D. Cardiac arrhythmia

43. A fresh case of amebic dysentery is most appropriately treated with, metronidazole, an accurate characterization of this drug that it is: A. is poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract B. has more severe adverse effect C. is effective in both the intestinal ( luminal) and tissue stages of ent amoeba histolytica D. is the treatment of choice of asymptomatic carriers of cyst

44. Which of the following drugs alter the physiology of a cell by binding to plasma membrane? A. Antagonist B. Irreversible antagonist C. Drug receptors D. Antagonist

45. Occurs through the pores of the cell membrane A. Simple diffusion B. Pinocytosis C. Filtration D. Active transport

46. In large doses this anesthetic solution should be avoided in patients suffering from idiopathic methemoglobinemia A. Mepivacaine B. Lidocaine C. Prilocaine D. Propoxycaine

47. Length of needle to be used for nerve block: A. 2 5/8 inches B. 1 inches C. 1 5/8 inches D. 1 7/8 inches

48. The mode of action of penicillin is by: A. interacting with synthesis of nucleic acid in the bacteria B. inhibiting synthesis of bacterial cell wall C. increasing permeability of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane D. interfering with bacterial protein synthesis

49. The antibiotic of choice when treating infections should be: A. Narrow spectrum antibiotic B. Bacterial antibiotic C. Broad spectrum antibiotic D. bacteriostatic antibiotic

50. Local anesthetic of ester group undergo biotransformation by: A. Synthesis B. hydrolysis C. Microsomal enzyme D. all of these

51. Short acting anesthetics A. 2% mepivacaine with 1: 20,000 levonordefrin B. all of these C. 4% prilocaine D. lidocaine with 1:100,000

52. All of the following statements concerning alkylating agents are true except: A. they posses little or no toxicity in the host B. they are able to form covalent bonds with the nucleophilic sites on nuclei acids C. they are cytotoxic owning their activity against DNA D. they are able to form a positive carbonium ion

53. Amide type of local anesthesia undergo biotransformation primarily in the: A. GIT B. liver C. kidney D. muscle

54. In local anesthesia, for maximum effect the injected anesthetic drug comes in contact with at least how many mm.of the nerve to be blocked? A. 10-12 mm B. 4-6 mm C. 6-8 mm D. 8-10 mm

55. Name assigned to a drug when it appears to habe therapeutic use: A. Generic name B. Code name C. Chemical name D. trade name

56. What is the neuromuscular blocking agent of choice in convulsive episode from local anesthetic overdose? A. Nor epinephrine B. Diazepam C. Isoproterenol D. Atropine

57. All are innervated via MSAN except: A. maxillary second molar B. distobuccal and palatal roots of Max.1st molar C. mesiobuccal root of Max 1st molar D. Max. 1st pre molar

58. The patient developed allergy after injection of amide type of local anesthetics. Most probable reaction is: A. epinephrine B. Methyl paraben C. contamination D. lidocaine

59. The most common muscle encountered in an incorrect administration of ASAN block is: A. mentalis B. quadrates labii superioris C. Obicularis oris D. masseter

60. Small unmyelinated fibers,diameter from .05-1 microns, conduct speed to .5 to 2m/sec: A. sharp localized pain B. slow pain C. no afferent fxn. D. dull pain

61. The patients manifestation o unpleasant experience in pain: A. reaction C. perception B. threshold D. reflex

62. Phase of drug action where the drug effects are experienced by the patient: A. toxicology effect B. pharmaceutical effect C. pharmacokinetic phase D. pharmacodynamic stage

63. effects of lidocaine in the respiratory system in small doses : A. Apnea B. dyspnea C. mild bronco-constriction D. mild bronco-dilation

64. Device which contains either solution or suspension of drugs with a propellant: A. Atomizer B. metered dose inhaler C. nebulizer D. Inhaler

65.Phase of drug action which deals with the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of drugs. A. pharmacodynamic phase B. pharmacologic phase C. toxicology phase D. pharmacokinetic phase

66.All injectable local anesthetic are: A. Vasoconstrictors B. inhibitors C. Vasodilators and vasoconstrictors D. Vasodilators

67. Atropine is chemically: A. an alkaloid B. a weak acid C. a quarternary amine D. a glycoside

Jurisprudence / Practice Management 1. One of the most important component of a good dental record A. occupation B. address and name of former dentist C. accounting records D. name and address of the patient

2. The law that imposes a severe penalty for illegal practice of dentistry with minimum of 1 year of imprisonment or of 1000.00 fine or both A. R.A 417 B. Act 2227 C. Act 2005 D. R.A 4419

3. Instances where contributory negligence maybe due to: I. Failure to give dentist an accurate history II. Failure to follow the instruction of treatment recommended III. Failure to seek further assistance if symptoms persist IV. Refer to fellow dentist Correct answer is: A. III, IV,I B. I, III C. II,III D.II, I

4. Service of summons or pleadings to the respondents maybe made by: A. all of these B. personally to the party of his attorney C. leaving it at his office with his clerk or secretary D. through registered mail

5. Routine sterilization of facilities includes: A. Hand piece B. Dental Unit and chair C. Cuspidor and drainage systems D. all of these

6. What law provides the creation of the advancement of dental research? A. R.A 4419 B. R.A 6675 C. R.A 417 D. R.A 1191

7. The present congress of the Republic of the Philippines is: A. Parliamentary B. all of these C. bicameral D. uni cameral

8. The following are necessary for infection control except: A. chlorine releasing agents B. barrier plastic wraps C. ethyl/phenol disinfectants D. none of these

9.Reasons why patients do not change patients A. appreciative to his attitudes B. all of these C. the trust and confidence D. fees are reasonable

10. The professional fee was being returned by the patient for the alleged ill fitting Hawley plate. The dentist was charged for malpractice. How will you assess the case? A. Patient has the right to demand for the return of his payment. B. Patient has the right and a dentist party enters into contract and was consummated as man is not a guarantor of all good C. Dentist has the right to refuse to return payment D. Dentist is guilty of malpractice

11.Res ipsa loquitor as applied in case involving a dentist work may be availed of: A. in favor of the dentist and against the dentist B. against the dentist C. neither in favor of the dentist nor against the dentist D. in favor of the dentist

12. When a dentist has an entire disregard and indifference to consequence for the safety and welfare of others A. Gross negligence B. Incompetent C. Ignorance D. all of these

13. The primary responsibility of a dentist A. to help in the promotion of health commiserate with his knowledge of experience B. all of these C. to help in the promotion o health commiserate with his knowledge and experience and giving him always the best of his talent and skills D. to serve and care for his patient with utmost solitude

14. A petition for certiorari is one that A. petitions the court to command an agency to perform a duty B. petitions the court to review the decision, order for award for all agencies C. petitions the court to award an office of franchise D. petitions the court to prevent an impending injury

15. The judicial relation resulting from a lawful voluntary and unilateral act. A. negotiorum gestio B. quasi contract C. quasi delict D. solution indebti

16. A dentist was appointed as a member of the board of dentistry while out of the country and another one is appointed and took his oath of office and assumes his duties, who is entitled to the position? A. the first appointee is valid B. both appointee are valid so they have to share their term C. both appointments shall be cancelled D. the second appointee has the right to assume

17. Any person who is a member of a political community acquired by birth or by legal means is: A. Citizen B. member of congress C. alien D. bonafide member of an organization

18. Any person who practice dentistry not within scope describe to practice legally acceptable is guilty of: A. both of them B. misdemeanor C. none of them D. felony

19. Kinds of quasi contract:

20. When an agreement of two or more persons to do or not to do something which could either be express or implied is known as: A. both consent and contract B. consent C. contract D. obligation

21. Can Dr. Unang Haris certification of registration cannot be issued as his wife filled a complaint before the PRC that he has a criminal case of adultery pending before the court? A. can be issued as there is no decision of the case B. cannot be issued because of the complaint C. it cannot be issued unless ordered by the court D. may not be issued upon the recommendation of the board

22. Practice management deals with the relation of dentist with A. fellow dentist B. patients C. other professionals D. all of these

23. Under the Philippine law of the revised Penal Code of the following are criminally liable except: A. accessories B. Victim C. Principals D. accomplish

24.Dr. King entered to a fictitious contract to a government employee so as to lower his income of tax payment. thin contract is: A. void or unforced B. void and in existent C. voidable and annullable D.voidable or unforceable

25. Establishing and maintaining a good practice is by: A. charging and collecting professional fees B. employing an advertising agent C. modernizing the clinic and update materials D. advertise through news papers

26. What are elements of privilege communication? EXCEPT A. the information was given by another person B. the information may tend to blacken the character of the patient C. Duly authorize to practice D. the information is necessary to diagnose and treat

27. An organization of physical resources A. the concept of management B. judicial use of capital investment C. documentation of procedures and records D. the information is necessary to diagnose and treat

28. If the dentist accidentally injured the patient during treatment what evidence must be presented for acquittal? A. The act was done with due care and with o intention to cause injury B. as there was no control of the situation C. there was no malicious intention D. the act was lawful

29. The second dental law in the Philippines: A. Act 2276 B Act 2462 C. Act 2381 D. Act 2227

30. What constitute a unprofessional conduct? I. malpractice to the detriment of the patients health II. Improper presentation as to the character of the evidences performed III. mutilation of teeth for personal interest IV. total disregard of ethics or the traditional gentlemanly defortment of the profession A. I, III,IV C. I, II, III

B. I, II, III, IV

D. I,IV

31. A well informed management can achieve a clinics maximum potentials: A. false B. a well planned project prior to implementation C. true D. depends on the circumstances

32. How is instrument identification by color accomplished? A. tray selection B. instrument handles is tapped with heat colored C. wrapping with plastic D. painting a color in each instrument

33. Who could revoke or suspend a certificate of registration A. PRC B. all of these C. Court of justice D. CHED

34. Which of the statement on practice management listed below is/are correct? A. Dentistry must be considered as a profession guided by good principle of a business conduct B. extension of credit is a must in fee collection C. children patients may be involved in practice building programs D. it is proper for dentist to guarantee their services

35. The doctrine where the dentist is answerable for the acts of his staff A. Suprema ast lex B. Respondent Superior C. Common knowledge D. So- ipso- loquitor

36. The suspension for more than one year of the certificate of registration of a dentist for violation of RA 6675, otherwise known as the Generics Act of 1998 will be imposed: A. for the fourth conviction B. for the second conviction C. for the third conviction D. for the fifth conviction

37.Consideration in affecting broken appointments: A. neither of these B. insufficient notice for the dentist to re appoint

C. patient has given enough time for the dentist to use the time for another patient

38. What is/are the requisites for the application of res ipsa loquitor I. The accident must be o a kind which does not occur in the absence of someones negligence II. Must be caused by an agency within the exclusive control of the dependents. III must have not been due to any voluntary action or contribution of the part of the plantiff. the answer is: A. I only B. II, III C. III only D. I,II E. I, II, III

39. Can an alien who is a dentist be allowed to practice here? A. not possible B. no, he is not registered C. when the country of origin has reprocity D. yes, as a duly practicing professional

40. When can an individual be exempted from complying with his legal obligation? I. national events II force majeure III. fortuitous events IV. Natural Calamities The answer is: A. II, II , IV B. I, II , III C. I, III, IV D. I, III, IV

41. What is the right and duty of the dentist in the management of patients? A. as to frequency of appointments B. the duration o treatments C. all of these D. the proper cause of action

42.What are the advantages of being member of a dental society? I. promotes camaraderie spirit de corps and cohesiveness II. It enhances the sharing of knowledge and keeping abreast with new developments III. It increases the status and prestige IV. It increases the income as it accumulates patients V. given the opportunity to attend meetings generating new patients the answer is A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III, IV ,V D. I, II IV

43. The revised penal code provides the following are criminally liable I. principles II. Accomplices III. Accessories Iv. principals, accomplices, accessories, The correct answer is: A. I, IV B. II, III C. IV only D. I, II

44. A form of advertisement which tends to deceive or misled the public that makes an untruthful or impossible assertion contrary to law is: A. false advertisement B. extravagant advertisement C. all of these D. unethical advertisement

45. Does a holder of DMD, DDM, or DDS degree be considered as a legal practicing professional? A. No, a degree holder is not a sufficient to qualify to practice B. No, as an oath has not been administered C. Yes, as it is one of the qualifications D. Yes, as a degree is granted by a reputable dental school

46. The basic concept of dental practice, EXCEPT I. Have an updated journals and publication II .participation on seminars and symposium III. Continuous awareness to provide for the financial gains IV. Joining social groups to enhance popularity Correct answer: A. I, II, III B. I, II C. III, IV D. II, III, IV

47. Where does the revocation o a dentist certificate of registration is based? A. revised penal code B. the new civil code C. all of these D. the police power of the state

48. Liabilities in the administration of the drugs must follow the different rights. I. right drug II. right dose III. right route IV. right prescription The correct answer is: A. III, I B. II, I, IV C. II, III D. I, II, III

49. Composition of the Council of dental education are the following except: A. Member of the PDA in good standing B. Filipino Citizen C. Undertaken 2 years post graduate program D. minimum clinical practice of 5 years

50. When was the first educational meeting in the council o dental education? A. June 17, 1966 B. January 20, 1968 C. January 16, 1965 D. July 5, 1967

51. What violation of a person if a subpoena is issued to anyone failed to comply with court order? A. guilty of contempt B. a reason for cancellation of certificate of registration C. all of these D. can be penalized with fine

52. When may courts review finding of the board of dentistry? A. When the board acted in excess of its authority B. all of these C. When judgment is arbitrary or oppressive D. When the procedures are unreasonable

53. The president of the PDA endorses a particular dental product for the information of all dental practitioners. is there any violation committed? A. Malpractice B. R.A 4419 C. R.A 417 D. Code of ethics

54. The exercise of the profession to every citizen is a: A. right B. right and privilege C. none of these D. legal right

55. What determines the position of the operator, patient, assistant, and equipment A. arrangement B. prior preparation C. accessibility and ease of treatment D. organization

56. What is the framework of governmental organization? A. Constitutional B. Civil Law C. Commercial Law D. Administrative Law

57. When will the certificate of registration be suspended for more than one year for the violation of RA 6657? A. for the fourth conviction B. for the first conviction C. for the second conviction D. for the third conviction

58. What rule should be considered in the selection of the auxillaries? A. Accept compulsiveness as an overall rule B. be a perfectionist C. be a compulsive dentist D. a systemic process o self analysis

59. The general supervision over foreigners authorize to practice in our country is: A. Professional Regulations Commission B. A and C only C. Board of dentistry D. None of them

60. Basis of police power except: A. Salus populi supra est lex B. The will of the people is the supreme law C. Jurisprudence D. Constitution of the Philippines

61. The suggested rule for good public relations A. Make sure the patient understand the payment plan C. Present case according to your ability D. Take time to acquaint yourself with the patient E. Do something to the patient to show your ability B. all of these

62. An offense committed contrary to principles of ethics, justice and honesty involves: A. Moral turpitude B. dishonorable conduct C. criminal offense D. civil offense

63. Dental records maybe non-acceptable due to A. Non-uniformity of nomenclature B. focus only on problems being treated C. lapse of time D. none of these

64. Classification of obligation A. divisible and undivisible B. joint and soidary C. alternative D. pure and conditional E. all of them

65. Individuals violating any provisions of RA 1542 is punishable by: A. reprimand and suspended sentence B. fine an imprisonment at the discretion of the court C. important not less than 3 months and not more than P 300,000 fine D. fine of P200.00 but not less than P2,000.00 or imprisonment or both

66. Violation of the code of ethics shall be first resolved by: A. Committee on arbitration of the PDA B. Council of the past PDA president C. Judicial committee of the chapter D. Courts of Justices The correct answer is: A.III, IV B. II, III C. I, III D. II, IV

67. No matter how good the defense as beyond reasonable doubt, the best way to prove innocence is through: A. Acceptable, moral and legal B. Use of dental records and from an expert witness C. use of dental records D. all of these E. From an expert witness

68. The Philippine Dental ACT of 1965 A. R.A 4419 B. R. A 417 C. R.A 2711 D. R.A 768

69. The ways of terminating official relation A. abandonment and death B. expiration of term of office and resignation and abandonment and death C. expiration of term of office and resignation D. expiration of term of office and resignation, abandonment and death and abolition and death E. abolition of office

70. Pertinent Dental data includes the following EXCEPT: A. Personal Data B. existing restoration C. social status D. operative fillings

71. Professional success is measured by: A. most popular among his peers B. annual income continuously increases C. professional service and civic activities in the community D. all of them

72. Which of the recent modern type of dental board is acceptable A. disc recording B. voice recordings C. video tapes D. computer prints

73.The following should be posted in a dental office in public view EXCEPT: A. Certificate of registration from the PRC B. Mayor or Municipal permit C. College diploma D. Professional tax receipt

74. The latest requirement for a dentist to practice is: A. Mayors Permit B. PRC registration C. Barangay Permit D. payment of PTR

75. Professional decorum refers to: A. good study habits C. high clinical competence B. all of these D. good behavior of conduct in public

78. Who are excluded from the definition of the practice of dentistry based on RA 4419 I. Technicians who are engaged in the mechanical construction of artificial devices as other procedure done in the oral cavity. II. Dental students under strict supervision of competent registered dentist III. Dental students under the supervision of a faculty member where the students studied IV. Dental hygienist can act as assistant of a registered dentist The answer is : A. II-III-IV B. I-II-IV C. I-II-III-IV D. I-III-IV

79. How can you increase the earnings and reduce strain? A. not to be coward C. basic ongoing training program B. good decision making D. continued self understanding

80. R.A. 4419 provision EXCEPT: A. all of them B. regulation and promotion of dental practice C. the regulation of prosthetic laboratories D. The issuance of the certificate of registration E. the promotion of dental research

81. A contract that has been complied with the satisfaction of both parties concerned is considered as: A. consummated B. preparatory C. perfected contract D. compulsory

82. Dental professionals should pursue continuing dental education because A. income generating process B. It is the obligation of every dentist C. all of these D. this reflects a good social standing in the community

83. What regulatory body is responsible for the accreditation of dental schools? 84. Republic Act 6675 is also known as the: A. General Acts- Generics B. Third Dental Law ` C. Dangerous Drugs Act D. First Dental Law

85. When was the practical board examination was abolished based on a resolution No.8 by the Board of Examiners? A. Jan. 6, 1903 B. June 10, 1946 C. Dec. 4, 1947 D. Nov. 29, 1954

86. A dentist who practice in a n exclusive subdivision and meets the needs of the community because: A. have developed rapport in the community B. all of these C. he is respected in the community D. is considerate with his patients

87. what are the salient changes of R.A 417 to the dental act of 1965? I. The increase in the numbers of board members from 3 to 5 II. The term of office of the chairman is for two (2) years III. The term of office of the members of the board from 3 to five years IV. The minimum requirement of 21 years of applicant for examination is deleted V. The minimum requirement of 30 years old for the members of the board is deleted The answer is: A. I-II-IV-V B. I-III-V C. I-II-III-IV-V D. I-III-IV-V

88. May a Filipino balikbayan professional registered allowed to practice in the Philippines? I. Yes, provided they are practitioners of good standing and duly registered II. Yes, if they have the permission from the PRC III. Yes, under the provision of PD 541 IV. No, as they are considered as an alien The correct answer is: A. I-II B. I-II-III C. I-II-III-IV D. IV only

89. Force majeure refers to as: A. an act to resist temptation B. an act of God that which cannot be prevented C. inability to resist temptation D. that which manifest natural calamity

90. The inherent power of the state: A. taxation C. eminent domain E. police power 91. When can a dentist be justified? A. patient is a neighbor C. patient is a relative E. when patient is indigent B. patient is a neighbor and a relative D. all of these B. all of these D. police power and eminent domain

92. One of the ways by which a felony is committed thru culpa by reason includes the following: I. lack of foresight and negligence II. lack of modern debtal instrument III. lack of skill and imprudence IV. lack of proper supervision The answer is: A. I-II B. I-III C. II-III D. III- IV

93. In a widely circulated newspaper appears the picture of an officer of the PDA that endorses a dental product. Is there any violation of the action? A. Yes, it has favored a particular product B. Yes, it has favored a particular product and the endorsement violated the code of ethics C. Yes, the endorsement violated the code of ethics D. No, as it was done for the benefit of the general public

94. What is the aim on the provision of the dental law, EXCEPT: A. to upgrade the quality of education B. to qualify the admission of dental students C. to regulate the standardized dental schools D. All o these E. to give licensure examination

95. An injury caused to a patient where it produced loss of the sense of taste of said patient, could make the dentist liable for: A. less physical injuries thru reckless imprudence B. less serious physical injuries thru dentist liable for C. none of the above D. slight physical injuries thru reckless imprudence

ORTHODONTICS AND PEDODONTICS

1. The growth of the skull is by: a. internal remodeling c. appositional growth b. sutural growth d. oppositional and natural growth

2. During an emergency dental visit, a moderately retarded 5 y/o child patient resists and cries excessively. In this instance, which of the following should you apply? a. voice control c. sedative b. local anesthesia d. restraints

3. Pseudo Class II: a. it is an osseous dysplasia c. it is dental anomaly b. it is anomalies in number d. it is anomalies in size and shape

4. Which of the following will occur in orthodontic treatment? a. all of these b. cementum resorption and increase mobility of teeth c. cementum resorption and gingival irritation d. demineralization of enamel adjacent to the appliance in patients with poor oral hygiene.

5. The following are essential criteria for orthodontic diagnosis excluding: a. case history b. radiographic analysis c. case analysis d. clinical examination

6. A child with Class I malocclusion lost the maxillary central incisors following an accident. The best treatmnent is: a. move lateral incisors to central incisors position. b. fix partial using the lateral incisors as abutments. c. construct a space maintainer with bands cemented on lateral incisors d. place a temporary prosthesis to replace the lost cntral incisor.

7. Which of the following is related to occipital anchorage in Class III malocclusion? a. occipital occlusion b. extra oral force c. bodily tooth movement d. tapping of tooth

8. A broad understanding of the "development" of human behavior requires a knowledge of the basic concepts of: a. masculinity anfd femininity c. maturation and learning b. generalization and facilitation d. discipline and freewill

9. Localized spacings between the central incisors: a. it is an osseous dysplasia c. it is anomalies in size and shape b. it is dental anomaly d. it is anomalies in number.

10. In patients with Class I malocclusions, how does length or circumference mesial to permanent mandibular fiest molars changes between 5 and 18 yeras of age? a. it generally increases 2-3 mm c. it generally increases 0-1 mm b. it genreally decreases 0-1 mm d. it generally decreased 3-4 mm

11. In determining a group of malocclusions (angle) is: a. The prevalence differs among localities b. Class I c. Class II d. Class III

12. For what malocclusion is a brass ligature wire used as one type of treatment? a. an ectopically erupting permanent molar b. unilateral posterior crossbite c. an exterior crossbite d. a maxillary midline diastema

13. Cephalometry, like a radiograph, is a diagnostic aid in preparing a treatment plan for orthodontics because it provides information regarding: a. relation of the mandibular molar to the mandibular basal bone. b. progress of orthodontic treatment and relation of maxillary and mandibular basal bone to the cranial base c. progress of orthodontic treatment d. relation of maxillary and mandibular basal bone to the cranial base

14. Because it is often overlooked by clinicians, this enamel crazing appears a split line which: a. it reaches the dentino enamel junction b. just below the CEJ c. it penetrated the dentin d. do not cross the dentino enamel junction

15. How can we explain the mechanism of tooth eruption? a. bone building process b. increase osteoclastic activity in the base of the crypt c. cell proliferate at the base of the crypt d. exchange of cells at the base of crypt

16. The mandible grows downward and forward by: a. resorption of the inferior border of the body of the mandible b. deposition of bone in the alveolar process c. anterior placement of the symphysis menti d. condylar growth

17. A cooperative 6y/o child has a carious lesion in his primary mandibular second molar. There is no tooth sinus tract adjacent to the tooth. Which of the following is the treatment of choice? a. indirect pulp therapy c. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy b. pulpectomy d. extraction

18. Moving teeth with continious heavy orthodontic force may cause? a. resorption of dentin b. undermine resorption of alveolar bone c. devitalize teeth d. all of these

19. A 5y/o patient with massive cellulitis of dental origin, responded to tetracycline and the possible effects will later be seen among: a. primary centrals c. primary second molars b. primary laterals d. primary canines and second molars

20. The most prevalent group of malocclusion: a. Class III c. Class I b. depends upon its locality d. Class II

21. An 11y/o patient have lost a primary 2nd molar, the choice of treatment is: a. observe the case to prevent drifting of first permanent molar b. delay treatment until fix bridge can be constructed c. allow healing of extraction wound for 3 months before constructing a replacement d. to provide a space maintainer

22. The primary tooth replaced by permanent tooth is the: a. maxillary canine c. 2nd molar b. 2nd bicuspids d. 1st premolars

23. What orthodontic procedure should be treated in preschool child? a. anterior crossbite b. contriction of maxillary arch c. all of these d. thumb sucking

24. Congenitally, missing teeth is an associated developmental disturbance with: a. function c. eruption b. exfoliation d. formation

25. In orthodontic tooth movement, the greatest pressure in the periodontal ligament are characterized by: a. hyalization b. infiltration neutrophils c. infiltration of osteoclast and macrophages; and hyalization d. infiltration of osteoclast and macrophages

26. Heavy forces applied continiously and actively over a distance beyond the thickness of the periodontal ligament will cause: a. strangulation of the periodontal fibers b. increase periodontal space c. resorption of the roots d. deposition of bone

27. A child who has a distal step in the primary dentition, generally develops into which of the following molar relationships in the permanent dentition? a. Class III c. Class II b. Class I d. none of these

28. Which of the following primary teeth are the most severely involved with nursing caries? a. second molars b. canines c. maxillary incisors d. mandibular incisors

29. Mesial drift may occur as a result of: a. interproximal attrition and premature loss of primary molars b. premature loss of primary molars c. interproximal attrition d. interdental attrition

30. To analyze space in mix dentition, the most careful estimate will be accurate within: a. 6.0 mm b. 4.0 mm c. 0.5 mm d. 2.0 mm

31. What is the disadvantage of using a cervical year as a treatment procedure? a. extrusion of maxillary incisors b. psychological trauma due to appearance c. there is an extrusion of maxillary molar d. impaction of maxillary canine

32. Mesiodens between the maxillary centrals: a. it is anomalies in size and shape b. it is anomalies in number c. it is an osseous dysplasia d. it is dental anomaly

33. The space which had closed rapidly after premature loss of primary mandibular canine can result in: a. mesial migration of molars on the affected side b. lateral and lingual migration of mandibular incisor c. canine spaces do not close d. lingual migration of mandibular incisors

34. An 8y/0 patient has an end-on molar relation and normal vertical and horizontal overlap. The mandibular lateral incisors are erupting slightly lingual. The dentist should: a. continue routine dental care and developmental supervision b. refer him to an orthodontist c. institute orthodontic therapy to reposition the lateral incisors and to correct the Class II molar relation d. insert a lingual arch

35. The absence of pulp chambers is suggestive of: a. Amelogenesis imperfect c. Dentinogenesis imperfect b. Cleidocranial dysostosis d. Down's syndrome

36. Development id another physico-chemical process in living organisms which: a. occurs mainly after birth of a living organism b. taking palce in a specific direction in life of an organism c. influence growth and development d. encompasses the normal sequential events between fertilization and death

37. Bilateral alveolar contriction: a. it is anomallies in number b. it is dental anomally c. it is anomallies in size and shape d. it is an osseous dysplasia

38. The matrix of plaque consists of: a. dextran and levan b. trophaus c. levan d. dextran

39. Upon asfextraction of a primary second molar on a 7 y/o child for orthodontic reasons, the apical third of the root was fractured and remain in situ. What should the dentist do? a. remove the fractured root tip with an elevator b. prescribe penicillin to prevent infection c. a surgical flop on the buccal is a must d. allow the root tip to remain in place and observe periodically

40. For an 8y/o child with a good posterior occlusion, no arcg length deficiency left central incisor is rotated with a large midline diastema, the procedure of choice is: a. rotate the tooth with an appliance b. radiograph to rule-out supernumerary tooth c. frenectomy d. administer thyroid hormone to stimulate eruption of lateral incisors

41. Cranial growth and development occurs between: a. 18-20 yrs old c. birth to 5 yrs old b. 10-12 yrs old d. 6-8 yrs old

42. What is the correct sequence of eruption of permanent dentition? a. all of these b. maxillary canine erupt after premolars

c. mandibular central incisors erupt at the same time as 1st molars d. mandibular canine erupt before premolars

43. What is the treatment of choice for traumatic intrusion of primary anterior teeth? a. recall patient in one month b. splinting of tooth c. taking radiographs d. taking radiographs and recall patient in one month

44. Trauma to the permanent anterior tooth without fracture leads to: a. pulp necrosis will occur only if treatment were delayed b. necrotic pulp c. immediate pulpal death d. mobile teeth

45. During a dental visit, the child may attempt to test the dentist with uncooperative behavior, what should the dentist do? a. assert authority and require cooperation b. dismiss the child and reappoint when better cooperation can be expected c. engage the child in conversation d. bribe the child with a gift

46. In order to reduce salivation prior to cementing orthodontic bands, which of the following drugs might be used? a. gentian violet b. atropine c. pilocarpine d. meprobamate

47. What is the usual cause of failure of a pulpotomy that employs calcium hydroxide in primary molars? a. internal resorption b. pulp calcification c. ankylosis d. pulp fibrosis

48. In patients between 5 and 18 yrs of age with Class I malocclusion there is a change in the length or circumference mesial to the permanent mandibular first molar. Does it increase or decrease? a. it increases by 2-3 mm b. it decreases by 0.1 mm c. it increases by 0.1 mm d. it decreases by 3-4 mm

49. A patient, 9y/o with good posterior occlusion, no arch length deficiency left central incisor is rotated with a large midline diastema; the procedure of choice is to: a. extract primary canine to eruption of lateral incisor b. excise the labial frenum c. examine for supernumerary teeth d. rotate maxillary central incisor with an appliance

50. A brass ligature wire as one type of treatment for the following type of malocclusion: a. ectopically erupting permanent molar b. unilateral posterior permanent molar c. anterior crossbite d. maxillary midline diastema

51. In an 8y/o child with good posterior occlusion without arch length deficiency but with left central incisor rotated mesially. There is a large midline diastema. What procedure will you suggest? a. fan-shape labial frenum for excisor b. rule out supernumerary teeth c. stimulate eruption of the lateral incisors by injecting thyroid hormone. d. rotate tooth with an appliance

52. Which of the following is least likely to influence the anteroposterior position of incisor? a. tongue- buccinator mechanism b. congenital absence of third molars c. being a concert clarinetist d. size of the apical base

53. Response of the alveolar bone to orthodontic forces: a. bone is deposited at pressure sites and resorption at tension sites b. alveolar bone do not respond to orthodontic forces unless the individual is growing c. bone resorption d. movement of teeth and stimulation of jaw growth

54. Resorption of the primary roots is a/an: a. inborn defect of primary teeth b. pathologic process c. acquired anomaly d. physiologic process

55. Non- fusion of the palatal shelves results into:

a. cleft palate b. cleft lip c. Treacher- Collins syndrome d. midline cleft

56. Which of the following is related to occipital anchorage used in Class III malocclusion? a. bodily tooth movement b. extra-oral force c. topping of tooth d. occipital occlusion

57. What antidote is given when 5cc of 10% Flouride solution is accidentally swallowed by a child? a. give the child milk to drink or other calcium containing liquid b. give 10% sodium bicarbonate to drink c. bring to the hospital for immediate attention d. give enough quantity of water to vomit

58. In orthodontics, which of the following landmark is used to evaluate craniofacial growth? a. nasal floor b. cranial vault c. anterior cranial base d. nasomaxillary complex

59. An 8y/o child had good posterior occlusion and without arch length deficiency but with left central incisor rotated mesially. There is a large medial diastema. What procedure will you suggest? a. stimulate the eruption of the lateral incisors by injecting thyroid hormone b. fan-shape labial frenum for excision c. rule-out supernumerary teeth d. rotate tooth with an appliance

60. To control dental caries and periodontal diseases in a community, motivation for regular dental care with water floridation and control of diet especially sweets is important: a. none of these b. the second statement is true and first statement is false c. the second statement is true and second statement is false d. the first statement is true and second statement is false

61. Bilateral alveolar contriction: a. it is anomalies in number b. it is an osseous dysplasia

c. it is anomalies in size and shape d. it is dental anomaly

62. Treatment for an apthous lesion includes: a. palliative treatment b. administration of tetracycline liquid c. topical application of mycostatin d. treat with penicillin V q 4hours

63. The space which has closed rapidly after premature loss of primary mandibular canine will most likely lead to: a. mesial migration of molars on the affected side b. lingual migration of mandibular incisors c. canine spaces do not close d. lateral and lingual migration of mandibular incisors

64. What can be done for geographic tongue noted in late childhood? a. antibiotic to relieve infection b. the use of nystatin rubbed against the surface c. excision of the discrete lesion d. no treatment is indicated

65.During the first dental appointment of a child, the dentist can begin to train EXCEPT: a. showing, telling and doing each intrument and equipment b. nervous child by sedating him immediately c. expressing appreciation of good behavior by means of a gift d. maintain a quiet, controlled office

66. What is the recommended filling material for root canals of primary teeth? a. calcium hydroxide b. guttapercha c. Barium sulfate d. zinc oxide-eugenol

67. Moving teeth with continious heavy orthodontic force may cause: a. undermine resorption of alveolar bone b. resorption of dentin c. devitalize teeth d. all of these

68. A removable maxillary expansion appliance is designed primarily to? a. tip maxillary posterior teeth in a lateral direction b. move bodily the maxillary popsterior teeth in a lateral direction c. correct anterior cross-bite d. open maxillary sutures

69. Bone increases in size: a. by changing dimensions and proportions b. by expansion within its core c. by altering its shape to conform to progressively new positions. d. by uniform over-all addition on its external surfaces

70. Which of the following is the effective way to prevent or delay dental caries in children? a. community water flouridation b. topical flouride application c. dietary control (avoiding sweets) d. regular visits to the dentist and flouridation of drinking water

71. A behavior manifested by a child staring into space, twisting strands of hair about the fingers and behaves as if he did not hear anyone speaking to him: a. overprotected child b. mental retardate c. autism d. childhood anxiety

72. Class I type 3: a. it is an osseous dysplasia b. it is dental anomaly c. it is anomalies in size and shape d. it is anomalies in number

73. The environmental factors affecting growth are: a. environment b. physiologic conditions c. nutrition d. nutrition, environment, physiologic conditions

74. The last primary tooth to be replaced by a permanent tooth is usually the: a. mandibular 2nd molar b. maxillary 1st molar

c. mandibular canine d. maxillary canine

75. To maintain the dental arch on 7y/o child with premature loss of dicidous second molar, what procedure will youy consider in preparing a space maintainer? a. mix dentition study model analysis b. analyze the cephalogram c. evaluate teeth relationship through a panoramic radiograph d. intraoral radiopgraphs to measure tooth and space size

76. What is your choice of treatment for a non-vital, permanent incisor with wide root apex? a. pulp capping b. retrograde c. pulpotomy d. root canal therapy and filling the root canal with calcium hydroxide and CMCP

77. Indirect pulp capping of primary molars is indicated for: a. extensive care of continious dental pain b. removal of decay has exposed the pulp c. carious lesion is extensive so that pulp exposure is possible d. carious dentine-enamel junction

78. When you accidentally expose the pulp during excavation of carious dentin in a permanent first molar of a 7y/o child, a pinpoint exposure was detected, the treatment of choice is to: a. root canal b. cap the exposure c. pulpotomy should be performed d. extraction of the tooth

79. Assuming that there is a maxillary central incisor x-bite, when is the best time to correct the malocclusion? a. to correct as soon as central incisors begin to erupt b. after the permanent central incisors erupt c. after permanent lateral incisors erupt d. wait for cuspids to erupt

80. A primary molar may be ankylosed because of: a. delayed eruption of succeding premolar b. failure of calcification of the permanent successor c. loss of arch length d. loss of arch length and delayed eruption of succeding premolar

81. Which of the following should not be given to hemophilic patients? a. epsilon aminicaproic acid\ b. aspirin c. penicillin d. diphenylhydantoin sodium

82. Six hours ago, a 12y/o girl fell and fractured her maxillary left central incisor at the gingival level tissue. The pulp was exposed. Which of the following is the treatment of choice? a. extraction and place space maintainer b. pulpotomy c. complete root canal treatment d. pulpectomy and placement of calcium hydroxide

83. Myofunctional therapy, an adjunct to mechanotherapy was introduced by? a. Dr. Allan Brodie b. Dewy and Andersons c. Dr. Alfred Rogers d. Andrews

84. Primary dentition usually presents: a. overlapping b. spaced dental arch c. closed dental arch d. spacing in the posteriors only

85. What routine postoperative instruction should be given to a child or his parents following a primary tooth extraction? a. the child should not eat or drink for the rest of the day b. the child's activity should be restricted for the ramainder of the day c. the parents should contact the dentist if there is any blood on the child's pillow the next morning d. the child should not bite his anesthetized lip or cheek

86. Cephalometry, loke a radiograph, is a diagnostic aid in preparing a treatment plan for orthodontics because it provides information regarding: a. progress of orthodontic treatment and relation of the mandibular molar to the mandibular basal bone b. progress of orthodontic treatment c. relation of the mandibular molar to the mandibular basal bone d. relation of maxillary and mandibular basal bone to the cranial base

87. Class I (Angle's system) is considered as:

a. neuromuscular dysfunction b. dental dysplasia c. dental dyscrasia d. osseous dysplasia

88. If the primary tooth is extracted prior to the onset of permanent eruptive movements: a. the permanent tooth is very likely to be delayed in its eruption b. there is loss of space c. the permanent tooth is very likely to be hastened in its eruption d. there is no effect in the permanent tooth

89. When the growth of the cranial vault increase in size after 2 years postnatal and completes its growth after 7 years old, What type of tissue was altered its growth? a. genital b. somatic c. neural d. dental

90. Pseudo Class II: a. it is anomalies in number b. it is dental anomally c. it is anomalies in size and shape d. it is an osseous dysplasia

91. The oral shield or screen is highly recommended for children with: a. anterior close bite b. lip-tongue sucking habit c. check sucking habit d. anterior cross bite

92.The first skeletal cephalometric finding in a patient with a history of cleft palate and anterior cross bite would be: a. mandibular protrusion b. maxillary retrusion and mandibular protrusion c. maxillary protrusion d. normal maxillary position