BURNS

1. The newly admitted client has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. How should this injury be categorized? A. Superficial B. Partial-thickness superficial C. Partial-thickness deep D. Full thickness 2. The newly admitted client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears red, has blisters, and is very painful. How should this injury be categorized? A. Superficial B. Partial-thickness superficial C. Partial-thickness deep D. Full thickness 3. The burned client newly arrived from an accident scene is prescribed to receive 4 mg of morphine sulfate by IV push. What is the most important reason to administer the opioid analgesic to this client by the intravenous route? A. The medication will be effective more quickly than if given intramuscularly. B. It is less likely to interfere with the clients breathing and oxygenation. C. The danger of an overdose during fluid remobilization is reduced. D. The client delayed gastric emptying. 4. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be a long-term consequence of a full-thickness burn injury? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D 5. Which client factors should alert the nurse to potential increased complications with a burn injury? A. The client is a 26-year-old male. B. The client has had a burn injury in the past. C. The burned areas include the hands and perineum. D. The burn took place in an open field and ignited the clients clothing. 6. The burned client is ordered to receive intravenous cimetidine, an H2 histamine blocking agent, during the emergent phase. When the clients family asks why this drug is being given, what is the nurses best response? A. To increase the urine output and prevent kidney damage. B. To stimulate intestinal movement and prevent abdominal bloating. C. To decrease hydrochloric acid production in the stomach and prevent ulcers. D. To inhibit loss of fluid from the circulatory system and prevent hypovolemic shock. 7. At what point after a burn injury should the nurse be most alert for the complication of hypokalemia? A. Immediately following the injury B. During the fluid shift

C. During fluid remobilization D. During the late acute phase 8. What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a client who experienced a burn injury during a house fire? A. Pulse oximetry reading of 80% B. Expiratory stridor and nasal flaring C. Cherry red color to the mucous membranes D. Presence of carbonaceous particles in the sputum 9. What clinical manifestation indicates that an escharotomy is needed on a circumferential extremity burn? A. The burn is full thickness rather than partial thickness. B. The client is unable to fully pronate and supinate the extremity. C. Capillary refill is slow in the digits and the distal pulse is absent. D. The client cannot distinguish the sensation of sharp versus dull in the extremity. 10. What additional laboratory test should be performed on any African American client who sustains a serious burn injury? A. Total protein B. Tissue type antigens C. Prostate specific antigen D. Hemoglobin S electrophoresis 11. Which type of fluid should the nurse expect to prepare and administer as fluid resuscitation during the emergent phase of burn recovery? A. Colloids B. Crystalloids C. Fresh-frozen plasma D. Packed red blood cells 12. The client with a dressing covering the neck is experiencing some respiratory difficulty. What is the nurses best first action? A. Administer oxygen. B. Loosen the dressing. C. Notify the emergency team. D. Document the observation as the only action. 13. The client who experienced an inhalation injury 6 hours ago has been wheezing. When the client is assessed, wheezes are no longer heard. What is the nurses best action? A. Raise the head of the bed. B. Notify the emergency team. C. Loosen the dressings on the chest. D. Document the findings as the only action. 14. Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL. What is the nurses best action? A. Notify the emergency team. B. Document the finding as the only action. C. Ask the client if anyone in her family has diabetes mellitus. D. Slow the intravenous infusion of dextrose 5% in Ringers lactate.

15. On admission to the emergency department the burned clients blood pressure is 90/60, with an apical pulse rate of 122. These findings are an expected result of what thermal injuryrelated response? A. Fluid shift B. Intense pain C. Hemorrhage D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 16. Twelve hours after the client was initially burned, bowel sounds are absent in all four abdominal quadrants. What is the nurses best action? A. Reposition the client onto the right side. B. Document the finding as the only action. C. Notify the emergency team. D. Increase the IV flow rate. 17. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the burned client is moving into the fluid remobilization phase of recovery? A. Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity B. Increased peripheral edema, decreased blood pressure C. Decreased peripheral pulses, slow capillary refill D. Decreased serum sodium level, increased hematocrit 18. What is the priority nursing diagnosis during the first 24 hours for a client with fullthickness chemical burns on the anterior neck, chest, and all surfaces of the left arm? A. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern B. Decreased Tissue Perfusion C. Risk for Disuse Syndrome D. Disturbed Body Image 19. All of the following laboratory test results on a burned clients blood are present during the emergent phase. Which result should the nurse report to the physician immediately? A. Serum sodium elevated to 131 mmol/L (mEq/L) B. Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L) C. Arterial pH is 7.32 D. Hematocrit is 52% 20. The client has experienced an electrical injury, with the entrance site on the left hand and the exit site on the left foot. What are the priority assessment data to obtain from this client on admission? A. Airway patency B. Heart rate and rhythm C. Orientation to time, place, and person D. Current range of motion in all extremities 21. In assessing the clients potential for an inhalation injury as a result of a flame burn, what is the most important question to ask the client on admission? A. Are you a smoker? B. When was your last chest x-ray? C. Have you ever had asthma or any other lung problem? D. In what exact place or space were you when you were burned?

22. Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the clients respiratory efforts are currently adequate? A. The client is able to talk. B. The client is alert and oriented. C. The clients oxygen saturation is 97%. D. The clients chest movements are uninhibited 23. Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the clients respiratory efforts are currently adequate? A. The client is able to talk. B. The client is alert and oriented. C. The clients oxygen saturation is 97%. D. The clients chest movements are uninhibited 24. The burned clients family ask at what point the client will no longer be at increased risk for infection. What is the nurses best response? A. When fluid remobilization has started. B. When the burn wounds are closed. C. When IV fluids are discontinued. D. When body weight is normal. 25. The burned client relates the following history of previous health problems. Which one should alert the nurse to the need for alteration of the fluid resuscitation plan? A. Seasonal asthma B. Hepatitis B 10 years ago C. Myocardial infarction 1 year ago D. Kidney stones within the last 6 month 26. The burned client on admission is drooling and having difficulty swallowing. What is the nurses best first action? A. Assess level of consciousness and pupillary reactions. B. Ask the client at what time food or liquid was last consumed. C. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi. D. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants. 27. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to use to prevent infection by crosscontamination in the client who has open burn wounds? A. Handwashing on entering the clients room B. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe C. Administering the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine D. Changing gloves between cleansing different burn areas 28. In reviewing the burned clients laboratory report of white blood cell count with differential, all the following results are listed. Which laboratory finding indicates the possibility of sepsis? A. The total white blood cell count is 9000/mm3. B. The lymphocytes outnumber the basophils. C. The bands outnumber the segs. D. The monocyte count is 1,800/mm3.

29. The client has a deep partial-thickness injury to the posterior neck. Which intervention is most important to use during the acute phase to prevent contractures associated with this injury? A. Place a towel roll under the clients neck or shoulder. B. Keep the client in a supine position without the use of pillows. C. Have the client turn the head from side to side 90 degrees every hour while awake. D. Keep the client in a semi-Fowlers position and actively raise the arms above the head every hour while awake. 30. The client has severe burns around the right hip. Which position is most important to be emphasized by the nurse that the client maintain to retain maximum function of this joint? A. Hip maintained in 30-degree flexion, no knee flexion B. Hip flexed 90 degrees and knee flexed 90 degrees C. Hip, knee, and ankle all at maximum flexion D. Hip at zero flexion with leg flat 31. During the acute phase, the nurse applied gentamicin sulfate (topical antibiotic) to the burn before dressing the wound. The client has all the following manifestations. Which manifestation indicates that the client is having an adverse reaction to this topical agent? A. Increased wound pain 30 to 40 minutes after drug application B. Presence of small, pale pink bumps in the wound beds C. Decreased white blood cell count D. Increased serum creatinine level 32. The client, who is 2 weeks postburn with a 40% deep partial-thickness injury, still has open wounds. On taking the morning vital signs, the client is found to have a below-normal temperature, is hypotensive, and has diarrhea. What is the nurses best action? A. Nothing, because the findings are normal for clients during the acute phase of recovery. B. Increase the temperature in the room and increase the IV infusion rate. C. Assess the clients airway and oxygen saturation. D. Notify the burn emergency team. 33. Which intervention is most important to use to prevent infection by autocontamination in the burned client during the acute phase of recovery? A. Changing gloves between wound care on different parts of the clients body. B. Avoiding sharing equipment such as blood pressure cuffs between clients. C. Using the closed method of burn wound management. D. Using proper and consistent handwashing. 34. When should ambulation be initiated in the client who has sustained a major burn? A. When all full-thickness areas have been closed with skin grafts B. When the clients temperature has remained normal for 24 hours C. As soon as possible after wound debridement is complete D. As soon as possible after resolution of the fluid shift 35. What statement by the client indicates the need for further discussion regarding the outcome of skin grafting (allografting) procedures? A. For the first few days after surgery, the donor sites will be painful. B. Because the graft is my own skin, there is no chance it wont take. C. I will have some scarring in the area when the skin is removed for grafting. D. Once all grafting is completed, my risk for infection is the same as it was before I was burned.

36. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of rehabilitation after burn injury? A. I will never be fully recovered from the burn. B. I am considered fully recovered when all the wounds are closed. C. I will be fully recovered when I am able to perform all the activities I did before my injury. D. I will be fully recovered when I achieve the highest possible level of functioning that I can. 37. Which statement made by the client with facial burns who has been prescribed to wear a facial mask pressure garment indicates correct understanding of the purpose of this treatment? A. After this treatment, my ears will not stick out. B. The mask will help protect my skin from sun damage. C. Using this mask will prevent scars from being permanent. D. My facial scars should be less severe with the use of this mask. 38. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client in the rehabilitative phase of recovery from a burn injury? A. Acute Pain B. Impaired Adjustment C. Deficient Diversional Activity D. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements 39. Nurse Faith should recognize that fluid shift in an client with burn injury results from increase in the: a. Total volume of circulating whole blood b. Total volume of intravascular plasma c. Permeability of capillary walls d. Permeability of kidney tubules 40. Louie, with burns over 35% of the body, complains of chilling. In promoting the clients comfort, the nurse should: a. Maintain room humidity below 40% b. Place top sheet on the client c. Limit the occurrence of drafts d. Keep room temperature at 80 degrees

Answers & Rationale

1. Answer: D The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury (color that is black, brown, yellow, white or red; no blisters; pain minimal; outer layer firm and inelastic). 2. Answer: B The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a superficial partialthickness injury (color that is pink or red; blisters; pain present and high). 3. Answer: C Although providing some pain relief has a high priority, and giving the drug by the IV route instead of IM, SC, or orally does increase the rate of effect, the most important reason is to prevent an overdose from accumulation of drug in the interstitial space during the fluid shift of the emergent phase. When edema is

present, cumulative doses are rapidly absorbed when the fluid shift is resolving. This delayed absorption can result in lethal blood levels of analgesics. 4. Answer: D Skin exposed to sunlight activates vitamin D. Partial-thickness burns reduce the activation of vitamin D. Activation of vitamin D is lost completely in fullthickness burns. 5. Answer: C Burns of the perineum increase the risk for sepsis. Burns of the hands require special attention to ensure the best functional outcome. 6. Answer: C Ulcerative gastrointestinal disease may develop within 24 hours after a severe burn as a result of increased hydrochloric acid production and decreased mucosal barrier. Cimetidine inhibits the production and release of hydrochloric acid. 7. Answer: C Hypokalemia is most likely to occur during the fluid remobilization period as a result of dilution, potassium movement back into the cells, and increased potassium excreted into the urine with the greatly increased urine output. 8. Answer: C The saturation of hemoglobin molecules with carbon monoxide and the subsequent vasodilation induces a cherry red color of the mucous membranes in these clients. The other manifestations are associated with inhalation injury, but not specifically carbon monoxide poisoning. 9. Answer: C Circumferential eschar can act as a tourniquet when edema forms from the fluid shift, increasing tissue pressure and preventing blood flow to the distal extremities and increasing the risk for tissue necrosis. This problem is an emergency and, without intervention, can lead to loss of the distal limb. This problem can be reduced or corrected with an escharotomy. 10. Answer: D Sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait are more common among African Americans. Although clients with sickle cell disease usually know their status, the client with sickle cell trait may not. The fluid, circulatory, and respiratory alterations that occur in the emergent phase of a burn injury could result in decreased tissue perfusion that is sufficient to cause sickling of cells, even in a person who only has the trait. Determining the clients sickle cell status by checking the percentage of hemoglobin S is essential for any African American client who has a burn injury. 11. Answer: B Although not universally true, most fluid resuscitation for burn injuries starts with crystalloid solutions, such as normal saline and Ringers lactate. The burn client rarely requires blood during the emergent phase unless the burn is complicated by another injury that involved hemorrhage. Colloids and plasma are not generally used during the fluid shift phase because these large particles pass through the leaky capillaries into the interstitial fluid, where they increase the osmotic pressure. Increased osmotic pressure in the interstitial fluid can worsen the capillary leak syndrome and make maintaining the circulating fluid volume even more difficult. 12. Answer: B Respiratory difficulty can arise from external pressure. The first action in this situation would be to loosen the dressing and then reassess the clients respiratory status. 13. Answer: B

Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they may lose effective movement of air. When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard and neither are breath sounds. The client requires the establishment of an emergency airway and the swelling usually precludes intubation. 14. Answer: B Neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of the burn injury in the emergent phase increases liver glucose production and release. An acute rise in the blood glucose level is an expected client response and is helpful in the generation of energy needed for the increased metabolism that accompanies this trauma. 15. Answer: A Intense pain and carbon monoxide poisoning increase blood pressure. Hemorrhage is unusual in a burn injury. The physiologic effect of histamine release in injured tissues is a loss of vascular volume to the interstitial space, with a resulting decrease in blood pressure. 16. Answer: B Decreased or absent peristalsis is an expected response during the emergent phase of burn injury as a result of neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of injury. No currently accepted intervention changes this response, and it is not the highest priority of care at this time. 17. Answer: A The fluid remobilization phase improves renal blood flow, increasing diuresis and restoring fluid and electrolyte levels. The increased water content of the urine reduces its specific gravity. 18. Answer: C During the emergent phase, fluid shifts into interstitial tissue in burned areas. When the burn is circumferential on an extremity, the swelling can compress blood vessels to such an extent that circulation is impaired distal to the injury, necessitating the intervention of an escharotomy. Chemical burns do not cause inhalation injury. 19. Answer: B All these findings are abnormal; however, only the serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious, life-threatening responses could result. With such a rapid rise in the potassium level, the client is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death. 20. Answer: B The airway is not at any particular risk with this injury. Electric current travels through the body from the entrance site to the exit site and can seriously damage all tissues between the two sites. Early cardiac damage from electrical injury includes irregular heart rate, rhythm, and ECG changes. 21. Answer: D The risk for inhalation injury is greatest when flame burns occur indoors in small, poorly ventilated rooms. although smoking increases the risk for some problems, it does not predispose the client for an inhalation injury. 22. Answer: C Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk, have good respiratory movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the maintenance of oxygen saturation within the normal range. 23. Answer: C Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk, have good respiratory movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the maintenance of oxygen saturation within the normal range. 24. Answer: B

Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at great risk for infection as long as any area of skin is open. 25. Answer: C It is likely the client has a diminished cardiac output as a result of the old MI and would be at greater risk for the development of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema during fluid resuscitation. 26. Answer: C Difficulty swallowing and drooling are indications of oropharyngeal edema and can precede pulmonary failure. The clients airway is in severe jeopardy and intubation is highly likely to be needed shortly. 27. Answer: A Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms from another person or the environment are transferred to the client. Although all the interventions listed above can help reduce the risk for infection, only handwashing can prevent crosscontamination. 28. Answer: C Normally, the mature segmented neutrophils (segs) are the major population of circulating leukocytes, constituting 55% to 70% of the total white blood count. Fewer than 3% to 5% of the circulating white blood cells should be the less mature band neutrophils. A left shift occurs when the bone marrow releases more immature neutrophils than mature neutrophils. Such a shift indicates severe infection or sepsis, in which the clients immune system cannot keep pace with the infectious process. 29. Answer: C The function that would be disrupted by a contracture to the posterior neck is flexion. Moving the head from side to side prevents such a loss of flexion. 30. Answer: D Maximum function for ambulation occurs when the hip and leg are maintained at full extension with neutral rotation. Although the client does not have to spend 24 hours at a time in this position, he or she should be in this position (in bed or standing) more of the time than with the hip in any degree of flexion. 31. Answer: D Gentamicin does not stimulate pain in the wound. The small, pale pink bumps in the wound bed are areas of re-epithelialization and not an adverse reaction. Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and sufficient amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds to affect kidney function. Any client receiving gentamicin by any route should have kidney function monitored. 32. Answer: D These findings are associated with systemic gram-negative infection and sepsis. This is a medical emergency and requires prompt attention. 33. Answer: A Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the same clients body, causing infection of a previously uninfected area. Although all techniques listed can help reduce the risk for infection, only changing gloves between carrying out wound care on difference parts of the clients body can prevent autocontamination. 34. Answer: D Regular, progressive ambulation is initiated for all burn clients who do not have contraindicating concomitant injuries as soon as the fluid shift resolves. Clients can be ambulated with extensive dressings, open wounds, and nearly any type of attached lines, tubing, and other equipment.

35. Answer: B Factors other than tissue type, such as circulation and infection, influence whether and how well a graft takes. The client should be prepared for the possibility that not all grafting procedures will be successful. 36. Answer: D Although a return to preburn functional levels is rarely possible, burned clients are considered fully recovered or rehabilitated when they have achieved their highest possible level of physical, social, and emotional functioning. 37. Answer: D The purpose of wearing the pressure garment over burn injuries for up to 1 year is to prevent hypertrophic scarring and contractures from forming. Scars will still be present. Although the mask does provide protection of sensitive newly healed skin and grafts from sun exposure, this is not the purpose of wearing the mask. The pressure garment will not change the angle of ear attachment to the head. 38. Answer: B Recovery from a burn injury requires a lot of work on the part of the client and significant others. Seldom is the client restored to the preburn level of functioning. Adjustments to changes in appearance, family structure, employment opportunities, role, and functional limitations are only a few of the numerous lifechanging alterations that must be made or overcome by the client. By the rehabilitation phase, acute pain from the injury or its treatment is no longer a problem. 39. Answer: C In burn, the capillaries and small vessels dilate, and cell damage cause the release of a histamine-like substance. The substance causes the capillary walls to become more permeable and significant quantities of fluid are lost. 40. Answer: C A Client with burns is very sensitive to temperature changes because heat is loss in the burn areas.

PAIN MANAGEMENT
1. A chronic pain client reports to you, the charge nurse, that the nurse have not been responding to requests for pain medication. What is your initial action? a. Check the MARs and nurses notes for the past several days. b. Ask the nurse educator to give an in-service about pain management. c. Perform a complete pain assessment and history on the client. d. Have a conference with the nurses responsible for the care of this client 2. Family members are encouraging your client to tough it out rather than run the risk of becoming addicted to narcotics. The client is stoically abiding by the familys wishes. Priority nursing interventions for this client should target which dimension of pain? a. Sensory b. Affective c. Sociocultural d. Behavioral e. Cognitive 3. A client with diabetic neuropathy reports a burning, electrical-type in the lower extremities that is not responding to NSAIDs. You anticipate that the physician will order which adjuvant medication for this type of pain? a. Amitriptyline (Elavil) b. Corticosteroids c. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) d. Lorazepam (Ativan) 4. Which client is most likely to receive opioids for extended periods of time? a. A client with fibrolyalgia b. A client with phantom limb pain c. A client with progressive pancreatic cancer d. A client with trigeminal neuralgia 5. As the charge nurse, you are reviewing the charts of clients who were assigned to a newly graduated RN. The RN has correctly charted dose and time of medication, but there is no documentation regarding non-pharmaceutical measures. What action should you take first? a. Make a note in the nurses file and continue to observe clinical performance b. Refer the new nurse to the in-service education department. c. Quiz the nurse about knowledge of pain management d. Give praise for the correct dose and time and discuss the deficits in charting. 6. In caring for a young child with pain, which assessment tool is the most useful? a. Simple description pain intensity scale b. 0-10 numeric pain scale c. Faces pain-rating scale d. McGill-Melzack pain questionnaire 7. In applying the principles of pain treatment, what is the first consideration? a. Treatment is based on client goals. b. A multidisciplinary approach is needed. c. The client must be believed about perceptions of own pain. d. Drug side effects must be prevented and managed.

8. Which route of administration is preferred if immediate analgesia and rapid titration are necessary? a. Intraspinal b. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) c. Intravenous (IV) d. Sublingual 9. When titrating an analgesic to manage pain, what is the priority goal? a. Administer smallest dose that provides relief with the fewest side effects. b. Titrate upward until the client is pain free. c. Titrate downwards to prevent toxicity. d. Ensure that the drug is adequate to meet the clients subjective needs. 10.In educating clients about non-pharmaceutical alternatives, which topic could you delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN, who will function under your continued support and supervision? a. Therapeutic touch b. Use of heat and cold applications c. Meditation d. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) 11.Place the examples of drugs in the order of usage according to the World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder. a. Morphine, hydromorphone, acetaminophen and lorazepam b. NSAIDs and corticosteroids c. Codeine, oxycodone and diphenhydramine _____, _____, _____ 12.Which client is at greater risk for respiratory depression while receiving opioids for analgesia? a. An elderly chronic pain client with a hip fracture b. A client with a heroin addiction and back pain c. A young female client with advanced multiple myeloma d. A child with an arm fracture and cystic fibrosis 13.A client appears upset and tearful, but denies pain and refuses pain medication, because my sibling is a drug addict and has ruined out lives. What is the priority intervention for this client? a. Encourage expression of fears on past experiences b. Provide accurate information about use of pain medication c. Explain that addiction is unlikely among acute care clients. d. Seek family assistance in resolving this problem. 14.A client is being tapered off opioids and the nurse is watchful for signs of withdrawal. What is one of the first signs of withdrawal? a. Fever b. Nausea c. Diaphoresis d. Abdominal cramps 15.In caring for clients with pain and discomfort, which task is most appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant?

a. Assist the client with preparation of a sitz bath. b. Monitor the client for signs of discomfort while ambulating c. Coach the client to deep breathe during painful procedures d. Evaluate relief after applying a cold application. 16.The physician has ordered a placebo for a chronic pain client. You are newly hired nurse and you feel very uncomfortable administering the medication. What is the first action that you should take? a. Prepare the medication and hand it to the physician b. Check the hospital policy regarding use of the placebo. c. Follow a personal code of ethics and refuse to give it. d. Contact the charge nurse for advice. 17.For a cognitively impaired client who cannot accurately report pain, what is the first action that you should take? a. Closely assess for nonverbal signs such as grimacing or rocking. b. Obtain baseline behavioral indicators from family members. c. Look at the MAR and chart, to note the time of the last dose and response. d. Give the maximum PRS dose within the minimum time frame for relief. 18.Which route of administration is preferable for administration of daily analgesics (if all body systems are functional)? a. IV b. IM or subcutaneous c. Oral d. Transdermal e. PCA 19.A first day post-operative client on a PCA pump reports that the pain control is inadequate. What is the first action you should take? a. Deliver the bolus dose per standing order. b. Contact the physician to increase the dose. c. Try non-pharmacological comfort measures. d. Assess the pain for location, quality, and intensity. 20.Which non-pharmacological measure is particularly useful for a client with acute pancreatitis? a. Diversional therapy, such as playing cards or board games b. Massage of back and neck with warmed lotion c. Side-lying position with knees to chest and pillow against abdomen d. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) 21.What is the best way to schedule medication for a client with constant pain? a. PRN at the clients request b. Prior to painful procedures c. IV bolus after pain assessment d. Around-the-clock 22.Which client(s) are appropriate to assign to the LPN/LVN, who will function under the supervision of the RN or team leader? (Choose all that apply.) a. A client who needs pre-op teaching for use of a PCA pump b. A client with a leg cast who needs neurologic checks and PRN hydrocodone

c. A client post-op toe amputation with diabetic neuropathic pain d. A client with terminal cancer and severe pain who is refusing medication 23.For a client who is taking aspirin, which laboratory value should be reported to the physician? a. Potassium 3.6 mEq/L b. Hematocrit 41% c. PT 14 seconds d. BUN 20 mg/dL 24.Which client(s) would be appropriate to assign to a newly graduated RN, who has recently completed orientation? (Choose all that apply.) a. An anxious, chronic pain client who frequently uses the call button b. A client second day post-op who needs pain medication prior to dressing changes c. A client with HIV who reports headache and abdominal and pleuritic chest pain d. A client who is being discharged with a surgically implanted catheter 25.A family member asks you, Why cant you give more medicine? He is still having a lot of pain. What is your best response? a. The doctor ordered the medicine to be given every 4 hours. b. If the medication is given too frequently he could suffer ill effects. c. Please tell him that I will be right there to check of him. d. Lets wait about 30-40 minutes. If there is no relief Ill call the doctor.

Answers & Rationale Here are the answers and rationale for: Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 12: Pain Management (25 Items) 1. Answer: D As charge nurse, you must assess for the performance and attitude of the staff in relation to this client. After gathering data from the nurses, additional information from the records and the client can be obtained as necessary. The educator may be of assistance if knowledge deficit or need for performance improvement is the problem. 2. Answer: C The family is part of the sociocultural dimension of pain. They are influencing the client should be included in the teaching sessions about the appropriate use of narcotics and about the adverse effects of pain on the healing process. The other dimensions should be included to help the client/family understand overall treatment plan and pain mechanism 3. Answer: A Antidepressants such as amitriptyline can be given for diabetic neuropathy. Corticosteroids are for pain associated with inflammation. Methylphenidate is given to counteract sedation if the client is on opioids. Lorazepam is an anxiolytic. 4. Answer: C Cancer pain generally worsens with disease progression and the use of opioids is more generous. Fibromyalgia is more likely to be treated with non-opiod and adjuvant medicatios. Trigeminal neuralgia is treated with anti-seizure medications such as carbamezapine (Tegretol). Phantom limb pain usually subsides after ambulation begins. 5. Answer: D In supervising the new RN, good performance should be reinforced first and then areas of improvement can be addressed. Asking the nurse about knowledge of pain management is also an option; however, it would be a more indirect and time-consuming approach. Making an ote and watching do not help the nurse to correct the immediate problem. In-service might be considered if the problem persists.

6. Answer: C The Faces pain rating scale (depicting smiling, neutral, frowning, crying, etc.) is appropriate for young children who may have difficulty describing pain or understanding the correlation of pain to numerical or verbal descriptors. The other tools require abstract reasoning abilities to make analogies and use of advanced vocabulary. 7. Answer: C The client must be believed and his or her experience of pain must be acknowledged as valid. The data gathered via client reports can then be applied to other options in developing the treatment plan. 8. Answer: C the IV route is preferred as the fastest and most amenable to titration. A PCA bolus can be delivered; however, the pump will limit the dosage that can be delivered unless the parameters are changed. Intraspinal administration requires special catheter placement and there are more potential complications with this route. Sublingual is reasonably fast, but not a good route for titration, medication variety in this form is limited. 9. Answer: A the goal is to control pain while minimizing side effects. For severe pain, the medication can be titrated upward until pain is controlled. Downward titration occurs when the pain begins to subside. Adequate dosing is important; however, the concept of controlled dosing applies more to potent vasoactive drugs. 10. Answer: B Use of heat and cold applications is a standard therapy with guidelines for safe use and predictable outcomes, and an LPN/LVN will be implementing this therapy in the hospital, under the supervision of an RN. Therapeutic touch requires additional training and practice. Meditation is not acceptable to all clients and an assessment of spiritual beliefs should be conducted. Transcutaneous electrical stimulation is usually applied by a physical therapist. 11. Answer: B, C, A Step 1 includes non-opioids and adjuvant drugs. Step 2 includes opioids for mild pain plus Step 1 drugs and adjuvant drugs as needed. Step 3 includes opioids for severe pain (replacing Step 2 opioids) and continuing Step 1 drugs and adjuvant drugs as needed. 12. Answer: D at greatest risk are elderly clients, opiate nave clients, and those with underlying pulmonary disease. The child has two of the three risk factors. 13. Answer: A This client has strong beliefs and emotions related to the issue of sibling addiction. First, encourage expression. This indicated to the client that the feelings are real and valid. It is also an opportunity to assess beliefs and fears. Giving facts and information is appropriate at the right time. Family involvement is important, bearing in mind that their beliefs about drug addiction may be similar to those of the client. 14. Answer: C Diaphoresis is one of the early signs that occur between 6 and 12 hours. Fever, nausea, and abdominal cramps are late signs that occur between 48 and 72 hours. 15. Answer: A The nursing assistant is able to assist the client with hygiene issues and knows the principles of safety and comfort for this procedure. Monitoring the client, teaching techniques, and evaluating outcomes are nursing responsibilities. 16. Answer: D the charge nurse is a resource person who can help locate and review the policy. If the physician is insistent, he or she could give the placebo personally, but delaying the administration does not endanger the health or safety of the client. While following ones own ethical code is c orrect, you must ensure that the client is not abandoned and that care continues. 17. Answer: B Complete information from the family should be obtained during the initial comprehensive history and assessment. If this information is not obtained, the nursing staff will have to rely on observation of nonverbal behavior and careful documentation to determine pain and relief patterns.

18. Answer: C If the gastrointestinal system is function, the oral route is preferred for routine analgesics because of lower cost and ease of administration. Oral route is also less painful and less invasive than the IV, IM, subcutaneous, or PCA routes. Transdermal route is slower and medication availability is limited compared to oral forms. 19. Answer: D Assess the pain for changes in location, quality, and intensity, as well as changes in response to medication. This assessment will guide the next steps. 20. Answer: C The side-lying, knee-chest position opens retroperitoneal space and provides relief. The pillow provides a splinting action. Diversional therapy is not the best choice for acute pain, especially if the activity requires concentration. TENS is more appropriate for chronic muscular pain. The additional stimulation of massage may be distressing to the client. 21. Answer: D IF the pain is constant, the best schedule is around-the-clock, to provide steady analgesia and pain control. The other options may actually require higher doses to achieve control 22. Answer: B, C The clients with the cast and the toe amputation are stable clients and need ongoing assessment and pain management that are within the scope of practice for an LPN/LVN under the supervision of an RN. The RN should take responsibility for pre-operative teaching, and the terminal cancer needs a comprehensive assessment to determine the reason for refusal of medication. 23. Answer: C When a client takes aspirin, monitor for increases in PT (normal range 11.0-12.5 seconds in 85%-100%). Also monitor for possible decreases in potassium (normal range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). If bleeding signs are noted, hematocrit should be monitored (normal range male 42%-52%, female 37%47%). An elevated BUN could be seen if the client is having chronic gastrointestinal bleeding (normal range 10-20 mg/dL). 24. Answer: B A second day post-operative client who needs medication prior to dressing changes has predictable and routine care that a new nurse can manage. Although chronic pain clients can be relatively stable, the interaction with this client will be time consuming and may cause the new nurse to fall behind. The HIV client has complex complaints that require expert assessment skills. The client pending discharge will need special and detailed instructions. 25. Answer: C directly ask the client about the pain and do a complete pain assessment. This information will determine which action to take next