ANATOMY 1. The study of Human Anatomy involves the ff. except? a. topographic anatomy b. applied anatomy c.

surface anatomy d. radiologic anatomy e. cosmetology 2. These carpals belong to the distal row, except? a. trapezium b. triquetrum c. capitatum d. hametum e. no exception 3. The communication between neck and axilla is the? a. spinoglenoid notch b. cervico-axillary canal c. jugular foramen d. obturator canal e. Alcocks canal 4. These are unpaired facial bones except? a. mandible b. hyoid bone c. inferior nasal concha d. vomer e. no exception 5. A freely movable joint includes the following except? a. hip b. shoulder c. knee d. mandibular e. sacroiliac 6. Irregular bones include the following except? a. parietal b. ethmoid c. temporal d. hip bone e. maxilla 7. The biggest paranasal sinus is the? a. ethmoid b. frontal c. sphenoid d. maxilla e. occipital 8. The longest bone of the lower extremity is the? a. hip bone b. talus c. femur d. tibia e. fibula

9. All are flat bones except? a. ribs b. sternum c. scapula d. patella e. no exception 10. These are the main classification of joints except? a. synarthroses b. syndesmosis c. amphiarthroses d. diarthroses e. no exception 11. Largest facial bone? a. maxilla b. mandible c. zygomatic d. lacrimal e. none of the above 12. Part of the cranial skeleton except? a. occipital b. frontal c. maxillary d. none of the above 13. All are paired bones of the face except? a. maxillary b. vomer c. palatine d. parietal e. no exception 14. All are true of sternoclavicular joint except? a. class diarthrosis b. arthroidial variety c. articulating parts are the sternal end of the clavicle and the manubrium sterni d. it is easily dislocated e. no exception 15. Are true of the hip joint, except? a. it is the largest joint of the body b. it is a ball and a socket joint c. its participating parts are the head of the femur and the acetabulum d. its strongest ligament is the iliofemoral ligament e. no exception 16. The Antrum of Highmore refers to the? a. frontal sinus b. middle meatus c. maxillary sinus d. bony septum of the nose e. none of the above

17. The nasolacrimal duct opens into? a. ethmoidal sinus b. inferior nasal meatus c. bulla ethmoidalis d. superior nasal meatus e. middle nasal meatus 18. Are openings found in the norma basalis of the skull except? a. jugular foramen b. foramen lacerum c. foramen magnum d. mastoid foramen e. parietal foramen 19. On the superior view of the skull you will find the following sutures except? a. lambdoid b. sagittal c. coronal d. pterygomaxillary e. no exception 20. The following are ear ossicles except? a. stapes b. malleus c. cochlea d. incus e. no exception 21. Flat bones of the upper extremity? a. radius b. pisiform c. metacarpals d. scapula e. clavicle 22. Communicates with the orbital cavity? a. cranial b. nasal c. middle ear d. all of the above e. only A and B 23. All are long bones except? a. ribs b. fibula c. metacarpals d. phalanges e. radius 24. The following are bones of the lower extremity except? a. ileum b. navicular c. femur d. calcaneous e. tibia

25. Most complex joint of the body? a. shoulder b. hip c. ankle d. knee e. lumbosacral 26. All are ear ossicles except? a. pterygoid plate b. hammer c. strirrup d. anvil e. no exception 27. This is the biggest of the tarsal bones? a. navicular b. calcaneous c. cuboid d. intermediate cuneiform e. none of the above 28. The following bones form the longitudinal arch of the foot except? a. calcaneus b. navicular c. medial cuneiform d. cuboid e. no exception 29. The following are ligaments of the vertebropelvic joints except? a. anterior longitudinal ligament b. posterior longitudinal ligament c. costovertebral ligament d. sacrotuberous ligament 30. Views of the skull except? a. basalis b. verticalis c. occipitalis d. fronatalis e. no exception 31. This bone is found under the soft palate? a. palatine bone b. frontal bone c. vomer d. zygomatic bone e. none of the above 32. Bone referred to as the ploughahare bone of the face? a. mandible b. vomer c. zygomatic bone d. nasal bone e. palatine bone

33. Glands of Zeis are found in the? a. stomach b. pancreas c. eyelids d. eyeball e. none of the above 34. Spiral shell-like structure found in the inner ear is the? a. helicotrema b. aditus c. cochlea d. Darvins tubercle 35. All are features of the membraneous labyrinth of the inner ear except? a. saccule b. utricle c. cochlear duct d. helicotrema e. no exception 36. A tongue like structure overhanging the Organ of Corti is the? a. helicotrema b. membrana tectoris c. vestibule d. caecum cupolare 37. Collar bone? a. scapula b. clavicle c. humerus d. radius e. thoracic vertebra 38. Head of the scapula? a. acromion b. coracoid process c. spine d. glenoid cavity e. inferior angle 39. Found in the middle cranial fossa? a. petrous portion of the temporal bone? b. occipital condyle c. mastoid process d. crista galli e. pharyngeal tuberosiry 40. The anatomical position except? a. body supine b. palms facing anteriorly c. thumbs pointing outward d. feet together e. toes pointing forwards 41. Anterior boundary of the true pelvis? a. sacrum b. coccyx c. pubis d. ischium e. urogenital diaphragm

42. Articulating parts of the mandibular joint? a. mandibular fossa, temporal bone b. condyle of mandible c. coronoid process of the mandible d. all of the above e. only A and B 43. Has/have no adipose tissue? a. labia minora b. labia majora c. skin covering the penis d. all of the above e. only A and C 44. The brain is directly protected by the following except? a. ethmoid b. vomer c. sphenoid d. temporal e. occipital 45. Which of the following bones take part in the ankle joint? a. calcaneus b. navicular c. cuneiform d. talus e. cuboid 46. The cervical curvature of the vertebral column is accentuated when the child is able to? a. crawl b. walk with support c. stand on one leg d. hold its head up e. roll 47. All these structures are found in the scapula except? a. glenoid fossa b. acromion c. coracoid process d. conoid tubercle 48. All are found in the proximal end of the humerus except? a. bicipital groove b. greater tuberosity c. olecranon surgical neck d. no exception 49. Smallest of the carpal bone? a. navicular b. capitate c. pisiform d. trapezoid e. none of the above

50. Highest point of the skull? a. bregma b. vertex c. inion d. lambda e. none of the above 51. All are found in the norma frontalis of the skull except? a. superciliary arch b. piriform aperture c. orbits d. glabella e. no exception 52. The term used in the skull to indicate when the coronal suture meets the sagittal suture is? a. glabella b. bregma c. pterion d. lambda e. none of the above 53. All are found in the cochlea of the inner ear except? a. utricle b. helicotrema c. modoilus d. cupula e. no exception 54. These are external ligaments of the knee joint except? a. ligamentum patella b. tibial collateral ligament c. arcuate popliteal ligament d. ligament of Wrisberg e. no exception 55. The following are tarsal bones except? a. navicular b. cuneiform c. lunate d. talus e. cuboid 56. The following parts of the vertebra are fused into the sacrum except? a. spinous process b. greater comma c. articular process d. transverse process 57. The curvature of the vertebral column which appears when the child begins to stand and walk? a. cervical b. lumbar c. thoracic d. sacrococcygeal

58. Bone of the skull which lodges the pituitary gland? a. ethmoid b. temporal c. sphenoid d. occipital e. frontal 59. Lumbar puncture is performed between these spines? a. L3 and L4 b. L4 and L5 c. L1 and L2 d. All of the above e. Only A and B 60. Movements of the hip joint except? a. flexion b. circumduction c. medial rotation d. abduction e. no exception 61. Tendon/s found in the sole of the foot? a. tendon of peroneus brevis b. tendon of peroneus longus c. tendon of tibialis anterior d. all of the above e. only A and B 62. The thoracic cage is made up of the following except? a. first rib b. last rib c. thoracic vertebrae d. scapula e. sternum 63. The respiratory diaphragm is attached to the following bones except? a. ribs b. sternum c. lumbar vertebrae d. thoracic vertebrae e. no exception 64. The lacrimal gland is lodge in the lacrimal fossa of the? a. lacrimal bone b. nasal c. frontal d. maxilla e. zygomatic 65. The knee joint is capable of the following except? a. flexion b. extension c. medial rotation d. circumduction e. lateral rotation

66. Miniature long bone? a. rib b. clavicle c. radius d. capitate e. phalanges 67. These bones belong to the facial skeleton except? a. mandible b. hyoid c. occipital d. zygomatic e. nasal 68. All are bones of the cranium except? a. temporal b. sphenoid c. ethmoid d. maxilla e. frontal 69. The plane that cuts the body into two symmetrical parts is the? a. midsagittal b. transverse c. coronal d. sagittal 70. The sternal angle of Lewis corresponds to the attachment of this structure? a. first costal cartilage b. second rib c. second costal cartilage d. third costal cartilage 71. Is a paired cranial bone? a. frontal b. occipital c. sphenoid d. temporal 72. The usual location of the intercostals nerve and vessels in a rib? a. above the rib b. middle of the rib c. below the rib d. in between ribs e. none of the above 73. The mandibular nerve exits out of the skull through the? a. optic foramen b. foramen rotundum c. foramen spinosum d. inferior orbital fissure e. foramen ovale 74. The biggest carpal bone is the? a. trapezoid b. hamulus c. navicular d. triangular e. one of the above

75. Number of bones of one side of the extremity? a. 40 b. 28 c. 32 d. 37 76. Point where the upper temporal line cut the coronal suture is the? a. stephanion b. obelion c. pterion d. asterion e. inion 77. Where sagittal and frontal suture meet is the? a. glabella b. bregma c. lambda d. sigma e. none of the above 78. Posterior nasal aperture is called? a. pyriform aperture b. vestibule c. choanae d. foramen magnum e. orbit 79. Sylvian point is another name for? a. obelion b. inion c. pterion d. asterion 80. Bones taking part in the formation of the orbit except? a. palatine b. vomer c. zygomatic d. ethmoid e. maxillary 81. The patient had a dislocation of the left shoulder joint. Which part of the joint scapule is considered the weakest area? a. superior part b. inferior part c. lateral part d. anterior part e. posterior part 82. The total number of bones in a human skeleton is? a. 200 b. 203 c. 206 d. 208 e. 204

83. The part of the sacrum that represents the fused lamina of the sacral vertebrae bone? a. sacral groove b. median sacral crest c. intermediate sacral crest d. lateral sacral crest e. none of the above 84. The number of phalanges in a foot is? a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. 15 e. None of the above 85. The nasal notch of the frontal bone articulates with the following bones except? a. ethmoid b. nasal c. maxilla d. lacrimal e. no exception 86. The following statements are true of the calcaneus except? a. largest of the tarsal bones b. forms the heel c. its anterior surface articulates with the cuboid d. its superior surface articulates with the talus e. no exception 87. The sternoclavicular joint is a? a. Saddle variety b. Hinge joint c. Ball and socket d. Pivotal e. Bicondylar 88. Small delicate bone found at the front of the medial wall of the orbit? a. Nasal b. Vomer c. Lacrimal d. Palatine e. Inferior nasal concha 89. Fracture of the middle third of the humerus will most likely injure? a. Circumflex scapular artery b. Radial nerve c. Posterior circumflex humeral artery d. Anterior humeral circumflex artery e. Axillary nerve

90. A typical rib has the following except? a. Head b. Neck c. Tubercle d. Angle e. No exception 91. The thoracic cage is made up of the following except? a. Sternum b. Clavicle c. Ribs d. Thoracic vertebra e. Costal cartilages 92. Anteriorly, the anterior and superior mediastinums are separated at the level of? a. Jugular notch b. Xiphisternal junction c. Tip of xyphoid process d. Angle of lewis e. Sternoclavicular joint 93. The hypophyseal fossa found at the center of the sella turcica of the body of the sphenoid bone lodges the? a. Pituitary glans b. Pons c. Medulla oblongata d. Optic chiasma e. None of the above 94. Upper limb bones which are not long bones except? a. Wrist bones b. Scapula c. Patella d. Clavicle e. No exception 95. When the anterior fontanel closes it becomes the? a. Glabella b. Bregma c. Inion d. Pterion e. Nasion 96. The atlas is atypical because it has no? a. Arch b. Articular process c. Body d. Transverse process e. Transverse foramen 97. Shoulder joint strength lies in its? a. Ligaments b. Articular surface c. Muscles d. All of the above

98. Hypoglossal canal is located in the? a. Parietal bone b. Occipital bone c. Ethmoid bone d. Occipital bone e. Frontal bone 99. Atypical and true rib? a. R3 b. R10 c. R7 d. R2 e. R5 1. Most movable joint of the upper limb a. Elbow b. Wrist c. Shoulder d. Interphalangeal e. None is correct 2. The following are functions of bones except? a. Protection b. Distribution of nutritive substances c. Framework of the body d. Blood cell formation 3. The following are short bones except? a. Patella b. Carpals c. Tarsals d. Clavicle 4. The following are eminence on the surface of desiccated bones except? a. Fossae b. Ridges c. Tuberosity d. Facet 5. These bones belong to the axial skeleton except? a. Hyoid bone b. Sternum c. Talus d. Mandible 6. The following are the characteristics features of a typical rib except? a. subcostal groove b. angle c. subcostal plane d. neck

7. True statement about the skull? a. A view from the top is termed as norma frontalis b. The foramen magnum is found in the middle cranial fossa c. The meeting point of the coronal and sagittal suture is the lambda d. The canine eminence separates the canine fossa on its lateral side from the incisive fossa on its medial side 8. True statement in the norma lateralis view? a. The pterion is sometimes termed as sylvian point b. The zygomatic process of the zygomatic bone devides into anterior and posterior roots c. The suprameatal triangle is formed above the external acoustic meatus of the parietal bone d. The stylohyoid antrum is found in the temporal bone 9. True statement of the cranial bone? a. The sphenoid bone is a paired bone b. The external occipital protuberance divides the occipital bone into four fossae c. The hypophysis cerebri lodges the sella turcica d. The stylohyoid process is part of the temporal bone 10. True statement of the parietal bone? a. At birth there are unossified intervals in the skull at angles of parietal bone termed as fontanelles b. Groove for the inferior sagittal sinus is formed in this bone c. The sagittal border of the parietal bone is the longest and thinnest border d. The groove for the sigmoid sinus is found near the sphenoidal angle

11. These structures are found in the ethmoid bone except? a. Crista galli b. Cribiform plate c. Orbital plate d. Frontal crest 12. The following are the characteristic features of vertebrae in general except? a. Vertebral foramen b. Centrum c. Spinous process d. Transverse foramen 13. The following bones form the boundaries of the thoracic cage except? a. Sternum b. Clavicle c. Ribs d. Thoracic vertebrae 14. The following are true ribs except? a. Rib 1 b. Rib 4 c. Rib 7 d. Rib 8 15. The sternal angle of Lewis helps us locate? a. Rib 1 b. Rib 2 c. Rib 3 d. Rib 4 16. Intervertebral foramina are openings produced by? a. Vertebral spines b. Vertebral notches c. Vertebral articulator processes d. Vertebral facets 17. The highest curvature of the rib is called? a. Shaft b. Angle c. Tubercle d. Neck 18. The first rib differs from a typical rib in that the former is flattened? a. Anteroposteriorly b. Superoinferiorly c. Laterally d. Medially

19. A thoracic vertebra differs from a lumbar vertebra on the following points except? a. Presence of costal facets on the ridges of the body and transverse process b. Presence of transverse foramen c. Presence of accessory and mamillary processes d. Prominent and elongated spinous processes 20. Smallest of the true vertebrae? a. Lumbar b. Thoracic c. Cervical d. Coccygeal 21. The bones of the upper extremity include the following parts except? a. Radius b. Clavicle c. Sternum d. Scapula 22. The proximal end of the humerus has the following parts except? a. Greater tuberosity b. Head and anatomical neck c. Intertubercular sulcus d. Olecranon process 23. Carpal bones of the distal row include the following except? a. Greater multangular b. Triquetrum c. Trapezoid d. Capitate 24. Which is a flat bone? a. Scapula b. Hip bone c. Clavicle d. Patella 25. The tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia is the? a. Calcaneus b. Cuboid c. Cuneiform d. Talus

26. The iliac crest of the hip bone extends from the? a. Anterior superior iliac spine to the posterior superior iliac spine b. Anterior superior iliac spine to the posterior inferior iliac spine c. Anterior inferior iliac spine to the posterior inferior iliac spine d. Anterior inferior iliac spine to the posterior superior iliac spine 27. The distal end of the humerus has the following parts except? a. Capitulum b. Trochlea c. Coronoid fossa d. Coronoid process 28. Which of the following has no head? a. Fibula b. Ulna c. Radius d. Tibia 29. Which of the following is found at the costal surface of the scapula? a. Subscapular fossa b. spine c. infraspinous fossa d. suprospinous fossa 30. The clavicle has the following features except? a. Acromial end is flattened b. Sternal end is enlarge c. Medial third of shaft is concave anteriorly d. It is a long bone 31. The styloid process of the ulna is found in the? a. Distal medial aspect of the forearm b. Distal lateral aspect of the forearm c. Proximal medial aspect of the forearm d. Proximal lateral aspect of the forearm 32. One of the following least likely refers to the large intestine? a. Large caliber b. Greatly movable c. Presence of fatty appendages d. Presence of taenia coli

33. A patient comes with a chief complaint of tenderness in the right iliac. Which of these organs could possibly be removed? a. Liver b. Vermiform appendix c. Iliac colon d. Right kidney 34. A man was rushed to the hospital because of stabbed on the umbilical area. Which of these organs will be least likely to be affected? a. Pancreas b. Gall bladder c. Greater curvature d. Kidney 35. This part of the colon lies behind the uterus in the females and the urinary bladder in the males? a. Cecum b. Ascending colon c. Transverse colon d. Sigmoid colon 36. This ligament divides the liver into right and left lobes on the superior surface? a. Round ligament b. Coronary ligament c. Falciform ligament d. Triangular ligament 37. Which of these is bounded by the fossa for the inferior vena cava and the fossa for ductus venosum? a. Caudate lobe b. Quadrate lobe c. R lobe d. L lobe 38. The common bile duct is formed by the union of which of the ff? a. Hepatic artery and cystic duct b. Common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct c. Cystic duct and pancreatic duct d. Common hepatic duct and cystic duct 39. Bile drains into the duodenum thru one of these structures? a. Cystic duct b. Pancreatic duct c. Common hepatic duct d. Common bile duct

40. One of these is not part of the excretory apparatus of the liver? a. Cystic duct b. Pancreatic duct c. Common hepatic duct d. Common bile duct 41. This ligament is a fibrous cord that resulted from the obliteration of the umbilical vein? a. Falciform ligament b. Coronary ligament c. Round ligament d. Triangular ligament 42. Which of the ff are not found in the rectum? a. Taenia coli b. Haustrations c. Ampulla d. Houston valves 43. Which statement is true to the pancreas? a. It is located behind the stomach in the epigastric and left hypochondriac regions b. It is hugged by the curve of the duodenum from head to tail c. Its two ducts open into the summit of the major papilla d. It is within the peritoneal cavity 44. As it passes to the respiratory diaphragm the esophagus is accompanied by the? a. Vagus b. Thoracic c. Vena cava d. Aorta 45. In the abdomen just below the umbilicus, the rectus sheath contains which of the ff? a. Transverses abdominis b. External oblique c. Internal oblique d. Rectus abdominis 46. An organ supported by 2 layers of peritoneum but not attached to the posterior abdominal wall? a. Sigmoid colon b. Jejunum c. Vermiform appendix d. Transverse colon

47. Which of the following statements is true to the jejunum in comparison to the ileum? a. Its circular folds are larger, thicker and lose to each other b. Its walls are pale due to less blood supply c. It has larger and more aggregate lymphatic follicles d. It is longer in length but its wall is thinner 48. Which of the ff are found with in 2 layers of the mesentery proper? a. Inferior mesentery artery and its branches b. Superior mesentery artery and its branches c. Coeliac artery and its branches d. Portal vein and its tributaries 49. Which is true to the stomach? a. The cardiac opening is about 10-15 cm from incisore b. The pyloric opening is marked by pyloric sphincter c. It is attached to the under surface of the liver by the lesser omentum d. It has permanent mucosal folds when it is distended 50. This does not describe the soft palate? a. Has a median conical projection called uvula b. It is the posterior continuation of the hard palate c. It is bounded by the alveolar arches in front and on the sides d. It is continuous with the pillars of the fauces 51. This statement is not true? a. The sulcus terminals divides the tongue into pre and post sulcal pairs b. Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual are major salivary glands c. The pharyngeal isthmus is a common opening for the nasopharynx and oropharynx d. The palatoglossus is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve

52. These are pharyngeal muscles, except? a. Stylopharyngeus b. Pharyngopalatinus c. Inferior constrictor d. Myoglossus 53. This is true to the oropharynx? a. Located at the level of the lower part of the body of the c3 to the upper part of the body of the c6 b. Found on its lateral wall are the palatopharyngeal arches c. It is where an adenoid can be found d. At its lateral wall are the openings of the pharyngotemporal tubes 54. These muscles are found wholly within the tongue? a. Superior longitudinal muscles b. Genioglossus c. Tensor velli palatine d. Inferior constrictor 55. This structure serves to anchor the inner surface of each lip to the corresponding gum? a. Philtrum b. Frenulum c. Uvula d. Adenoids 56. Which of the ff nerves mediates general sensations from the anterior 2/3of the tongue? a. Facial b. Trigeminal c. Hypoglossal d. Glossopharyngeal 57. Number of permanents teeth? a. 20 b. 32 c. 34 d. 28 58. Number of decidous teeth? a. 20 b. 32 c. 28 d. 14 59. Borders of the vestibule? a. Anteriorly by the lips and cheeks b. Posteriorly by the lips and cheeks c. Anteriorly by the teeth d. Posteriorly by the tongue

60. Hard palate is formed by what bone? a. Maxilla and palatine bone b. Maxilla and frontal bone c. Occipital bone d. Sphenoid bone 61. Last tooth to erupt or never at all? a. 4th molar b. 2nd molar c. 3rd pre molar d. 3rd molar 62. Muscle of the tongue that can draw it up and backward? a. Muscularis uvulae b. Styloglossus c. Palatoglossus d. Genioglossus 63. Lunnattes of Monks are commonly found in? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Mesentery proper d. Epiploic appendages 64. Action of iliacus and psoas muscles? a. Flex the thigh b. Extend the thigh c. Adduct the thigh d. Abduct the thigh 65. Branch of gastric artery that supplies the fundus of the stomach? a. Long gastric artery b. Short gastric artery c. Lateral gastric artery d. Middle gastric artery 66. Even if there is a change in position during respiration, the kidney is held in position mainly by the? a. Renal vein, renal artery and pelvis of the ureter b. Attachment of the renal capsule to the renal fascia c. Appositioning of the surrounding vicera d. Investing peritoneum 67. All are seen inside the urinary bladder except? a. Internal urethral opening b. Median lobe of the prostate c. Ureteral opening d. Trigone

68. The structures that pass through the renal hilus are arranged from anterior to posterior as follows? a. Renal vein, renal artery & pelvis of ureter b. Renal vein, pelvis of ureter & renal artery c. Renal artery, renal vein & pelvis of ureter d. Pelvis of ureter, renal artery & renal vein 69. Aside from the external urethral opening, the narrowest part of the male urethra is the? a. Internal urethral opening b. Membranous c. Prostate d. Spongy 70. The bulbo-urethral glands are 2 small bodies placed lateral to the membranous urethra & their excretory ducts open? a. Around the margin of the external urethral opening b. Into the floor of the membranous urethra c. Into the floor of the prostatic urethra d. Into the floor of the spongy urethra 71. From the umbilicus the urachus is connected to which part of the urinary bladder? a. Apex b. Base c. Fundus d. Superior surface 72. All are true of the pelvic part of the ureter except? a. It enters the urinary bladder at the upper lateral angle of the trigone b. It is retroperitoneal c. It passes in front of the bifurcation of the common iliac artery as it enters the pelvis d. The pelvis of the ureter is at the pelvic part 73. All are true of female urethra except? a. It is shorter that the male b. It pierces the urogenital diaphragm c. It is immediately posterior to the vaginal opening d. It is about 3.5 cm long

74. All are found in front of the right kidney except? a. Head of pancreas b. Coils of intestine c. Right lobe of the liver d. Right colic flexure 75. Renal canaliculi in the ureter maybe lodge in any of these sites of ureteral constrictions except? a. As it crosses over by the uterine artery b. At the uropelvic junction c. At the pelvic brim d. As it enters the urinary bladder wall 76. Bladder stones in the urethra maybe lodge in which part of the urethra? a. Membranous portion b. Prostatic portion c. External urethral opening d. Internal urethral opening 77. The uvula of the urinary bladder is an elevation which is covered by? a. Bulk of the penis b. Crus of the penis c. Median lobe of the prostate d. Seminal vesicle 78. The structures that go in and out of the hilus of the kidney are the ff except? a. Accessory renal artery b. Renal pelvis c. Renal artery d. Renal vein 79. The apex of the renal pyramid fits into the lumen of? a. Minor calyx b. Renal pelvis c. Major calyx d. Bowmans capsule 80. The capillary plexus in the renal medulla is drained directly by the? a. Interlobar vein b. Stellate vein c. Arcuate vein d. Interlobular vein

81. The anterior kidney surface maybe describe as? a. Its hilar center is at the transpyloric plane 5cm from the midline b. Its hilar center is opposite the first lumbar spines lower edge c. The renal pole is about 2.5cm above the summit of the iliac crest d. It is devoid of peritoneum 82. This is not true regarding renal fascia? a. Has 2 layers that fuse at the lateral border of the kidney b. The 2 layers fuse above the adrenal glands and blend with the diaphragmatic fascia c. Serves as the principal sole support for ensuring the kidney in position d. Has several trabercular connections to the renal capsule and is strongest near the lower pole 83. The narrowest part of the ureter? a. At the brim of the lower pelvis near the medial border of the psoas major b. At its junction with the pelvis c. Upon traversing the bladder wall d. None of the above 84. During abdominal operation, this ureter is easily exposed? a. Left ureter pelvic part b. Right ureter abdominal part c. Left ureter abdominal part d. Right ureter pelvic part 85. The male urinary bladder is covered by the peritoneum along these surfaces? a. Superior surface b. Part of the posterior surface c. Both d. neither 86. 1 of the ff does not extend from the urinary bladder to the umbilicus? a. Urachus b. Median umbilical ligament c. Median umbilical fold d. Round ligament

87. The least dilatable part of the male urethra is? a. The spongiosa part b. The membranous part c. The prostatic part d. The pre-prostatic part 88. The angles of the urinary trigone are formed by? a. Urethral orifice, ureteral openings b. Ejaculatory duct openings and utricle c. Cowpers gland openings d. Navicular fossa and urethra opening 89. The location and/or appearance of the female urethral opening? a. It appears slitlike with prominent margins inside the vaginal opening b. Seen as transverse slit bound by small labia on both sides c. Seen anterior to the opening of the vagina and behind the clitoris d. None of the above is correct 90. Its contraction prevents the retrograde flow of ejaculate from the urethra back to the bladder? a. Pre-prostatic sphincter b. Sphincter vesicae c. Internal sphincter d. All are correct 91. Generally branched fibrous cords that attach each cardiac cusp to papillary muscle? a. Annuli fibrosi b. Conus ligaments c. Chordae tendinae d. Musculae pectinati 92. The apex of the heart corresponds to the apex beat, can be best felt or seen? a. Just below the left male nipple at the left intercostals space b. At the left 5th ICS just lateral to the sternal margin c. Above male nipple 3rd left ICS d. At the level of the 3rd ICS along the midsternal line

93. In the right atrium the SAN can be best located a. At the triangle of koch b. Right border of the SVC opening c. Between the anterior and posterior along the cristae terminalis d. Just above the opening of the coronary sinus 94. True of moderator band a. Its found on both left and right ventricles b. Both ends attach, center if free c. One end is free and has chordae tendinae d. It is a slight elevation from the cardiac wall of the right ventricle 95. Opening not guarded by valve? a. Ascending aorta b. Pulmonary trunk c. Coronary sinus d. Superior vena cava 96. At the anterior interventricular sulcus the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery is accompanied by? a. Anterior cardiac vein b. Middle cardiac vein c. Great cardiac vein d. Small cardiac vein 97. Before it opens into the right atrium, the coronary sinus is best located at? a. Anterior interventricular sulcus b. Right posterior AV sulcus c. Posterior interventricular sulcus d. Left posterior atrial ventricular sulcus 98. Marginal branches of the left and right coronary arteries are given off at which of the ff? a. Front and back of the apex where they anastamose b. Lateral margin of the left and right ventricles just before they become posterior c. Along the anterior and posterior interventricular sulcus d. At the anterior aspect of the pulmonary conus where they anastamose

99. Posteriorly, the right coronary artery is accompanied by? a. Great cardiac vein b. Small cardiac vein c. Middle cardiac vein d. Posterior vein of left ventricle 1. Cardiac vein that empties directly to the right atrium? a. Anterior cardiac vein b. Small cardiac vein c. Great cardiac vein d. Posterior vein if the left ventricle 2. Compared to the right auricle the left auricle? a. Shorter b. Has margins that are less indented c. Wider and straighter d. Has fewer musculae pectinati 3. From right to left the branches of the arch of aorta are? a. Brachiocephalic, left subclavian, left common carotid b. Left subclavian, brachiocephalic,left axillary c. Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian d. Right brachiocephalic, left subclavian, left axilla 4. Compared to the right ventricle the left? a. Forms the apex of the heart b. Smaller cavity c. Thinner d. Has the tricuspid valve 5. Composed of 3 cusp to prevent back flow of blood a. Aortic valve b. Left AV valve c. Pulmonary valve d. Right AV valve 6. Sinus venorum of RA is distinct because? a. Its wall continuous with the auricle b. Its wall is smooth c. Has no opening d. Contains the crista terminalis 7. The sinus venorum is separated from the rest of the right atrium by? a. Crista terminalis b. Triangle of koch c. Interatrial septum d. Tricuspid valve

8. Also known as the 3rd coronary artery a. Diagonal artery b. Triangle of koch c. SA nodal artery d. Right conus artery 9. In the thorax the heart is found in the? a. Anterior mediastinum b. Middle mediastinum c. Posterior mediastinum d. Inferior mediastinum 10. Proximal part of the external iliac artery in the lower limb? a. Anterior tibial b. Posterior tibial c. Femoral d. Popliteal 11. During the last trimester of the pregnancy, pregnant women are usually advised to lie on their left side to avoid pressure of the gravid uterus on which abdominal vein? a. Common iliac b. Inferior vena cava c. Internal iliac d. Ovarian 12. Which of the ff is true as regards the branches of axillary artery? a. The superior thoracic artery is large in female and gives off branches to supply the breast b. Thoraco-acromial artery is a short branch that pierces the clavipectoral fascia and divides into 4 branches c. The anterior circumflex humeral artery winds around the surgical neck of the humerus d. The post. Circumflex humeral artery on reaching the bicipital groove gives off a branch to supply the humerus

13. True of the abdominal aorta and its branches a. The abdominal aorta ends as the external and internal iliac arteries begin b. There are 4 sets of branches with the ventral branches supplying the body wall c. Immediately above the sup. Mesenteric artery, the renal arteries and branch out at right angle from the aorta d. The abdominal aorta spans from the vertebral body of the T12-L4 14. For you to appreciate the right pulse on the wrist during PE, blood has to travel from left ventricle thru the aorta then to? a. Subclavian, axillary, brachial, ulnar artery b. Brachiocephalic, lateral thoracic, brachial, ulnar artery c. Brachiocephalic, subclavian, axillary, brachial, radial artery d. Subclavian, axillary, muscular, radial artery 15. The presence of atherosclerotic plaques in this artery may explain the impotence seen in a 60 yr old man? a. Internal pudendal artery b. Abdominal aorta c. Internal iliac artery d. External inguinal artery 16. Which of the ff arteries frequently passes either above or below the middle trunk of the brachial plexus? a. Deep cervical b. Dorsal scapular c. Suprascapular d. Transverse cervical 17. True of the internal jugular vein? a. Tributaries include sigmoid sinus, superior and middle thyroid veins b. Leaves the cranial cavity thru the foramen ovale c. It descends thru the neck at the posterior and then lateral to the carotid sheath d. Joined by the subclavian vein behind the sternoclavicular joint to become the brachiocephalic vein

18. The external jugular vein is formed by the union of the posterior auricular vein with this vein? a. Occipital b. Retromandibular c. Superior temporal d. Transverse facial 19. The first branch of the arch of the aorta? a. Left subclavian artery b. Right subclavian artery c. Brachiocephalic artery d. Left common carotid artery 20. All are found in the right atrium except? a. SA node b. AV node c. Musculi pectinati d. Purkinje fibers 21. Compared to the sinus venarum, the atrium proper of the right atrium? a. Is rough because of the musculo pectinati b. Includes the posterior and lateral walls of the right atrium c. Where large openings are found d. Considered as part of the inferior vena cava and superior vena cava 22. The sinus venarum is separated from the atrium proper by? a. Interatrial septum b. Crista terminales c. Triangle of Koch d. Interventricular septum 23. Compared to the right the left atrium is? a. Greater in volume b. Has thinner walls c. Is oval in shape d. Has a longer, narrower and indented auricle 24. The exterior of the left atrium may present any of this feature except? a. 2 pairs of pulmonary veins openings b. Opening of the foramina venarum minimae c. Bigger and more muscular pectinati than the right d. Bicuspid valve

25. Which of the ff openings is not provided with valves? a. Aortic opening b. Coronary sinus opening c. Pulmonary trunk opening d. Pulmonary vein opening 26. The conducting system of the heart includes the ff except? a. SA node b. Moderator band c. AV bundle d. Left and right bundle branches 27. Compared to the right ventricle the left? a. Is cone shaped b. Wider shorter c. Has thinner walls d. Has fewer and smaller traberculae 28. A cardiac valve made up of cusps and leaflets? a. Aortic valve b. Mitral valve c. Pulmonary valve d. Right AV valve 29. In the right atrium the moderator band can be seen extending from the a. Interventricular septum to the base of the anterior papillary muscle b. Anterior papillary muscle to the posterior papillary muscle c. Interventricular septum to posterior papillary muscle d. Interventricular septum to the lateral wall of the right ventricle 30. The apex of the heart almost corresponds to a. Area of the superficial cardiac dullness b. Portion of the heart covered by the lungs c. Portion of the heart directly behind the sternum d. Apex of the heart For questions 31 to 36; 1. a,b,c correct 2. a and c is correct 3. b and d is correct 4. only d is correct 5. all are correct

31. Found in the digastric triangle of the neck? a. Facial artery b. Internal carotid artery c. External carotid artery d. Superficial cervical artery 32. Lymph nodes that form the deep cervical chain? a. Supraclavicular b. Occipital c. Jugulodigastric d. Facial 33. Arteries from the 1st part of the subclavian arteries a. Internal thoracic b. Thyrocervical c. Vertebral d. Dorsal scapular 34. The right common carotid arteries a. Begins at the bifurcation of the brachiocephalic trunk b. It is confined to the neck c. Is behind the sternoclavicular joint d. Has a thoracic and cervical portions 35. True of the ff veins a. At the base of the femoral triangle, the femoral vein is lateral to the femoral artery b. The longest vein in the body is the cephalic vein c. Overlying the anatomical snuff box is the basilica vein d. The medial cubital vein is the largest vein at the bend elbow 36. Which of the ff describes aortic and pulmonic valves in contrast to AV valves a. Softer closure of the valves b. Greater velocity of blood ejection c. Supported by chordae tendinae d. More subjected to mechanical stress 37. The term for anteroposterior septum separating the 2 nares? a. Vestibule b. Limen nasi c. Columna d. Littles area

38. Triangular fossa above the superior nasal concha? a. Suprameatal triangle b. Supreme nasal meatus c. Sphenoethmoidal recess d. Littles triangle 39. The biggest among the paranasal sinuses? a. Frontal sinus b. Ethmoid sinus c. Sphenoid sinus d. Antrum of highmore 40. Impression found on the right lung, except? a. Cardiac impression b. Esophageal impression c. Azygous vein d. Aortic arch 41. The structure where the right bronchial vein drains into? a. Hemiazygous vein b. Highest intercostals vein c. Azygous vein d. Pulmonary vein 42. Posterior portion of the left adrenal gland would be? a. Diaphragm b. Duodenum c. Inferior vena cava d. Liver 43. Lateral border of the pituitary gland? a. Anterior clenoid process b. Cavernous sinus c. Diaphragma cells d. Hypothalamus 44. Piriform reddish gland seen in the depression below the superior colliculi a. Adrenal gland b. Pineal gland c. Pituitary gland d. Parathyroid gland 45. As a rule the isthmus of the thyroid gland is found at the level of which of the ff tracheal rings? a. 1st, 2nd, 3rd b. 2nd, 3rd, 4th c. 3rd, 4th, 5th d. 4th, 5th, 6th 46. The facial artery enters the face by crossing ht mandible at the anterior border of this muscle? a. Buccinator b. Masseter c. Mentalis d. Platysma

47. The pulsation of the artery can be felt in front of the ear just above the zygomatic arch? a. Maxillary b. Occipital c. Superficial temporal d. Transverse facial 48. The division of the common carotid artery into external and internal branches is usually at the level of? a. Cricoid cartilage b. Cricothyroid membrane c. Hyoid cartilage d. Thyroid 49. The highest point of the arch of the thoracic duct maybe about _____ cm above the sternal end of the clavicle? a. 5cm b. 1cm c. 3 or 4 cm d. 10 cm 50. The vertebral artery arises from the? a. 1st part of the subclavian artery b. 1st part of the axillary artery c. Costocervical trunk d. Dorsoscapular artery 51. The subclavian vein joins this vein to form the brachiocephalic vein? a. Anterior jugular b. Axillary c. External jugular d. Internal jugular 52. This is part of the descending aorta confined to the posterior mediastinum? a. Arch of aorta b. Ascending aorta c. Common iliac d. Thoracic aorta 53. The celiac trunk gives off these branches? a. Left gastric, hepatic, splenic artery b. Superior mesentery and gastroduodenal arteries c. Inferior mesenteric artery and portal vessels d. Inferior phrenic and cystic arteries 54. A large part of the intestine being supplied by the? a. inferior mesenteric artery b. superior mesenteric artery c. jejunal and ileal artery d. middle ciliac artery

55. The common iliac arteries divide into its terminal branches at the? a. Sacroiliac joint b. Upper border of the L5 body c. Lower border of the S1 body d. Lower border of the T12 body 56. This artery may be palpable in the anatomical snuff box? a. Brachial b. Common interosseous c. Radial d. Ulnar 57. There is no valves in the? a. Axillary vein b. Cerebral vein c. Popliteal vein d. Saphenous vein 58. Largest branch of the aorta is the? a. Brachiocephalic b. Left coronary artery c. Left common carotid artery d. Left subclavian artery 59. One of the ff is not a superficial vein? a. Basilica vein b. Brachial vein c. Cephalic vein d. Great saphenous vein 60. This is the saccular dilatation in the lymphatic route from the abdominal and lower limb seen in front of the lumbar vertebrae? a. Hepatic sinusoids b. Gall bladder c. Axillary lymph node d. Cisterna chili .. A good friend told me on my birthday that nobody cares how much you know until they know how much you care. - WARRenPEACE