English Language: Directions(Q.

115) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Once upon a time, there was a rich merchant who had four wives. He loved the fourth wife the most and adorned her with rich robes and treated her to delicacies. He took great care of her and gave her nothing but the best. He also loved the third wife very much. He was very proud of her and always wanted to show her off to his friends. However, the merchant was always in great fear that she might run away with some other men. He loved his second wife too. She was a very considerate person, always patient and in fact was the merchants confidant. Whenever the merchant faced some problems, he always turned to his second wife and she would always help him out and tide him through difficult times. Now, the merchants first wife was a very loyal partner and had made great contributions in maintaining his wealth and business as well taking care of the household. However, the merchant did not love the first wife and although she loved him deeply, he hardly took notice of her. One day, the merchant fell ill. Before long, he knew that he was going to die soon. He thought of his luxurious life and told himself, Now I have four wives with me. But when I die, Ill be alone. How lonely Ill be ! Thus, he asked the fourth wife, I loved you most, endowed you with the finest clothing and showered great care over you. Now that Im dying will you follow me and keep me company ? No way ! replied the fourth wife and she walked away without another word. The answer cut like a sharp knife right into the merchants heart. The sad merchant then asked the third wife, I have loved you so much for all my life. Now that Im dying will you follow me and keep me company ? No ! replied the third wife, Life is so good over here ! Im going to remarry when you die ! The merchants heart sank and turned cold. He then asked the second wife. I always turned to you for help and youve always helped me out. Now I need your help again. When I die, will you follow me and keep me company ? Im sorry, I cant help you out this time ! replied the second wife. At the very most, I can only send you to your grave. The answer came like a bolt of thunder and the merchant was devastated. Then a voice called out, Ill leave with you. Ill follow you no matter where you go. The merchant looked up and there was his first wife. She was so skinny, almost like she suffered from malnutition. Greatly grieved, the merchant said, I should have taken much better care of you while I could have ! Actually, we all have four wives in our lives. The fourth wife is our body. No matter how much time and effort we lavish in making it look good, itll leave us when we die. Our third wife is our possessions, status and wealth. When we die, they all go to others. The second wife is our family and friends. No matter how close they had been to us when were alive, the furthest they can stay by us is up to the grave. The first wife is in fact our soul, often neglected in our pursuit of material wealth and sensual pleasure. It is actually the only thing that follows us wherever we go. Perhaps i ts a good idea to cultivate and strengthen it now rather than to wait until were on our deathbed to lament. 1. What did the merchant want to do with his third wife ? (A) To buy good clothes for her (B) To give her away to his friends (C) To show her off to his friends (D) To share his problems with her (E) None of these 2. What was the second wifes quality ? (A) She helped the merchant during tough times (B) She helped the merchant in his business (C) She made the merchant feel proud (D) She contributed to the merchants wealth (E) None of these 3. What does the phrase cut like a sharp knife as used in the passage mean ? (A) Injure

(B) Bleed (C) Dangerous (D) Hurt (E) None of these 4. Which of the following is possibly NOT a characteristic of the first wife as given in the passage ? (A) Caring (B) Beautiful (C) Thin (D) Loyal (E) All of the above are characteristics of the first wife 5. What fear did the merchant have about his third wife ? (A) That she would kill him (B) That she would not accompany him when he died (C) That she would run away with all his money (D) That she would not look beautiful anymore (E) None of these 6. What explanation did the fourth wife give for not accompanying the merchant when he was dying ? (A) She wanted more money (B) She did not give any explanation (C) She wanted to marry someone else after the merchants death (D) She was afraid to go with him (E) None of these 7. Why did the first wife offer to go with the merchant when he died ? (A) Because she loved him (B) Because she was afraid to stay alone (C) Because she hated the other wives (D) Because she was undernourished and was going to die anyway (E) None of these 8. The author has compared the merchants fourth wife to our (A) Soul (B) Wealth (C) Friends (D) Status (E) None of these 9. What does the author have to say about our soul ? (A) That it is well taken care of (B) That it can give us company only till our death (C) That it has been ignored in the chase for worldly pleasures (D) That it belongs to someone else after our death (E) None of these 10. What does the phrase like a bolt of thunder used in the passage mean ? (A) like a very bright light (B) like a pleasant feeling (C) like a loud noise (D) like a shock (E) None of these Directions(Q. 1113) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. adorned (A) spent (B) dressed (C) tried (D) carried (E) necklace 12. showered (A) bestowed (B) cleaned (C) pleased (D) bathed (E) threw 13. lament (A) fear (B) tell (C) grieve (D) care (E) forget Directions(Q. 1415) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 14. considerate (A) ignorant (B) lazy (C) angry (D) thoughtful (E) insensitive 15. furthest (A) longest (B) closest (C) greatest (D) shortest (E) wildest Directions(Q. 1620) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer. 16. I woke up early in the morning and had a steamer cup of coffee. (A) has a steamer (B) has a steaming (C) had a steaming (D) had a steam (E) No correction required 17. Tired of being harassed by the goons, I finally called the police and complained (A) in being harassed (B) of being harass (C) in be harassed (D) of be harass (E) No correction required

18. A friendship founded on business is best than a business founded on friendship. (A) is good than (B) is better than (C) is bestest than (D) is better then (E) No correction required 19. Right action cannot came out of nothing, it must be preceded by thought. (A) come out of (B) came out off (C) come off (D) coming out of (E) No correction required 20. One of the base laws of nature is that adaptability is the price of survival. (A) basis laws of (B) basic law of (C) base law of (D) basic laws of (E) No correction required Directions(Q. 2125) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., All correct as your answer. 21. Oportunities (A) multiply (B) when they are seized (C) and die (D) when they are not. All correct (E) 22. He realized (A) he was alone (B) in the house and rushed (C) to bolt (D) all the doors and windows. All correct (E) 23. The information (A) provided (B) to the staff was not adecuate (C) and everyone retaliated. (D) All correct (E) 24. Worried (A) that he will fail in the exams, Satish stayed (B) up the whole kinght (C) and studied. (D) All correct (E) 25. Thomas could not cook (A) very well and thus had to stay (B) food from (C) a restaurant. (D) All correct (E) Answers from 1 to 25 are as follows: 1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (E) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (E) 22. (E) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) Indian Bank English Language Question paper 2 Given below are the English Language solved paper of Indian bank clerk exam held on June 21st -2009.Indian Bank English Language Question paper 2 is a continuation from Indian Bank English Language Sample Paper 1. Section: English Language:

Directions(Q. 2630) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. (1) She eased out something from her waist folds. (2) Maganlal welcomed a customer early in the day. (3) Once visible, Maganlal realized it was a pair of gold bangles. (4) The woman carefully counted the money and then left. (5) He took the bangles and placed some money in the womans palm. (6) This customer was a peasant woman wearing a discoloured sari and old anklets. 26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6 Directions(Q. 31 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 31. Progress is impossible (A) / without change, and those (B) / who cannot change their minds (C) / cannot change nothing. (D) No error (E) 32. She was allergic (A) / to some medicines (B) / and informed (C) / the doctor about it. (D) No error (E) 33. He walked as faster (A) / as he could so that (B) / he would not (C) / miss the train to work. (D) No error (E)

34. She shared (A) / all her secrets with (B) / Suman as they had been (C) / friends with childhood. (D) No error (E) 35. Gautam did not care (A) / so many about (B) / anything else as much (C) / as he cared for his dog. (D) No error (E) 36. You cannot change (A) / people, but you (B) / can definitely (C) / change own. (D) No error (E) 37. Veena wanted to (A) / become a surgeon (B) / and worked very hardly (C) / to achieve this. (D) No error (E) 38. Krishna ran to the (A) / nearing grocery store to (B) / buy biscuits as his parents (C) / were expecting guests. (D) No error (E) 39. As soon so (A) / he came home, (B) / he showered and got (C) / ready to go out again. (D) No error (E) 40. She failed to remember (A) / that it was Remas birthday (B) / and did not buy (C) / a present for her. (D) No error (E) Directions(Q. 4150) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. One of the good things that happened to me (41) in Patliputra, (42) the friendship of the farmers daughter. This nine year old girl (43) became very fond of me and her parents (44) her that she could keep me forever as her toy. She was very good at needlecraft and (45) clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night there and (46) the rest of my stay in the farmers house, I slept in her dolls cradle. That first night, they put the cradle on (47) of a shelf far away from the danger of rats. As I slowly got to learn their language, I was (48) to talk to the girl and let her know my needs and she was able to make me (49) comfortable. She made me seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would (50) it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her. 41. (A) waiting (B) truly (C) till (D) still (E) while 42. (A) for (B) was (C) because (D) is (E) it 43. (A) soon (B) had (C) was (D) has (E) forever 44. (A) handled (B) worried (C) taught

(D) promised (E) carried 45. (A) tore (B) tearing (C) making (D) wore (E) make 46. (A) to (B) as (C) for (D) of (E) if 47. (A) bottom (B) top (C) coating (D) height (E) wide 48. (A) possible (B) happiness (C) eagerly (D) able (E) request 49. (A) every (B) thorough (C) total (D) high (E) more 50. (A) call (B) ask (C) throw (D) help (E) hit Answers from 26 to 50 are as follows, 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (D) 32. (E) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (E) 41. (E) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (E) 50. (A) Indian Bank General Awareness Question papers are as follows, candidates can read these question paper and prepare well for examination conducted for Indian Bank. SECTION: Solved Question Paper of Indian Bank Computer Officers Exam held during the year 2008. General Awareness Questions 1. A passive threat to computer security is (1) Malicious Intent

(2) Sabotage (3) Accident Errors (4) Espionage Agents (5) None of these 2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification (1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate (2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server (3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server (4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems (5) None of these 3. allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail (1) TCP/IP (2) Ethernet (3)WAP (4) Token ring (5) None of these 4. DOS floppy disk does not have (1) A Boot Record (2) A File Allocation Table (3) A Root Directory (4) Virtual Memory (5) BIOS 5. MICR technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to (1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition (3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition (4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition (5) None of these 6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a (1) repository (2) data warehouse (3) RAD (4) CASE (5) None of these 7. The.component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database. (1) data extraction (2) end-user query tool (3) end-user presentation tool (4) data store (5) None of these 8. A(n).allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server. (1) single-user license agreement (2) network site license (3) end-user license agreement (4) business software license

(5) None of these 9. A polymorphic virus (1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file (2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains (3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program (4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program (5) None of these 10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is (1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable (2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable (3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available (4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available (5) None of these 11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy? (1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open (2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files. (3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data. (4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters. (5) None of these 12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is (1) Biometrics (2) Compression (3) Encryption (4) Ergonomics (5) None of these 13. The word FIP stands for (1) File Translate Protocol (2) File Transit Protocol (3) File Typing Protocol (4) File Transfer Protocol (5) None of these 14. Voice mail (1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet (2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet (3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party (4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations (5) None of these 15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is (1) Bridge (2) Gateway (3) Router (4) Modem (5) All of these

16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web? (1) VB Script (2) Java Script (3) CSS (4) Java (5) None of these 17. This.tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data. (1) Client (2) Applications/Web server (3) Enterprise server (4) DBA (5) None of these 18. RSA is (1) Symmetric Cryptosystem (2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem (3) Block Cypher (4) Digital Signature (5) None of these 19. A DVD-RAM is similar to aexcept it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB. (1) CD-R (2) floppy disk (3) CD-RW (4) hard disk (5) None of these 20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration? (1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse (2) The length of the mouse cord (3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with (4) The number of buttons the mouse has (5) None of these 21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device? (1) Through a power cable (2) From an external power supply (3) Directly from the computers power supply (4) Through the USB cable (5) None of these 22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except (1) each computer must have a network card (2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices (3) there must be at least one connecting device (4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information (5) None of these 23. The.data mining technique derives rules from real -world case examples. (1) Rule discover (2) Signal processing (3) Neural nets

(4) Case-based reasoning (5) None of these 24. .are used to identify a user who returns to a Website. (1) Cookies (2) Plug-ins (3) Scripts (4) ASPs (5) None of these 25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action? (1) Servlet Request (2) Http Servlet Request (3) Servlet Response (4) Http Servlet Response (5) None of these 26. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called (1) Metasearch engines (2) Webcrawlers (3) Spiders (4) Hits (5) None of these 27. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include (1) use-case, class, and state diagrams (2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams (3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams (4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams (5) None of these 28. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the (1) database is structured (2) database is well-designed (3) database has no data (4) database is relatively small (5) database is relatively large 29. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer systems hardware? (1) Bootstrap memory (2) Volatile memory (3) Exteranl mass memory (4) Static memory (5) Random access memory 30. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use? (1) ARP (2) RARP (3) ICMP (4) PING (5) PONG 31. What is Internet 2? (1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks

(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access (3) A new standard for Internet browsers (4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology (5) None of these 32. The term, hypertext, means (1) Non-sequential writing (2) Hypermedia (3) Blinking text (4) Text with heavy formatting (5) None of these 33. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information? (1) Visit Googles cached page to view the older copy. (2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information. (3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there. (4) Use the wayback machine. (5) None of these 34. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas? (1) Cipher (2) Warded (3) Device (4) Tumbler (5) Typelock 35. A..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk. (1) system virus (2) trojan horse virus (3) file virus (4) macro virus (5) None of these Answers for the Questions from 1 to 35 are as follows 1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (5) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (1).

#1 Bank Clerical Exams Test I : Reasoning ability and Numerical Aptitude 1. Suresh is taller than Prabhu but shorter than Ram, Prabhu is as tall as Neeraj but taller than Nilesh. Which of the following statements is definitely true for Neeraj? (a) Neeraj is shorter than Nilesh

(b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:

Neeraj is the tallest Neeraj is the shortest Neeraj is taller than Nilesh None of these (d) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAINLESS each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e) None of these Ans: (e) None of these 3. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence? ARRANGEMENTS, RRANGEMENT, RANGEMEN, ?, NGEM (a) RANGEME (b) ANGEME (c) ANGEMENT (d) NGEMEN (e) None of these Ans: (b) ANGEME 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (a) Baking (b) Steaming (c) Cooking (d) Frying (e) Boiling Ans: (c) Cooking 5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group? (a) Radish (b) Orange (c) Pear (d) Mango (e) Apple Ans: (a) Radish 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (a) Earth (b) Moon (c) Saturn (d) Pluto (e) Venus Ans: (b) Moon

7. If water is called food, food is called drink, drink is called blue, blue is called red, red is called white and white is called brown, then what is the colour of ?blood? ? (a) Blue (b) Red (c) Brown (d) White (e) Drink Ans: (d) White 8. In a certain code language, the word ENQUIRY is written as YRIUQNE. How will the word REQUIRE be written in the code language ? (a) QERUERI (b) REQUERI (c) ERIUQER (d) IREUQER (e) None of these Ans: (c) ERIUQER 9. In a certain code language DESERT is written RTSEDE. How will the word FAULTS the written in that code language? (a) TSULFA (b) AFLUST (c) LUAFST (d) UAFSTL (e) None of these Ans: (a) TSULFA 10. How many meaningful English word can be formed by using the second, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word APPROPRIATION, each only once, but in different sequence ? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these (e) More than three Ans: (a) One Directions (Qs. 11?15) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 11. 7589 ? ? = 3434 (a) 3721 (b) 4155 (c) 3246 (d) 11023 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 4155 12. 300 + (10)2 x 2 = ? (a) 450 (b) 800

(c) (d) (e) Ans: 13.

500 550 None of these (c) 500

12.05 x 5.4 0.6 = ? (a) 105.55 (b) 108.45 (c) 118.45 (d) 118.55 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 108.45 2435 24 = 24? (a) 2.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) None of these Ans: (a) 2.5 78 x 14 + 7645 ? ? = 8247 (a) 580 (b) 590 (c) 490 (d) 480 (e) None of these Ans: (c) 490

14.

15.

Directions (Qs. 16?17) : I. ?P + Q? means P is the brother of Q II. ?P x Q? means P is the mother of Q III. ?P Q? means P is the sister of Q IV. ?P ? Q? means Q is the father of P 16. Which of the following represents ?B is the material uncle of C?? (a) B+AxC (b) BxC+A (c) BC+A (d) BxA+c (e) None of these Ans: (a) B+AxC 17. Which of the following statements is not necessary to answer the above question? (a) Only I and II (b) Only III (c) Only III and IV (d) Either II or III (e) All are necessary Ans: (c) Only III and IV 18. Pointing towards a woman a boy said, ?she is the only daughter of my mother?s brother?s only brother-inlaw?. How the woman is related to the boy? (a) Mother

(b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:

Aunt Sister-in-law Sister None of these (d) Sister

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 39 (d) 48 (e) 79 Ans: (e) 79 20. Ina certain code language DOWNBEAT is written as TABEWNDO. How will the word PROSPECT be written in that code language? (a) RPSOEPTC (b) TCPEOSPR (c) ORPSPTCE (d) TCPREPOS (e) None of these Ans: (b) TCPEOSPR Directions (Qs. 21?26) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 21. 37.5 (27)1.5 x 92 = 3? (a) 5 (b) 4.5 (c) 7 (d) 6.5 (e) None of these Ans: (c) 7 22. 28% of 450 + 45% of 280 = ? (a) 126 (b) 252 (c) 324 (d) 212 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 252 1027.05 ? 314.005 + 112.25 = ? (a) 825.395 (b) 825.095 (c) 825.305 (d) 825.295 (e) None of these Ans: (d) 825.295 (103.7 x 101.3)2 = 10? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 10

23.

24.

(d) (e) Ans: 25.

3 None of these (c) 10

40.83 x 1.02 x 1.2 = ? (a) 49.97592 (b) 41.64660 (c) 58.7952 (d) 42.479532 (e) None of these Ans: (a) 49.97592 3978 + 112 x 2 = ? 2 (a) 8180 (b) 2101 (c) 4090 (d) 8404 (e) None of these Ans: (d) 8404

26.

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? (a) 21 (b) 35 (c) 49 (d) 63 (e) 56 Ans: (c) 49 28. P is heavier than Q but lighter than R. Q is heavier than T. S is heavier than P but lighter than V. Who among them is the lightest? (a) V (b) S (c) T (d) R (e) None of these Ans: (c) T 29. In a certain code language TRANSPORT is written as RTASNPORT. How will the word GATEHOUSE be written in that code language ? (a) ETGAHOESU (b) ETAGHESUO (c) AGTHEOUSE (d) AGETHUOES (e) None of these Ans: (c) AGTHEOUSE 30. In a certain code language ?si re ga? MEANS ?Shyam is smart? and ?pa si ga? means? Animesh is smart?. What is the code for ?smart? in that code language? (a) si (b) re (c) ga

(d) (e) Ans:

pa None of these (e) None of these

Directions (Qs. 31?34) : What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions ? 31. 12.05 x 5.4 0.3 = ? (a) 108.55 (b) 216.90 (c) 118.45 (d) 118.55 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 216.90 32. 99 11 + 7 x 16 = (?)2 (a) 11 (b) 121 (c) 12 (d) 144 (e) None of these Ans: (a) 11 8400 120 x 15 + 150 = ? (a) 1050 (b) 1200 (c) 1100 (d) 1514 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 1200 45% of 1500 + 35% of 1700 = ?% of 3175 (a) 40 (b) 55 (c) 45 (d) 35 (e) None of these Ans: (a) 40

33.

34.

Directions (Qs. 35?39) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: The number 0 to 9 are coded in the following manner considering the exception given below: 3 H 6 5 P M 9 4 V R 7 S 0 G 2 D 8 J 1 K

. Exception 1: If a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last digits should be coded as X and Z. Exception 2: If a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last digits should be coded as A and B respectively. 35. What is the code for 5 2 1 8 6 3 ? (a) MDKJPH

(b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: 36.

ZDKJPX XDKJPZ ADKJPB None of these (c) XDKJPZ

What is the code for 492310 ? (a) RVDHKG (b) AVDHKB (c) VRDKHG (d) BVDHKA (e) None of these Ans: (a) RVDHKG

37. Which of the following numbers is represented by ASGHKB? I. 670312 II. 470313 III. 270318 (a) Only I and III (b) Only I and II (c) Only Ii and III (d) Only I (e) Only III Ans: (a) Only I and III 38. What is the code for 3186452 ? (a) HKJDMRP (b) KHPJMRD (c) DMRPHKJ (d) HKJPRMD (e) None of these Ans: (d) HKJPRMD

39. Which of the following numbers is represented by DPJRSV ? (a) 628794 (b) 268479 (c) 246793 (d) 168359 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 268479 40. Animesh and Anand together got a profit of Rs. 9,600 and they distributed between themselves in the ratio of 5 : 7. What is the share of Animesh? (a) Rs. 4,000 (b) Rs. 5,600 (c) Rs. 4,800 (d) Rs. 5,200 (e) None of these Ans: (a) Rs. 4,000 41. A man bought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs. 24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18. What is the profit per cent? (a) 50% (b) 60%

(c) (d) (e) Ans:

40% 25% None of these (a) 50%

42. A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100 sq feet per day approximately. What time will be taken by the cow to graze the grazeable area of the field? (a) 2 days (b) 18 days (c) 24 days (d) 6 days (e) None of these Ans: (d) 6 days 43. 7/8 of 3/7 of a number is equal to 25% of 45% of another number. What is the ratio of the first and the second numbers respectively? (a) 3:7 (b) 9: 10 (c) 3 : 10 (d) 3:2 (e) None of these Ans: (c) 3 : 10 44. Mr. Rahul spends 30% of his monthly salary on domestic expenses. He spends respectively 20% and 10% of the remaining salary on education of children and conveyance. Of the remaining amounts now he spends respectively 20% and 30% on entertainment and maintenance of house. He saves Rs. 5512.50. what is the monthly salary of Mr. Rahul? (a) Rs. 22,500 (b) Rs. 20,000 (c) Rs. 25,000 (d) Rs. 24,500 (e) None of these Ans: (a) Rs. 22,500 45. The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is 5 : 7 respectively. Four years hence the ratio will become 3 : 4 respectively. What is the present age of Renu in years? (a) 28 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 21 (e) None of these Ans: (a) 28 46. If instead of multiplying a number by 7 the number was divided by 7. What should be the percentage error? (a) 100% (b) 96.8% (c) 92.70%

(d) (e) Ans:

97.9% None of these (d) 97.9%

47. A car covers a certain distance taking 7 hours in forward journey. During the return journey, speed was increased by 12 kmph and it takes 5 hours. What is total distance covered? (a) 210 km (b) 70 km (c) 440 km (d) 220 km (e) None of these Ans: (a) 210 km 48. The LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is 27. If one of the numbers is 189, find the other number. (a) 248 (b) 128 (c) 297 (d) 336 (e) None of these Ans: (c) 297 49. The average between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 9. What is the difference between the two digits of the number? (a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these Ans: (d) Cannot be determined 50. A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What will be the area of the circle? (a) 88 cm2 (b) 1250 cm2 (c) 154 cm2 (d) 128 cm2 (e) None of these Ans: (e) None of these 51. The difference between a number and its three-fifth is 50. What is the number? (a) 75 (b) 100 (c) 125 (d) 80 (e) None of these Ans: (c) 125 52. Some persons decide to raise Rs. 3 lakhs by equal contribution from each of them. If they contributed Rs. 50 extra each, the contribution increased to Rs. 3.25 lakhs.

How many persons were there ? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 700 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 500 53. A sample of milk contains 5% water. What quantity of pure milk should be added to 10 litres of milk to reduce the water content to 2%? (a) 5 litres (b) 7 litres (c) 15 litres (d) 12 litres (e) None of these Ans: (c) 15 litres 54. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 1.50. Find the sum. (a) Rs. 800 (b) Rs. 1200 (c) Rs. 400 (d) Rs. 600 (e) None of these Ans: (d) Rs. 600 55. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are supposed to do 7/11th of the work. How much does C get? (a) Rs. 270 (b) Rs. 200 (c) Rs. 310 (d) Rs. 175 (e) None of these Ans: (b) Rs. 200 Directions (Qs. 56?60) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There is a five storey building including the ground floor and each floor has only one flat. All these flats have been occupied by the five Bank Probationary Officers. Each officer owns a different car. The cars are : Indica, Ikon, Indigo, Elentra and Santro. The five officers?A, B, X, Y and Z ? are employed in the different banks, viz., State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank (PNB), UCO Bank, ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank but not necessarily in the same order. Mr. X works in HDFC Bank and lives on the ground floor. The officer who lives on fourth (top) floor does not own Elentra or Santro. Mr. B works in PNB and owns Elentra car. The officer who works in UCO Bank and lives on second floor owns Indica car. Mr. Y lives on third floor and owns Indigo. Mr. Z works in ICICI Bank and Mr. Y works in State Bank of India. 56. Who among the following does own Santro car ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: 57.

A B X Cannot be determined None of these (c) X

Who lives on the second floor ? (a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) A (e) None of these Ans: (d) A On which floor does B live ? (a) First (b) Second (c) Fourth (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these Ans: (a) First Who among the following owns Indica car ? (a) X (b) A (c) Y (d) B (e) None of these Ans: (b) A

58.

59.

60. Which of the following combinations of the officer and car is correct ? (a) Mr. X : Elentra (b) Mr. Y : Ikon (c) Mr. A : Santro (d) Mr. Z : Ikon (e) None of these Ans: (d) Mr. Z : Ikon 61. For which of the following values of x the inequality x (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied ? (a) X > 2, x < -5 (b) -3 < x < 0 (c) -2 < x < 5 (d) X < -2, x > 5 (e) None of these Ans: (b) -3 < x < 0 62. There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. When the cistern is thoroughly repaired, it would be filled in 3 hours. It now takes half an hour longer. If the cistern is full, how long will the leak take to empty the cistern? (a) 24 hours (b) 28 hours (c) 21 hours

(d) (e) Ans:

27 hours None of these (a) 24 hours

63. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm respectively what will be the area of the rhombus? (a) 35 sq cm (b) 40 sq cm (c) 30 sq cm (d) 20 sq cm (e) None of these Ans: (b) 40 sq cm 64. Some toys were distributed equally among 18 children in such a way that the number of toys each child gets is equal to the total number of children and after distribution 6 toys are left out. What was the total number of toys? (a) 324 (b) 330 (c) 336 (d) 320 (e) None of these Ans: (b) 330 65. A shopkeeper allows 10% discount on the price of an article and sells it for Rs. 7,600. What is the market price of the article ? (a) Rs. 8,250 (b) Rs. 8,500 (c) Rs. 8,540 (d) Rs. 8,415 (e) None of these Ans: (e) None of these Directions (Qs. 66?70) : Below in each question five words are given. Which of them will come in the middle place if all of them are arranged alphabetically? Serial number of that word is the answer. 66. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) Encounter Enormous Engineer Enlarge Encroach (c) Engineer Network Nepotism Neutral Neighbour Nervous (e) Nervous Granular Gratuity

67.

68.

(c) (d) (e) Ans: 69. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:

Gravitate Greatness Grateful (b) Gratuity Residential Reputation Resistant Residence Reschedule (d) Residence Bracelet Boutique Bourgeois Brackish Bramble (a) Bracelet

70.

Directions (Qs. 71?75) : the number group in each question is to be codified in the following codes : Number3 8 7 0 1 9 6 4 2 5 Codes N L D M H B V R G P . You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) has the correct coded form of the given number group. If none of the coded form is correct, mark (E) as the answer. 71. 6182734 (a) HBGPLDM (b) VBLGRNH (c) VHLGDNR (d) BHNDGHR (e) None of these Ans: (c) VHLGDNR 72. 349805 (a) NRBLMP (b) BRNLPM (c) LRDGMP (d) PMLHBR (e) None of these Ans: (a) NRBLMP 57920642 (a) DPBGMVRH (b) PDBRLNGH (c) MVRGHLDP (d) PDBGMVRG (e) None of these Ans: (d) PDBGMVRG 7561024

73.

74.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: 75.

DPVGMRH DPVHMGR HMRLDVP VHDPGRL None of these (b) DPVHMGR

48236017 (a) RLGDLMHV (b) BNDPGMRH (c) VHMGDMRL (d) HNPGBMHV (e) None of these Ans: (e) None of these

Directions (Qs. 76?80) : the news item given in each question below is to be classified into one of the following five areas. (a) Political and Social, (b) sports and Culture, (c) Science and Health (d) Economics and Commerce, and (e) Miscellaneous 76. International Film Festival of India was organized in Chennai recently. Ans: (b) sports and Culture 77. India will host 2010 Commonwealth Games Ans: (b) sports and Culture

78. Sustained efforts are needed to secure the release of hotages. Ans: (e) Miscellaneous 79. India and Japan are considering to have dialogue on defence issue. Ans: (a) Political and Social 80. New vaccine MMR has been developed for children. Ans: (c) Science and Health

TEST ?III :: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Qs. 81?90) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Fourteen centuries ago when the world was much younger, the ruler of all India, Rajah Balhait, was ??..(151) about his people. A new game of dice, called hard, had ???(152) the imagination of his subjects, teaching them that chance alone-a-roll of the dice guided the ???(153) of men. All who played this game of fortune lost their ???(155) in the virtues of courage, prudence, wisdom and hope. It bred a fatalism that was ???(155) the spirit of the kingdom. Raja Balhait commissioned Sissa, an

intelligent courter at his court to find an answer to this ???(156) After much ???(157) the clever Sissa invented another game. Chaturanga, the exact ???(158) of hard, in which the four elements of the Indian army were the key pleces. In the game these pieces-chariots, horses, elephants and foot soldiers-joined with a royal counselor to defend their king and defeat the enemy. Forceful ??? (159) was demanded of the players?not luck. Chaturanga soon became more popular than hard, and the ???(160) to the Kingdom was over. 81. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) concerned confident ignorant indifferent partisan (a) concerned propelled enshrined captured activated enhanced (c) captured communities ways abnormalities destiny groups (d) destiny bravado interest peace wealth faith (b) interest appalling crushing moistening promoting overwhelming (e) overwhelming apprehension risk problem game destiny (e) destiny deliberation absorption insight

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

(d) (e) Ans: 88. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:

hesitation reluctance (a) deliberation nature equivalent picture opposite replica (d) opposite prediction concentration manipulation attack fortune (b) concentration devastation anxiety impeachment nuisance threat (e) threat

89.

90.

Directions (Qs. 91?95) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is not error, the answer is ?E?. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) 91. If your don?t (a) / understand any of these words (b) / you could (c) / always refer a dictionary. (d) / No error (e) Ans: (e) 92. Tea is so hot (a) / that she (b) / can (c) / take it. (d) / No error (e) Ans: (a) 93. The teacher said (a) / that the earth (b) / moves round (c) / the sun. (d) / No error (e) Ans: (e) 94. He told to me (a) / that he (b) / was going away (c) / the next day. (d) / No error (e) Ans: (b) 95. The lecturer says (a) / that Solomon won the respect (b) / of all races and (c) / classes by his justice. (d) / No error (e) Ans: (e) Directions (Qs. 96?100) : In each of the following questions, select the most appropriate word from among the five words given below the sentence to fill in

the blanks in the sentence so as to complete it meaningfully. 96. Sunil was ???asleep and could not be easily awakened. (a) high (b) fast (c) severe (d) total (e) has Ans: (b) fast 97. The vehicle did not come to a sudden halt since he braked ??? (a) immediately (b) silently (c) gently (d) completely (e) detected Ans: (c) gently 98. I saw him going escorted ??? two policemen. (a) with (b) against (c) by (d) on (e) for Ans: (c) by

99. Madhav is a sick man and has to be taken to the doctor ??? (a) usually (b) timely (c) seldom (d) frequently (e) avoided Ans: (d) frequently 100. The child was left in the servants ??? (a) care (b) duty (c) work (d) help (e) innocence Ans: (a) care

Directions (Qs. 101?105) : Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions given below them. I. We were interested by contrast in understanding what lessons actual teams and non-teams had for others to choose to struggle with change and performance. II. Still, we suspected that most of these focused on persuading readers that ?terms are important?. III. After all we thought teams are a well-known subject

and there must be a thousand books on the subject already. IV. By going down this path we hope to discover something to say that was different from most books on the subject. V. We approached the idea of a book on teams cautiously. VI. Alternatively they focused on providing you to advise on building teams as an objective in it self. 101. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence? (a) I (b) II (c) VI (d) III (e) IV Ans: (d) III 102. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence ? (a) V (b) I (c) II (d) III (e) IV Ans: (a) V Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence ? (a) V (b) III (c) II (d) VI (e) IV Ans: (c) II Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence ? (a) III (b) IV (c) II (d) VI (e) I Ans: (e) I Which of the following will be the LAST sentence ? (a) III (b) IV (c) V (d) VI (e) II Ans: (b) IV

103.

104.

105.

Directions (Qs. 106?110) : In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold type, which are numbered (A), (B), (C), (D). One of these words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is (E), i.e., all correct. 106. He had experienced (a) / a purposefully (b) /

discussion (c) / on topics of our interest. (d) / All correct (e) Ans: (b) 107. To solve a (a) / problem, one needs to have (b) / intelligent and firm (c) / determination. (d) / All correct (e) Ans: (c) 108. Many legends (a) / superstions endow the moon with (b) / a beauty and mistery which will (c) / linger for countless years. (d) / All correct (e) Ans: (c) 109. People in our country are distressed (a) / by the spate of strikes, an almost (b) / perpetual go-slow and (c) / increadibly low productivity. (d) / All correct (e) Ans: (d) 110. The faces of the (a) / twins were so (b) / identical that we could not (c) / differentiate between them. (d) / All correct (e) Ans: (c) Directions (Qs. 111?115) : In each of the following questions five words are given, which are numbered I, II, III, IV and V. By using all the five words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of the words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer sheet. 111. I. interested II. in III. children IV. are V. games (a) III, IV, I, II, V (b) V, IV, I, II, III (c) III, IV, V, I, II (d) III, V, IV, I, II (e) III, IV, II, V, I Ans: (a) III, IV, I, II, V 112. I. was VI. go (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: 113. IV. I. book (a) (b) (c) II. to III. he V. ready III, I, II, IV, V I, III, IV, II, V III, IV, II, V, I I, II, IV, III, V III, I, V, II, IV (e) III, I, V, II, IV found II. lost V. we V, II, III, I, IV III, IV, II, V, I V, I, III, II, IV III. his

(d) (e) Ans: 114. IV. I. me (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: I. your (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans:

V, II, III, IV, I III, IV, V, II, I (c) V, I, III, II, IV of II. he III. V. was V, II, IV, I, III II, V, IV, I, III IV, V, III, I, II II, V, III, I, IV II, III, V, I, IV (d) II, III, V, I, IV proud

115. IV.

decision II. happy III. V. me IV, III, V, II, I IV, I, III, V, II II, I, III, V, IV IV, I, V, III, II II, III, V, IV, I (b) IV, I, III, V, II

made

Directions (Qs. 116?120) : In the following questions, five words are given out of which only one is mis-spelt. Find that mis-spelt word and indicate it in the Answer Sheet. 116. (a) combination (b) exageration (c) hallucination (d) admonition (e) clinical Ans: (b) exageration 117. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ans: (a) (b) sacrosanct sacrelege sacred sacrament segment (b) sacrelege allitration allowance almighty almanac illicit (a) allitration idiosyncrasy idealise idiosy ideology ieonoclass (c) idiosy jaundise jasmine

118.

119.

120.

(c) (d) (e) Ans:

jevelin jarving judgement (a) jaundise

Directions (Qs. 121?130) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Nature is an infinite source of beauty. Sunrise and sunset, mountains and rivers, lakes and glaciers, forests and fields provide joy and bliss to the human mind and heart for hours together. Everything in nature is splendid and divine. Everyday and every season of the year has a peculiar beauty to unfold. Only one should have eyes to behold it and a heart to feel it like the English poet William Wordsworth who after seeing daffodils said: ?And then my heart with pleasure fills and dances with the daffodils?. Nature is a great teacher. The early man was thrilled with beauty and wonders of nature. The Aryans worshipped nature. One can learn the lessons in the vast school of nature. Unfortunately the strife, the stress and the tension of modern life have made people immune to beauties of nature. Their life is so full of care that they have no time to stand and stare. They cannot enjoy the beauty of lowing rivers, swinging trees, flying birds and majestic mountains and hills. There is however, a cry to go back to village from the concrete and artificial jungle of cities. Hence the town planners of today pay special attention to provide enough number of natural scenic spots in town planning. To develop a balanced personality, one needs to have a healthy attitude which can make us appreciate and enjoy the beauty of nature. There is other balm to soothe our tired soul and listless mind than the infinite nature all around us. We should enjoy it fully to lead a balanced and harmonious life, full of peace and tranquility. 121. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word care as used in the passage ? (a) grief (b) want (c) needs (d) pleasure (e) prejudices Ans: (a) grief 122. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word unfold as used in the passage. (a) declare (b) conceal (c) describe (d) perpetuate (e) evolve Ans: (b) conceal

123. Which of the following statements is not made in the passage about Nature? (a) Nature is an infinite source of beauty (b) Everything in nature is splendid and divine (c) Nature is a great teacher (d) The Aryans worshipped Nature (e) The early man was scared of Nature Ans: (e) The early man was scared of Nature 124. What is needed to develop balanced personality? (a) interpersonal skills (b) reading poetry (c) healthy attitude (d) going back to villages (e) None of these Ans: (c) healthy attitude

125.

Why do people not enjoy the beauty of Nature ? (a) They are running after material pleasures (b) They do not consider nature as balm to soothe their fired minds (c) Their life is full of worries and tensions (d) They are afraid of nature (e) None of these Ans: (c) Their life is full of worries and tensions 126. beauty (c) (d) (e) Ans: 127. Lead a disciplined and dedicated life Enjoy the nature around us Form a habit of daily physical exercise (d) Enjoy the nature around us What should we do to enjoy tranquil life ? (a) Get totally immersed in our daily routine (b) Believe that nature is infinite source of

What are the town planners doing today? (a) Providing facilities for enjoying nature (b) Establishing balance between concrete and artificial jungle of cities (c) Supporting the cry to go back to villages (d) Making efforts to inculcate healthy attitude among people (e) None of these Ans: (a) Providing facilities for enjoying nature 128. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word listless as used in the passage (a) active (b) progressive (c) backward (d) hidden (e) impure Ans: (a) active

129. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word soothe as used in the passage ? (a) stabilize (b) excite (c) propagate (d) nature (e) strengthen Ans: (b) excite 130. According to the author of the passage, Nature (a) is the ultimate salvation of man (b) is the creator of this universe (c) brings uniformity in all seasons (d) maintains homeostasis in human beings (e) is abundantly glorious and divine Ans: (e) is abundantly glorious and divine

State Bank of India Clerical Exam Model Qn paper 1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is: a. 199999 b. 201110 c. 211110 d. 1099999 e. None of these 2. Value of 112 * 54. is : a. 6700 b. 70000 c. 76500 d. 77200 e. None of these 3. 1399*1399 a. 1687401 b. 1901541 c. 1943211 d. 1957201 e. None of these 4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5s. The smallest such no. is a. 41625 b. 42135 c. 42515 d. 42735 e. None of these 5. If n is ve no. then which of the following is least. a. 0 b. n c. 2n d. n2 e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is : a. 0 b. -3 c. -4 d. -5 e. None of these 7. The least prime no. is : a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of these 8. The sum of prime no.s b/w 60 and 75 is: a. 199 b. 201 c. 211 d. 272 e. None of these 9. Total no. of even prime no.s is : a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None e. None of these 10. How many Nos B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5. a. 40 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120 e. None of these 11. The digit in units place of product 81*82..*89 is: a. 0 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8 e. None of these 12. The sum of first 45 natural nos is : a. 1035 b. 1280 c. 2070 d. 2140 e. None of these 13. The units digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is : a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11 a. 235641 b. 245642 c. 315624 d. 415624 e. None of these 15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural nos is: a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 120 e. None of these 16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by: a. 3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. None of these 17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is : a. 10 b. 20 c. 35 d. 80 e. None of these 18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is : a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these 19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687: a. 98928 b. 99479 c. 99615 d. 100166 e. None of these 20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is a. 6 b. 12 c. 14 d. 18 e. None of these 21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99: a. 99909 b. 99981 c. 99990 d. 99999 e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be a. 1 b. 2 c. 7 d. 21 e. None of these 23. The diff. b/w 2 nos is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is : a. 240 b. 270 c. 295 d. 360 e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is : a. 4236 b. 4306 c. 4336 d. 5336 e. None of these 25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is : a. 9947 b. 9987 c. 9989 d. 9996 e. None of these ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION : 1) a 2) 1120000/16 = b 3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d 4) 555555/13 = d 5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c 14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c 22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b