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BIOLOGY:

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What stage in the meiosis do the paired homologous chromosomes line up along the equatorial plate? prophase metaphase telophase anaphase Question 1 Explanation: Metaphase is the stage in meoisis when the paired homologous pair line up along the equatorial plate forming the spindle fiber. Question 2 WRONG Which of the following does not happen during mitosis? Replication of DNA strands None of the above Coiling up of chromatin Movement of the chromosomes towards the center Question 2 Explanation: coiling up of chromatin, replication of DNA strands and movement of the chromosomes toward the center all happen during mitosis. Question 3 CORRECT Simple, multicellular animals with tissues but no distinct organs. Commonly known as sponges, they typically attach to rocks, shells, or coral. What are they called? Cnidaria Placozoa Porifera Ctenophora Question 3 Explanation: Poriferans are characterized by the presence of pores. sponges Question 4 CORRECT Rice, the staple food of many Filipinos, could be categorized to belong in: Kingdom Plantae Phylum Anthophyta Class Monocotyledonae Order Glumiflorae Family Poaceae Genus Oryza Species Sativa Both rice and corn belongs to the class Monocotyledonae, then they must also belong to the same _________. Genus species phylum Family Question 4 Explanation: if rice and corn belong to the same class, then they must also belong to the same phylum and kingdom. Question 5 CORRECT What differentiates a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell? Presence of true nucleus Presence of chromosomes None of the above Presence of cell membrane Question 5 Explanation: a prokaryotic cell does not have a true nucleus. It only has a nucleoid that is not bounded by the nuclear membrane. Question 6 CORRECT One phylum of animals, the chordates, has been more intensively studied than has any other, because it comprises nearly all the world's largest and most familiar animals as well as humans. The feature uniting these animals is that at some stage in their lives, all have a flexible supporting rod, called a ___________. redochord notochord phyochord

spina Question 7 CORRECT What happens to the amount energy as the level rises in the food pyramid? remains constant increases decreases decrease then increase Question 7 Explanation: as the level rises in the food pyramid, energy decreases. Question 8 CORRECT What symbiotic relationship refers to the partial dependence of the evolutionary changes of an organism to another specie which it has a close ecological relationship? This is observed in viceroy and monarch butterflies. codependence correlation coexistence coevolution Question 8 Explanation: Coevolution is the symbiotic relationship referring to the partial independence of the evolutionary changes of an organism to another specie which it has a close ecological relationship. Question 9 CORRECT What type of reproduction involves gametes? fusion fission sexual asexual Question 9 Explanation: sexual reproduction is characterized by the use of gametes or sexual organs and reproductive cells (sperm and egg) Question 10 WRONG A new insecticide was very effective in killing flies and mosquitoes. After several months, fewer insects were observed to die from the spray. The reason why fewer insects are killed is that ___________. There is permanent mutation giving insects resistance to the insecticide. The insecticides effectiveness was reduced with aging Insects which survive the spraying have developed immunity to the insecticide. Insects which survive the spraying developed a liking for the insecticide. Question 10 Explanation: Natural selection - Insects which survive the spraying have developed immunity to the insecticide. Question 11 CORRECT Which best describes the composition and organization of the human body? cells > organs > parts > system organs > tissue > system cells > tissues > organs > system bones > muscle > skin > system Question 11 Explanation: cell is the basic unit of life. Group of cells-tissue. Group of tissues organ. Group of organs system. Systems organism. Question 12 CORRECT Which of the following is not true about vertebrates? None of the above. They all have notochords They belong to the phylum chordates. They are all warm blooded.

Question 12 Explanation: some vertebrates are warm blooded like humans. Some are cold blooded like reptiles. Question 13 WRONG What will happen if the white blood cells are deteriorating? The nerve impulses will not be carried to the brain There will be no production of hormone to clot the blood The harmful bacteria in the body will not be destroyed Oxygen cells will not be transported Question 13 Explanation: the white blood cells are the soldiers of the body that fight harmful organisms that enter the body. Question 14 WRONG What best describes a cold blooded animal? body fluid temperature adapts to environment thrive in cold environment the blood is cold first order consumers Question 14 Explanation: a cold blooded animal has body fluid temperature that adapts to environmental changes. Question 15 CORRECT Which of the following does not describe a prokaryotic cell? Their DNA is not bound by a nuclear membrane. They posses an extensive endoplasmic reticulum They do not posses a true nucleus. A plasma membrane surrounds and encloses the prokaryotic cell. Question 15 Explanation: a prokaryotic cell does not possess any membrane bound organelle like endoplasmic reticulum. The DNA is just suspended in the cytoplasm. A prokaryotic cell is enclosed by a plasma membrane. Question 16 CORRECT In time of severe cold, animals may hibernate for days or weeks at a time. Their body temperature drops, and they breathe only a few times in a minute. A hibernating animal uses the fat store in its body for nourishment. In times of severe heat, other animals may estivate. Just as with hibernating animals, the body function of estivating animals slow down almost to a stop. To an observer, the animal appears to be either in deep sleep or dead. Which of the following facts about hibernation probably does not increase the animals chances of survival? The animal stays underground for weeks. The animal exists on body fat. The animal cannot move around. The animals temperature drops Question 16 Explanation: when the animals temperature drops, it might die. that's why some animals dont come out of hibernation. Question 17 CORRECT In time of severe cold, animals may hibernate for days or weeks at a time. Their body temperature drops, and they breathe only a few times in a minute. A hibernating animal uses the fat store in its body for nourishment. In times of severe heat, other animals may estivate. Just as with hibernating animals, the body function of estivating animals slow down almost to a stop. To an observer, the animal appears to be either in deep sleep or dead. What generalization could be accurately said about hibernation and estivation? Both are response to extreme temperature. Both are response to winter. Both use more energy than when the animal is awake. Both are response to summer. Question 17 Explanation:

Hibernation- in time of severe cold, estivation-in times of severe heat. Question 18 CORRECT Bats are classified as mammals because they have __________. beaks feathers teeth mammary gland Question 18 Explanation: bats are classified as mammals because they have mammary glands. Question 19 CORRECT What does a plant cell have that an animal cell doesnt? golgi apparatus cell wall nucleus lysosomes Question 19 Explanation: cell walls are only contained in plant cells. Lysosomes are only in animals. Nucleus and golgi apparatus are both contained in animal cell and plant cell. Question 20 WRONG Which of the following process maintains the carbon dioxide-oxygen cycle? fossil fuels respiration decomposition photosynthesis Question 20 Explanation: the carbon dioxide- oxygen cycle is maintained in the respiration of plants and animals. Question 21 CORRECT The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of ___________ interspersed with cholesterol and proteins. lipid molecules hydrophilic molecules phospholipids molecules hydrophobic molecules Question 22 WRONG What do we mean when we say that organisms with favorable variations reproduce more successfully than organisms with less favorable variations? Use and disuse Production Survival of the fittest Cross- breeding Question 22 Explanation: survival of the fittest: according to Darwin's theory of evolution, organisms that have adapted better to their environment reproduce more effectively than those that dont. Question 23 CORRECT Most plants are not suitable for human consumption. This is because we do not posses the ability to digest them properly. Why is this so? They have a high concentration of cellulose We cant chew them properly. They are poisonous. Plants have an anti-digestion substance in them Question 23 Explanation: Cell wall is composed of cellulose. Human beings do not possess enzymes and rumens that can digest cellulose properly.

Question 24 CORRECT Ferns, gymnosperms and flowering plants are vascular plants because __________________. The have a water nutrient transport system They are seed bearing plants They have specialized stems for storage They develop from an embryo Question 24 Explanation: the vascular system conducts food, water and minerals through small vessels we call xylem and phloem. Question 25 CORRECT Photosynthesis is the process by which plants manufacture their own food. At what form do the products of photosynthesis stored? starch root crops fruits bulbs Question 25 Explanation: The product of photosynthesis is stored as starch (food). Question 26 CORRECT Rice, the staple food of many Filipinos, could be categorized to belong in: Kingdom Plantae Phylum Anthophyta Class Monocotyledonae Order Glumiflorae Family Poaceae Genus Oryza Species Sativa What is the scientific name of rice? Monocotyledonae Sativa Oryza sativa Glumiflorae sativa Poaceae Sativa Question 26 Explanation: The scientific name of an organism is taken from the genus and the species. (binomial nomenclature) Question 27 WRONG The skin is composed of tissues wherein cells are compactly arranged. This tissues are called _______. epidermis Connective Epithelial Plasmic Question 27 Explanation: the skin is composed of epithelial tissues. Question 28 CORRECT Plants give off oxygen as a by product of photosynthesis. While human beings and animals give off carbon dioxide. What symbiotic relationship occurs between the two? mutualism parasitism commensalism realism Question 28 Explanation: Mutualism is the symbiotic relationship when both are benefited from the interaction Question 29 CORRECT What is the function of nervous system? to transport oxygen to the cells to carry nerve impulses to and from the brain to produce hormones to clot the blood to control all the organs of the body Question 29 Explanation: the nervous system carry nerve impulses from the brain to the different parts of the body.

Question 30 WRONG Genes carry the hereditary information from one offspring to another. What organic compound in genes is specifically designed for this task? Nucleic acids Proteins Lipids Enzymes Question 30 Explanation: Genes carry the hereditary information. The DNA in genes is designed for this task. DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid.

CHEMISTRY

Question 1 CORRECT What are electrons found in an incomplete outer shell of an atom called? electron configuration valence electrons lone pair electronegativity Question 1 Explanation: Electrons found in an incomplete outer shell of an atom are called valence electrons. Question 2 CORRECT What kind of Chemical reaction is the following? CaCO3 > CaO + CO2 Double Replacement Single Replacement Combination Decomposition Question 2 Explanation: Calcium carbonate decomposes into CaO and carbon dioxide Question 3 WRONG A mixture shows the following properties: Its particles do not settle down, can not be filtered, and cannot be seen by the naked eye. The mixture does not show the Tyndall effect. Which of the following best describe this mixture? colloid homogeneous solution suspension Question 3 Explanation: Solution is the mixture that particles don not settle down, cannot be filtered, and cannot be seen by the naked eye. Question 4 CORRECT Which of the following is true about sub atomic particles, mass number and atomic number? proton plus electron is equal to the mass number neutron number can be calculated given only the mass number mass number is equal to the number of neutron atomic number is equal to the number of protons Question 4 Explanation: Atomic number is equal to the number of protons. Mass number is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons. Question 5 CORRECT Which of the following is not a chemical reaction? freezing carbon dioxide rusting of metal

burning paper ripening of fruit Question 5 Explanation: Freezing carbon dioxide does not involve change in chemical composition and formation of new products. Therefore, it is physical reaction. Question 6 CORRECT Random movement of particles is least observable in what phase of matter? gas solid plasma liquid Question 6 Explanation: Random movement of particles is least observable in solids. The particles are compactly arranged in solids. Question 7 WRONG The formula that indicates the local number of atoms of the elements in a compound is the empirical formula structural formula molecular formula simplest formula Question 7 Explanation: The formula that indicates the local number of atoms of the elements in a compound is the empirical formula. Question 8 CORRECT If 50 g of reactants are used up in a reaction, what will be the mass of the products? 50 45 30 25 Question 8 Explanation: Based on the law of mass conservation, if 50 g of the reactants is used up in a reaction, 50g of the products will be produced. Question 9 WRONG What are the products of the reaction of MgCl2 and KOH? MgO + K + HCl MgK + HCl Question 9 Explanation: The reaction between magnesium chloride and potassium hydroxide is a double replacement reaction that produces Mg(OH)2 and KCl. Question 10 WRONG What kind of Chemical reaction is this? Zn + H2SO4 > ZnSO4 + H2 Decomposition Double Replacement Single Replacement Combination Question 10 Explanation: Zinc replaces hydrogen. Question 11 CORRECT A chemical bond is an attractive force that holds atoms together. What type of chemical bond which refers to the electrovalent or electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions? Covalent Bond Polar Covalent Bond Crystal Lattice Ionic Bond

Question 11 Explanation: ionic bond refers to the electrostatic attraction between positive( cation) and negative (anion) ions. Question 12 CORRECT What kind of Chemical reaction is this? Mg + N2 > Mg3N2 Double Replacement Decomposition Single Replacement Combination Question 12 Explanation: Mg combines with nitrogen to produce magnesium nitride. Question 13 WRONG Balance the following chemical equations: C6H14O4 + O2 > CO2 + H2O Question 13 Explanation: The balanced chemical equation is C= 2x 6 =12 : C = 12, H = 2 x 14 = 28 : H = 14 x 2 = 28, O = 2 x4 + 15x2 =38 : O = 12 x 2 + 14 = 38, Question 14 WRONG Nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to produce ammonia as shown in the following equation: N 2 + 3H2 > 2NH3 Given 7.5 mol H2, how many grams of H2 will be produced? 100 15 30 45 Question 14 Explanation: Given 7.5 mol Hydrogen: 7.5 mol H2 x 2g/mol H2 = 15 g H2 Question 15 WRONG Which of the following statement is true? Orbitals make up a subshell; subshells make up a shell. Shells make up an orbital; orbitals make up a subshell. Subshells make up a shell; shells make up an orbital. None of the above. Question 15 Explanation: Orbitals (s, p, d, f) make up subshell (2s, 2p, 2d, 2f), subshells make up the shell (energy levels 1, 2, 3,7) Question 16 CORRECT If the volume of one mole of gas molecules remains constant, lowering the temperature will make the pressure increase increase then decrease decrease then increase decrease Question 16 Explanation: From the combined gas law, pressure is inversely proportional to the volume and is directly proportional to the temperature. If the temperature is decreased, the pressure also decreases inside a container. Question 17 CORRECT What happens to the volume of a confined gas if its pressure is doubled and its temperature remains constant? decrease will remain the same all of the above increase Question 17 Explanation: According to Boyles law, at constant temperature, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the amount of pressure exerted on it. If the pressure is doubled, volume will decrease.

Question 18 CORRECT Atoms of the same elements having the same atomic number can have different mass number due to differences in their number of neutrons. These atoms are _______. protons isotopes isomers neutrons Question 18 Explanation: Atoms of the same elements having the same atomic number can have different mass number due to differences in their number of neutrons. These atoms are called isotopes. Question 19 Element Radon Mass # ? Atomic # 53 CORRECT Proton # ? Electron # ? Neutron # 74

What is the proton #? 53 74 106 127 Question 19 Explanation: proton # = atomic number = 53 Question 20 WRONG Given the following electron configuration, determine the group number and period number of the element. 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5 Period 4, Group 5 Period 7, Group 3 Period 5, Group 4 Period 4, Group 7 Question 20 Explanation: There are 7 valence electron in the valence shell 4. The group number can be predicted from the number of valence electron and the period number from the valence shell. Therefore, the element is in group7 & period 4 in the periodic table of the elements. Question 21 CORRECT Element Mass # Atomic # Proton # Electron # Neutron # ? ? ? Radon 53 74 what is the electron #? 74 127 106 53 Question 21 Explanation: in a neutral atom, the number of electron is also equal to the number of protons = 53 Question 22 WRONG A gas measures 100 mL at 26 C and 1atm. What will be its volume at 13 C and 0.5 atm? 209 109 57 153 Question 22 Explanation: V2 = 1*100**299.15 / 0.5 * 286.15 = 29915 / 143.075 = 209 Question 23 CORRECT

Nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to produce ammonia as shown in the following equation: N2 + 3H2 > 2NH3 How many moles of H2 are needed to react with 2.5 mole N2? 7.5 10.0 5.0 2.5 Question 23 Explanation: Given Moles of Hydrogen = ? 2.5 moles N2 Stoic Ratio : 1 N2 = 3 H2 Moles of H2 = 2.5 mol N2 x 3molH2/1molN2 = 7.5 mol H2 Question 24 CORRECT What kind of Chemical reaction is the following? FeCl 2 + Na3PO4 > Fe (PO4)2 + NaCl Double Replacement Combination Single Replacement Decomposition Question 24 Explanation: double replacement reaction. Fe replaces Na and Cl replaces PO4. Question 25 CORRECT A gas measures 450 mL at a temp of 30C, what will be its volume at 50 C? (450 mL x 303 k)/323 k (300 mL x 323 k)/303 k (303 mL x 323 k)/303 k (450 mL x 323 k)/303 k Question 25 Explanation: Given: V1 = 450 mL V2 = ? T1 = 30 C T2 = 50 C V2 = V1T2/T1 = 450mlX323K/303K Question 26 CORRECT What volume of HCl is needed to prepare 3L of 3 molar hydrochloric acid from a 6 molar solution? 2.0 L 2.5 L 1.0 L 1.5 L Question 26 Explanation: Given M1 = 3M V1 = 3L M2 = 6M V2 = ? M1 V1 = M2 V2 V2 = [M1V1]/M2 = 3x3/6 = 1.5 L Question 27 CORRECT Which of the following does not belong to the group? Normality Acidity Molality Molarity Question 27 Explanation: Molarity, molality, and normality are all modes of expressing concentration of solutions. Acidity is the measure of alkalinity of solutions. Question 28 CORRECT Cyanogen (C2N2) can be prepared by a catalyzed phase reaction between HCN and NO2. The products of the reaction are C2N2, NO, and H2O. What is the balanced chemical reaction? Question 28 Explanation: H=2H=2C=2C=2N=3N=3O=2O=2 Question 29 CORRECT In a compound, the sum of the total positive oxidation numbers and negative oxidation numbers must be equal to _____________. 3 2 1

0 Question 29 Explanation: In a compound, the sum of the total positive oxidation numbers and negative oxidation numbers must be equal to zero. Question 30 CORRECT Element Radon What is the mass #? 74 106 53 127 Question 30 Explanation: mass number = neutron number plus proton number = 74 + 53 = 127 Mass # ? Atomic # 53 Proton # ? Electron # ? Neutron # 74

GENERAL SCIENCE
Question 1 WRONG Which of the following is may NOT cause weathering? Oxidation Animals None of the above Repeated heating and cooling of rocks Question 1 Explanation: Weathering is the breaking down of rocks. Thermal expansion can physically break rocks while Oxidation chemically breaks them down. Animals and human being can also physically break them consciously or accidentally. Question 2 WRONG Amount of Food use Temperature Room lighting Exposure moisture Home made o 37 C Dimly lighted Air High pandesal Home made 37oC Dimly lighted Air Low pandesal What is the independent variable in the setup? amount of moisture temperature type of bread exposure time Question 2 Explanation: the independent variable is the factor that is being changed in the experiment. The amount of moisture is the factor being changed in the experiment given. Question 3 WRONG What is 30 oC in oF? 102 F 58 F 86 F 30 F Question 3 Explanation: F = 9/5 __C + 32 F = 9/5 (30) + 32 F = 86

Result Plenty of molds Tiny spots of molds

Question 4 WRONG Salt water has a density greater than that of pure water. What does this mean? Salt water is lighter than water Salt water is as heavy as water Saltwater has more volume than water Salt water is heavier than water Question 4 Explanation: Density is directly proportional to mass. D = M/v Question 5 WRONG 150 mg is equal to __________. 0.150g 1.50 g 15.0g 0.015 g Question 5 Explanation: 150 mg * 1g / 1000 mg = 0.15 g Question 6 WRONG Mercury is used when mining gold. It helps separate gold from other particles such stone and sand. How is done? Mercury melts the other particles clinging to the ore. Mercury is a pollutant thus it separates pure gold from impurities. Mercury is denser that most impurities thus they float on mercury while gold sinks. Gold shines better once submerge in mercury. Question 6 Explanation: Gold is denser than mercury however other particles clinging to the ore is less dense than the liquid metal thus, they float. Question 7 WRONG Johannes Kepler once believed that the planets revolve around the sun in a perfect circular orbits. However, after being provided with astounding evidences, he change his notion to the fact that they follow elliptical ones. This exhibits Keplers __________. Open-mindedness Critical thinking Curiosity Intellectual honesty Question 7 Explanation: Kepler showed his willingness to modify his ideas based on scientific fact provided. This shows that he is open-minded. Question 8 WRONG Which of the following is not a direct effect of global warming? Climate change Melting of ice caps. Oxygen depletion. Increase in sea level. Question 8 Explanation: Global warming is the steady increase of earths temperature caused by trapped sunlight. This will steadily change climates i n the planet. The increase in temperature will cause ice to melt in locations with polar climate and cause the melted ice to increase sea level. Question 9 WRONG Why is Venus the twin planet of the Earth? Venus has the distance similar to earth from the sun Venus has the same orbit as the Earth to the sun Life is possible in Venus Venus has almost the same size as the Earth Question 9 Explanation: Venus is called the win planet of the earth because they almost have the same size.

Question 10 WRONG Gon wants to know which is stronger, Bisukes punch or Killuas . Using the scientific method, how should Gon setup his controlled experiment? Let Bisuke and Killua punch the same object a number of times then compare the damage done All of the above Let Bisuke and Killua punch him then compare which is more painful Let Bisuke and Killua fight till one of them wins. Question 10 Explanation: using the scientific method, we can let Bisuke and Killua punch the same object a number of times and compare the damage done. (You would not want to be hurt in an experiment, right?) Question 11 WRONG Which is NOT a description of the climate? Savanna Autumn Dry Subtropical Question 11 Explanation: Climate defines the long term atmospheric condition of an area. Main classifications are as follow: a. Tropical b. Dry c. Mild Temperate d. Continental e. Polar Question 12 WRONG What absorbs a portion of the radiation from the sun, preventing it from reaching the earths surface? Freon Chloroflorocarbon Charon Ozone Question 12 Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs a portion of the radiation from the sun, preventing it from reaching the earth. Question 13 WRONG What is the equivalent value of the absolute zero temperature on the Celsius, and Kelvin Scale? 0 celsius, and 273 K -273 celsius, and 0 kelvin 0 celsius, and -600 kelvin 273 celsius, and 0 kelvin Question 13 Explanation: C = K 273 C= 0 273 ; 0 Kelvin = -273 C Question 14 WRONG Mid ocean ridges are result of what plate activity? Diverging plates Spreading plates Converging plates Inverting plates Question 14 Explanation: When two plates (sea floor )move apart (diverging) magma comes out and accumulate forming a mountain range under the sea called the mid-ocean ridge. Question 15 WRONG Pteridology is a sub-branch of __________. Genetics Paleontology Zoology Botany

Question 15 Explanation: Pteridology is the study of ferns. Ferns are plants. Thus, it is under Botany. Question 16 WRONG Substance A is twice as dense as substance B. If we take the samples of equal mass of these substances, what can be observed about their volume? The volume of substance B is twice that of substance A. The volume of both A and B is the same since the samples have the same mass. No conclusion can be provided about the volume of A and B. The volume of substance A is twice that of substance B. Question 16 Explanation: The density of a substance is equal to the mass of substance divided its volume. Therefore, density is inversely proportional to volume. Meaning, the bigger the volume of a substance relative to its mass, the lesser its density. And since substance A has 2 times the density of substance B. Therefore, getting the same mass for each substance will have samples of B with twice the volume of A. Question 17 WRONG The ozone layer absorbs harmful violet rays from the Sun. It is located on what layer of the atmosphere? Stratosphere Exosphere Mesosphere Troposphere Question 17 Explanation: From the ground, the Stratosphere is the second layer of the Earths atmosphere. A band of ozone gas, the Ozone Layer, is located within it. Question 18 WRONG How much work is done when you walk on 50 meters on a plain surface carrying 30 kilograms of load? 50 0 150 75 Question 18 Explanation: No work is done since your displacement is not parallel to the force exerted by your load. Question 19 WRONG Which of the following is not an example of physical weathering? Thermal Expansion Unloading Oxidation of iron-bearing minerals Frost wedging Question 19 Explanation: Oxidation is brought about by the chemical reaction of oxygen with iron. Thus not cause by physical or mechanical factors. Question 20 WRONG Which star is the hottest star? Yellow Red Orange Blue Question 20 Explanation: blue star is the hottest star followed by the white star, yellow star and finally the red star. Question 21 WRONG Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? Nitrous Oxide

Methane CFCs Carbon Dioxide Question 21 Explanation: CFC is not a greenhouse gas. It only damages the ozone layer. Question 22 WRONG Which of the following is factor that may cause acidic precipitation Surface Mining Quarrying Segregation Automobile exhaust Question 22 Explanation: Acid rains are formed when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide reacts with water molecules in the atmosphere. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide are often emitted by burned fossil fuels from factories and internal combustion engines. Question 23 WRONG As you go higher above a hill your ________ increases? Potential energy Volume Weight Mass Question 23 Explanation: Potential energy that is possessed by the body increases as its altitude increases. Mass stays the same no matter what happens. Your weight and volume may change due to some factors but not altitude. As long as you stay on earth, that is. Question 24 WRONG What do you call the earths hard outer shell? outer core mantle inner core Crust Question 24 Explanation: the crust is the hard outer shell of the earth. Question 25 WRONG Which of the following examples illustrates technology? Refuting a theory on Freudian psychology. Writing a research paper based on observations of melting ice caps. Designing a new micro chip using silicon semiconductors. Discovering new aquatic species. Question 25 Explanation: Technology is the application of scientific discoveries and theories. Designing a microchip from studies done on silicon semiconductors is an example. The other choices are examples of scientific work. Question 26 WRONG

At which point will the potential energy of the ball be the greatest? A B C

D Question 26 Explanation: The higher the object is, the greater is the potential energy. Question 27 WRONG What is 34, 567, 500 in scientific notation? $latex \displaystyle 3.00\,\Chi \,{{10}^{7}}$ $latex \displaystyle 3.46\,\Chi \,{{10}^{-7}}$ $latex \displaystyle 3.45\,\Chi \,{{10}^{-7}}$ $latex \displaystyle 3.46\,\Chi \,{{10}^{7}}$ Question 27 Explanation: The scientific notation is a convenient way to write numbers to big or too small in the form of a decimal multiplied by a power of. To determine the exponent of 10, we have to count the number of times we moved the decimal point. Negative if we move to the right and positive if we move to the left. Thus for 34, 567, 500 we moved the decimal point 7 times to the left. Question 28 WRONG What is the most abundant element in the Earths atmosphere? Nitrogen Oxygen Carbon Dioxide Hydrogen Question 28 Explanation: The atmosphere is 78 percent nitrogen. Oxygen is at 21%. Question 29 WRONG What is the weight of an object due to gravity whose mass is 17.6 g? 0.176 N 176 N 17.6 N 1. 76 N Question 29 Explanation: 100 g = 1 N; 17.6 g x (1N/100 g) = 0.176 N Question 30 WRONG What layer of the earth comprises most of its volume? Inner core Mantle Outer core Crust Question 30 Explanation: The Mantle comprises almost 80 % of the earths volume. Question 31 WRONG _________ is the measure of water vapor in the air relative to temperature. Absolute humidity Actual humidity Specific humidity Relative humidity Question 31 Explanation: Absolute humidity is the water content of the air. Relative humidity is absolute humidity relative to the current temperature. Specific humidity is water content of the air on a mass basis. Question 32 WRONG What is recognized by the International System of units as the standard in measuring temperature? Celsius Joules

Kelvin Fahrenheit Question 32 Explanation: Kelvin is the SI unit for temperature. Question 33 WRONG Which of the following best describes a hypothesis? It is an educated guess that you can solve through research and observation. It is a question derived from a natural problem. It is a question that is solved through experimentation. It is a question that arises from observation or research that is then answered by conducting a series of test. Question 33 Explanation: All of the choices, aside from choice c, describe a hypothesis. Remember that in te scientific method, research and observation comes before the hypothesis. However, choice b, describes it more completely. Stating how a hypothesis came to be and it is answer. Question 34 WRONG For work to be done, what are the factors that must be present? force and distance force and acceleration weight and distance weight and force Question 34 Explanation: Work is equal to force times distance (displacement). W=fxd Question 35 WRONG To ensure that accuracy of the results of an experiment, the same procedure needs to be repeated multiple times. These repetitions are called ________. Variables Trials Measures Controls Question 35 Explanation: Trials is the term use for the number of times a procedure is repeated in an experiment. Variables are the factors that change during the experiment. And Controls are the constant values. Question 36 WRONG Which layer of the atmosphere returns radio and TV broadcasts back to earth? exosphere mesosphere stratosphere ionosphere Question 36 Explanation: Ionosphere is the layer of the atmosphere composed of charged ions that returns radio and tv signals back on earth. Question 37 WRONG Which of the following is not under the Earth sciences category? Oceanography Paleontology Physics Meteorology Question 37 Explanation: Paleontology, Meteorology and Oceanography are considered Earth sciences. However, Physics is under physical sciences together with Chemistry. Question 38 WRONG

What should be done if the result of an experiment contradicts our hypothesis? Repeat the experiment Reevaluate the hypothesis Nothing Manipulate the results Question 38 Explanation: If the results of an experiment, after several trials, do not prove the hypothesis then the hypothesis needs to be reconsidered. It could be that the guess is incorrect and another guess can be made and experimented on to be proven. Question 39 WRONG Greenhouse gases are the main factors affecting ________. Erosion Global warming Skin Cancer Thinning of the Ozone Layer Question 39 Explanation: Greenhouse gases stay in the atmosphere and they trap sunlight thus heating up the earth. Question 40 WRONG Why is it that man fells weightless in the moon? Because mans mass decreases when on the moon. Because mans volume decreases while on the moon. Because the moons gravitational pull is lesser than the earths. Because there is no air on the moon. Question 40 Explanation: The gravitational pull of a heavenly body dictates the weight of an object on that body. The Gravitational pull of the moon is lesser than that of the earth thus the feeling of weightlessness. The gravitational pull of a body is directly proportional to its mass. The bigger the mass the stronger the gravitational pull. Question 41 WRONG On clear, calm evenings, temperature differences between a body of water and neighboring land produce a cool wind that blows offshore. This wind is called a Sea breeze Morning Breeze Land breeze Evening breeze Question 41 Explanation: On clear calm evenings, temperature differences between a body of water and neighboring land produce a cool wind known as the land breeze that blows offshore. Question 42 WRONG Absolute zero is said to be the temperature where all molecules of matter stops moving. What is absolute zero in degrees Fahrenheit? 1254.6 oF -459.54 oF -273 oF 273 oF Question 42 Explanation: Absolute zero is 0 oK. Thus we convert oK to oC, then to oF. $latex \displaystyle ^{o}C{{=}^{o}}K-273=0-273=-{{273}^{o}}C$ $latex \displaystyle ^{o}F=\frac{9}{5}{{(}^{o}}C)+32=\frac{9}{5}(-273)+32=-{{459.54}^{o}}F$ Question 43 WRONG What is the volume of an object when after dropping, 17.8 mL water in a graduated cylinder rises to 23.6 mL? 5.8 mL 17.8 mL 23.6 mL

14.2 m L Question 43 Explanation: Using water displacement method, Vobject = Vfinal - Vinitial = 23. 6 17.8 = 5.8 mL Question 44 WRONG What type of clouds will be seen during a stormy day? cirrus stratus nimbus cumulus Question 44 Explanation: during a stormy day, heavy black clouds are seen in the sky. these are nimbus clouds. Question 45 WRONG Erosion and deposition are responsible for the formation of the following landforms except mountain delta flood plain lagoon Question 45 Explanation: mountains are formed when two plates move toward each other. Question 46 WRONG Food use Home made pandesal Home made pandesal Temperature 37oC 37oC Room lighting Dimly lighted Dimly lighted Exposure Air Air Amount of moisture High Low Result Plenty of molds Tiny spots of molds

What conclusion can be deducted from the experiment? Molds grow best in moist places. Molds are growing relative to temperature. Molds grow anywhere Molds like breads Question 46 Explanation: based on the data table, it can be concluded that molds grow best in cold places. Question 47 WRONG The moon is said to light up the night skies. What gives the moon this ability to shine? Radiation produced by the moons atmosphere The suns reflection off the moon. The luminous substance found on the moons surface Radiation from the Sun that is absorbed by the moon. Question 47 Explanation: the suns reflection on the moon gives the moon the ability to shine. Question 48 WRONG Which planet is the smallest planet in the solar system? Mercury Mars Pluto Neptune Question 48 Explanation: pluto has been taken out of the list of planets in the solar system.:D Question 49 WRONG Which of the following measures of molecular movement?

Velocity Conductivity Temperature Heat Question 49 Explanation: Temperature is often defined as the state of entropy of an object. Entropy is state of thermodynamics of molecules. Question 50 WRONG How many dekameters are there in 4.31 kilometers? 0.431 dam 4310 dam 43.1 dam 431 dam Question 50 Explanation: Deka has a factor of $latex \displaystyle {{10}^{1}}=10$. Thus, $latex \displaystyle (4.31\,km)\left( \frac{1000\,m}{1\,km} \right)\left( \frac{1\,dam}{10\,m} \right)=431\,dam\,$ Question 51 WRONG Which of the statements below does not explain the movements of the earths crust? The earths crust has cracked into huge plates which move slowly due t convection currents in the mantle. Many years of stress on the rock may fracture the crust causing one portion to slide upward or downward with respect to the other. The mantle beneath the earths crust is made of plastic materials that have convection currents. Earthquakes that originate beneath the sea can produce tsunamis. Question 51 Explanation: tsunamis are an effect of movement of the earth's crust Question 52 WRONG Which of the following does not describe a mineral? A crystalline structure It is an organic substance in solid form Exist naturally Composed of one or more elements Question 52 Explanation: Minerals are inorganic Question 53 WRONG During a weather forecast we sometimes encounter the term LPA or Low Pressure Area. How is this important? LPAs are areas where icebergs may form LPAs are areas where an earthquake might happen LPAs are areas where tsunamis may form LPAs are areas where typhoons may form Question 53 Explanation: Since air moves horizontally from a high pressure area to a low pressure area, a Low Pressure Area is an area where wind may accumulate and form typhoons. Question 54 WRONG Vincent noticed that the clouds were thin and feathery. What type of clouds is he seeing? Stratus Cirrus Nimbus Cumulus Question 54 Explanation: The following are the description of cloud types. Type Description Cirrus thin and feathery Stratus low, gray blanket Cumulus flatbottomed white and puffy Nimbus Dark rain clouds

Question 55 WRONG What harmful gas is being released when engines burn fossil fuels? Oxygen Carbon Monoxide nitrogen Sulfur Question 55 Explanation: When engines burn fossil fuels, carbon monoxide, a harmful gas is produced. Question 56 WRONG Which of the following exhibits kinetic energy? Transistor radio Toy car Light bulb Refrigerator Question 56 Explanation: Kinetic energy is exhibited by bodies in motion. Question 57 WRONG What is not true about moon and tides? When the moon, sun and earth are in line, the highest tides occur on earth There are two high tides at opposite sides of the earth and two low tides at the other When the moon is close to earth, the lesser the effect of the gravitational pull. When sun, earth and moon are at right angles, the lowest tides occur on earth Question 57 Explanation: when the moon is closer to the earth, the greater the effect of gravity. Question 58 WRONG What is the phenomenon that we usually call as falling stars? None of the above Comets Star particles falling from other space Meteorites burned by contact with the atmosphere Question 58 Explanation: When a meteoroid is pulled by gravity enters the Earths atmosphere, it gets burned lighting up the night sky. Question 59 WRONG A Schist is a type rock that is original formed by molten magma or sediments packed together and then transformed by intense heat and pressure. This makes it a ________ rock. Sedimentary-Igneous Igneous Metamorphic Sedimentary Question 59 Explanation: Metamorphic rocks are primarily igneous or sedimentary rocks transformed by heat and/or pressure. A Schist is one example of metamorphic rocks the as are marble and slate. Question 60 WRONG When riding a bus, you feel as if you are being pushed towards the left when the bus abruptly turns right. This is an example of a ________ force? Gravitational Centripetal Centrifugal Inertial Question 60 Explanation:

Centrifugal force drives you away from the center or the rotation. When the bus turns right, the center is towards your right and thus centrifugal force drives you towards the left. Question 61 WRONG This substance is stable until they are exposed to UV rays, they breakdown and release atomic chlorine which destroys ozone molecules. Greenhouse Gases CFCs NO2 Cyanide Question 61 Explanation: CFC or chlorofluocarbons is an ozone depleter. It is usually present in aerosol cans and in refrigerants. They breakdown once hit by UV rays and releases chlorine which can destroy the ozone molecules. Question 62 WRONG

At which point will the kinetic energy of the ball the greatest? B D A C Question 62 Explanation: Kinetic energy is energy in motion. Question 63 WRONG A monkey weighing 500 newtons climbs a tree 10 meters high. How much work does the monkey do? 100 joules 500 joules 1000 joules 5000 joules Question 63 Explanation: Work = force x distance = 500 N x 10 m = 5000 Nm = 5000 J Question 64 WRONG What type of heat transfer is responsible for the formation of sea breeze and land breeze? radiation convection condensation conduction Question 64 Explanation: Convection takes place when there is a movement of air from hot place to cold place. The sea and Land differ in temperature at night time and daytime, the reason why there is sea breeze and land breeze at daytime and night time respectively. Question 65 WRONG Which of the following statements best describes weather? The current state of the atmosphere. Long-term differences in atmospheric elements of an area. A large body of air that forms over an area. Heat or moisture exchanges between surfaces. Question 65 Explanation:

Weather is the present atmospheric condition of a certain area, while climate is the long term conditions of the atmospheric elements in the area. Question 66 WRONG What can be said about the relationship between atmospheric pressure and altitude? Inversely proportional Always equal They do not have any relationship Directly proportional Question 66 Explanation: Atmospheric pressure decreases as altitude increases. Question 67 WRONG Which of the following substances do not exhibit convection once heated? Air Water Oil Frying Pan Question 67 Explanation: Convection only occurs in fluids. Question 68 WRONG Mt. Mayon which is built from alternate layers of lava and ash with many little craters on its slope is what kind of volcano? caldera cinder Shield composite Question 68 Explanation: A composite volcano is formed from alternating quiet and violent eruptions. An example is Mount mayon. Question 69 WRONG A graduated cylinder was filled with 50 ml of oil and a golden ring was dropped in it. After dropping the ring the oil level rose to 56.5 ml. What does this mean? The ring is 6.5 ml in volume. The ring is denser that oil by 6.5 ml. The ring is not made of gold since it displaced the oil. This does not mean anything and is a mysterious occurrence. Question 69 Explanation: Liquid displacement is a method employed to measure the volume of irregular objects. The amount of liquid displaced signifies the volume of the object.

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Question 1 WRONG Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE? I. moving in a straight line with constant speed. II. Statics involves the study of the forces acting on a body that is at rest or is Dynamics is the study of forces acting on a body that are in equilibrium. III. Statics

is the branch of mechanics that studies the forces that affect the motion of an object. II only III only I and II only I only

Question 1 Explanation: Statics involves the study of the forces acting on a body that is at rest or is moving in a straight line with constant speed. Question 2 WRONG When Ryota looked at himself in the mirror, he look taller then he expected. Why is this so? The mirror was convex. The mirror has nothing to do with it. The mirror was taller. The mirror was concave. Question 2 Explanation: A vertically convex mirror, i.e., one that curves towards you in the vertical plane will make you look taller and thereby proportionally thinner. If it is also convex in the horizontal plane you will be even thinner. A concave mirror has the opposite effect. Question 3 WRONG The movement of a body launched in space without its motive power, and travels freely under the action of gravity and air resistance alone is called _____________. horizontal motion uniform circular motion projectile motion rectilinear motion Question 3 Explanation: Projectile motion is defined as the movement of body launched in space without its motive power, and travels freely under the action of gravity and air resistance alone. Question 4 WRONG In the color spectrum, the colors are enumerated in increasing__________. Frequency penetrability Wavelength Energy Question 4 Explanation: In the color spectrum, (Violet to Red) the colors are enumerated in increasing wavelength. Question 5 WRONG A block weighing 200 N lies on a plane inclined 20o with the horizontal. What force tends to pull the block down the plane? F = (200)(cos 20o) F=200/sin 20o F=200/cos 20o F = (200)(sin 20o) Question 5 Explanation:

Sin20 = 200/F sin20 X F = 200 F = 200/sin20 Question 6

WRONG The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy of the system is constant. What relation does the kinetic and potential energy in one system possess? KE > PE KE = -PE KE < PE KE = PE Question 7 WRONG Newton (N) is the metric standard unit of force. This is defined to be _______. kg/L kgm/s kgm/s^2 kgm^2 Question 7 Explanation: 1 N is defined to be 1 kg m/s^2. Force = weight (gravity due to acceleration= 10m/s^2) Question 8 WRONG What is the study under dynamics which deals with the space-time relationship in bodies that are in motion? kinetics kinematics Static Mechanics Question 8 Explanation: Kinematics is the study under dynamics that deals with the space-time relationship in bodies that are in motion. Question 9 WRONG Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity of an object over change in time. Based from this statement, what is the equation for the final velocity of an object? Vf = Vi + at Vf = 2Vi + at Vf = Vi at Vf = Vi2 + 2at Question 9 Explanation: Vf = Vi + at is the equation for the final velocity of an object given the acceleration, initial velocity and time. Question 10 WRONG According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of a system is conserved. What happens when two bodies of equal masses and equal speeds collide? They bounce sideways. They stick together. They bounce back with the same speed and distance. Could not be determined. Question 10 Explanation: According to the Law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of a system is conserved. When bodies of equal masses and equal speeds collide, they bounce back with the same speed and distance. Question 11 WRONG If speed is defined as the quantitative measure of the change of an objects position over a certain amount of time, what is said to be the speed of an object at any particular moment? uniform speed average speed ordinary speed instantaneous speed Question 11 Explanation: Instantaneous speed is defined as the quantitative measure of the change of an objects position over a certain amount of time.

Question 12 WRONG Dante walks 0.5 Km north. Starting from the same point, Richie walks 1.2 Km east. What would be the distance separating the two boys? 1.1 Km 0.9 Km 1.3 Km 0.7 Km Question 12 Explanation:

a = 0.5 km b= 1.2 km c=? c= c = 1.3 Question 13 WRONG __________ is an interaction with matter in which transverse waves are restricted to a particular plane of vibration. optical illusion refraction reflection Polarization Question 13 Explanation: polarization is an interaction with matter in which transverse waves are restricted to a particular plane of vibration. Question 14 WRONG What is the difference between the speed of sound and the speed of light? Light is 17860 mph faster than sound. Sound is equal the speed of light. Light is 740 mph faster than sound. Sound is 740 mph faster than light. Question 14 Explanation: Light is 17 860 mph faster than light. Question 15 WRONG Newtons First Law of motion is called the Law of Inertia. Which of the following does not illustrate Inertia? A train slowing down before reaching the station. A man on a bus being pushed backward when the bus starts moving. A tanker in full speed turning its engine in reverse an hour before reaching the port. A ball falling from an airplane. Question 15 Explanation: all the other choices show examples of objects resisting change in motion Question 16 WRONG Which of the following is NOT TRUE about electromagnetic waves? They travel with the same speed in the absence of vacuum. They require a medium for transmission They are transverse waves. They are produced by moving charges.

Question 16 Explanation: Electromagnetic waves are produced by moving charges. They are transverse waves. They travel with the same speed in the absence of vacuum. They do not require a medium for transmission. Question 17 WRONG What horizontal force is necessary to press a 15 kg block against a vertical wall to prevent it from slipping? Assume that the coefficient of static friction between the block and the wall is 0.25. 600 N 300 N 500 N 400 N Question 17 Explanation:

u=0.25 w= 150N therefore for the block to remain stable, the frictional force should also be 150N.. using the equation u = Ff/Fn 0.25 = 150 N / Fn Fn = 150N/0.25 Fn = 600N since the normal force is an equal but opposite force to the one pushing the block to the wall, the final answer is also 600N. Question 18 WRONG Pressure waves of frequencies above the audible frequencies are called ___________. infrasonic mega sonic ultrasonic supersonic Question 18 Explanation: Pressure waves of frequencies above the audible frequencies are called ultrasonic waves. Question 19 WRONG A vector is a quantity with both magnitude and direction. Which of the following is not a vector? displacement force acceleration speed Question 19 Explanation: A vector is a quantity with both magnitude and direction. Displacement, force, and acceleration are all vector quantities except speed. Question 20 WRONG

A 2-meter long uniform seesaw is supported at its center. A 500 N boy sits 20 cm from the left endpoint of the seesaw. How far from the other side of the seesaw should a 1 500 N man sit so that the seesaw remains in a horizontal position? 20 cm 60 cm 80 cm 40 cm Question 20 Explanation: Given L1 = 80 cm (from the fulcrum) L2 = ? F1 = 500 N F2 = 1500 N Question 21 WRONG

Which illustrates the car at rest? A B C D Question 21 Explanation: At rest, the distance (meters) is constant, time (seconds) varries. (c) Question 22 WRONG Which illustrates traveling at constant velocity?

B A D C Question 22 Explanation: An increase in distance illustrates a car traveling at constant velocity. Question 23 WRONG A rally driver has 5 seconds to stop his car which traveling at a speed of 20 m/s. What is his average acceleration? 4 m/s2 3 m/s2 1 m/s2 0.25 m/s2 Question 23 Explanation: a = V / t = 20 m/s / 5 s = 4 m/s2 Question 24 WRONG For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. If a baseball player hits a ball with a bat and the action is said to be the impact of the bat against the ball what is its opposite reaction?

The force of the ball against the bat. The grip of the players hand on the bat. Muscular effort in the players arm. The air resistance on the ball. Question 24 Explanation: In baseball, if the action is the impact of the bat against the ball, the opposite reaction is the force of the ball against the bat. This satisfies the law of action and reaction. Question 25 WRONG A moving object possesses acceleration if a change in a velocity is observed. Which of the following does not illustrate acceleration? A book on the table A car running along a curve A ball thrown upwards A cart moving downhill on a mountain slope Question 25 Explanation: there is no change in speed, therefore no acceleration. Question 26 WRONG What property/characteristic of sound do we perceive as volume? Frequency Pitch Wave length Amplitude Question 26 Explanation: The characteristic of sound that we perceive as volume is the amplitude. Question 27 WRONG What is the centripetal force acting on a 100 kg car negotiating a circular curve of radius 60 meters at a speed of 30 m/s? 2.5 KN 4.5 KN 3.0 KN 1.5 KN Question 27 Explanation: Centripetal force = mv^2/r ,br> Given: mass = 100 kg, radius = 60 meters, v = 30 m/s force = [(100 kg)(900m^2/s^2)/60m = 1500kgm/s^2 = 1500 N = 1.5 kN Question 28 WRONG What is the kinetic energy of a 500-kg car moving at 3.0 m/s? 2.25 kJ 1.50 kJ 1.75 kJ 2.00 kJ Question 28 Explanation: KE = 1/2 mv^2 m = 500 kg v = 3.0 m/s KE = 1/2 (500kg) (9m^2/s^2) = 2.25 KJ Question 29 WRONG Refraction is the bending of light. Like for example, a fish might look much nearer to the surface than it really is. Why is this so? Because light travels at a different speed on water. This phenomenon is not true. Because the fish moves too fast. Because light bounces off the ocean floor. Question 29 Explanation:

A fish might look much nearer to the surface than it really is because light travels at a different speed on water. Question 30 WRONG What force is needed to make a 2 kg rock accelerate at 0.5 m/s2? 2N 4N 3N 1N Question 30 Explanation: a = force / mass Given : m = 2 kg a = 0.5 m/s2 F = mass x acceleration F = 2 kg x 0.5 m/s2 = 1 kg m/s2 = 1 N V