Q1: Green plants are: (a) herbivores(b) autotrophs(c) hetrotrophs(d) omnivores Q2: The tiny pores present in the

leaves of the plants for exchange of gases are called _____ (a) Stomata (b) Tracheae (c) Chloroplast (d) Spiracles Q3: Rhizobium is an example of (a) Symbiosis(b) Parasites(c) Insectivorous(d) none of these Q4: Which part of the plant gets carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis? (a) root hair(b) stomata (c) leaf veins (d) sepals Q5: Iodine used to detect presence of starch. It gives starch (a) red colour(b) green colour(c) blue-black colour(d) colourless appearance Q6(NCERT): Amarbel (Cuscuta) is an example of: (a) autotroph (b) parasite (c) saprotroph (d) host Q7(NCERT): The plant which traps and feeds on insects is: (a) cuscuta (b) china rose (c) pitcher plant (d) rose Q8: Green plants use which of the following to prepare food? (a) Carnon DiOxide(b) Sunlight(c) Water(d) All of these Q9: Which of the following statements is NOT true? (a) Heterotrophs cannot prepare their own food.(b) Dodder is an example of parasite.(c) Saprophytes are green.(d) Pulses and Beans are legumes. Q10: The main function of a leaf is: (a) To prepare food (b) To prevent disease(c) To support the plant (d) To give a proper shape Answer: 1: (b) autotrophs2: (a) Stomata3: (a) Symbiosis4: (b) stomata5: (c) blue-black colour6: (b) parasite7: (c) pitcher plant 8: (d) All of these9: (c) Saprophytes are green.10: (a) To prepare food Q1: Fill in the blanks: Answer: (a) The main steps of digestion in humans are ingestion, digestion, absorption , assimilation and egestion. (b) The largest gland in the human body is liver. (c) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid and digestive juices which act on food. (d) The inner wall of the small intestine has many finger-like outgrowths called villi. (e) Amoeba digests its food in the food vacuole . Q2: Mark T if the statement is true and F if it is false: Answer: (a) Digestion of starch starts in the stomach. (T/F) : False. It starts in the mouth (b) The tongue helps in mixing food with saliva. (T/F) : True (c) The gall bladder temporarily stores bile. (T/F) : True (d) The ruminants bring back swallowed grass into their mouth and chew it for some time. (T/F) : True Q3: Tick () mark the correct answer in each of the following: Answer: (a) Fat is completely digested in the(i) stomach (ii) mouth(iii) small intestine () (iv) large intestine (b) Water from the undigested food is absorbed mainly in the (i) stomach(ii) foodpipe(iii) small intestine(iv) large intestine () Q4: Match the items of Column I with those given in Column II: Answer: Carbohydrates Sugar Proteins - Amino acids Fats - Fatty acids and glycerol

Q9: 10. Which part of the digestive canal is involved in: Answer: (i) absorption of food __villi in small intestine__.(ii) chewing of food __mouth (buccal cavity)__. (iii) killing of bacteria __stomach__.(iv) complete digestion of food __small intestine__. (v) formation of faeces __large intestine___.Q11: Match the items of Column I with suitable items in Column II Answer: (a) Salivary gland - (iii) Saliva secretion (b) Stomach - (iv) Acid release (c) Liver - (i) Bile juice secretion (d) Rectum - (vii) Release of faeces (e) Small intestine - (v) Digestion is completed (f) Large intestine - (vi) Absorption of water, (ii) Storage of undigested food Q1: The pointed teeth in the buccal cavity are called: (a) incisors(b) canines(c) premolars (d) molars Q2: Bile juice is stored in (a) liver(b) pancreas(c) gall bladder (d) stomach Q3: The inner walls of the small intestine have millions of small finger like projections called (a) villi(b) trachae(c) appendix(d) oesophagus Q4: Which of the following is a ruminant? (a) buffalo(b) camel(c) goat(d) all of these Q5: Which of the following is not a part of nutrition? (a) digestion(b) absorption(c) assimilation(d) excretion Q6: An amoeba ingests food with the help of (a) Cilia(b) Tentacles(c) Pseudopedia(d) Buccal Cavity Q7: Grass is rich in ________ a special kind of carbohydrate which can only be digested by ruminants. (a) Glucose(b) Cellulose(c) Sucrose(d) Fructose Q8: Amylase enzyme is present in (a) bile juice(b) saliva(c) gastric juice(d) pancreatic juice Q9: The walls of large intestine absorb (a) water(b) proteins(c) cellulose(d) roughage Q10: Which of the following do not have teeth (a) rats(b) birds(c) snakes(d) elephants Answers: 1: (b) canines2: (c) gall bladder 3: (a) villi4: (d) all of these5: (d) excretion 6: (c) Pseudopedia7: (b) Cellulose8: (b) saliva9: (a) water10: (b) birds

Q2: The silkworm is (a) a caterpillar, (b) a larva. Choose the correct option. (i) a (ii) b (iii) both a and b (iv) neither a nor b. Answer: (iii) both a and b Q3: Which of the following does not yield wool? (i) Yak (ii) Camel (iii) Goat (iv) Woolly dogAnswer: (iv) Woolly dog Q7: Out of the following, which are the two terms related to silk production? Sericulture, floriculture, moriculture, apiculture and silviculture. Hints: (i) Silk production involves cultivation of mulberry leaves and rearing silkworms. (ii) Scientific name of mulberry is Morus alba.Answer: Sericulture, moriculture Q8: Match the words of Column I with those given in Column II:

Answer:Column I
1. Scouring 2. Mulberry leaves 3. Yak 4. Cocoon

Column II (e) Cleaning sheared skin (c) Food of silk worm (b) Wool yielding animal (a) Yields silk fibres

Q3:Give two examples each of conductors and insulators of heat. Answer: Conductors: Aluminum, Iron Insulators: Plastic, Wood. Q4: Fill in the blanks: Answer: (a) The hotness of an object is determined by its _temperature_. (b) Temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a _Clinical_ thermometer. (c) Temperature is measured in degree _Celcius__. (d) No medium is required for transfer of heat by the process of _ radiation_. (e) A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by the process of _conduction_. (f ) Clothes of _dark_ colours absorb heat better than clothes of light colours. Q5: Define temperature. What are the units used to measure temperature? Anwer: The degree of hotness or coldness is called temperature. It is measured in degree Celcius (C), Fahrenheit and Kelvin (SI unit). Q6: How are heat and temperature of a substance related to each other? Answer: Heat is the total energy of the molecular motion of the substance. Temperature is a measure of the average energy of the molecular motion in the substance. When you heat a substance, it increases the motion of the vibrating molecules of the substance thereby increasing the temperature of the substance. Q7: Match the following: Answer: (i) Land breeze blows during - (d) night (ii) Sea breeze blows during - (c) day (iii) Dark coloured clothes are preferred during - (b) winter (iv) Light coloured clothes are preferred during - (a) summer Q11: What is meant by 'Thermal Equilibrium'? Answer: Heat flows from body of higher temperature to body of lower temperature until the temperature of both bodies are equal. Then the two bodies are said to be in thermal equilibrium. Q12: One litre of water at 30C is mixed with one litre of water at 50C. The temperature of the mixture will be (a) 80C (b) more than 50C but less than 80C (c) 20C (d) between 30C and 50C Answer: (d) between 30C and 50C Q13: An iron ball at 40C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40C. The heat will (a) flow from iron ball to water. (b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball. (c) flow from water to iron ball. (d) increase the temperature of both. Answer: (b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball. Q14: A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end (a) becomes cold by the process of conduction. (b) becomes cold by the process of convection. (c) becomes cold by the process of radiation. (d) does not become cold.

Answer: (d) does not become cold. Q15: Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The reason for this could be that (a) copper bottom makes the pan more durable. (b) such pans appear colourful. (c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel. (d) copper is easier to clean than the stainless steel. Answer: (c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel. 16: Which property of liquids is used in making thermometers? nswer: The property of thermal expansion of liquids is used in making thermometers. It states liquid expands on heating and contracts on cooling. Q17: What are the different temperature scales used? What are the relations among them? Answer: Different temperature scales used are: 1. Kelvin Scale (K) - SI Unit 2. Degree Celsius (C) 3. Fahrenheit (F) K = 273 + C e.g. 7C on Kelvin scale = 273 + 7 = 280K T = (F-32) x 5 / 9 e.g. 98F on Celsius scale = (98-32)x5/9 =36.67 C Q18: Name the temperature reading which is has same value on both Celsius and Fahrenheit scales. Answer: -40 C Q19: Name the temperature scale which does not have -ve temperature readings. Answer: Kelvin scale. Q21: Define 1 Calorie. How it is related to Joules? Answer: The amount of heat energy required to raise temperature of 1 gram of water by 1C is called 1 calorie. 1 Calorie = 4.2 Joules. Q22: Why do you feel warm when you rub your palms and touch your cheeks with them? Answer: While rubbing the hands, due to friction between them heat energy is produced. In this case mechanical energy is converted to heat energy. Q23: What is the human body temperature in Fahrenheit scale? Answer: 98.6 F Q1: When matter gets warmer, the atoms and molecules in that matter __________________ (a) stand still(b) move faster(c) move slower(d) can't say Q2: Higher the temperature of the body _____ is the kinetic energy of the molecules of that body? (a) higher(b) lower(c) same(d) none of these 3(NCERT): Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The reason for this could be that (a) copper bottom makes the pan more durable. (b) such pans appear colourful. (c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel. (d) copper is easier to clean than the stainless steel. Q4: Unit of heat energy is (a) kilogram(b) metre(c) joule(d) degree Q5(NCERT): One litre of water at 30C is mixed with one litre of water at 50C. The temperature of the mixture will be (a) 80C(b) more than 50C but less than 80C(c) 20C(d) between 30C and 50C

6: Bodies transmitting heat via radiation (a) do not require any medium(b) are liquids only(c) make heat travels in one direction only.(d) solids only. Q7: In Fahrenheit scale, water freezes at (a) 0 F(b) 32 F (c) 40 F(d) 212 F Q8(NCERT): An iron ball at 40C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40C. The heat will (a) flow from iron ball to water. (b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball. (c) flow from water to iron ball.(d) increase the temperature of both. Q9: Boiling point of water is (a) 0 C(b) 100 C(c) 357 C(d) -39C Q10: A Thermos flask prevents loss or gain of heat by (a) conduction only(b) convection only(c) radiation only(d) all the above Q11(NCERT): A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end (a) becomes cold by the process of conduction. (b) becomes cold by the process of convection. (c) becomes cold by the process of radiation. (d) does not become cold. Q12: Sea breeze is caused due to (a) conduction(b) convection(c) radiation(d) all of these Q13: A polished silvery surface is (a) good absorber of heat(b) good reflector of heat(c) poor reflector of heat (d) None of these Q14: Device used for measuring temperatures is called a (a) Barometer(b) Odometer(c) Thermometer(d) Speedometer Answers: 1: (b) move faster2: (a) higher 3: (c) copper is a better conductor of heat than the stainless steel. 4: (c) joule 5: (d) between 30C and 50C6: (a) do not require any medium 7: (b) 32 F8: (b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball. 9: (b) 100 C 10: (d) all the above11: (d) does not become cold.12: (b) convection 13: (b) good reflector of heat14: (c) Thermometer (i) Nitric acid turn red litmus blue. (False) (ii) Sodium hydroxide turns blue litmus red. (False) (iii) Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid neutralise each other and form salt and water. (True) (iv) Indicator is a substance which shows different colours in acidic and basic solutions. (True) (v) Tooth decay is caused by the presence of a base. (False) Q11. Consider the following statements: (a) Both acids and bases change colour of all indicators. (b) If an indicator gives a colour change with an acid, it does not give a change with a base. (c) If an indicator changes colour with a base, it does not change colour with an acid. (d) Change of colour in an acid and a base depends on the type of the indicator. Which of these statements are correct? (i) All four (ii) a and d (iii) b and c (iv) only d Answer: (iv) only d Explanation: All indicators do not change colour of acids as well as bases. E.g. turmeric change

colour of base into pink but it remains yellow with acid. Therefore, statement (a) is incorrect. There are indicators which change colour with both acid and base. e.g. methyl orange, litmus. Thus statement (b) and (c) are also incorrect. Statement (d) is the correct conclusion about indicators. Q12: What are indicators? Why do we use it? Give examples. Answer: Indicators are the special type of substances which are used to identify acids, bases and neutral solutions by showing colour changes. We use indicator because we cannot check nature of every substance by tasting it. Few examples of indicators are: litmus, turmeric, China rose extract, phenolphthalein, methyl orange etc. Q13: What are organic acids? Answer: The acids which are found in plants and animals are commonly called organic acids. Examples, vinegar contains acetic acid, lemon contains citric acid. Q14: Identify the organic acid present in the following: Answer: (a) Citrus fruits like lemons, oranges - Citric Acid (b) Stings of bees and ants - Formic acid (c) Curd - Lactic Acid (d) Rancid butter - Butyric acid (e) Tamarind - Tartaric acid (f) Apples - Mallic Acid (g) Tomato - Oxalic Acid (h) Fats - Stearic acid (i) Bile juice - Cholic acid (j) Genetic Material in biological cell - Nucleic Acid (DNA and RNA) (k) Vinegar - Acetic acid (l) Urine - Uric Acid Q15: What are salts? Are they acidic, basic or neutral? Give examples. Answer: Salts are the ionic compounds generally formed by the neutralisation of an acid with a base. They can be acidic, basic or neutral. Examples of salts are: (a) Acidic salts: sodium bicarbonate (b) Basic salts: magnesium chloride (c) Neutral Salts: Sodium chloride, potassium chloride (d) Mixed Salts: bleaching powder, potash alum Q16: Give chemical names of following common bases used in daily life. List their uses as well.Answer: a) Caustic soda : Sodium hydroxide (making soaps and detergents) (b) Slaked lime: Calcium hydroxide (disinfectant, bleaching powder, white wash) (c) Milk of magnesia: Magnesium hydroxide (antacid) (d) Quicklime: Calcium oxide (making cement and paper) (e) Caustic potash: Potassium hydroxide (making soaps, electrolysis)

Q1: The word acid comes from the Latin word 'acere' which means (a) Sweet(b) Salty(c) Sour(d) Neutral Q2: Which of the following is used in match industry. (a) Sodium chloride (b) Sodium bicarbonate(c) Sodium carbonate (d) Potassium chlorate Q3: Acids turns blue litmus to ______ (a) green (b) yellow (c) red (d) black Q4: Substances which are bitter in taste, feel soapy on touching are known as (a) Acids(b) Bases(c) Indicators(d) Neutral solution Q5: Special type of substances used to test whether a substance is acidic/basic are known as (a) Indicators(b) Acids(c) Bases(d) Salt Q6: Which of the following is a strong acid? (a) acetic acid(b) nitric acid(c) lactic acid(d) citric acid Q7: The most commonly used natural indicator Litmus is extracted from (a) Lichens(b) Turmeric(c) Beet Root(d) China rose Q8: Which of the following colours is given by phenolphthalein in a basic salt solution. (a) yellow (b) pink (c) orange red (d) colourless Q9: Acetic acid is found in (a) Curd(b) Spinach(c) Vinegar(d) Citrus fruits Q10: Lactic acid is found in (a) Curd(b) Soap(c) Apple(d) Lime Q11: Sodium hydroxide is found in (a) Lemon (b) Soap(c) Oil of Vitriol(d) Table Salt Q12: Chemical name of Oil of Vitriol is __________ (a) Nitric acid(b) Acetic acid(c) Sulphuric acid(d) Sodium Hydroxide Answers: 1: (c) Sour2: (d) Potassium chlorate3: (c) red 4: (b) Bases5: (a) Indicators6: (b) nitric acid 7: (a) Lichens8: (b) pink 9: (c) Vinegar10: (a) Curd11: (b) Soap12: (c) Sulphuric acid Q5: Classify the changes involved in the following processes as physical or chemical changes: (a) Photosynthesis (b) Dissolving sugar in water (c) Burning of coal (d) Melting of wax (e) Beating aluminium to make aluminium foil (f ) Digestion of food Answer: Physical Changes Dissolving sugar in water Melting of wax Beating aluminium to make aluminium foil Chemical Changes Photosynthesis Burning of coal Digestion of food

(No new substances are formed)

(new substances are formed)

Q6: State whether the following statements are true or false. In case a statement is false, write the corrected statement in your notebook. Answer: (a) Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change. (True/False) Correction: Cutting of wood is a physical change because identity and composition of wood does not change. (b) Formation of manure from leaves is a physical change. (True/False) Correction: Formation of manure from leaves is a chemical change because manure formed has a different

composition from leaves. (c) Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted easily. ( True/False) (d) Iron and rust are the same substances. (True/False) Correction: Iron and rust are two different substances. Rust is Iron Oxide. (e) Condensation of steam is not a chemical change. (True/False) Q7. Fill in the blanks in the following statements: Answer: (a) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of _Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3)_. (b) The chemical name of baking soda is _Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3)_. (c) Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented are _painting or greasing__ and _galvanizing with Chromium or Zinc_. (d) Changes in which only _physical__ properties of a substance change are called physical changes. (e) Changes in which new substances are formed are called _ chemical_ changes. Q14: The gas we use in the kitchen is called liquified petroleum gas (LPG). In the cylinder it exist as a liquid. When it comes out from the cylinder it becomes a gas (Change A) then it burns (Change B). The following statements pertain to these changes. Choose the correct one. (i) Process A is a chemical change. (ii) Process B is a chemical change. (iii) Both processes A and B are chemical changes. (iv) None of these processes is a chemical change. Answer: (ii) Process B is a chemical change. Explanation: (i) Process A is a physical change. The LPG in cylinder is in liquid form because of high pressure. When it comes from cylinder, it turns into gas. It is a physical change. (ii) Process B is a chemical change. Burning of gas is a chemical change. Q15: Anaerobic bacteria digest animal waste and produce biogas (Change A). The biogas is then burnt as fuel (Change B). The following statements pertain to these changes. Choose the correct one. (i) Process A is a chemical change. (ii) Process B is a chemical change. (iii) Both processes A and B are chemical changes. (iv) None of these processes is a chemical change. Answer: (iii) Both processes A and B are chemical changes. Q6(NCERT): Fill in the blanks: Answer: (i) The average weather taken over a long time is called _climate of the place__. (ii) A place receives very little rainfall and the temperature is high throughout the year, the climate of that place will be _hot___ and _dry___ . (iii) The two regions of the earth with extreme climatic conditions are _tropical__ and_polar region_____. (iv) The weather reports are prepared by the _Meteorological _ department of the government. (v) Special features of an animal to live in its surrounding is called _ adaptation__ (vi) One of the important feature of tropical region is _ hot climate__. (vii) The temperature, humidity, rainfall and other factors are called _ elements_ of the weather.

Q7: Name a few countries where tropical rain forests are present. Answer: Countries where the tropical rainforests are found: India Malaysia Indonesia Brazil Republic of Congo Kenya Uganda Nigeria.

Q9(NCERT): Indicate the type of climate of the following areas: Answer: (a) Jammu and Kashmir: _extreme cold in winters, moderately hot and wet climate for a part of the year_ (b) Kerala: __hot and wet____ (c) Rajasthan: __hot and dry___ (d) North-east India: _wet__ Q10: Name the instrument used to measure rainfall. Answer: Rain gauge Q22(MCQ): A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its prey. It is likely to be found in:(a) polar regions(b) deserts(c) oceans(d) tropical rainforestsAnswer: (d) tropical rainforests Q23(MCQ): Which features adapt polar bears to live in extremely cold climate? (a) A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell. (b) Thin skin, large eyes, a white fur. (c) A long tail, strong claws, white large paws. (d) White body, paws for swimming, gills for respiration. Answer: (a) A white fur, fat below skin, keen sense of smell. Q24(MCQ): Which option best describes a tropical region? (a) hot and humid (b) moderate temperature, heavy rainfall (c) cold and humid (d) hot and dry Answer: (a) hot and humid Q25(MCQ): Which of the following is NOT an element of weather? (a) Humidity(b) Temperature(c) Soil(d) Rain Answer: (c) Soil Q26: What is camouflage? Answer: Many tropical animals can blend their skin colour with the surroundings. This feature is called camouflage. It protects them from predators. It also helps wild cats (e.g. lions and tigers) to catch their prey. Q1: Which of the following is NOT an element of weather? (a) Humidity(b) Temperature(c) Soil(d) Rain Q2: A carnivore with stripes on its body moves very fast while catching its prey. It is likely to be found in: (a) polar regions(b) deserts(c) oceans(d) tropical rainforests Q3: Which of these is specifically an adaptation for cold climates? (a) thick fur(b) long ears(c) sweating glands(d) light bones Q4: The special features and habits that help an animal survive in its environment are known as _______ (a) evolutions(b) adaptations(c) polymorphisms(d) hibernation

Q5: In Nicobar Islands, the Long tailed macaque is also known as _______ (a) Indian Parrot(b) Beard Ape(c) Monkey(d) Lemurs Q6: Long Inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during winters is known as: (a) aestivation (b) migration(c) evolution(d) hibernation Q7: Birds are adapted to fly because of ___________, (a) streamlined body(b) light bones(c) feathers and wings(d) all of these Q8: In India, rainforests are found in which of the following state? (a) Andhra Pradesh(b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Assam(d) Kerala Q9: Water vapours present in the atmosphere is called (a) humidity(b) precipitation(c) climate(d) rain fall Q10: Camouflage shown in polar bears is due to (a) thick fur(b) padded feet(c) white fur(d) two layers of fat Answer: 1: (c) Soil2: (d) tropical rainforests3: (a) thick fur4: (b) adaptations5: (b) Beard Ape6: (d) hibernation 7: (d) all of these 8: (c) Assam9: (a) humidity10: (c) white fur Q1: Fill the missing word in the blank spaces in the following statements: (a) Wind is _________ air. (b) Winds are generated due to ________ heating on the earth. (c) Near the earths surface __________air rises up whereas ___________ air comes down. (d) Air moves from a region of _________ pressure to a region of ___________ pressure. (e) Air around us exerts __________ in all directions. (f) Winds carrying ______________ bring rain. (g) Air _________ on heating while ________ on cooling. (h) A cyclone is called a __________ in the American continents and __________ in Japan and Philippines. (i) The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word _________, which means season. Answer: (a) moving(b) uneven(c) warm, cooler(d) high, low(e) pressure(f) water from oceans/rivers(g) expands, contracts(h) hurricane, typhoon(i) mausam Q2: What happens to the pressure of the wind if its speed is increased? Answer: When the speed of the wind is increases, it reduces the pressure of nearby region. Q3: Name the instrument used to measure the speed of wind. Answer: Anemometer. Q14: Which one of the following place is unlikely to be affected by a cyclone.(i) Chennai(ii) Mangaluru (Mangalore)(iii) Amritsar(iv) Puri Answer: (iii) Amritsar is least likely to be affected by a cyclone because the city does not lie near to any coastal area. Q15: Which of the statements given below is correct? (i) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean. (ii) In summer the winds flow from the land towards the ocean. (iii) A cyclone is formed by a very high-pressure system with very high-speed winds revolving around it. (iv) The coastline of India is not vulnerable to cyclones. Answer: Correct statement is - (i) In winter the winds flow from the land to the ocean.

Q16: Define Cyclone. Answer: A cyclone is a huge and powerful storm. A cyclone consists of a low pressure area with high pressure all around. High speed winds go around the centre violently and are accompanied by heavy rains. Q17: What is a tornado? Answer: A tornado is a violent, twisted funnel of high speed wind. It is formed when a funnel like column of cold air sinks down from a story cloud. Warm air rises up which whirls up causing high speed circulating winds. Q1(MCQ): In addition to the rock particles, the soil contains (a) air and water(b) water and plants(c) minerals, organic matter, air and water(d) water, air and plants Answer: (c) minerals, organic matter, air and water Q2(MCQ): The water holding capacity is the highest in (a) sandy soil(b) clayey soil(c) loamy soil(d) mixture of sand and loamAnswer: (b) clayey soil Q3(MCQ): Soil profile refers to an arrangement within a soil of (a) its horizontal layout(b) vertical layout(c) Size of soil particles(d) None of these Answer: (a) its horizontal layout Q4(MCQ): Which topsoil is best suited for growing plants (a) Sandy soil(b) Loamy Soil(c) Clayey Soil(d) None of theseAnswer: (b) Loamy Soil Q5(MCQ): Which soil horizon contains humus? (a) A-Horizon (b) B-Horizon(c) C-horizon(d) BedrockAnswer: (a) A-Horizon Q6: Match the items in Column I with those in Column II: Answer:Column I (i). A home for living organisms (ii). Upper layer of the soil (iii). Sandy soil (iv). Middle layer of the soil (v). Clayey soil Column II (b). All kinds of soil (c). Dark in colour (a). Large particles (e). Lesser amount of humus (d). Small particles and packed tight

Q9(NCERT): Tick the correct answer: (a) In cockroaches, air enters the body through(i) lungs (ii) gills(iii) spiracles(iv) skinAnswer: (iii) spiracles (b) During heavy exercise, we get cramps in the legs due to the accumulation of (i) carbon dioxide (ii) lactic acid(iii) alcohol(iv) water Answer: (ii) lactic acid (c) Normal range of breathing rate per minute in an average adult person at rest is: (i) 912 (ii) 1518(iii) 2124(iv) 3033 Answer: (ii) 1518 (d) During exhalation, the ribs(i) move outwards(ii) move downwards(iii) move upwards(iv) do not move at all Answer: (ii) (ii) move downwards (and inwards) Q10: Name the two steps in breathing. Answer: Breathing involves intake of oxygen-rich air and out-take of CO2-rich air. The two steps involved are: 1. Inhalation Exhalation

Q11(NCERT): Match the items in Column I with those in Column II: Answer: Column I a. Yeast b. Diaphragm c. Skin d. Leaves e. Fish f. Frog g. insects Column II (iii) Alcohol (iv) Chest cavity (i) Earthworm (v) Stomata (ii) Gills (vi) Lungs and skin (vii) Tracheae

Q12(NCERT): Mark T if the statement is true and F if it is false: (i) During heavy exercise the breathing rate of a person slows down. (T/F) (ii) Plants carry out photosynthesis only during the day and respiration only at night. (T/F) (iii) Frogs breathe through their skins as well as their lungs. (T/F) (iv) The fishes have lungs for respiration. (T/F) (v) The size of the chest cavity increases during inhalation. (T/F) Answer: (i) During heavy exercise the breathing rate of a person slows down. (False ) Explanation: During heavy exercise, more oxygen is required to meet extra demand of energy. Therefore breathing rate increases. (ii) Plants carry out photosynthesis only during the day and respiration only at night. (False ) Explanation: Photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. Respiration is a continuous process and occurs all the time (day and night). (iii) Frogs breathe through their skins as well as their lungs. (True ) (iv) The fishes have lungs for respiration. (False ) Explanation: Fishes breathe through gills. (v) The size of the chest cavity increases during inhalation. (True ) Q14(NCERT): The mountaineers carry oxygen with them because: (a) At an altitude of more than 5 km there is no air. (b) The amount of air available to a person is less than that available on the ground. (c) The temperature of air is higher than that on the ground. (d) The pressure of air is higher than that on the ground. Answer: (b) The amount of air available to a person is less than that available on the ground. Q15: Answer the following: (a) When does a person need artificial respiration? (b) From where can the person get supply of oxygen for artificial respiration? (c) Does the person need to be kept on artificial respiration temporarily or permanently? Answer: (a) During emergency conditions (e.g. fatal accidents, lungs failure etc.), lungs do not work properly, artificial respiration is required. (b) The person gets oxygen though an instrument called ventilator which act as artificial lungs. (c) The person is kept on artificial respiration temporarily. When a person regains his health and starts breathing naturally, artificial respiration is no longer required.

Q1(NCERT): Fill in the blanks. i. ii. The blood from the heart is transported to all parts of the body by the ___________________. Haemoglobin is present in ______________ cells.

iii. Arteries and veins are joined by a network of ______________. iv. The rhythmic expansion and contraction of the heart is called _________________. v. The main excretory product in human beings is _____________.

vi. Sweat contains water and _______________. vii. Kidneys eliminate the waste materials in the liquid form called _______________. viii. Water reaches great heights in the trees because of suction pull caused by _____________.

Answer: i. arteriesii. red blood cells (RBCs)iii. capillariesiv. vii. urineviii. transpiration. Q2: What do you mean by circulatory system? Answer: The organ system which consists of heart, blood vessels and blood together constitute the circulatory system. Q3(NCERT): Match structures given in Column I with functions given in Column II. Answer: (i) Stomata (ii) Xylem (b) Transpiration, (e) Synthesis of carbohydrates (d) Transport of water heartbeat v. ureavi. salt

(iii) Root hairs (a) Absorption of water (iv) Phloem (c) Transport of food

Q4: Name the scientist who discovered blood circulation. Answer: William Harvey Q5(NCERT):Choose the correct options: (a) In plants, water is transported through (i) Xylem(ii) Phloem(iii) Stomata(iv) Root hairAnswer: (i) Xylem (b) Water absorption through roots can be increased by keeping the plants (i) in the shade(ii) in dim light(iii) under the fan(iv) covered with a polythene bag Answer: (iii) under the fan Explanation: The wind speed because of fan will increase the transpiration process. More water is lost by the plants thus creating a higher suction pull.

Q10: Name the various transport systems present in human beings and mammals. Answer: Circulatory System Excretory System Q11(NCERT): What are stomata? Give two functions of stomata. Answer: Stomata are the tiny pores that present on the surface of leaves. The functions of stomata are: 1. The water evaporates through the stomata by the the process of transpiration. 2. Exchange of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen) also take place through stomata. These gases are used in photosynthesis and respiration process in the plants. Q12(NCERT): Does transpiration serve any useful function in the plants? Explain. Answer: 1. Transpiration of water from leaves creates a suction pull, due to which water rises up high in tall trees. 2. Transpiration also cools the plant. Q13: What does blood transport in human body? or Q(NCERT): Why is blood needed by all the parts of a body? Answer: Blood is a special type of fluid that flows in blood vessels. It transports the following: 1. 2. 3. 4. digested food from small intestine to other parts of the human body. oxygen from lungs to heart and then to other body cells. carbon dioxide from body cells to lungs via heart. nitrogenous waste from body cells to kidneys for excretion from the body.

Q14(NCERT): What are the components of blood? Answer: The main components of blood are: 1. 2. 3. 4. red blood cells (RBC) - carry oxygen white blood cells (WBC) - fight against germs. Platelets - help in clotting of blood Plasma - liquid part of blood, contains water. Carries digested food and other substances.

Q15: Which blood cells are part of our immune system? Answer: White blood cells (WBCs) Q16(NCERT): What makes the blood look red? Answer: The presence of red pigment called haemoglobin in red blood cells makes the blood look red. Q17: Name the device used by medical practitioners to listen heart beat of the patients. Answer: Stethoscope Q18: What are the different types of blood vessels found in our circulatory system? Answer: Arteries and veins. Q19: Name the instrument used to measure blood pressure. Answer: sphygmomanometer. Q21: Why do arteries have thick elastic walls? Answer: Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to all parts of the body. The blood flow is is rapid and at a high pressure, that's why arteries have thick elastic walls. Q22: Do arteries always carry oxygen-rich blood? Answer: Except pulmonary artery, all arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. Pulmonary artery carries carbon dioxide rich blood from heart to lungs.

Q23: Name the only vein which carry oxygen-rich blood? Answer: It is the pulmonary vein which carry oxygen-rich blood from lungs to heart. All other veins carry carbon dioxide rich blood. Q24: What is a pulse? Answer: The throbbing movement due to blood flowing in arteries is called pulse. Q25: What do we call the study of blood? Answer: Haematology Q26: Name the largest artery in human body. Answer: Aorta Q27: Sometime doctors inject medicines directly in our bloodstream. Where do they inject in artery or in vein? Answer: In vein. Vein are superficial and are easily locatable. Second medicine needs to be transported to all parts of the body. Through veins, medicine reaches heart and then pumped to all over the body.

Q28: What is heart beat? Name the instrument used to provide information about heart beats. Answer: One complete contraction and relaxation of heart makes one heart beat. Electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to check rhythm of heart beats. Q29: What is the function of blood capillaries? Answer: The network of blood capillaries form a junction between arteries and veins. At these junctions, the exchange of gases, food materials and metabolic wastes take place. Q1: Fill in the blanks Answer: (a) Production of new individuals from the vegetative part of parent is called_vegetative propagation_. (b) A flower may have either male or female reproductive parts. Such a flower is called_ unisexual flower_. (c) The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or of another flower of the same kind is known as _pollination__. (d) The fusion of male and female gametes is termed as _fertilization___. (e) Seed dispersal takes place by means of _wind__, __water_ and _animals_. (f) Asexual reproduction in spirogyra is an example of _fragmentation__. (g) Mosses, Ferns, Moulds etc. reproduce by _spores___ formation. Q11: Tick () the correct answer Answer: (a) The reproductive part of a plant is the (i) leaf (ii) stem (iii) root (iv) flower (b) The process of fusion of the male and the female gametes is called (i) fertilisation (ii) pollination (iii) reproduction (iv) seed formation (c) Mature ovary forms the (i) seed (ii) stamen (iii) pistil (iv) fruit (d) A spore producing plant is (i) rose (ii) bread mould (iii) potato (iv) ginger (e) Bryophyllum can reproduce by its (i) stem (ii) leaves (iii) roots(iv) flower

Q1(MCQ/NCERT): The basic unit of speed is: (a) km/min(b) m/min(c) km/h(d) m/sAnswer: (d) m/s Q2(MCQ): A faster moving object covers: (a) Less distance in more time(b) More distance in more time (c) Less distance in shorter time(d) More distance in shorter time Answer: (d) More distance in shorter time Q3(MCQ): If the an object moving along a straight line, keeps changing its speed then,(a) The motion is said to be a uniform motion (b) The motion is said to be a non uniform motion (c) The object is said to be stationary(d) The motion is said to be a fast motion Answer: (b) The motion is said to be a non uniform motion Q4(MCQ/NCERT): Which of the following relations is correct? (a) Speed = Distance Time(b) Speed = Distance Time (c) Speed = Time Distance(d) Speed = 1/(Distance Time) Answer: (b) Speed = Distance Time Q5(MCQ/NCERT): A car moves with a speed of 40 km/h for 15 minutes and then with a speed of 60 km/h for the next 15 minutes. The total distance covered by the car is: (a) 100 km(b) 25 km(c) 15 km(d) 10 km Answer: (b) 25 km Distance = Speed Time 15 minutes = 15/60 = 0.25 hours Distance Covered in first 15 min or 0.25 hours (D1) = 40 0.25 =10.00 km Distance Covered in next 15 min or 0.25 hours (D2) = 60 0.25 =15.00 km Total Distance Covered = D1 + D2 = 10 + 15 = 25 km Q6(MCQ): 72 km/hr is same as (a) 72 m/s(b) 7.2 m/s(c) 200 m/s(d) 20 m/sAnswer: (d) 20 m/s 72km/hr = 72 1000m / 3600 seconds = 20m/s Q7(MCQ/NCERT): Which of the following distance-time graphs shows a truck moving with speed which is not constant?

Answer: (c).

Q8(NCERT): Classify the following as motion along a straight line, circular or oscillatory motion: (i) Motion of your hands while running.(ii) Motion of a horse pulling a cart on a straight road. (iii) Motion of a child in a merry-go-round.(iv) Motion of a child on a see-saw. (v) Motion of the hammer of an electric bell.(vi) Motion of a train on a straight bridge. Answer: (i) Oscillatory(ii) Straight Line(iii) Circular(iv) Oscillatory(v) Oscillatory(vi) Straight Line

Q9(MCQ): The time interval between two consecutive sunrises is known as a (a) Month(b) Year(c) Day(d) IntervalAnswer: (c) Day Q10NCERT): Which of the following are not correct? (i) The basic unit of time is second. (ii) Every object moves with a constant speed. (iii) Distances between two cities are measured in kilometres. (iv) The time period of a given pendulum is not constant. (v) The speed of a train is expressed in m/h. (vi) A nanosecond is one billionth of a second. (vii) The time taken by the pendulum to complete one oscillation is called its time period. (viii) An hourglass is used to measure the movement of the Sun to compute time. Answer: (i) True ()(ii) False () Different objects have different speeds. (iii) True ()(iv) False () The time period of a given pendulum is fixed. (v) False () The speed of train is usually expressed in km/hr or miles/hr. (vi) True ()(vii) True ()(viii) False () Q11NCERT): A simple pendulum takes 32 s to complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period of the pendulum? Answer: Time Period = Total Time Taken No. of Oscillations No. of Oscillations = 20 Total Duration = 32s Time Period = 32 20 = 1.6s Q12(NCERT): The distance between two stations is 240 km. A train takes 4 hours to cover this distance. Calculate the speed of the train. Answer: Distance between two stations = 240 km Time taken by train to cover the distance = 4 hours Speed = Distance Time Speed of Train = 240 / 4 = 60 km/hour. Q13(NCERT): The odometer of a car reads 57321.0 km when the clock shows the time 08:30 AM. What is the distance moved by the car, if at 08:50 AM, the odometer reading has changed to 57336.0 km? Calculate the speed of the car in km/min during this time. Express the speed in km/h also. Answer: Odometer reading at 8.30 AM ( O1) = 57321.0 km Odometer reading at 8.50 AM (O2) = 57336.0 km Distance covered by car = O2 - O2 = 57336.0 - 57321.0 = 15 Km Time interval between 8.30 AM to 8.50 AM = 20 min. Speed of car = Distance Time = 15km 20 min = 0.75 km/min 1 Hr = 60 min. Speed of Car in km/hr = 0.75 60 = 45 km/hr.

Q14(NCERT): Salma takes 15 minutes from her house to reach her school on a bicycle. If the bicycle has a speed of 2 m/s, calculate the distance between her house and the school. Answer: Distance = Speed Time Speed of the bicycle = 2 m/s Time taken to reach school = 15 min = 15 60seconds = 900s Distance = 2 900 = 1800 m = 1800/1000Km = 1.8 Km Q15(NCERT): Show the shape of the distance-time graph for the motion in the following cases: (i) A car moving with a constant speed. (ii) A car parked on a side road. Answer: (i) A car moving with a constant speed. When a car moves with a constant speed, it will cover equal distance in equal intervals of time. In a distancetime graph it is a straight line inclined to time-axis.

(ii) A car parked on a side road. A car parked means, the car is not moving at all. It is at rest. The distance-time graph will be a horizontal line parallel to time-axis.

Q17(NCERT): Figure below shows the distance-time graph for the motion of two vehicles A and B. Which one of them is moving faster?

Answer: The steeper the line, greater the speed. Vehicle A moves faster than B.

Q18: Rohan covers a distance of 10 km by running with uniform speed of 4.5 km/hr. Sohan runs 1.2 km in 15 minutes. Who runs faster? Answer: Let us compare the speed of these two persons. Rohans's speed = 4.5 km/hr 15 mins = 15/60 = 0.25 hrs Sohan's Speed = Distance/Time = 1.2km/0.25 = 1.2 4 = 4.8 km/hr Therefore, Sohan's speed is higer than Rohan. Q1: Which of the following instrument measures time with the most accuracy? (a) sun dial(b) sand clock(c) quartz clock(d) mechanical clock with gears Q2: The basic unit of speed is: (a) km/min(b) m/min(c) km/h(d) m/s Q3: A faster moving object covers: (a) Less distance in more time(b) More distance in more time(c) Less distance in shorter time (d) More distance in shorter time Q4: 36 km/hr can also be expressed as: (a) 10 m/s(b) 3.6 m/s(c) 100 m/s(d) 36 m/s Q5: If the an object moving along a straight line, keeps changing its speed then, (a) The motion is said to be a uniform motion(b) The motion is said to be a non uniform motion (c) The object is said to be stationary(d) The motion is said to be a fast motion Q6: The motion that repeats itself after regular intervals of time can be ___ ( Find the incorrect option). (a) To and Fro Motion(b) Circular Motion(c) Rectilinear Motion(d) Periodic Motion Q7: The metallic ball in a pendulum is called as _______ (a) Gong(b) Fork(c) Rod(d) Bob

Q8: Which of the following relations is correct? (a) Speed = Distance Time(b) Speed = Distance Time(c) Speed = Time Distance (d) Speed = 1/(Distance Time) Q9: Which of the following is a scalar quantity? (a) Distance(b) Displacement(c) Velocity(d) Force Q10: The meter that is used to measure the distance moved by the vehicle is known as _____ (a) Speedometer(b) Odometer(c) Chronometer(d) Ammeter Answers: 1: (c) quartz clock2: (d) m/s3: (d) More distance in shorter time4: (a) 10 m/s5: (b) The motion is said to be a non uniform motion6: (c) Rectilinear Motion7: (d) Bob8: (b) Speed = Distance Time9: (a) Distance 10: (b) Odometer

Q2: Draw the circuit diagram to represent the circuit shown in Fig. below.

Answer: The circuit diagram is showing switch in OFF position:

Q3: Fig.below shows four cells fixed on a board. Draw lines to indicate how you will connect their terminals with wires to make a battery of four cells.

Answer: To obtain maximum voltage, cells are connected in series i.e. negative(-) end of one cell is connected to positive (+) end of another cell and so on.

Q4: The bulb in the circuit shown in Fig.14.23 does not glow. Can you identify the problem? Make necessary changes in the circuit to make the bulb glow.

Answer: In the circuit, cells are not connected properly i.e. (+ve) terminal is connected to +ve terminal of another cell. To make the connection closed, the negative terminal of first cell be connected to positive terminal of second cell, as shown below.

Q8: Fill in the blanks: Answer: (a) Longer line in the symbol for a cell represents its positive terminal. (b) The combination of two or more cells is called a battery. (c) When current is switched on in a room heater, it becomes hot due to heating effect of electric current. (d) The safety device based on the heating effect of electric current is called a fuse. Q9: Mark T if the statement is true and F if it is false: Answer:(a) To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cell. (F) (b) When the electric current through the fuse exceeds a certain limit, the fuse wire melts and breaks.(T) (c) An electromagnet does not attract a piece of iron. (F) (d) An electric bell has an electromagnet. (T) Q10: Do you think an electromagnet can be used for separating plastic bags from a garbage heap? Explain Answer: An electromagnet acts like an ordinary magnet and it can attract iron pieces only. Plastic does not have any magnetic property. Electromagnet cannot be used to separate plastic bags from garbage heap.

Q11: An electrician is carrying out some repairs in your house. He wants to replace a fuse by a piece of wire. Would you agree? Give reasons for your response. Answer: Fuses are devices that safeguard our electrical appliances, wiring. They are made up of special material which melt quickly and break when large electric currents are passed through them. If the electrician does not use proper fuse wire, instead he uses any ordinary electric wire as fuse, it increases the risk of overheating of wires due to flow of excessive current. It may lead to short circuit in electric equipments and these appliances may catch fire. It is advised to use standard fuse wire or MCBs carrying ISI mark. Q12: Zubeda made an electric circuit using a cell holder shown in Fig., a switch and a bulb. When she put the switch in the ON position, the bulb did not glow. Help Zubeda in identifying the possible defects in the circuit.

Answer: Following can be the possible reasons: 1. The bulb may be fused due to broken element. 2. Cells are not connected properly i.e. +ve terminal of first cell should connect to -ve terminal of the second one. 3. There may be loose connections. e.g. wire is not connected properly to switch or to the bulb. 4. The switch is not functioning well. 5. The cells are dried up. The power of the cell i.e. chemical inside the cell which produces electric current has been exhausted. Q13:In the circuit shown below

(i) Would any of the bulb glow when the switch is in the OFF position? (ii) What will be the order in which the bulbs A, B and C w ill glow when the switch is moved to the ON position?Answer:(i) None of the bulb will glow when the witch is in the OFF position, since the electric circuit is not closed. (ii) When the switch is moved to 'ON' position, circuit is complete and electric current will flow immediately. All of the bulbs will glow instantly.

Q14: Why CFL is considered better than filament based electric bulb? Answer: In comparison to electric bulb, CFL (Compact Fluorescent Lamp) produces very less amount of heat energy and thus reduces the energy wastage. That's why CFL are more environment friendly and are considered better alternative to electric bulbs. Q15: What are MCBs? Answer: MCBs or Miniature circuit breakers (MCBs) are electric safety devices being used in place of fuses. These are kind of switches which turns off (breaks electric circuit) automatically when excessive current flows due to short circuit. Q16: Name the scientist who discovered magnetic effect of the current. Answer: Hans Christian Oersted was the first person who noticed the deflection of compass needle every time, when the current was passed through the wire. Q17: What are the reasons for excessive current flowing through a circuit? Answer: Short circuit: Due to faulty insulation or overheating, live wire comes in contact with neutral wire.

Overloading: Many electric devices are connected beyond the capacity of electric circuit. Q18: Name the material used as heating element in an electric iron. Answer: Nichrome. Q19: Name the element used as filament in electric bulb. Answer: Tungsten. Q20: What is a circuit diagram? Answer: The representation of electric circuit by using electric symbols instead of electric components images is called circuit diagram. Q21: What are the factors of conducting wire on which amount of heat produced depends? Answer: Length, thickness and nature of material. 1. With increase in length of wire, increases the amount of heat produced. 2. With increase in thickness of wire, less amount of heat is produced. 3. Good conductors produce less amount of heat while bad conductors (e.g. Nichrome) produce more heat Q22: What is the SI unit of electric current? Answer: Ampere (A) Q23: Name the instrument used to measure electric current. Answer: Ammeter. Q24: How does electric cell produce current? Answer: An electric cell stores some chemicals and their chemical energy gets converted to electrical energy. Q25(MCQ): The unit to measure electric resistance is: (a) Joule(b) Ohm(c) Ampere(d) VoltAnswer: (b) Ohm Q26(MCQ): The device used to make or break an electric circuit is : (a) Resistor(b) Battery(c) Switch(d) AmmeterAnswer: (c) Switch Question1: Fill in the blanks a. An image that cannot be obtained on a screen is called ______. b. Image formed by a convex _______ is always virtual and smaller in size. c. An image formed by a __________ mirror is always of the same size as that of the object. d. An image which can be obtained on a screen is called a _________ image. e. An image formed by a concave ___________ cannot be obtained on a screen. Answers: 1 a) virtual imageb) convex mirrorc) planed) reale) concave lens

Question2: Mark T if the statement is true and F if it is false: (a) We can obtain an enlarged and erect image by a convex mirror. (T/F) (b) A concave lens always form a virtual image. (T/F) (c) We can obtain a real, enlarged and inverted image by a concave mirror. (T/F) (d) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen. (T/F) (e) A concave mirror always form a real image. (T/F) Answers: a-false b-true c-true d-false e-false Question 3: Match the following: Column 1 Column 2

(a) A plane mirror (i) Used as a magnifying glass. (b) A convex mirror (c) A convex lens (d) A concave mirror (e) A concave lens (ii) Can form image of objects spread over a large area. (iii) Used by dentists to see enlarged image of teeth. (iv) The image is always inverted and magnified. (v) The image is erect and of the same size as the object. (vi) The image is erect and smaller in size than the object. Answers: a-(v) b-(ii) and (vi) c-(i) d-(iii) e-(iv)

Question 4: State the characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror. Answer: 1. Image is Virtual 2. It is behind the mirror 3. Image is erect (means not inverted) 4. Image is of same size as the object 5. Image is at same distance from the mirror as the object is from the mirror. Q1: When 'World Water Day' is celebrated? Answer: March 22nd. Q2: What is the main objective of celebrating 'Water Day'? Answer: We celebrate water day every year to attract the attention of everybody towards the importance of conserving water.

Q3: How much much amount of water is recommended by UN for daily use by a person? Answer: The amount of water recommended by the United Nations for drinking, washing, cooking and maintaining proper hygiene is a minimum of 50 litres per person per day. This amount is about two and a half buckets of water per person per day. Q4: How much water in percentage is fit for human for consumption? Answer: 0.006% Q5(NCERT): Mark T if the statement is true and F if it is false: Answer: (a) The freshwater stored in the ground is much more than that present in the rivers and lakes of the world. (True ) (b) Water shortage is a problem faced only by people living in rural areas. (False ) Explanation: Water shortage problem is faced by both people living in rural and in urban areas. (c) Water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields. (False ) Explanation: Rivers, Canals, Wells, Tubewells are main sources for irrigation. (d) Rain is the ultimate source of water. (True ) Explanation: Rainwater recharges underground water and refills ponds and lakes. That's why rainwater harvesting is recommended to address water scarcity Q17(NCERT): Fill in the blanks with the appropriate answers: Answer: (a) People obtain groundwater through _wells__ and _tubewells__. (b) Three forms of water are _solid__, _liquid__ and _gas/vapour__. (c) The water bearing layer of the earth is _water table__. (d) The process of water seepage into the ground is called _infiltration_. Q18(NCERT): Which one of the following is not responsible for water shortage? (i) Rapid growth of industries(ii) Increasing population(iii) Heavy rainfall(iv) Mismanagement of water resources Answer: (iii) Heavy rainfall Q19(NCERT): Choose the correct option. The total water (i) in the lakes and rivers of the world remains constant. (ii) under the ground remains constant. (iii) in the seas and oceans of the world remains constant. (iv) of the world remains constant. Answer: (iv) of the world remains constant. Q22: What is a baoli? Answer: Baoli or Bawri is a structure which was used traditionally in India to store rainwater and recharge groundwater. Now-a-days it is voiced to revive this practice as a part of rain water harvesting. Q7: Fill in the blank: Answer: (a) The insects, butterflies, honeybees and birds help flowering plants in pollination. (b) A forest is a purifier of air and water. (c) Herbs form the lowest layer in the forest. (d) The decaying leaves and animal droppings in a forest enrich the soil. (e) Decomposers convert dead plants and animals into _humus_. (f) Tall trees which look like roof over other plants in the forest is called canopy. (g) A food _web_ is made up of several connected food chains Q11(MCQ): Which of the following is not a forest product? (i) Gum(ii) Plywood(iii) Sealing wax(iv) KeroseneAnswer: (iv) Kerosene

Q12(MCQ): Which of the following statements is not correct? (i) Forests protect the soil from erosion. (ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another. (iii) Forests influence the climate and water cycle. (iv) Soil helps forests to grow and regenerate. Answer: (ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another. Q13: Micro-organisms act upon the dead plants to produce (i) sand(ii) mushrooms(iii) humus(iv) woodAnswer: (iii) humus Q1: Fill in the blanks: Answer: (a) Cleaning of water is a process of removing _pollutants_. (b) Wastewater released by houses is called _sewage_. (c) Dried _sludge__ is used as manure. (d) Drains get blocked by _cooking oil__ and _fats__. (e) Wastewater is treated in a sewage treatment plant. (f) Septic tanks, chemical toilets, composting pits are the examples of low cost sewage disposal systems. Q15: Study the following statements about ozone: (a) It is essential for breathing of living organisms.(b) It is used to disinfect water. (c) It absorbs ultraviolet rays.(d) Its proportion in air is about 3%. Which of these statements are correct? (i) (a), (b) and (c)(ii) (b) and (c)(iii) (a) and (d)(iv) All fourAnswer: (b) and (c) Q1: Which of the following is an energy giving food? (a) Bread(b) Pulses(c) Fish(d) Green Vegetables Q2: Roughage helps (a) in preventing infectious diseases(b) in providing energy to body (c) in growing our body.(d) in pushing food through stomach and intenstine Q3: Which of the following is a process of water purification? (a) evaporation(b) decantation(c) distillation(d) filtration Q4: Which of the following does not occur during an cyclone? (a) Heavy Rain(b) Earth Tremors(c) Fire(d) Strong Winds Q5: Weight-lifters are generally required to make more muscles and body mass. For this purpose, they need to take a diet which is rich in (a) Carbohydrates(b) Fats(c) Vitamins(d) Proteins Q6: Sorter's disease is associated with: (a) Cotton industry(b) Wool industry(c) Silk industry(d) None of the above.

Q7: A faster moving object covers: (a) Less distance in more time(b) More distance in more time(c) Less distance in shorter time (d) More distance in shorter time Q8: Which one of the following pairs of life processes occurs both in plants and animals? (a) Reproduction and food making(b) Reproduction and germination (c) Growth and reproduction(d) Growth and food making Q9: In which of the following phases is the moon not visible at all? (a) Crescent Moon(b) Gibbous Moon(c) Full Moon(d) New Moon Q10: A Shooting Star is a (a) shining object which moves with a constant speed in the atmosphere (b) star with a tail at the end (c) meteoroid which catches fire as it enters the Earths atmosphere (d) star which moves with a constant speed Q11: Which of the following is a second class lever? (a) Pliers(b) Bottle opener(c) Scissors(d) Tweezers Q12: The most common example of periodic motion is (a) Digital clock(b) Moving car(c) Movement of a pedestrian(d) Simple Pendulum Q13: Mira and Divya are young girls. Mira likes to eat samosas, cutlets and bread. Divya, on the other hand, takes an iron deficient diet. Which of the following disorders are Mira and Divya likely to suffer from, respectively?

(a) Obesity and scurvy(b) Scurvy and anaemia(c) Anaemia and night blindness(d) Obesity and anaemia Q14: Which is the longest bone in the body? (a) Femur(b) Humerus(c) Spinal Cord(d) Calf bone Q15: A farmer wanted to separate the grains from the chaff. This can be achieved by the process called (a) Threshing(b) Winnowing(c) Harvesting(d) Handpicking Answers: 1: (a) Bread (carbohydrate)2: (d) in pushing food through stomach and intenstine 3: (a) evaporation4: (b) Earth Tremors5: (d) Proteins6: (b) Wool industry7: (d) More distance in shorter time 8: (c) Growth and reproduction9: (d) New Moon10: (c) meteoroid which catc hes fire as it enters the Earths atmosphere 11: (b) Bottle opener12: (d) Simple Pendulum13: (d) Obesity and anaemia14: (a) Femur15: (a) Threshing

NTSE (SAT Quiz-3) Q1: Which of the following is an antibiotic? a. Aspirin b. Penicillin c. Paracetamol d. Sulphadizine Q2: Digestion of food starts in: a. mouth b. liver c. stomach d. intestines Q3: By taking the pulse rate of the human body, a doctor determines a. heartbeat b. functioning of heart valves c. condition of lever d. functioning of lungs Q4: A thermostat is used to a. purify air b. regulate humidity c. regulate temperature d. regulate air pressur Q5: Heat from the sun reaches the earth by a. reflection b. conduction c. convection d. radiation Q6: Dew forms most readily on nights that are: a. calm and clear b. stormy c. windy d. cloudy Q7: The full moon rises in the a. east b. west c. south d. north Q8: An aeroplane is able to fly because a. it is lighter than air b. it is heavier than air c. it is made up of very light material d. moving air can lift objects Q9: The souring of milk is caused by the action of a. protozoan b. bacteria c. virus d. fungus Q10. The smallest thing that can cause disease in the human body is a. flea b. bacteria c. protozoa d. virus Q11: The most abundant gas in the air is: a. oxygen b. carbon dioxide c. nitrogen d. hydrogen Q12: Which element is common between brass and bronze a. copper b. Iron c. Zinc d. Aluminium Q13: The densest element known so far is a. gold b. mercury c. osmium d. tungsten Q14: The most ductile element is a. gold b. silver c. iron d. aluminium Q15: The metal having highest melting point is a. chromium b. tungsten c. diamond d. silver Answers: 1-b 2-a 3-a 4-c 5-d 6-a 11-c 12-a 13-c 14-a 15-b 7-a 8-d 9-b 10-d